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DNA Genetics
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called
a. cell division.
c. interphase.
b. metaphase.
d. mitosis.
____
2. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?
a. G1 phase
c. S phase
b. G2 phase
d. M phase
____
3. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?
a. Interphase is usually the longest phase.
b. DNA replicates during the S phase.
c. Cell division ends with cytokinesis.
d. The cell grows during the G2 phase.
____
4. The cell cycle is the
a. series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
b. period of time between the birth and the death of a cell.
c. time from prophase until cytokinesis.
d. time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.
Figure 10–2
____
5. The structure labeled A in Figure 10–2 is called the
a. centromere.
c. sister chromatid.
b. centriole.
d. spindle.
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6. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?
a. prophase
c. metaphase
b. telophase
d. anaphase
____
7. What is a tumor?
a. an accumulation of cyclins
b. a mass of cancer cells
c. the rapidly dividing cells found at the site of a wound
d. a defective p53 gene
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8. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were
tall because
a.
b.
c.
d.
____
the allele for tall plants is recessive.
the allele for short plants is dominant.
the allele for tall plants is dominant.
they were true-breeding like their parents.
9. In the P generation, a tall true breeding plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F2 plant will
be tall is
a. 25%.
c. 75%
b. 50%.
d. 100%.
____ 10. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a. hybrid.
c. heterozygous.
b. homozygous.
d. dominant.
____ 11. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each
other’s inheritance?
a. principle of dominance
c. principle of probabilities
b. principle of independent assortment
d. principle of segregation
RrYy
RY
Ry
rY
ry
RY
RRYY
RRYy
RrYY
RrYy
Ry
RRYy
RRyy
RrYy
Rryy
RrYy
rY
RrYY
RrYy
rrYY
rrYy
ry
RrYy
Rryy
rrYy
rryy
Seed Shape
R = Round
r = Wrinkled
Seed Color
Y = Yellow
y = Green
Figure 11–2
____ 12. The Punnett square in Figure 11–2 shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color
a. assort independently.
c. have the same alleles.
b. are linked.
d. are always homozygous.
____ 13. Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are
called
a. multiple alleles.
c. polygenic inheritance.
b. incomplete dominance.
d. multiple genes.
____ 14. A male and female bison that are both heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation (Aa) produce an albino
offspring (aa). Which of Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?
a. dominance only
c. dominance and segregation
b. independent assortment only
d. segregation only
____ 15. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a. diploid cells.
c. 2N daughter cells.
b. haploid cells.
d. body cells.
____ 16. Crossing-over rarely occurs in mitosis, unlike meiosis. Which of the following is the likely reason?
a. Chromatids are not involved in mitosis.
b. Tetrads rarely form during mitosis.
c. A cell undergoing mitosis does not have homologous chromosomes.
d. There is no prophase during mitosis.
____ 17. Linked genes
a. are never separated.
b. assort independently.
c. are on the same chromosome.
d. are always recessive.
Figure 12–1
____ 18. Figure 12–1 shows the structure of a(an)
a. DNA molecule.
b. amino acid.
c. RNA molecule.
d. protein.
____ 19. DNA is copied during a process called
a. replication.
b. translation.
c. transcription.
d. transformation.
____ 20. DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a. each with two new strands.
b. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c. each with one new strand and one original strand.
d. each with two original strands.
____ 21. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon?
a. Some codons have the same sequence of nucleotides.
b. There are 64 different kinds of codons but only 20 amino acids.
c. Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
d. The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine and serves as the “start” codon for
protein synthesis.
____ 22. During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the
a. codon on the mRNA only.
b. anticodon on the mRNA only.
c. anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached only.
d. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached.
____ 23. Genes contain instructions for assembling
a. purines.
b. nucleosomes.
c. proteins.
d. pyrimidines.
____ 24. A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called a(an)
a. chromosomal mutation.
c. point mutation.
b. inversion.
d. translocation.
____ 25. Which of the following is NEVER a frameshift mutation?
a. substitution
c. deletion
b. insertion
d. point mutation
____ 26. Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding?
a. horse breeds
c. dog breeds
b. cat breeds
d. all of the above
____ 27. Selective breeding produces
a. more offspring.
b. fewer offspring.
c. desired traits in offspring.
d. transgenic organisms.
____ 28. Which of the following is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for a genetic defect?
a. inbreeding
c. genetic engineering
b. hybridization
d. transformation
____ 29. The crossing of buffalo and cattle to produce beefalo is an example of
a. inbreeding.
c. genetic engineering.
b. hybridization.
d. transformation.
Figure 13–1
____ 30. In Figure 13–1, between which nucleotides is the DNA cut?
a. adenine and thymine
c. thymine and cytosine
b. cytosine and guanine
d. adenine and guanine
____ 31. One function of gel electrophoresis is to
a. separate DNA fragments.
b. cut DNA.
c. recombine DNA.
d. extract DNA.
