Download AP Biology Practice Exam #1

AP Biology Practice Exam #4
Subunit #4: Heredity
_____1. Which is Not true about bacteria chromosomes?
a) There is generally only one chromosome in each bacteria cell.
b) A bacteria chromosome is present in a single copy per cell.
c) A bacteria chromosome is attached to the plasma membrane.
d) A bacteria chromosome is in a loop.
e) A bacteria chromosome contains both DNA and associated histones.
_____2. Which is Not true about chromosomes of a multicellular organism?
a) They are made up of DNA and protein.
b) Each chromosome is a replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase.
c) Each chromosome separates into daughter chromosomes by binary fission.
d) All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information.
_____3. Which statement is Not true about eukaryotic chromosomes?
a) There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell.
b) Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis.
c) Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones.
d) Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis.
e) Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis.
_____4. The haploid number (1n or n) of chromosomes for humans is
a) 23 b) 24 c) 44 d) 46
e) 48
_____5. The critical checkpoints that control the cell cycle are at the
a) G1 to S stage and G2 to M stage
b) S to G2 stage and G2 to M stage
c) M to G1 stage and G2 to M stage
d) M to G1 stage and S to G2 stage
e) S to G2 stage and G2 to M stage
_____6. During which stage of the cell cycle is cell growth and replication of organelles most significant?
a) M phase b) G1 phase c) G2 phase d) S phase e) G0 phase
_____7. Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unable to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell?
a) M phase b) G1 phase c) G2 phase d) S phase e) G0 phase
_____8. Which sequence of stages in mitosis correct?
a) prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase
b) prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase
c) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d) telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase
e) anaphase, telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase
_____9. A human cell in prophase of mitosis can be distinguished from a human cell in prophase I of meiosis by the presence of
a) kinetochores in the mitotic cell
b) a spindle in the mitotic cell
c) half as many chromosomes in the meiotic cell
d) paired chromosomes in the meiotic cell
e) twice as many chromosomes in the meiotic cell
_____10. A biologist counted 2,500 cells from an embryo on a microscope slide and recorded the following data.
If these cells had been dividing randomly, it could be reasonably concluded that
a) the duration of anaphase is approximately one-half that of telophase
b) the chromosomes can first be seen in prophase
c) interphase is the longest stage of the cell cycle
d) metaphase is the shortest stage of the cell cycle
e) prophase is approximately three times as long as telophase
_____11. Plant cells differ from animal cells in mitosis in all Except which of these ways?
a) Plants lack centrioles, but animals have them.
b) Plants lack microtubules and spindles, but animals have them.
c) Plants lack cell furrow, but animals have them.
d) Plants from a cell plate, but animal do not.
e) Plants develop a cell wall between daughter cells, but animals do not.
_____12. In multicellular organisms, mitosis is
a) the means of tissue growth and repair.
b) a way to generate new kinds of mutant or recombinant organisms.
c) the means of sexual reproduction.
d) not useful in stem cell lines that constantly replace skin, etc.
e) able to occur in only a few cells of specialized tissues.
_____13. Which of the following is Not true about cancer cells?
a) They never fully differentiate.
b) They exhibit contact inhibition.
c) They exhibit uncontrolled growth.
d) They exhibit disorganized growth.
e) They may undergo metastasis.
_____14. Which of the following are carcinogens?
a) radon gas b) X-rays c) some viruses d) some chemicals
_____15. DNA replication occurs during
a) anaphase
b) interphase c) metaphase
d) prophase
e) All of the above include carcinogens.
e) telophase
_____16. Histones are proteins that
a) are found only in prokaryotic cells
b) aid in the packaging of DNA in eukaryotic cells.
c) aid in controlling the activity of regions of DNA.
d) All of these.
_____17. Which of the following occurs during mitosis but not during meiosis I?
a) Both synapsis and crossing-over take place.
b) The diploid number of chromosomes is reduced to the haploid number.
c) The nuclear envelope breaks down.
d) The non-recombined chromatids of each chromosome are separated.
e) The chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the spindle apparatus.
_____18. All of the following are true statements about meiosis in mammals EXCEPT:
a) It produces cells with the haploid number of chromosomes.
b) It follows DNA replication.
c) It occurs only in reproductive structures.
d) It produces four genetically identical gametes.
e) It serves as a factor in bringing about variation among offspring.
_____19. If 2n=48 for a particular cell, then the chromosome number in each cell after meiosis would be
a) 6
b) 12
c) 24
d) 48
e) 96
_____20. Which of the following best describes the cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals?
a) They are diploid.
b) They can be used to repair injuries.
c) They are genetically different from the parent cell.
d) They are genetically identical to all the other cells in the body.
e) They are identical to each other.
_____21. A spermatocyte produces the following four sperm cells.
These cells are the result of nondisjunction during which of the following phases?
a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis I
c) Meiosis II
d) Interphase (S)
e) Interphase (G1 or G2)
_____22. The cell formed through fertilization is called a(n)
a) gamete b) sperm cell c) zygote d) egg cell
e) ovum
_____23. If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal that has ____ chromosomes.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
e) 24
_____24. During which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur?
a) prophase I b) anaphase I
c) telophase I
d) prophase II
e) anaphase II
_____25. What is the importance of crossing over?
a) It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells.
b) It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material.
c) It increases chromosome condensation.
d) It separates the homologous chromosomes.
_____26. At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid?
a) prophase I
b) anaphase II c) anaphase I
d) prophase II
e) metaphase I
_____27. During which stage of meiosis does the homologue separation occur?
a) prophase I
b) anaphase I c) telophase I
d) anaphase II
e) metaphase I
_____28. Which is Not true about daughter cells of mitosis and meiosis?
a) In meiosis, daughter cells are haploid.
b) In meiosis, there are four daughter cells.
c) In mitosis, there are two daughter cells.
d) In mitosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical.
e) In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical.
_____29. The polar body is
a) another name for an egg cell.
b) a precursor cell that becomes an egg cell.
c) a nonfunctional cell rudiment made at that same time as an egg cell.
d) the cell produced when fertilization occurs.
_____30. Which of the following statements is True about a human meiotic cell after it has completed meiosis I?
a) It is diploid (2n).
b) It is haploid (n).
c) It has divided into four daughter cells.
d) It proceeds directly to meiosis II without an intervening intermission.
_____31. Chromosomes that are Not identified as sex chromosomes are called
a) autotrophs
b) heterosomes
c) autosomes
d) chromatins
e) chromatids
_____32. In most vertebrates, the sperm cell normally contributes which of the following to the new organism?
a) Most of the cytoplasm of the zygote
b) Two sex chromosomes
c) A haploid complement of chromosomes
d) Many mitochondria
e) Significant amounts of RNA
_____33. If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype?
a) it can be either TT or tt.
b) it can be either Tt or tt.
c) it can only be TT.
d) it can only be tt.
e) it can be TT, Tt, or tt.
_____34. In which kind of cross would you expect to find a ration of 3.1 among the F2 offspring?
a) monohybrid cross b) dihybrid cross
c) test cross
d) None of the above.
_____35. Which is Not true according to Mendel's law of segregation?
a) Each individual contains two factors for each trait.
b) One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual.
c) Factors separate from each other during gamete formation.
d) Each gamete contains one copy of each factor.
e) Fertilization restores the presence of two factors.
_____36. Segregation of alleles does NOT occur in which of the following groups of organisms?
a) flatworms
b) bacteria
c) ferns
d) flowering plants
e) insects
_____37. What are alleles?
a) genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color.
b) alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes.
c) the location of genes on a chromosome
d) recessive forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes.
e) dominant forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes.
_____38. When alleles for different characteristics as on separate chromosomes, they are distributed to gametes
independently. This observation is summarized by the law of
a) cross pollination
b) independent assortment
c) segregation
d) molecular genetics
_____39. In a dihybrid cross between an individual with the genotype RRYY and an individual with the genotype rryy,
all of the offspring will have the genotype
a) RRYY
b) RrYY
c) RrYy
d) rryy
e) rrYY
_____40. Segregation of alleles occurs during
a) mitosis b) meiosis
c) fertilization
d) pollination
_____41. The law of independent assortment states what?
a) Gene pairs sort randomly and independently from each other.
b) Gene pairs sort always in the same order.
c) Half of an organism's gametes have one allele per pair.
d) One allele is always dominant.
