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Transcript
Physical Science: Final Exam
1. Which of these particles has a positive charge?
A. atom
B. proton
C. neutron
D. electron
2. Which of the following is/are found in the nucleus of an atom?
A. neutrons only
B. electrons
C. protons & neutrons
D. protons only
3. Particles that move around the nucleus of an atom.
A. charges
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. protons
4. Electrons involved in bonding between two atoms are..
A. valence electrons
B. inside the nucleus
C. closest to the nucleus
D. positively charged
5. The modern periodic table is arranged in order of increasing …
A. atomic mass
B. number of valence electrons
C. atomic number
D. number of neutrons
6. What information in the periodic table indicates the number of protons in an atom?
A. its group number
B. its period number
C. its atomic number
D. its atomic mass
7. Elements in the same group (column) on the periodic table have….
A. very different properties B. the same atomic number
C. similar properties
D. the same atomic mass
8. Where are the metals located on the periodic table?
A. left of stair step line
B. right of stair step line
C. on stair step line
D. in the middle rows
9. Most metals are NOT…
A. ductile
C. malleable
B. conductors
D. brittle
10. Which of the following indicates the number of valence electrons required to satisfy
the octet rule? (How many valence electrons do those atoms want to have?)
A. 2
B. 18
C. 32
D. 8
11. What causes elements to bond?
A. atomic number
B. valence electrons
C. atomic mass
D. neutrons
12. From an element’s location on the periodic table, you can predict…
A. its properties
B. its chemical name
C. its chemical symbol
D. its date of discovery
13. Which group contains the elements that have properties of both metals and
nonmetals?
A. metals
B. nonmetals
C. metalloids
D. transition metals
14. Of the states of matter, which has the most tightly packed particles?
A. solid
B. gas
C. liquid
D. plasma
15. Of the states of matter, which has no definite shape and no definite volume?
A. solid
B. gas
C. liquid
D. ice
16. When enough heat is transferred to a solid, what happens to that solid?
A. it melts
B. it vaporizes
C. it sublimates
D. it condenses
17. What are the freezing and melting points of water?
A. 0◦C & 1◦C
B. it depends on the water
C. both are 100◦C
D. both are 0◦C
18. This occurs when the surface of a solid substance gains enough thermal energy to
become a gas, skipping the liquid phase.
A. melting
B. sublimation
C. condensation
D. vaporization
19. This is a highly ionized gas containing an approximately equal number of positive
ions and electrons.
A. plasma
B. gas
C. vapor
D. pressure
20. The energy possessed by the particles in a substance is…
A. heat energy
B. temperature
C. potential energy
D. thermal energy
21. The measure of the average energy of the individual particles in a substance is…
A. heat energy
B. temperature
C. potential energy
D. thermal energy
22. This is the temperature at which there is no longer any particle motion.
A. 0◦C
B. 0◦F
C. 0 K
D. -100◦C
23. This is the term used to describe when thermal energy moves from one substance to
another.
A. thermal energy
B. potential energy
C. heat
D. liquid
24. This is a substance that prevents or inhibits the conduction of heat.
A. conductor
B. insulator
C. thermometer
D. thermal
25. Thermal energy and heat always move from ______ substances to _______
substances.
A. cooler, warmer
B. warmer, cooler
C. harder, softer
D. solids, gases
Look at the diagram below to answer questions 26-28
#1
#2
#3
26. Diagram #1 depicts which state of matter?
A. gas
B. plasma
C. solid
D. liquid
27. Diagram #2 depicts which state of matter?
A. gas
B. plasma
C. solid
D. liquid
28. Diagram #3 depicts which state of matter?
A. gas
B. plasma
C. solid
D. liquid
29. Which of the following is an example of a physical change in matter?
A. burning
B. evaporation
C. exploding
D. none of the above
30. Which of the following is evidence that a physical change has occurred?
A. a brand new substance is formed
B. the original substance can be retrieved
C. it gives off heat
D. the color has changed
31. What is an ion?
A. an atom that doesn’t have neutrons
B. an atom or group of atoms that has become electrically charged
C. the opposite of an electron
D. an atom that doesn’t have protons
32. When an atom loses an electron, it becomes a
A. positive ion.
B. negative ion.
C. neutral ion.
D. neutral atom.
33. An ionic bond is formed when
A. electrons are shared.
B. electrons are destroyed.
C. electrons are transferred.
D. electrons are combined.
Which is34
thThe product in this chemical equation? N + O2  NO2
a. N
c. O2
b. N + O2
d. NO2
35. The ionic compound MgO is called
A. oxide magnesium.
B. oxygen magnesium.
C. magnesium oxygen.
D. magnesium oxide.
36. A chemical bond that forms when two atoms share electrons is called a(n)
A. ionic bond.
B. covalent bond.
C. polyatomic bond.
D. crystal bond.
Two or 37
m Two or more substances that are NOT chemically combined are called?
a. elements
b. compounds
c. mixtures
d. Atoms
38. Water vapor in the air turns to liquid water in the form of rain. This is an example of a
A. physical change.
B. chemical change.
C. chemical equation.
D. chemical formula.
39. What happens when chemical bonds break and new bonds form?
A. a physical change
B. a chemical reaction
C. matter is destroyed
D. surface area increases
40. As milk sits on the counter it begins to develop a new odor. This is evidence to
suggest that…..
A. A chemical change has occurred
B. A physical change has occurred
C. No has occurred
D. The milk is fresh
41. A shorter, easier way to show chemical reactions, using symbols instead of words,
is called a
A. chemical equation.
B. chemical formula.
C. symbol.
D. subscript.
42. When ice is melted, this is an example of __________
A. A chemical reaction
B. A chemical change
C. A physical change
D. A molecular change
43. In chemical reactions, what does the law of conservation of mass/matter mean?
A. Matter is not created or destroyed.
B. The total mass of the reactants is greater than the total mass of the products.
C. The total mass of the reactants is less than the total mass of the products.
D. Matter is not changed.
44. Neon is an example of a/an….
A. ion
B. element
C. compound
D. mixture
45. Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation?
A. H2O2 → H2O + O2
B. 2 Fe2O3 + 3 C → 4 Fe + 3 CO2
C. SO2 + O2 + 2 H2O → 4 H2SO4
D. 2 Mg + HCl → MgCl2 + H2
46. What type of energy is possessed by an object that is in motion?
A. kinetic
B. frictional
C. potential
D. inertia
47. The tendency of an object to resist any change in motion (staying in motion or not)
is known as…
A. inertia
B. friction
C. force
D. potential
48. The type of energy that is stored and held in readiness?
A. potential
B. frictional
C. mechanical
D. kinetic
49. Which of the following has more kinetic energy?
A. a school bus traveling 50mph
B. a small car traveling 50mph
C. a greyhound (the dog) traveling 50mph
D. a fly (insect) traveling 50mph
50. A change in position is known as…
A. inertia
B. motion
C. force
D. displacement
51. Motion is measured as it is compared to a ___________.
A. force
B. reference point
C. time
D. distance
52. What is required to start an object moving or to stop its motion?
A. unbalanced force
B. velocity
C. inertia
D. balanced force
53. What is the standard unit used to measure force?
A. meter
B. Newton
C. Newforce
D. m/s
54. If your book is being pushed westward with 10 N of force, and an opposing force of
5 N is applied, what is the net force acting on the book?
A. 10 N
B. 15N
C. 5 N
D. 0 N
55. When you know both the speed and the direction of an object’s motion, you know
the…..
A. acceleration
B. mass
C. velocity
D. force
56. The force that one surface exerts on another when the two rub against each other is
called….
A. friction
B. acceleration
C. inertia
D. gravity
57.
Which of the following statements is true regarding this motion graph?
A.
B.
C.
D.
object is not moving
object is moving towards the reference point
object is moving away from the reference point
object is staying at the reference point
58. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this motion graph?
A.
B.
C.
D.
object is speeding up
object is slowing down
object is not moving
object is at a constant speed
59. If a 200N of force is applied to a chair and causes it to move 5 m, how much work
has been done?
A. 40J
B. 1000J
C. none
D. 205J
60. In the diagram below, which pair of spheres has the greatest gravitational force
between them?
A.
B.
C.
D.
pair 1
pair 2
they are the same
there is no gravity between them
61. What is the rate of acceleration due to gravity?
A.. 9.8m/s
B. 9.8m/s/s
C. 98m/s/s
D. .98 m/s
62. If a bowling ball and a golf ball are both dropped from the same height (assume no
air resistance), which will hit the ground first?
A. bowling ball
B. golf ball
C. depends on mass
D. both hit at same time
63. When the only force acting on a falling object is gravity, the object is said to be in a
____________.
A. momentum
B. acceleration
C. terminal velocity
D. free fall
64. Air resistance is a type of __________.
A. motion
B. friction
C. acceleration
D. momentum
65. When air resistance equals the force of gravity on a falling object, the object reaches
______.
A. free fall
B. a stop
C. terminal velocity
D. momentum
66. When an object is in a free fall, what is its velocity at 10 seconds (assume no air
resistance)?
