Download Biology TEST: Evolution Mini-Unit

Biology TEST: Evolution Mini-Unit
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations
a. in England.
b. in North America.
c. on the Galápagos Islands.
d. in Asia.
2. On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed
a. completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
b. species exactly like those found in South America.
c. somewhat similar species, with traits that suited their particular environments.
d. species completely unrelated to those found in South America.
3. The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural
adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a. similarities of the birds’ embryos.
b. birds’ different-shaped beaks.
c. length of the birds’ necks.
d. number of eggs in each bird’s nest.
4. In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled
a. Principles of Geology.
b. Essay on the Principle of Population.
c. Evolution in Malaysia.
d. On the Origin of Species.
5. When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is
a. natural selection.
b. artificial selection.
c. artificial variation.
d. survival of the fittest.
6. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their
environment. Their survival is due to the
a. possession of adaptations developed through use.
b. possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness.
c. lack of competition within the species.
d. choices made by plant and animal breeders.
7. An adaptation is an inherited characteristic that can be
a. physical or behavioral.
b. physical or geographical.
c. acquired during the organism’s lifetime.
d. the result of artificial selection.
8. Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is consistent with the
theory of natural selection?
a. They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring.
b. They tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population.
c. They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment.
d. They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species.
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9. Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment
a. diversity.
b. fitness.
c. adaptation.
d. evolution.
____ 10. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have
a. characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.
b. characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.
c. the greatest number of offspring.
d. variations best suited to the environment.
Figure 15-1
____ 11. In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur
shown in Figure 15-1 are
a. examples of fossils.
b. vestigial structures.
c. acquired traits.
d. examples of natural variation.
____ 12. Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar
physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches
a. have the ability to interbreed.
b. acquired traits through use and disuse.
c. all eat the same type of food.
d. originated from a common ancestor.
____ 13. People of Charles Darwin’s time understood that fossils
a. were preserved remains of ancient organisms.
b. were available for every organism that ever lived.
c. were unrelated to living species.
d. were evidence for the evolution of live on Earth.
____ 14. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most
biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of
a. the needs of the organisms.
b. a common ancestor.
c. the struggle for existence.
d. the inheritance of acquired traits.
____ 15. Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as
a. evidence that Earth was thousands of years old.
b. a detailed record of evolution.
c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species.
d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.
____ 16. Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution explains all of the following EXCEPT
a. how species become extinct.
b. how inherited traits are passed from parent to offspring.
c. how species change over time.
d. how evolution takes place in the natural world.
____ 17. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the idea(s) of
a. natural variation and natural selection.
b. use and disuse.
c. a tendency toward perfect, unchanging species.
d. the transmission of acquired characteristics.
____ 18. The same kinds of cells that grow in similar patterns in different but related organisms produce
a. homologous structures such as wings and arms.
b. the same kind of embryos.
c. natural variations in a population.
d. descent with modification.
____ 19. Which statement is in agreement with Darwin’s theory of evolution?
a. More offspring are produced than can possibly survive.
b. The organisms that are the fittest are always largest and strongest.
c. The number of offspring is not related to fitness.
d. Acquired characteristics that are inherited are the cause of evolution.
____ 20. Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution?
a. descent with modification
b. natural selection
c. transmission of acquired characteristics
d. competition among the members of a population
____ 21. Which of the following statements describe what all members of a population share?
a. They are temporally isolated from each other.
b. They are geographically isolated from each other.
c. They are members of the same species.
d. They have identical genes.
____ 22. The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population is the population’s
a. relative frequency.
b. phenotype.
c. genotype.
d. gene pool.
____ 23. Which statement below about gene pools is typically true?
a. They contain two or more alleles for each inheritable trait.
b. They contain only dominant alleles.
c. They belong to two or more interbreeding species.
d. The relative frequencies of the alleles never change.
____ 24. If an allele makes up one fourth of a population’s alleles for a given trait, its relative frequency is
a. 100 percent.
b. 75 percent.
c. 25 percent.