_____42. The actual genetic makeup of an organism is called its
a) phenotype
b) homozygous type
c) heterozygous type
d) genotype
_____43. In horses, chestnut coat is dominant to black coat, and trotting gait is dominant to pacing. A horse that was hybrid
for both traits would have the genotype CcTt. If a horse who is a chestnut pacer is bred several times to a black trotter, and
they always have chestnut trotters and black trotters, what are the genotypes of the parents?
a) CcTT x ccTT
b) CcTt x ccTt
c) CCTT x Cctt
d) Cctt x ccTT
e) Cctt x ccTt
_____44. Coat color in mice is determined by genes at two loci. When brown mice from a particular population mate, they produce offspring in the following
ratios: 9 black: 3 brown: 4 white. These results suggest that white coat color is expressed as a result of
a) incomplete dominance
b) codominance
c) a sex-linked trait
d) epistasis
e) dominance
Questions 45-47 refer to the following:
A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many generations. Females from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed
with red-eyed (wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with the white-eyed males from the original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are
summarized below.
_____45. The best explanation for the red-eyed F1 females is
a) multiple loci
b) sex-influenced traits
c) mutation
d) culture contamination
e) dominance
_____46. There are white-eyed females in the F2 generation because
a) white is a dominant allele
b) the white allele is autosomal
c) a mutation has occurred
d) these F2 females have two white alleles
e) the white allele is located on the Y Chromosome
_____47. Which of the following best describes the mode of inheritance of eye color in the white culture?
a) Sex-linked
b) Lethal
c) Autosomal
d) Dominant
e) Located on the Y chromosome
_____48. In garden peas, a single gene controls stem length. The recessive allele (t) produces short stems when homozygous. The dominant allele (T) produces
long stems. A short-stemmed plant is crossed with a heterozygous long-stemmed plant. Which of the following represents the expected phenotypes of the
offspring and the ratio in which they will occur?
a) short-stemmed plants only
b) 3 long-stemmed plants: 1 short-stemmed plant
c) 1 long-stemmed plant: 1 short-stemmed plant
d) 1 long-stemmed plant: 3 short-stemmed plants
e) long-stemmed plants only
Question 49 refers to the following pedigree.
_____49. In the pedigree above, squares represent males and circles represent females. Individuals who express a particular trait are represented by shaded
figures. Which of the following patterns of inheritance best explains the transmission of the trait?
a) Autosomal recessive
b) Autosomal dominant
c) Incompletely dominant
d) Sex-linked dominant
e) Sex-linked recessive
_____50. A classical example of epistasis is
a) ABO blood groups in humans
b) height of garden peas
c) pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons
d) coat color in rabbits
e) albinism in humans and animals
_____51. A classical example of multiple alleles is
a) coat color spotting in cattle
b) height of garden peas
c) pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons
d) coat color in rabbits
e) albinism in humans and animal
Questions 52-55 refer to the probabilities below. Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently.
a) 0
b) 1/16
c) 1/4
d) 1/2
e} 3/4
_____52. Probability that the genotype Aa will be produced by the parents Aa x Aa
_____53. Probability that the genotype ccdd will be produced by the parents CcDd x CcDd
_____54. Probability that the genotype Rr will be produced by the parents Rr x rr
_____55. Probability that the genotype TTSs will be produced by the parents TTSs x TtSS
_____56. A couple has 5 children, all sons. If the woman gives birth to a sixth child, what is the probability that the sixth child will be a son’?
a) 1/2
b) 1/5
c) 1/6
d) 1/6
e) 5/6
_____57. In sheep, eye color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. When a homozygous brown-eyed sheep is crossed with a homozygous blue-eyed
sheep, brown-eyed offspring are produced. If the offspring brown-eyed sheep are mated with each other, what percent of their offspring will most likely have
brown eyes?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 100%
_____58. In peas the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t). The
trait for yellow seed color is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seed color is recessive (y). A cross between two plants results in 296 tall yellow plants and 104
tall green plants. Which of the following are most likely to be the genotypes of the parents?
a) TTyy x TTYy
b) TtYy x TtYy
c) TtYY x Ttyy
d) TtYy x TTYy
e) TTYY x TTYY
_____59. In humans, red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman produce a color-blind son, which of the following must be
true?
a) The mother carries the allele for color blindness.
b) The father carries the allele for color blindness.
c) Neither parent carries the allele for color blindness.
d) The father is color-blind.
e) Both parents carry the allele for color blindness.
