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1. Which of the MHC receptors are found on the surface of most nucleated cells? a. MHC Class I b. MHC Class II c. MHC Class III d. CD4 e. CD8 2. Positive and negative selection occurs in the thymus in order to: a. Delete autoreactive T cells that bind too tightly to self MHC plus self peptide b. Activate T cells with foreign antigen c. Determine if cells can recognize self MHC plus self peptide d. Determine if cells can recognize foreign MHC e. Both A and C 3. A population of effector T cells that carry the MHC haplotype H-2b have been exposed to Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) in vivo. If these infected cells were exposed to the target cells listed below, which target cells would be killed in large numbers? a. Naïve, uninfected cells with H-2b MHC haplotype b. Naïve, uninfected cells with H-2k MHC haplotype c. LCMV- infected cells with H-2b MHC haplotype d. LCMV-infected cells with H-2k MHC haplotype e. C and D 4. Which of the following is FALSE regarding MHC Class I antigen presentation? a. Cytosolic antigens are presented b. An invariant chain is used to plug the antigen binding site until phagosome fusion c. MHC Class I and II antigen presentation occur simultaneously in antigenpresenting cells d. The antigen is degraded into peptides by the proteasome e. None of the above statements are false regarding MHC Class I presentation 5. Which of the following assumptions had to be correct for the experiment done by Hendrick and Davis to isolate T cell Receptor (TcR) genes to be successful? a. TcRs must be present on both T cells and B cells. b. TcRs must be expressed on the T cell plasma membrane. c. TcR must rearrange in a manner similar to BcR rearrangement. d. All of the above must be true e. Only b and c. 6. MHC Class I molecules are made up of two polypeptide chains called _______ and _______ whose function is to bind peptides and present them to _______ T cells: a. alpha (α) and beta (β); CD4+ b. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin; CD4+ c. alpha (α) and beta (β); CD8+ d. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin ; CD8+ e. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin; gamma-delta 7. What is the timing of transcription factor gene activation after TcR-mediated T cell activation? a. Transcription factors are not synthesized during T cell activation b. Transcription factors are the latest genes to be turned on: it takes several days for these genes to be translated and transcribed c. Transcription factors are amongst the fastest genes to be turned on after TcR mediated activation, taking less than 30 minutes in some cases. d. Transcription factors are kept in a granule that CTLs will release to the extracellular environment during effector function e. None of the above are true. 8. What is an important mode of action that Cytotoxic T cells (CTLs) use to kill their targets a. They secrete perforins that create pores in the membrane of target cells b. They secrete cytokines that stimulate growth and activation of B cells. c. They inhibit the immune response. d. They initiate delayed response to antigens. e. They contribute to the initiation of classical complement pathway. 9. In the original discovery of the T cell receptor, the mRNA used to produce probes was purified from polysomes (ribosomes associated with the endoplasmic reticulum). Why? a. This is the largest and easiest pool of mRNA to purify from a cell b. This subpopulation of mRNA molecules will exclusively synthesize the antigen specific T cell receptor c. Polysome-associated mRNA is responsible for secreted and membrane-expressed proteins d. All of the above are true e. None of the above are true 10. In Dr. Debby Laukins guest lecture, she differentiated the inflammatory bowel diseases Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Only patients with Crohn’s disease: a. Have superficial inflammation b. Have cobblestone appearance and fissures c. Histologically you see neutrophil infiltration and frequent crypt abscesses d. Only affects the colon starting from the rectum and extending proximally e. There is no difference between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis