Download Oceanography – EXAM 2 Review Questions

Oceanography – EXAM 2 Review Questions
1) The covalent bonds form between hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a water molecule form as a
result of the:
A) polarity of water molecules.
B) sharing of electrons between the atoms.
C) surface tension of water.
D) transfer of electrons between the atoms.
E) viscosity of water.
2) Hydrogen bonds form between neighboring water molecules because of:
A) electron sharing.
B) electron transfer.
C) the polarity of water molecules.
D) surface tension.
E) the viscosity of water.
3) Many of the unique properties of water are attributed to the fact that water:
A) contains ionic bonds.
B) exists in three states of matter on Earth's surface.
C) is a polar molecule.
D) is a universal solvent.
E) requires heat to condense.
4) The surface tension of water:
A) increases as density decreases.
B) is related to salinity.
C) is relatively high.
D) is relatively low.
E) is very similar in other liquids.
5) Water can pile up a short distance above a container's rim due to:
A) strong covalent bonds.
B) high surface tension.
C) high viscosity.
D) low surface tension.
E) low viscosity.
6) The amount of energy that is necessary to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one
degree C is the definition of:
A) boiling point elevation.
B) calorie.
C) latent heat of condensation.
D) latent heat of evaporation.
E) thermal capacity.
7) The states of matter in which water exists is primarily determined by:
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A) density.
B) salinity.
C) chlorinity.
D) temperature.
E) pH.
8) Latent heat is the quantity of heat gained or lost as a substance undergoes a:
A) change in chemical composition.
B) change in molecular weight.
C) change in state.
D) change in atomic mass.
E) change in subatomic structure.
9) Which property of water causes coastal communities to have only moderate differences in
daily highs and lows when compared to inland communities?
A) high heat capacity
B) high salinity
C) high viscosity
D) low heat capacity
E) low viscosity
10) A beaker contains a mixture of ice and pure liquid water at 0oC. What happens to the
temperature of the liquid water as heat is added?
A) It immediately begins to rise slowly.
B) It remains constant until the ice melts, and then it begins to rise.
C) It rises rapidly as the ice melts.
D) It rises slowly until it reaches 32oC, and then it remains constant as the ice melts.
E) The temperature pattern cannot be predicted.
11) In comparison to most other liquids, the heat capacity of liquid water is:
A) a function of salinity.
B) about the same as other liquids.
C) higher than other liquids.
D) lower than other liquids.
E) related to solvent concentration.
12) The average salinity of typical seawater is:
A) 0.35%.
B) 2.0%.
C) 3.5%.
D) 10%.
E) 25%.
13) The Principle of Constant Proportions states that:
A) ocean salinity varies as a function of season.
B) ocean salinity varies with geographical location.
C) the percentage of chloride varies with geographical location.
D) the percentage of sodium varies with ocean depth.
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E) the relative concentrations of the major ions in seawater does not change.
14) All of the following processes decrease the salinity of water except:
A) precipitation.
B) runoff.
C) icebergs melting.
D) evaporation.
E) sea ice melting.
15) The transfer of water between the atmosphere, the oceans, and the continents is known as
the:
A) closed cycle.
B) geologic cycle.
C) hydrobiological cycle.
D) hydrologic cycle.
E) meteorological cycle.
16) All of the following processes decrease seawater salinity except:
A) evaporation.
B) iceberg melting.
C) precipitation.
D) river runoff.
E) sea ice melting.
17) All of the following statements regarding pH are true except:
A) A pH of 3.0 is acidic and a pH of 10.0 is alkaline.
B) As a whole, the pH of the ocean is slightly acidic.
C) Buffers prevent large changes in the pH of a solution.
D) pH will be buffered in deeper water where organisms with calcite shells sink.
E) pH relates to relative acid-base ion balance in a solution.
18) The ion in sea water that serves as a buffer is:
A) Ca+2.
B) Cl-.
C) CO2.
D) Na+.
E) HCO3-.
19) As the salinity of seawater increases, its:
A) density decreases.
B) density increases.
C) residence time increases.
D) residence time decreases.
E) residence time changes.
20) A rapid change in ocean temperature with a change in depth occurs in the:
A) barocline.
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B) halocline.
C) isocline.
D) pycnocline.
E) thermocline.
21) An area of the ocean where rapid change in ocean density occurs with a change in depth is
the:
A) barocline.
B) halocline.
C) isocline.
D) pycnocline.
E) thermocline.
22) All of the following are methods used to desalinate water except:
A) electrolysis.
B) freeze separation.
C) osmosis.
D) reverse osmosis.
E) distillation.
23) As a result of the Coriolis effect in the northern hemisphere, winds always are deflected:
A) at a 45° angle from their original direction.
B) at a 90° angle from their original direction.
C) to the east of their original direction.