____ 32. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called
a. selective breeding.
c. inbreeding.
b. genetic engineering.
d. hybridization.
____ 33. Suppose a restriction enzyme recognizes the six-base sequence
AAGCTT
TTCGAA
in a double strand of DNA. Between which two nucleotides on each strand would the enzyme have to cut to
produce a fragment with sticky ends that are four bases long?
a. GC
c. AA
b. CT
d. AG
____ 34. What is an advantage of using transgenic bacteria to produce human proteins?
a. The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria work better than those produced by
humans.
b. Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins in large amounts.
c. The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria last longer than those produced by
humans.
d. Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins used to make plastics.
____ 35. What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants?
a. increasing the food supply
c. producing clones
b. using more pesticides
d. studying human genes
____ 36. Which of the following is a clone?
a. the adult female sheep whose DNA was used to produce Dolly
b. a transgenic mouse
c. a bacterium taken from a bacterial colony
d. the tobacco plant with the luciferase gene
____ 37. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
c. 44
b. 23
d. 46
____ 38. Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype?
a. a change in a DNA base
c. genes
b. an extra chromosome
d. alleles
____ 39. In humans, a male has
a. one X chromosome only.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
d. two Y chromosomes.
____ 40. What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a. 10%
c. 50%
b. 25%
d. 75%
____ 41. What percentage of human sperm cells carry an X chromosome?
a. 0%
c. 50%
b. 25%
d. 100%
____ 42. In a pedigree, a circle represents a(an)
a. male.
b. female.
c. child.
d. adult.
____ 43. Which of the following is determined by multiple alleles?
a. Rh blood group
c. PKU
b. ABO blood group
d. Huntington’s disease
____ 44. Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype?
a. IAIA and IAIB
c. IBIB and IAIB
B B
B
b. I I and I i
d. IBi and ii
____ 45. Sickle cell disease is caused by a
a. change in one DNA base.
b. change in the size of a chromosome.
c. change in two genes.
d. change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
____ 46. People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because
a. they are resistant to malaria.
b. they usually have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells.
c. their abnormal hemoglobin usually doesn’t cause their red blood cells to become sickle
shaped.
d. they do not produce abnormal hemoglobin.
____ 47. Most sex-linked genes are located on
a. the autosomes.
b. the X chromosome only.
c. the Y chromosome only.
d. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
____ 48. The formation of a Barr body
a. causes the genes on one of the X chromosomes in a female cell to be switched off.
b. always causes the same X chromosome in a female’s cells to be switched off.
c. switches on the Y chromosome in a male cell.
d. none of the above
____ 49. The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called
a. nondisjunction.
c. Turner’s syndrome.
b. X-chromosome inactivation.
d. Down syndrome.
____ 50. Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a female?
a. XY
c. XXXY
b. XXY
d. XX
DNA Genetics
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
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22. ANS:
A
10.1.2
C
10.2.1
D
10.2.1
A
10.2.1
A
10.2.2
C
10.2.2
B
10.3.3
C
11.1.3
C
11.2.1
B
11.2.2
B
11.3.1
A
11.3.1
B
11.3.2
C
11.3.3
B
11.4.3
B
11.4.3
C
11.5.1
A
12.1.2
A
12.2.2
C
12.2.2
B
12.3.4
D
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 243
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 245
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 245
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 245
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 244
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 248
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 252
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 265
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 269
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 268
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 271
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 271
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 272
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 272 | p. 273
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 278
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 276
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 279
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 294
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 297
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 299
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 303
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 304 | p. 305
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46. ANS:
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12.3.5
C
12.3.6
C
12.4.1
A
12.4.1
D
13.1.1
C
13.1.1
A
13.1.2
B
13.1.2
D
13.2.1
A
13.2.1
B
13.2.1
C
13.2.1
B
13.4.1
A
13.4.1
C
13.4.2
D
14.1.1
B
14.1.1
C
14.1.2
C
14.1.2
C
14.1.2
B
14.1.3
B
14.1.4
B
14.1.4
A
14.1.5
B
14.1.5
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 306
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 307
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 307
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 319
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 319
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 320
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 319
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 322
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 323
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 322
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 322 | p. 323
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 331
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 332
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 333
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 341
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 341
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 341
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 342
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 342
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 342
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 344
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 344
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 347
PTS: 1
DIF: E
REF: p. 347
47. ANS:
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48. ANS:
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50. ANS:
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B
14.2.2
A
14.2.3
A
14.2.4
D
14.2.4
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 350
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 352
PTS: 1
DIF: B
REF: p. 352
PTS: 1
DIF: A
REF: p. 352