Download EvolPract 2014

EvolPract
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. The Galápagos finch species are an excellent example of
a. genetic equilibrium.
c. stabilizing selection.
b. speciation.
d. selection on single-gene traits.
2. Which of the following is an advantage sampling some individuals in a data set and calculating a mean and a
standard deviation rather than sampling an entire population?
a. It would be impossible to see if natural
c. It would usually be impossible to sample
selection is happening in a population
an entire population
b. The standard deviation loses meaning as d. The mean becomes less accurate as your
you increase your sample size
sample size increases
3. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most
biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of
a. the needs of the organisms.
c. a common ancestor.
b. the inheritance of acquired traits.
d. the struggle for existence.
4. Which type of symbiosis is two organisms both enjoying a fitness advantage through their relationship?
a. commensalism
c. Buddhism
b. parasitism
d. mutualism
5. The idea that only famine, disease, and war could prevent the endless growth of human populations was
presented by
a. Lyell.
c. Darwin.
b. Lamarck.
d. Malthus.
6. Why did the development of sexual reproduction speed up the process of evolution?
a. The offspring of sexual reproduction are identical to their parents.
b. Sexual reproduction limits genetic variety.
c. Sexual reproduction occurs more rapidly than asexual reproduction.
d. Sexual reproduction increases genetic variety.
7. Sedimentary rock is formed from
a. the hard parts of organisms.
b. the soft parts of organisms.
c. small particles of sand, silt, and clay.
d. wood, shell, and bone.
8. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the idea(s) of
a. a tendency toward perfect, unchanging species.
b. natural variation and natural selection.
c. the transmission of acquired characteristics.
d. use and disuse.
9. Which statement about gene pools is typically true?
a. They contain two or more alleles for each gene.
b. They contain only dominant alleles.
c. They belong to two or more interbreeding species.
d. The relative frequencies of the alleles never change.
10. When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a. disruptive selection.
c. not predictable.
b. directional selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
____ 11. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have
a. characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.
b. variations best suited to the environment.
c. the greatest number of offspring.
d. characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.
____ 12. When Darwin returned from the voyage of the Beagle, he
a. wrote about his ideas but waited many years to publish them.
b. immediately published his ideas about evolution.
c. copied the evolutionary theory of Wallace.
d. realized his ideas about evolution were wrong.
____ 13. What is the total of all of the biotic and abiotic factors that an organism needs to exist called?
a. the population
c. the niche
b. the ecosystem
d. the environment
____ 14. When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a. directional selection.
c. not predictable.
b. stabilizing selection.
d. disruptive selection.
____ 15. What proportion of all species that ever lived has become extinct?
a. 100 percent
c. less than 1 percent
b. approximately one-half
d. more than 99 percent
____ 16. What usually happens when two species that are not closely related experience similar selective pressures?
a. they experience more mutations
c. they develop a special bond then go on to
win the championship
b. they develop similar adaptations
d. they develop completely unique
adaptations
____ 17. To be useful as an index fossil, a species must have existed for a
a. short period over a wide geographic range.
b. long period over a small geographic range.
c. long period over a wide geographic range.
d. short period over a small geographic range.
____ 18. The basic divisions of the geologic time scale from larger to smaller are
a. billions of years and millions of years.
b. eras and periods.
c. relative and absolute dates.
d. periods and eras.
____ 19. What conditions must have occurred for two organisms to develop a symbiosis?
a. the relationship probably resulted from a c. they need to date first to see if they are
disease
compatible
b. they probably have not been close to each d. they must have evolved close to one
other very long
another
____ 20. When individuals at only one end of a bell-shaped curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result
is
a. disruptive selection.
c. genetic drift.
b. directional selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
____ 21. The Mesozoic Era occurred
a. before Precambrian Time.
c. during Precambrian Time.
b. after the Paleozoic Era.
d. after the Cenozoic Era.
____ 22. What situation might develop in a population having some plants whose flowers open at midday and other
plants whose flowers open late in the day?
a. geographic isolation
c. genetic drift
b. temporal isolation
d. behavioral isolation
____ 23. The allele frequencies of a population are more likely to remain unchanged if
a. the population size is reduced.
b. frequent movement into and out of the population occurs.
c. all mating is random.
d. the mutation rate increases.