D) to the left of their original direction.
E) to the right of their original direction.
24) Winds blowing out of the north toward the south in the southern hemisphere will appear to:
A) be deflected toward the east.
B) be deflected toward the west.
C) circulate counterclockwise.
D) circulate clockwise.
E) travel in a straight line.
25) A tropical maritime air mass is likely to be:
A) dry and cold.
B) dry and warm.
C) wet and cold.
D) wet and the same temperature.
E) wet and warm.
26) The wind belt(s) with strong, reliable, generally easterly winds is (are) the:
A) doldrums
B) horse latitudes.
C) polar easterlies.
D) trade winds.
E) westerlies.
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Refer to the figure below and use the numbers that correspond to global wind belts and latitudes
to answer the following questions.
27) The polar front is labeled number:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 5.
E) 6.
28) The westerlies wind belt is the area corresponding to number:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
29) The area of the globe (latitude) that is characterized by falling air masses and little
precipitation is labeled number:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 5.
E) 6.
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30) Variable winds that result in generally clear, dry, and fair conditions with cold temperatures
and minimal precipitation are labeled number:
A) 1.
B) 3.
C) 4.
D) 5.
E) 6.
31) The doldrums refer to the same region as the:
A) inter-tropical convergence zone.
B) jet stream.
C) subtropical jet stream.
D) subtropics.
E) trade winds.
32) The temperate regions are characterized by:
A) tropical cyclones.
B) high pressure.
C) easterly winds.
D) trade winds.
E) westerly winds.
33) Idealized pressure belts and wind systems are significantly modified by Earth's tilted axis of
rotation and:
A) differences in the heat capacities of the ocean and land.
B) differences in the latitudinal albedo.
C) Ekman transport.
D) latitudinal variations in the Coriolis effect.
E) variations in incoming solar radiation over many years.
34) Low-pressure regions in the northern hemisphere rotate:
A) at a 45° angle from the prevailing wind direction.
B) clockwise.
C) counterclockwise.
D) to the left.
E) to the right.
35) A cold air mass moving into an area occupied by relatively warm air is called a/an:
A) cold front.
B) high pressure system.
C) low pressure system.
D) occluded front.
E) warm front.
36) Air warmed by the land that rises and is replaced by cooler air from the ocean may produce
a:
A) land breeze.
B) tropical cyclone.
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C) typhoon.
D) cold front.
E) sea breeze.
37) The strength of a hurricane stems from water's:
A) latent heat of condensation.
B) latent heat of fusion.
C) latent heat of melting.
D) latent heat of sublimation.
E) latent heat of deposition.
38) The strength of a hurricane is ranked from 1 to 5 on the:
A) Coriolis Scale.
B) Fujita Scale.
C) Moh's Scale.
D) Richter Scale.
E) Saffir-Simpson Scale.
39) The largest loss of life from a hurricane is usually due to:
A) high winds.
B) intense precipitation.
C) low atmospheric pressure.
D) storm surge.
E) none of the above.
40) Compared to an eastern boundary current in a gyre, which of the following statements is true
for a western boundary current?
A) deeper current
B) increased current velocity
C) warmer water
D) narrower current
E) All of the above statements are true of western boundary currents.
41) Which of the following is a western boundary current?
A) Benguela Current
B) Brazil Current
C) Canary Current
D) California Current
E) Peru Current
42) Compared to western boundary currents, eastern boundary currents are:
A) broad and deep.
B) broad and slow.
C) deep and swift.
D) narrow and deep.
E) shallow and swift.
43) Which of the following is not an eastern boundary current?
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A) California Current
B) Canary Current
C) Gulf Stream
D) Peru Current
E) W. Australian Current
44) The Ekman spiral is caused by:
A) density differences in the water column.
B) the wind and gravity.
C) the wind and the Coriolis effect.
D) the pycnocline.
E) pressure gradients.
45) Which type of current flow moves in a circular path around a subtropical convergence,
reflecting Ekman transport, gravity, and the Coriolis effect?
A) counter-current circulation
B) density-driven circulation
C) geostrophic circulation
D) Langmuir circulation
E) thermohaline circulation
46) In the southern hemisphere, the direction of Ekman transport is always:
A) at a 45° angle from the wind direction.
B) perpendicular to the wind direction.
C) to the east of the wind direction.
D) to the left of the wind direction.
E) to the right of the wind direction.
47) Geostrophic circulation within a gyre driven by:
A) density and the wind.
B) gravity and the Coriolis effect.
C) temperature and pressure.
D) the wind and pressure.
E) salinity and gravity.
48) Western intensification causes:
A) a steeper slope of surface water in the western section of the gyre as compare to the eastern
section of the gyre.
B) equatorial countercurrents.
C) the center of the gyre to be shift to the west.