_____60. Two organisms with the genotypes AabbCc and AaBbcc are mated. What is the probability of having an offspring with two homozygous recessive
traits?
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 3/8
d) 1/16
e) 3/16
_____61. What causes Down syndrome?
a) the lack of pigment production
b) an extra 21 chromosome
c) the presence of two different codominant alleles
d) inability to produce normal connective tissue
e) the environment interacting with the genotype
_____62. What causes the effects of albinism?
a) the lack of pigment production
b) the environment
c) inability to produce normal connective tissue
d) the presence of two different codominant alleles
e) an extra 21 chromosome
Questions 63-64 refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B Assume they are both heterozygous.
_____63. The father must have which of the following blood types?
a) AB only
b) AB or A or O
c) Either AB or A
d) Either AB or 0
e) Either AB or B
_____64. If the father has blood type AB, which of the following statements is correct about the mother?
a) She contributes an i allele, which is recessive to the father’s 1A allele.
b) She contributes an IB allele, which is codominant to the father’s IA allele.
c) She contributes an i allele, which is codominant to the father’s 1B allele.
d) She is homozygous for the 1B allele.
e) She contributes an IB allele, which is recessive to the father’s 1A allele.
Questions 65-67 refer to the following information.
Achondroplastic dwarfism is a dominant genetic trait that causes sever malformation of the skeleton. Homozygotes for this condition are spontaneously aborted
(hence, the homozygous condition is lethal) but heterozygotes will develop to be dwarfed. Matthew has a family history of the condition, although he does not
express the trait. Jane is an achondroplastic dwarf. Matthew and Jane are planning a family of several children and want to know the chances of producing a
child with achondroplastic dwarfism.
_____65. The genotypes of Matthew and Jane are best represented as
Matthew
Jane
a) AA
Aa
b)Aa
aa
c) aa
aa
d) aa
Aa
e) Aa
Aa
_____66. The probability that Matthew and Jane’s first child will be an achondroplastic dwarf is
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 100%
_____67. If three children are born to Matthew and Jane, what are the chances that the first two children will not express the trait, but that the third child will be
an achondroplastic dwarf?
a) 5/8
b) 4/8
c) 3/8
d) 1/8
e) 1/16
_____68. Which refers to turning a chromosome segment around 180 degrees and rejoining it to the original chromosome?
a) inversion
b) translocation
c) deletion
d) duplication
e) monosomy
_____69. Which refers to the loss of a complete chromosome?
a) inversion
b) translocation
c) deletion
d) duplication
e) monosomy
_____70. Which refers to the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another nonhomologous chromosome?
a) inversion
b) translocation
c) deletion
d) duplication
e) monosomy
_____71. Which refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome?
a) inversion
b) translocation
c) deletion
d) duplication
e) monosomy
_____72. Which refers to the addition of an extra segment of a chromosome?
a) inversion
b) translocation
c) deletion
d) duplication
e) monosomy
_____73. Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following genetic disorders?
a) Down syndrome b) phenylketonuria c) neurofibromatosis d) cystic fibrosis e) hemophilia
_____74. Phenylketonuria is
a) caused by mutated gene on chromosome 12.
b) easily detested by high levels of phenylalanine in urine or blood.
c) the most common inherited disease of the nervous system.
d) due to a lack of an enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, and damage can therefore be controlled by a diet lacking this amino acid.
e) All of the above are correct.
_____75. Which type of inheritance results in continuous variation - often a bell shaped curve - because genes at many loci are involved?
a) polygenic b) autosomal dominant c) autosomal recessive d) X-linked e) sex-influenced
_____76. Which of the following statements concerning a gene is correct?
a) A gene can code for a specific protein.
b) A gene can exist in alternate forms called introns.
c) A gene that is expressed in every offspring of every generation is recessive.
d) A gene that is very similar in sequence in a human and a bacterium is probably a recent mutation.
e) A gene undergoes crossing over during DNA replication.