A. 98m/s
B. 9.8m/s
C. 9.8m/s/s
D. 980 m/s
67. The law of universal gravitation states that….
A. mass is gravity
B. everything exerts a gravitational force
C. gravity is a force
D. only objects with large masses have gravity
68. What is the mechanical advantage of the inclined plane below?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3MA
3
27MA
27
69. Projectile motion is described as having which two components?
A. curved & circular
B. horizontal & angled
C. vertical and round
D. horizontal & vertical
70. Which statement is FALSE regarding the motion graph below?
A.
B.
C.
D.
object is slowing down
object has a constant rate of acceleration
object is moving towards the reference point
graph shows a negative slope
71. A wave carries _______.
A. matter
C. air
B. energy
D. water
72. The distance between one crest and the next crest is the wave’s ______.
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. wavelength
D. speed
73. Sound is ______________.
A. matter
C. potential energy
B. vibration
D. electromagnetic energy
74. A sound wave bending around a corner is called _________.
A. refraction
B. frequency
C. echo
D. diffraction
75. When a light wave bends as it goes from one medium to another is called _______
A. refraction
B. frequency
C. reflection
D. diffraction
76. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. as wavelength decreases, frequency decreases
B. as wavelength increases, frequency increases
C. as wavelength decreases, frequency increases
D. there is no relationship between wavelength and frequency
77. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. light travels in transverse waves
B. sound travels in transverse waves
C. sound travels in longitudinal waves
D. light travels in electromagnetic waves
78. If the loudness of a sound increases, which of the following is the cause?
A. increased frequency
B. increased amplitude
C. increased wavelength
D. increased speed
79. A high pitched sound is produced when ……..
A. the frequency is high
B. the frequency is low
C. the amplitude is high
D. the amplitude is low
80. Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the most energy?
A. radio
B. visible light
C. gamma
D. ultra violet
81. Which color in the visible spectrum has the LEAST amount of energy?
A. red
B. blue
C. violet
D. green
82. Our eyes can see through _____________ matter because light is _________.
A. opaque, transmitted
B. transparent, absorbed
C. opaque, blocked
D. transparent, transmitted
83. Our eye sees an apple as red because……
A. red light is absorbed
B. red light is transmitted
C. red light is reflected
D. all colors EXCEPT red are reflected
84. What causes light waves to refract?
A. light increasing frequency as it moves from one medium to another
B. light moving around a barrier
C. light changing wavelength as it moves from one medium to another
D. light changing speed as it moves from one medium to another
85. Each color of light has its own ________________.
A. speed
B. wavelength
C. velocity
D. amplitude
86. Which of the following diagrams shows the accurate reflection of light
A
B
A. diagram A
C. neither diagram
B. diagram B
D. both diagrams
87. Which shows the accurate reflection of light?
A
A. diagram A
C. both
B
B. diagram B
D. neither
Use the diagram below for #88-89
88. Identify the lens in Lens A diagram
A. concave
B. convex
C. opaque
D. refraction
89. Identify the lens in Lens B diagram
A. concave
B. convex
C. opaque
D. refraction
Lens A
Lens B
90. Which type of lens is found in the human eye?
A. convex
B. refracted
C. concave
D. flat
91. Where on a magnet is the magnetic force strongest?
A. at the north pole only
B. at either pole
C. halfway between the poles
D. The force is equally strong everywhere.
92. If you break a magnet in two, you get
A. one north magnet and one south magnet.
B. two demagnetized pieces of metal.
C. two smaller magnets.
D. two magnets each with only one pole.
93. Rubber, glass, and wood are all
A. conductors.
B. magnetic.
C. insulators.
D. resistors.
94. You can increase the strength of an electromagnet by all of the
following EXCEPT
A. increasing the amount of current in the wire.
B. increasing the number of loops of wire.
C. using a stronger ferromagnetic material for the core.
D. decreasing the number of loops of wire.
95. An electric current flows through a continuous loop known as a(n)
A. resistor
B. magnet.
C. insulator.
D. circuit.
96. In a series circuit, if more light bulbs are added, the bulbs become
A. dimmer.
B. brighter.
C. hotter.
D. more resistant.
97. The difference in electrical potential between two places is called
A. resistance.
B. induction.
C. friction.
D. voltage.
98. The unit of current is the
A. volt.
C. amp.
B. ohm.
D. electron.
99. In science, hypotheses are tested through
A. observation or experiment.
B. responding variables.
C. scientific laws.
D. inference.
100. Data can take any of the following forms EXCEPT
A. measurements.
B. fiction
C. facts.
D. descriptions.