D) very swift western boundary currents.
E) All of the above statements are the result of westward intensification.
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49) Surface waters are pushed away from land and replaced by nutrient-rich bottom water
through:
A) convergence.
B) downwelling.
C) land breezes.
D) sea breezes.
E) upwelling.
50) Strong upwelling occurs in all of the following except:
A) between the North and South Equatorial Currents.
B) in areas of surface current divergence
C) in the area surrounding the Galapagos Islands.
D) where deep ocean water currents are formed.
E) where water is constantly pushed away from a coastline.
51) Which of the following is true of surface water circulation near Antarctica?
A) A gyre is formed here.
B) Two circumpolar currents dominate it, one current that moves water to the east and one
current that moves water to the west.
C) It is dominated by water flow directly away from the polar region toward the north.
D) The surface ocean has no strong currents.
E) The circulation of water around the Antarctic continent is driven by density differences.
52) All are true of the Antarctic Circumpolar Current except:
A) the Antarctic Circumpolar Current contributes to the development of Antarctic bottom water
in the Weddell Sea.
B) the Antarctic Circumpolar Current contributes to upwelling off the Antarctic coast producing
an area of high primary productivity in Antarctic summer.
C) the Antarctic Circumpolar Current flows in a counterclockwise direction around the southern
hemisphere at 60°S latitude.
D) the Antarctic Circumpolar Current flows in the opposite direction to the East Wind Drift, a
current the flows close to the Antarctic continent.
E) the Antarctic Circumpolar Current is created by the prevailing winds at that latitude.
53) When a meander from the Gulf Stream pinches off and isolates a body of water within the
North Atlantic gyre, the body of water is called a:
A) cold core ring.
B) cyclonic circulation.
C) geostrophic circulation.
D) Langmuir cell.
E) warm core ring.
54) During winter months, monsoon winds over the Indian Ocean:
A) flow from land to sea and are dry.
B) flow from land to sea and are wet.
C) flow from sea to land and are dry.
D) flow from sea to land and are wet.
E) the direction of airflow is unchanged but precipitation increases.
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55) The El Niño Southern Oscillation can best be described as:
A) relative changes between two different atmospheric pressure systems at high altitude.
B) the relationship between sea surface temperature and changing atmospheric pressure.
C) tidal differences between coastal Peru and Darwin, Australia.
D) variation in wind speed over the Pacific Ocean.
E) wind speed and wind direction differences along the equator.
56) The worldwide effects of El Niño include all of the following except:
A) coral reef deaths in the Pacific Ocean.
B) crop failure in the Philippines.
C) drought in the U.S. Gulf coastal states.
D) increased Pacific cyclone activity.
E) water shortages in Sri Lanka.
57) Thermohaline circulation is driven by:
A) density differences.
B) the Coriolis effect.
C) latitude.
D) longitude.
E) wind.
58) Compared to Antarctic Bottom Water, North Atlantic Deep Water is:
A) colder.
B) denser.
C) higher in nutrients.
D) higher in salinity.
E) lower in oxygen.
59) The arrangement of water masses in the southern Atlantic Ocean from the surface to the
bottom is:
A) Antarctic Bottom Water, Antarctic Intermediate Water, North Atlantic Deep Water.
B) Antarctic Intermediate Water, Antarctic Bottom Water, North Atlantic Deep Water.
C) Antarctic Intermediate Water, North Atlantic Deep Water, Antarctic Bottom Water.
D) North Atlantic Deep Water, Antarctic Bottom Water, Antarctic Intermediate Water.
E) North Atlantic Deep Water, Antarctic Intermediate Water, Antarctic Bottom Water.
60) Sources of deep water in the ocean include all of the following except:
A) southern subpolar latitudes.
B) northern subpolar latitudes.
C) subtropical convergences.
D) Arctic convergence.
E) Antarctic convergence.
61) Deep-water circulation brings dense, cold, oxygen-rich water from the surface to the deep
ocean because of:
A) greater rates of photosynthesis in deep water.
B) greater dissolution of oxygen in colder water than warmer water.
C) increases in pH with depth.
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D) decreases in pH with depth.
E) greater volcanic out-gassing at the ocean surface.
62) Most ocean waves form as a result of:
A) seismic events.
B) winds blowing across the ocean surface.
C) landslides.
D) density differences between water layers.
E) Earth's rotation.
63) An internal wave might form:
A) at a density boundary within the ocean.
B) at the boundary between the atmosphere and the ocean.
C) at the boundary between the ocean and the seafloor.
D) close to shore as it moves into shallow water.
E) only as a result of tidal activity.
64) Water waves are:
A) capillary waves.
B) longitudinal waves.
C) refracted waves.
D) orbital waves.
E) transverse waves.
Refer to the figure below detailing wave characteristics. Use the information on the figure to
answer the following questions.
