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VITAL SIGNS: Bios 1310 SI Final Exam Review Good luck! Blood pressure: ____________________________ Temperature: _____________________________ Heart Rate: _______________________________ Respirations: _____________________________ 1. Which of the following would increase stroke volume? a. Increased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility b. Increased preload, increased afterload, decreased contractility c. Decreased preload, increased afterload, decreased contractility d. Increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility 2. Which of the following initiates sinus rhythm? a. AV node b. SA node c. Perkinje fibers d. Depolarization of cardiomyocytes 3. A patient presents with a heart rate of 68 bpm and stroke volume of 65 mL/beat. Estimate the patient’s cardiac output. a. 5,100 mL/beat b. 1.04 mL/beat c. 4,420 mL/beat d. 3 mL/beat 4. Which of the following values is used clinically to estimate a patient’s quality of life? How is it calculated? a. Stroke volume; end diastolic volume – end systolic volume b. End systolic volume; end diastolic volume – stroke volume c. Ejection fraction; (stroke volume / end diastolic volume) x 100 d. Blood pressure; heart rate x stroke volume 5. All of the following are true regarding nodal cells except… a. Have a stable resting membrane potential of -90mV b. Maintain electrical conduction of the heart c. They do not require stimulation to reach threshold d. The SA node depolarizes first and thus established heart rate 6. In depolarization of cardiomyocytes, when calcium entry balances the potassium ion output what is occurring? a. Plateau; the cell remains depolarized and contracted b. Repolarization; tension in cardiac muscle cells diminishes c. Rapid repolarization; a stimulus initiates an action potential d. The cell reestablishes a resting membrane potential of -90mV 7. Which layer consists of cardiac muscle tissue? a. Endocardium b. Pericardium c. Myocardium d. Epicardium 8. The Circle of Willis is which of the following types of anastomoses? a. Arteriovenous anastomoses b. Venous anastomoses c. Arterial anastomoses 9. What is the ejection faction percentage of a patient whose stroke volume is 88 and end diastolic volume is 145? a. 60.7% b. 16.4% c. 54.0% d. 61.0% 10. All of the following increase blood pressure except… a. Angiotensin II b. Aldosterone c. ANP d. ADH 11. What is the largest lymphatic organ? a. Tonsils b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Lymph nodes 12. The sympathetic nervous system has _____________________ receptors that use _____________________ as neurotransmitters. a. Nicotinic; NE/E b. Adrenergic; NE/E c. Muscarinic; Acetylcholine d. Adrenergic; acetylcholine 13. All of the following are true except… a. During ventricular filling the atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure b. During ventricular ejection the arterial pressure is less than ventricular pressure c. During isovolumetric relaxation the ventricular pressure is less than arterial pressure but greater than atrial pressure d. During isovolumetric contraction the ventricular pressure is less than atrial pressure but greater than the great artery pressure 14. The amount of friction the blood experiences as it is traveling through blood vessels is known as what? a. Cardiac output b. Blood pressure c. Peripheral resistance d. Hydrostatic pressure 15. Which of the following is not true regarding mechanisms of venous return? a. The pressure at which the venae cavae reach the heart is called central venous pressure b. Gravity aids in venous return c. As skeletal muscles contract the veins are squeezed and promote venous return; valves prevent the blood from flowing backward d. When we exhale, thoracic and abdominal pressure are decreased and blood from the inferior vena cava is squeezed into thoracic veins 16. The tunica layer that includes simple squamous epithelium with a selectively permeable barrier that repels blood cells and platelets is what? a. Tunica media b. Tunica interna c. Tunica externa d. Tunica elastic 17. What is the correct order that blood flows through the heart valves? a. Right AV valve pulmonary valve aortic valve left AV valve b. Left AV valve pulmonary valve aortic valve right AV valve c. Right AV valve aortic valve left AV valve pulmonary valve d. Right AV valve pulmonary valve left AV valve aortic valve 18. What type of protein structure is hemoglobin? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary 19. What means “too many red blood cells”? a. Anemia b. Polycythemia c. Decreased hematocrit d. Thrombocytopenia 20. What transmembrane protein aids the movement of glucose into cells via facilitated diffusion? a. GLUT 1 b. GLUT 2 c. GLUT 3 d. GLUT 4 e. GLUT 5 21. Which of the following is a precursor to the long, sticky, insoluble strand that makes a network for a clot to form? a. Ferritin b. Hemoglobin c. Fibrinogen d. Albumin 22. Which of the following does not describe antibody-mediated immunity? a. Involves T cells b. Also called humoral immunity c. Tags the pathogen for destruction d. Does not directly destroy/kill the pathogen 23. Which of the following does not aid in containment of pathogens? a. Fibrinogen to wall off bacteria b. Formation of pus and abscess c. Heparin to trap pathogens in a fluid pocket d. Chemotaxis of neutrophils for phagocytosis and release of cytokines 24. How is most CO2 transported in the blood? a. As carbamino compound b. As dissolved gas in the blood c. As carbonic acid d. All of the above 25. During inhalation, the diaphragm __________________________. a. Relaxes b. Contracts c. Contracts then relaxes d. Does no move 26. Which term is considered the “normal” breathing rate during rest? It is one respiratory cycle (one inhalation/one exhalation). a. Expiratory reserve volume b. Inspiratory reserve volume c. Residual volume d. Tidal volume 27. This infection is caused by leaking of fluid into the alveoli and bronchioles causing swelling and constriction…. a. Asthma b. COPD c. Pneumonia d. Bronchitis 28. Which filtration pressure is responsible for filtering of the blood through glomerular capillaries? a. Blood colloid osmotic pressure b. Hydrostatic pressure c. Partial pressure gradient d. Overall filtration pressure e. Both A and B 29. Which of the following is formed from metabolism of nucleic acids? a. Creatinine b. Urea c. Uric acid d. Carbonic acid e. Ketones 30. What capillaries are found surrounding the tubules of the nephrons? a. Glomerular capillaries b. Peritubular capillaries c. Vasa recta d. Both A and C 31. ADH performs all of the following actions except… a. Reabsorbs water b. Reabsorbs sodium c. Concentrates the urine d. Decreases blood plasma osmolarity 32. When insulin is released glucose moves into the cell and ____________________ moves _________________. a. Sodium; in b. Potassium; in c. Sodium; out d. Potassium; out 33. Which of the following is absolutely essential for the absorption of Vitamin B12? a. Pepsin b. Intrinsic factor c. HCl d. Gastrin 34. A patient presents to the ED and states that she has been vomiting 4x a day for the past 6 days. Which acid-base imbalance is the patient most likely experiencing? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis 35. Chylomicrons are secreted out of the enterocytes of the small intestine and into the ___________________. a. Capillary b. Lacteal c. Artery d. Alveoli 36. Which of the following is not an end destination for the contents of chylomicrons? a. Adipocytes b. Skeletal muscle c. Liver d. Cardiac muscle 37. A patient presents with the following…. pH of 7.63; PCO2 of 24 mmHg and HCO3- of 18 mEq/L. Which of the following is the patient experiencing? a. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation b. Metabolic alkalosis with partial compensation c. Respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation d. Metabolic alkalosis with no compensation 38. The failure of the testes to descend is known as what? a. Spermatic cord b. Male inguinal hernia c. Cryptorchidism 39. Which of the following is/are upsides to circumcision? Select all that apply. a. Decreased risk of UTI’s b. Increases sensation during intercourse c. Increased risk of penile cancer d. Decreased risk of sexually transmitted diseases e. Decreased penile inflammation 40. The venous vascular channels that surround a central artery in the penis are known as what? a. Haustra b. Lacteal c. Lacunae d. Prepuce 41. The parasympathetic system is responsible for _________________________ while the sympathetic system is responsible for ____________________________. a. Ejaculation; erection b. Rest; digest c. Erection; ejaculation d. Digest; rest 42. The amount of time from the onset of sex hormones to when a person reaches their full height is known as what? a. Puberty b. Fetal development c. Adolescence d. Libido 43. Which of the following is responsible for secreting ABP and inhibin? a. Leydig cells b. Follicular cells c. Nurse cells 44. Inhibin inhibits the production of _____________________ in the ____________________ _______________________. a. FSH; anterior pituitary b. LH; anterior pituitary c. FSH; posterior pituitary d. GnRH; hypothalamus 45. Which of the following binds to testosterone and makes it less lipophilic to ensure that testosterone levels remain high in the testes and epidiymus? a. FSH b. LH c. ABP d. Inhibin e. GnRH 46. Which of the following is not a function of testosterone? a. Formation of the male brain b. Laryngeal growth c. Increases erythropoiesis d. Suppression of bone and muscle growth e. Development of pubic hair 47. What is responsible for the growth of Wolffian ducts in the fetus? Which gender are these ducts associated with? a. anti-Mullerian hormone; female b. Wolffian hormone; male c. Anti-Mullerian hormone; male d. Wolfiian hormone; female 48. The process of spermatids shedding cytoplasm to become a mature spermatozoon is called… a. Spermatogenesis b. Meiosis I c. Mitosis d. Meiosis II e. Spermiogenesis 49. What does the sperm require to power the flagellum? What allows us to produce this? a. ATP; glucose b. Starch; fructose c. Starch; maltose d. ATP; fructose 50. Capacitation is the final step of sperm maturation. Where does this occur? a. Epididymis b. Gonads c. Vagina d. Cervix