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d. 4 percent.
Interbreeding among members of a population results in
a. different types of alleles in the gene pool.
b. changes in the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool.
c. no changes in the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool.
d. an absence of genetic variation in the population.
A change in a sequence of DNA is called a
a. recombination.
b. polygenic trait.
c. single-gene trait.
d. mutation.
The two main sources of genetic variation are
a. genotypes and phenotypes.
b. gene shuffling and mutations.
c. single-gene traits and polygenic traits.
d. directional selection and disruptive selection.
In many kinds of organisms, inheritable differences are due mostly to
a. mutations during gamete formation.
b. polygenic traits.
c. gene shuffling during gamete formation.
d. the effects of radiation.
Gene shuffling includes the independent movement of chromosomes during meoisis as well as
a. mutations from radiation.
b. changes in the frequencies of alleles.
c. crossing-over.
d. mutations from chemicals.
The gene shuffling that occurs as part of sexual reproduction
a. changes the gene pool’s allele frequencies.
b. does not change the gene pool’s allele frequencies.
c. keeps the phenotypes consistent.
d. is caused by radiation or chemicals.
A single-gene trait that has two alleles and that shows a simple dominant-recessive pattern will result in
a. one phenotype.
b. two phenotypes.
c. four phenotypes.
d. millions of phenotypes.
The number of phenotypes produced for a given trait depends upon
a. the number of genes that control the trait.
b. which form of the trait is dominant.
c. the relative frequencies of the various alleles.
d. the relationship of allele frequencies to Mendelian ratios.
The phenotypes for a typical polygenic trait can often be expressed as
a. a bar graph.
b. a bell-shaped curve.
c. Mendelian ratios.
d. allele frequencies.
Compared to a polygenic trait, a single-gene trait tends to have
a. fewer phenotypes.
b. more phenotypes.
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c. the same number of phenotypes.
d. phenotypes that form a bell-shaped curve.
A polygenic trait can have
a. many possible genotypes, but few possible phenotypes.
b. many possible genotypes, producing many possible phenotypes.
c. fewer phenotypes than most single-gene traits.
d. fewer genotypes than most single-gene traits.
Natural selection acts directly on
a. alleles.
b. genes.
c. phenotypes.
d. mutations.
Which of the following is NOT a way in which natural selection affects the distribution of phenotypes?
a. directional selection
b. stabilizing selection
c. disruptive selection
d. chance events
When individuals at only one end of a bell curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is
a. directional selection.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. disruptive selection.
d. genetic drift.
When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a. not predictable.
b. disruptive selection.
c. directional selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
In a population of finches in which one group of birds has a short, parrotlike beak and another group has a
long, narrow beak, what process has probably occurred?
a. directional selection
b. disruptive selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. genetic drift
If a mutation introduces a new skin color in a lizard population, which factor might determine whether the
frequency of the new allele will increase?
a. how many other alleles are present
b. whether the mutation makes some lizards more fit for their environment than other lizards
c. how many phenotypes the population has
d. whether the mutation was caused by nature or by human intervention
In genetic drift, allele frequencies change because of
a. mutations.
b. chance.
c. natural selection.
d. genetic equilibrium.
Which of the following events do biologists consider a random change?
a. directional selection
b. speciation
c. disruptive selection
d. genetic drift
____ 44. Genetic drift tends to occur in populations that
a. are very large.
b. are small.
c. are formed from new species.
d. have unchanging allele frequencies.
____ 45. The type of genetic drift that follows the colonization of a new habitat by a small group of individuals is
called
a. the Hardy-Weinberg principle.
b. the founder effect.
c. directional selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
____ 46. One similarity between natural selection and genetic drift is that both events
a. are based completely on chance.
b. begin with one or more mutations.
c. involve a change in a population’s allele frequencies.
d. take place only in very small groups.
____ 47. The situation in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant is called
a. evolution.
b. genetic drift.
c. genetic equilibrium.
d. natural selection.
____ 48. One of the conditions required to maintain genetic equilibrium is
a. natural selection.
b. mutations.
c. nonrandom mating.
d. no movement into or out of the population.
____ 49. The genetic equilibrium of a population can be disturbed by each of the following EXCEPT
a. nonrandom mating.
b. movement into and out of the population.
c. a large population size.
d. mutations.
____ 50. The allele frequencies of a population are more likely to remain unchanged if
a. the population size is reduced.
b. frequent movement into and out of the population occurs.
c. all mating is random.
d. the mutation rate increases.
____ 51. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, genetic equilibrium would be more likely in a population of mice
if
a. the population size rapidly decreases.
b. mutation rates within the population rise.
c. no natural selection takes place.
d. there is frequent movement into and out of the population.
____ 52. Which factor would most likely disrupt genetic equilibrium in a large population?
a. the production of large numbers of offspring
b. mating that is not random
c. the absence of movement into and out of the population
d. the absence of mutations
____ 53. The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called
a. temporal isolation.
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b. geographic isolation.
c. behavioral isolation.
d. genetic equilibrium.
A factor that is necessary for the formation of a new species is
a. reproduction at different times.
b. geographic barriers.
c. different mating behaviors.
d. reproductive isolation.
What situation might develop in a population having some plants whose flowers open at midday and other
plants whose flowers open late in the day?
a. behavioral isolation
b. geographic isolation
c. temporal isolation
d. genetic drift
The geographic isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase differences between their gene
pools because it
a. prevents interbreeding between the populations.
b. prevents interbreeding within each population.
c. causes temporal isolation of the two populations.
d. increases differences in courtship behavior.
Although they often live in the same habitat, the American toad breeds earlier in the spring than the Fowler’s
toad does. What can be inferred from this information?
a. The two species do not interbreed because of geographic isolation.
b. The two species do not interbreed because of temporal isolation.
c. The two species interbreed throughout the spring season.
d. The American toad will cause the extinction of the Fowler’s toad.
Which is the first step that occurred in the speciation of the Galápagos finches?
a. establishing genetic equilibrium
b. behavioral isolation
c. ecological competition
d. arrival of the founding population
The Galápagos finch species is an excellent example of
a. speciation.
b. genetic equilibrium.
c. stabilizing selection.
d. selection on single-gene traits.
What did Peter and Rosemary Grant learn about mate choice from the Galápagos finches?
a. Phenotype plays no role in mate choice.
b. Finches prefer mates with beaks similar in size to their own.
c. Finches prefer mates with smaller beaks than their own.
d. Finches prefer mates with larger beaks than their own.
In Rosemary and Peter Grant’s study of the Galápagos finches, what process was encouraged by ecological
competition during the dry season?
a. stabilizing selection
b. disruptive selection
c. directional selection
d. genetic drift
Which statement about evolution in the Galápagos finches is true?
a. Natural selection on beak size and shape is driven by available food.
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b. Stabilizing selection has favored an intermediate beak type for all of the finches.
c. Mate choice likely plays no role in the finches’ evolution.
d. None of the finch species is reproductively isolated.
Examples of fossils include preserved
a. eggs.
b. footprints.
c. body parts.
d. all of the above
Sedimentary rock is formed from
a. the soft parts of organisms.
b. the hard parts of organisms.
c. small particles of sand, silt, and clay.
d. wood, shell, and bone.
What proportion of all species that have ever lived has become extinct?
a. less than 1 percent
b. approximately one-half
c. more than 99 percent
d. 100 percent
Most fossils form in
a. rusty water.
b. volcanic rock.
c. sedimentary rock.
d. the sap of ancient trees.
The fossil record shows that
a. most organisms that ever lived on Earth are now extinct.
b. fossils occur in a particular order.
c. modern organisms have unicellular ancestors.
d. all of the above
To be useful as an index fossil, a species must have existed for a
a. long period over a wide geographic range.
b. long period over a small geographic range.
c. short period over a wide geographic range.
d. short period over a small geographic range.