65) The crest is the portion of the wave corresponding to the number:
A) 1.
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B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
66) The trough of the wave corresponds to the number:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
67) The wavelength is labeled with the number:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
68) The portion of the wave that is also known as the zero energy level is indicated by the
number:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
69) The ratio of wave height to wavelength is called the:
A) frequency.
B) period.
C) wave height.
D) wavelength.
E) wave steepness.
70) The time between two successive waves is called the:
A) crest.
B) frequency.
C) height.
D) period.
E) trough.
71) Wave speed is equal to:
A) wave height divided by frequency.
B) wave height divided by period.
C) wavelength divided by fetch.
D) wavelength divided by frequency.
E) wavelength divided by period.
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72) The circular motion of water molecules extends to a depth that is equal to:
A) wave height/wavelength.
B) wave height/wave period.
C) wavelength/wave height.
D) wavelength/2.
E) wavelength/20.
73) The diameter of a wave orbital at the surface is equal to:
A) wave height.
B) wave height/wavelength.
C) wavelength.
D) wavelength/wave period.
E) wave period.
74) A deep-water wave occurs when the water depth is equal to at least:
A) the fetch.
B) wave height.
C) wavelength.
D) 1/2 of the wavelength.
E) 1/20 of the wavelength.
75) The speed of a deep-water wave is proportional to:
A) water depth.
B) wave frequency.
C) wave height.
D) wave speed or celerity.
E) wavelength.
76) The speed of a shallow-water wave is proportional to:
A) water depth.
B) wave frequency.
C) wave height.
D) wave period.
E) wavelength.
77) The first wave that forms when the wind begins to blow across the ocean surface is a:
A) capillary wave.
B) seiche.
C) tide.
D) tsunami.
E) wind waves.
78) In general the restoring force for most wind-generated waves is:
A) cohesion of water molecules.
B) gravity.
C) seismic activity.
D) surface tension of water molecules.
E) wind.
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79) The height of a wave depends upon:
A) fetch.
B) fetch and wind speed.
C) fetch, wind duration, and wind speed.
D) wind duration.
E) wind duration and wind speed.
80) The fetch refers to:
A) a method of shoreline erosion control.
B) a type of wave-cut platform.
C) the circular pattern made by water particles when a wave passes.
D) the distance between the trough of a wave and the still water level.
E) the distance over which the wind blows without interruption.
81) The largest wind-generated waves tend to be associated with the:
A) equatorial doldrums.
B) horse latitudes.
C) polar regions.
D) trade winds.
E) westerlies.
82) Waves that are moving faster than local wind and are sorted out by wavelength are called:
A) capillary waves.
B) constructive waves.
C) surf.
D) swell.
E) wind waves.
83) Constructive interference results in larger waves whereas destructive interference produces:
A) capillary waves.
B) rouge waves.
C) smaller waves.
D) swells.
E) tsunamis.
84) Rogue waves tend to occur:
A) in areas where wind belts converge.
B) in coastal areas with weak sea breezes.
C) in upwelling zones.
D) only in the southern ocean below 60°S latitude.
E) where storm waves move against strong surface currents.
85) As a wave begins to feel bottom near a shoreline, its wave height:
A) decreases and its steepness decreases.
B) decreases and its wavelength increases.
C) increases and its frequency decreases.
D) increases and its wavelength decreases
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E) increases and its wavelength remains the same.
86) A wave will begin to break when:
A) distance from shore < wavelength.
B) steepness = 1:7.
C) water depth = wave height.
D) water depth = wavelength/20.
E) wavelength < wave height.
87) Waves that are breaking along the shore and are forming a curling crest over an air pocket
are called:
A) gravity waves.
B) plunging breakers.
C) spilling breakers.
D) surf.
E) swells.
88) If a surfer wishes to have a really long ride, what type of wave should he or she look for?
A) gravity waves
B) plunging breakers
C) spilling breakers
D) surf
E) swells
89) Waves converge on headlands due to:
A) constructive interference.
B) destructive interference.
C) wave diffraction.
D) wave reflection.
E) wave refraction.
90) Which of the following, from earliest to latest, represents the typical wave formation?
A) sea, surf, swell
B) sea, swell, surf
C) surf, swell, sea
D) surf, sea, swell
E) swell, sea, surf
91) Standing waves may be caused by:
A) constructive interference.
B) destructive interference.
C) wave diffraction.
D) wave reflection.
E) wave refraction
92) A tsunami may result from:
A) a large deep-water wave.
B) a storm surge.
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C) an intense storm.
D) constructive wave interference.
E) tectonic activity on the seafloor.
93) A tsunami is considered to be a:
A) capillary wave.
B) deep-water wave.
C) reflected wave.
D) refracted wave.
E) shallow water wave.
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