Survey
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
History of virology wikipedia , lookup
Germ theory of disease wikipedia , lookup
Globalization and disease wikipedia , lookup
Virus quantification wikipedia , lookup
Bacterial morphological plasticity wikipedia , lookup
Staphylococcus aureus wikipedia , lookup
Marine microorganism wikipedia , lookup
Transmission (medicine) wikipedia , lookup
Microbiology 1. Mannitol salt agar is used to detect which of the following a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus – detected by blood agar c. Gonococcus d. Fungi 2. Deoxyribonuclease in a medium inhibits which of the following: a. Transformation – transfer of naked DNA from donor cell to recipient cell and then recombination b. Transduction – transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage c. Sexduction d. Transintegration 3. Negri bodies are inclusion bodies seen in which of the following diseases: a. Parkinson’s disease – Lewey bodies b. Rheumatic fever – Aschoff bodies c. Smallpox – Guarneri bodies d. Rabies 4. Which of the following is the major advantage of passively acquired immunity a. Slow onset b. Lifetime resistance c. Rapidly available protection d. Less possibility of a hypersensitivity reaction Active artificial – injection of antigen? Active natural – exposure to the pathogen Artificial passive – injection of antibodies; snake venom Natural passive – natural, but we don’t make antibodies; mother’s milk; through placenta 5. Which of the following cells release interleukin 2? a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes – release interleukin 12 and TNF alpha (tumor necrosis factor alpha) c. Macrophages – interleukin 1, 12, and TNF alpha d. Natural killer cells – lysosomes release “deadly killer stuff” Interleukin 2 is T cell growth factor 6. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus: a. Diphtheria – caused by bacteria, Corynebacterium diphtheriae b. Tetanus – caused by bacteria c. Malaria – caused by protozoa, Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium falsiparum d. Measles – rubeola; rubella is German measles 7. The term used to designate the complete destruction of all microorganisms that are present is: a. Sanitization – not all organisms are killed; the product is just clean; remove what they can, but don’t sanitize it; food and dairy industries b. Sterilization – does not destroy prions c. Antisepsis – retards organism growth d. Disinfection – destruction of infectious agents 8. Fluid from a fever blister is most apt to contain a. Varicella zoster – chicken pox b. Staphylococcus aureus – responsible for 90% of bacterial infections on skin; pus forming (yellow) c. Candida albicans – thrush; yeast infection; very common in aids patients d. Herpes simplex virus type I e. Herpes zoster – shingles 9. Which group of bacteria are considered to be acid fast: a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Mycobacterium d. Clostridium Waxy coat 10. Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Clostridium perfringes d. Mycobacteia tuberculosis 11. Which of the following organisms lacks a cell wall: a. Mycobacterium b. Klebsiella c. Streptococcus d. Mycoplasma – has a very thin cell membrane, and doesn’t stain gram + or gram 12. The term peritrichous refers to the distribution pattern of which of the following: a. Endospore b. Pili c. Flagella d. Ribosome 13. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Yaws? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Treponema pallidum c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Treponema pertenue – for syphilis; a spirochete Yaws is non-venerial syphilis? 14. Which of the following conditions presents with loss of electrolytes due to rapid loss of fluids: a. Plague – Yersinia pestis b. Cholera c. Ulcerative colitis – blood in the stool d. Osteomyelitis – infection of bone; usually Staph aureus Vibrio cholera produces rice water stools 15. Which of the following is not related to an immune reaction: a. T cells b. B cells c. Macrophages d. Neutroph 16. Which of the following processes is responsible for the control of the spread of Brucellosis: a. Milk pasteurization b. Animal quarantine c. Wearing shoes d. Washing hands 17. Reye’s syndrome is a rare complication of which of the following diseases a. Measles b. Influenza – with aspirin c. Streptococcal pneumonia d. Staphylococcal bronchogenic pneumonia 18. Which of the following type of immunoglobulin is found in a Type I hypersensitivity reaction: a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM 19. Which of the following is an example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction: a. Bronchial asthma b. Blood transfusion – Type II c. Rheumatoid arthritis – Type III d. Contact dermatitis – Type IV 20. Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the gastric mucosa a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM 21. Methyl gas is a waste product of water treatment and may be a cause of cancer of the _____________. a. Kidney b. Lung c. Bladder d. Colon 22. Which of the following types of vaccine is used to vaccinate persons at high risk for tuberculosis: a. Live attenuated virus of Mycobacterium bovis b. Tuberculosis toxoid c. Inactivated virus d. Live attenuated virus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis 23. At the present time there is no vaccine for which of the following conditions: a. Rhinovirus b. Rubeola c. Rubella d. Variola 24. Penicillin, cephalosporin and bacitracin act on which part of the cell: a. Cell wall b. Cell membrane c. Nucleic acid synthesis d. Protein synthesis 25. Thoroughly cooking pork is important to prevent ____________. a. Trichinella spiralis b. Taenia saginata – beef c. Enterobius vermicularis – common pinworm; scotch tape is classic test d. Ascariasis lumbricoides – roundworm; transmitted oral-fecal 26. Which of the following cells is present in an antibody to antigen reaction: a. B lymphocyte b. T lymphocyte c. Neutrophil d. Lymphocyte e. This is a bad question 27. Which of the following is not a clinical reaction to a Type IV reaction: a. Graft rejection b. Arthus reaction – Type III c. Tumor rejection d. Contact dermatitis 28. Coliform organisms are used to detect water pollution because they are _____________: a. Rapid reproducers b. Important pathogens c. Lactose fermenters d. Abundant in human intestines 29. Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM 30. Which of the following immunoglobulins activates a Type II hypersensitivity reaction: a. IgG and IgM 31. Which of the following organisms produces both endotoxins and exotoxins: a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Shigella dysentery – aka baciliary dysentery; gram – with endothelial toxin and an exotoxin (enterotoxin) c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Cornybacterium diphtheria 32. Which of the following terms is assocated with the removal of solid waste during the water treatment process: a. Aeration – adds oxygen to water b. Sludge c. Chlorination – adds chlorine d. Sedimentation – allowing suspended solids (crap) to settle out 33. Exotoxins cause a pathological reaction in which of the following diseases: a. Chicken pox b. Diphtheria c. Streptococcal sore throat d. Yellow fever 34. The causative agent of pink eye is Haemophilus ______________. a. Ducreyi – chancroid b. Pertussis – whooping cough c. Influenza – H. influenza is a bacteria, not the flu virus d. Aegyptius 35. Which element in chlorofluorocarbon is most responsible for the depletion of ozone: a. Fluoride b. Chlorine c. Hydrogen d. Carbon 36. Which of the following is associated with an airborne carcinogen a. Nitrous oxide b. Carbon monoxide c. Sulfate d. Benzopyrene 37. The causative organisms of amoebic dysentery in humans is: a. Balantidium coli b. Giardia lamblia – beaver fever c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Salmonella typhosa 38. The cyst is the infectious stage in the larvae of _________________. a. Giardia lamblia – quadra nucleated cyst is the infectious stage b. Enterobius vermicularis – pinworm; eggs are infectious c. Ascariasis lumbricoides – eggs; roundworm d. Necatur americanus – hookworm; filiform larvae 39. Which of the following is the causative organism of gas gangrene: a. Clostridium tetani – tetanus; lock jaw b. Clostridium perfringes c. Staphylococcus aureus – 90% of skin infections d. Clostridium botulinum – food poisoning 40. Which of the following is most responsible for botulism in an infant: a. Raw honey b. Raw milk c. Raw sewage d. Rusted nails 41. Which of the following diseases has been eliminated from society: a. Rubella – German measles b. Rubeola – red measles c. Varicella – chicken pox and shingles d. Variola – small pox 42. If there is RNA in the medium, which recombinant process will be halted: a. Transduction b. Conjugation c. Transcription d. Sexduction 43. Which of the following cells secretes histamine: a. Lymphocytes b. Eosinophils c. Basophils d. Neutrophils 44. Which of the following best describes the effect on the cellular membrane when treated with warm moist heat: a. Cell lysis b. Denaturation of protein c. Cell swelling d. Cell shrinkage 45. Which of the following forms of hepatitis occurs as a result of a transfusion: a. A b. B c. C d. E A – mouth; oral-fecal B – blood C – blood D – blood E – bum; oral-fecal 46. Which of the following Federal agencies is responsible for laboratory experiment standards: a. NIH 47. The ELISA test is used in the diagnosis of which of the following: a. TB – Mantoux; acid fast stain b. Chicken pox c. Hepatitis d. AIDS 48. Which of the following Federal agencies is responsible for establishing standards in a work environment? a. NIH b. CDC c. OSHA d. Department of Agriculture 49. Which of the following organisms is described as pear shaped, has double nuclei and four pairs of flagella a. Giardia b. Plasma toxin c. Escherichia coli – 3 pairs of flagella; common in UTI’s d. Chlamydia – leading cause of preventable blindness in the world 50. Which of the following agencies is responsible for funding of research: a. NIH b. CDC c. EPA d. FDA 51. Which of the following pioneers discovered that washing your hands prior to gynecological examination of women in labor could prevent puerperal sepsis a. Semelweis b. Lister c. Pasteur d. Koch 52. Which of the following organisms is predominant in the San Joaquin Valley: a. Coccidioides immitis – systemic fungal infections; endemic to SW USA; “Mr. Fungus cocks his gun in the SW” b. Treponema pallidum c. Taenia solium – tapeworm d. Taenia Saginata – tapeworm 53. Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by means of a blood smear: a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Entamoeba histolytica – intestinal protazoa c. Escherichia coli d. Giardia lamblia 54. Which part of bacterial alteration is used to induce an immune reaction on the part of the body to pneumonia a. Capsule b. Toxoid c. Lipopolysaccharide d. Cell wall 55. Which of the following is responsible for atypical primary pneumonia a. Mycoplamsa pneumoniae – has no cell wall; penicillin is not effective b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Legionella pneumoniae d. Chlamydia psittici 56. A mycologist studies which of the following: a. Fungus b. Bacteria c. Virus d. Protozoa 57. Which of the following is considered to be a fish tapeworm? a. Taenia solium – pork b. Taenia saginata – beef c. Diphyllobothrium latum d. Echinococcus granulose – dog 58. The most common mode of transmission of disease among farmers is: a. Direct contact b. Molded grass c. Fomites d. Inhalation 59. Which of the following diseases presents with ataxia, hypotonia, hypotonic bladder and hypesthesia in the lower limbs: a. Syringomyelin b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Tabes dorsalis – tertiary syphilis d. Poliomyelitis 60. Diphylobatirum latum is a cause of which of the following: a. Pernicious anemia b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 61. Legionnaires disease is transmitted by which of the following: a. Drinking water b. Food c. Droplets d. Inhalation 62. Which of the following causes Woolsorter’s disease a. Drinking polluted water b. Ingestion of beef c. Ingestion of pork d. Inhalation of dust from animal dander 63. Which of the following organisms produces blue green pus: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Serratia marcescens d. Staphylococcus aureus 64. Which of the following is the vector of malaria a. Deer tick b. Female anopheles mosquito c. Aedes aegypti mosquito d. Tse Tse fly 65. Which of the following organisms is not transmitted through milk: a. Coxiella burnetti b. Salmonella typhosa c. Brucella abortus d. Francisella tularensis 66. Which of the following organisms produces a fowl smelling discharge: a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Escherichia coli c. Neisseria gonorrhea d. Chlamydia trachomatis 67. Generalized urethritis is associated with which of the following organisms a. Candida albicans b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Neisseria gonorrhea d. Neisseria meningitides 68. Which of the following is a gram negative organism: a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Escherichia coli