The length of time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is its
a. half-life.
b. relative date.
c. radioactive date.
d. period.
To compare the relative ages of fossils, scientists sometimes use an easily recognized species called a(an)
a. carbon fossil.
b. radioactive fossil.
c. index fossil.
d. sedimentary fossil.
How would you date a sample of rock that you suspect as being one of the earliest on Earth?
a. Use a radioactive isotope with a short half-life.
b. Use a radioactive isotope with a long half-life.
c. Use an index fossil.
d. Use a microfossil.
What must be true about an index fossil whose absolute age is used as a reference for other fossils?
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Other
a. The absolute age of the index fossil is actually unknown.
b. The absolute age of the index fossil was determined only by relative dating.
c. The absolute age of the index fossil was determined by radioactive dating or another
absolute method.
d. The index fossils must be the same age as the other fossils.
The Cambrian Explosion resulted in the evolution of the first
a. dinosaurs and mammals.
b. representatives of most animal groups.
c. bacteria.
d. land animals.
A very large mass extinction in which amphibians and trilobites disappeared occurred at the end of the
a. Precambrian.
b. Cambrian Period.
c. Paleozoic Era.
d. Quaternary Period.
During the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods, the dominant land animals were
a. amphibians.
b. dinosaurs.
c. grazing mammals.
d. human ancestors.
A fossilized dinosaur, found with fossils of the flowering plants that it ate, must have lived
a. since life first evolved.
b. before the Mesozoic Era.
c. during the Mesozoic Era.
d. after the Mesozoic Era.
The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to each
other is called
a. convergent evolution.
b. adaptive radiation.
c. coevolution.
d. punctuated equilibrium.
In the past, mass extinctions encouraged the rapid evolution of surviving species
a. by changing developmental genes.
b. by making new habitats available to them.
c. because they killed all organisms that had coevolved.
d. because they spared all organisms that had evolved convergently.
One way master control genes, or hox genes, could have affected evolution is
a. by causing mutations in other genes.
b. through small changes in timing during embryonic development.
c. through the coevolution of species.
d. by leading to convergent evolution.
A pattern in which species experience long, stable periods interrupted by brief periods of rapid evolutionary
change is called
a. convergent evolution.
b. coevolution.
c. adaptive radiation.
d. punctuated equilibrium.
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 15-3
81. Interpreting Graphics What differences are apparent in the bodies of the three tortoise species shown in
Figure 15-3?
a. necks of different lengths
b. hells that differ in overall shape
c. size of the opening for the neck
d. all of the above
82. Interpreting Graphics Which of the tortoises shown in Figure 15-3 has the longest neck?
a. Isabella
b. Pinta
c. Hood
d. none of the above
83. Applying Concepts Can you tell from Figure 15-3 how closely the three tortoise species resemble the
ancestral species?
a. yes
b. no
84. Inferring Vegetation on Hood Island is sparse and sometimes hard to reach. How might the vegetation have
affected the evolution of the Hood Island tortoise shown in Figure 15-3?
a. Ancestral tortoises with long necks and shells that permitted greater neck movement obtained food more
easily, survived longer, and produced more offspring than other tortoises.
b. Ancestral tortoises with short necks and shells that permitted greater neck movement obtained food more
easily, survived longer, and produced more offspring than other tortoises.
c. Ancestral tortoises with long necks and shells that prevented greater neck movement obtained food more
easily, survived longer, and produced more offspring than other tortoises.
d.. none of the above
85. Forming Hypotheses Considering the body structure of the tortoises shown in Figure 15-3, which tortoises—
a population from Pinta Island or a population from Isabela Island—might survive more successfully on Hood
Island?