____ 24. An orchid lives at the top of a tree and gets exposed to a lot of sunlight while the tree is not affected by the
orchid’s presence. What type of symbiosis is this?
a. capitalism
c. mutualism
b. commensalism
d. parasitism
____ 25. All of the possible biotic and abiotic factors that an organism can take advantage of is the...
a. fundamental niche
c. hopes and dreams
b. realized niche
d. ecosystem
____ 26. The species of tortoises that Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural adaptations.
One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a. similarity in the tortoises’ embryos.
b. difference in shell markings of the tortoises.
c. difference in number of eggs in each tortoise’s nest.
d. variation in length of the tortoises’ necks.
____ 27. The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to each
other is called
a. punctuated equilibrium.
c. coevolution.
b. convergent evolution.
d. adaptive radiation.
____ 28. When lions prey on a herd of antelope, some antelope are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s
concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?
a. acquired characteristics
c. descent with modification
b. reproductive isolation
d. survival of the fittest
____ 29. Darwin began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after
a. reading the writings of Wallace.
b. experimentation with animals.
c. observations of many species and their geographical locations.
d. agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution.
____ 30. Darwin viewed the fossil record as
a. evidence that Earth was thousands of years old.
b. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.
c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species.
d. a record of evolution.
____ 31. A diagram that shows evolutionary relationships by grouping organisms with similar characteristics is a....
a. evolutionary imagination
c. picograph
b. hypothesis
d. cladogram
____ 32. On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed
a. completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
b. species completely unrelated to those found in South America.
c. somewhat similar species with traits that suited their particular environment.
d. species exactly like those found in South America.
____ 33. What did Peter and Rosemary Grant learn about mate choice in the Galápagos finches?
a. Genotype plays no role in mate choice.
b. Finches prefer mates with smaller beaks than their own.
c. Phenotype plays no role in mate choice.
d. Finches prefer mates with beaks similar in size to their own.
____ 34. The Cambrian Explosion resulted in the evolution of the first
a. representatives of most animal groups.
b. land animals.
c. bacteria.
d. dinosaurs and mammals.
____ 35. Lamarck’s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of
a. the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
b. the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
c. continual increases in population size.
d. an unchanging local environment.
____ 36. As a scientist digs deeper fossils tend to get
a. harder
c. younger
b. older
d. more complex
____ 37. A tick sucking the blood of a dog would be an example of...
a. commensalism
c. mutualism
b. parasitism
d. communism
____ 38. Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution?
a. natural selection
b. descent with modification
c. competition among the members of a population
d. transmission of acquired characteristics
____ 39. Scientists are interested in the standard deviation of a set of data because standard deviation shows...
a. The normal range that data will vary from c. How far each data point will be from the
the mean
mean
b. The number of samples collected
d. How large the mean is
____ 40. Why are invasive species able to displace many species in an area?
a. They wait for the right moment to attack c. They are in an environment where they
so you never see them coming.
are better able to deal with diseases and
parasites
b. They are in an environment that has not
d. They have a very narrow realized niche
adapted to them and they can take over
but they are very able to use all of the
many niches at once
available resources
____ 41. Darwin’s concept of evolution was NOT influenced by
a. the work of Thomas Malthus
b. knowledge of the structure of DNA.
c. his collection of specimens.
d. his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle.
Short Answer:
Answer in complete sentences and citing proper examples with correct vocabulary. Questions range
from 3-5 points.
43. What is adaptive radiation? Use this concept to explain the emergence of new species (5 pts.).
44. List the four main steps of natural selection with a brief description of what each means (4 pts.).
45. How is radioactivity used to figure out the age of rocks (3 pts.)?
Questions 43-46 are based on Figure 16-2.
Figure 16–2
46. Based on Figure 16-2, what mechanism appears to keep bullfrogs reproductively isolated? Would that
mechanism necessarily be the only isolating mechanism? Explain (3 pts.).
47. Peeper frogs and leopard frogs do not interbreed even when they share a habitat. Use the information in
Figure 16-2 to determine what mechanism probably keeps the two species reproductively isolated (3 pts.).
48. Frog mating does not occur in cold weather. Assume that the mating times shown in Figure 16-2 are for frogs
in the northern part of the United States. How might these curves change for frogs in the southern part of the
United States? Explain (3 pts.).
Questions 48- are based on Figure 16-1, each is worth 3 points.
Figure 16–1
49. According to Graph C in Figure 16-1, what type of selection has occurred and what has happened to that trait
in the population?
50. According to Graph B in Figure 16-1, what type of selection has occurred and what has happened to that trait
in the population?
51. What factor or condition might have led to the change shown in Graph A of Figure 16-, why would this factor
cause this change?
52. Which of the three graphs in Figure 16-1 might show a population of birds that specialize in different types of
food? Explain.
53. Which event above would be most likely to result in speciation of the population of birds?