a. Pintab. Isabela
c. both have an equal chance of success
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Geologic Time Scale
Era
Cenozoic
Period
End date
(in millions of years)
Quaternary
present
Tertiary
Mesozoic
Paleozoic
Precambrian Time
1.8
Cretaceous
65
Jurassic
145
Triassic
208
Permian
245
Carboniferous
290
Devonian
363
Silurian
410
Ordovician
440
Cambrian
505
Vendian
544
Figure 17-1
86. Interpreting Graphics How many geologic periods are shown in Figure 17-1?
a. 9
b. 10 c. 11 d. 12
87. Applying Concepts The Paleozoic Era ended with the disappearance of many land and aquatic species. What
is that type of event called?
a. emigration
b. immigration c. mass extinction
d. none of the above
88. Calculating Use Figure 17-1 to determine how many years the Silurian Period lasted.
a. 20 million years (mya)
b. 30 mya
c. 40 mya
89. Interpreting Graphics According to Figure 17-1, the end of the Mesozoic Era marks the extinction of
dinosaurs. How long ago did the dinosaurs become extinct?
a. 25 mya
b. 45 mya
c. 65 mya
d. 90 mya
90. Interpreting Graphics The first marsupials, a group that includes the modern kangaroo, evolved about 100
million years ago. According to Figure 17-1, during which geologic period did marsupials evolve?
a. Quaternary
b. Cretaceous
c. Permian
d. Silurian
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 17-2
91. Using Table and Graphs Use Figure 17-2 to determine the approximate half-life of carbon-14.
a. 25 years
b. 3000 years
c. 5730 years
d. not enough information
92. Using Tables and Graphs According to Figure 17-2, how many half-lives have passed if a fossil has 1/8 of
its original amount of carbon-14?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
93. Using Tables and Graphs A fossil bone was found to contain about 1/16 of the amount of carbon-14 that
was originally present. Use Figure 17-2 to determine the approximate age of the bone.
a. The bone is about 23,000 years old.
b. The bone is about 23,000,000 years old.
c. The bone is about 2300 years old.
d. The bone is about 230 years old.
94. Inferring According to Figure 17-2, in which case would carbon-14 be more useful for radioactive dating: for
wooden beams in native American cave dwellings, which are probably less than 7000 years old, or for the
fossil of an early mammal that is probably 100,000 years old?
a. or wooden beams in native American cave dwellings
b. for the fossil of an early mammal that is probably 100,000 years old
c. This type of dating is good for neither.
95. Predicting As carbon-14 decays, it changes to nitrogen-14, which is released as a gas. Refer to Figure 17-2 to
predict how the amount of nitrogen gas produced would change over the period of radioactive decay. Why
does that change take place?
a. The amount of nitrogen gas produced by radioactive decay would decline throughout the period of decay,
with the largest amount being produced at the beginning.
b. This is when the greatest proportion of carbon-14 decays, with progressively smaller fractions decaying
(and correspondingly smaller amounts of nitrogen gas being produced) over time.
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the above
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 16-1
96. Interpreting Graphics According to Graph A in Figure 16-1, what has occurred?
a. The average beak size of the birds represented in Graph A has increased.
b. The average beak size of the birds represented in Graph A has decreased.
c. The average beak size of the birds represented in Graph A has not changed.
97. Interpreting Graphics According to Graph B in Figure 16-1, what has occurred?
a. Stabilizing selection has occurred.
b. Stabilizing selection has not occurred.
c. Directional selection has occurred.
98. Interpreting Graphics According to Graph C in Figure 16-1, what has occurred?
a. Stabilizing selection has occurred.
b. Disruptive selection has occurred.
c. Directional selection has occurred.
99. Inferring Which of the three graphs shown in Figure 16-1 might show a population of birds with members
that specialize in different types of food?
a. A
b. B
c. C
100. Inferring What factors or conditions might have led to the change shown in Graph A of Figure 16-1?
a. A change in the birds’ environment, such as the introduction of a larger kind of food, could have caused
the directional selection in favor of larger beaks.
b. A change in the birds’ environment, such as the introduction of a larger kind of food, could have caused
the disruptive selection in favor of larger beaks.
c.A change in the birds’ environment, such as the introduction of a larger kind of food, could have caused the
stabilizing selection in favor of larger beaks.