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‫بسم هللا الرحمن الرحيم‬
Choose the correct answer for question (1 – 86)
1. The drug Crestor contains the following active ingredient:
a. Verapamil
b.Rosuvastatin
c. Pravastatin
d.Ramipril
e. Cilazapril
2. The drug Crestor is classified as:
a. ACE inhibitor / diuretic agent
b.Β blocker
c.Statin type hypocholestrolemic agent
d.Statin type hypercholestrolemic agent
e. Calcium antagonist hypotensive agent
3. All of the following drugs are classified as Anti-Malarial drugs Except:
a.Quinine
b.Dicyclomine
c.Chloroquine
d.Proguanil
e.None of the above
4.Which of the following is True regarding the drug Tavanic:
a. Tavanic contains Fexofenadrine and manufactured by Aventis
b. Tavanic contains Cilazapril and manufactured by Roche
c. Tavanic contains Levofloxacin and manufactured by Sanofi Aventis
d. Tavanic contains Tamoxifen and manufactured by Astra Zeneca
e. Tavanic contains Vancomycin and manufactured by GSK
5. The drug Pepticum contains the following active ingredient:
a. Papaverine HCl
b. Chlordiazepoxide
c. Famotidine
d. Misoprostol
e. Omeprazole
6. The drug Pepticum is classified as:
a. Anticholinergic
b. Proton pump inhibitor
c. Prostaglandin analogue
d. Deflatulent
e. Antihypertensive agent
7. A locally manufactured drug that contains the same active ingredient as Pepticum
include the followings Except:
a. Marial
c. Gastrex
b. Locid
d. Mepral
e. None of the above
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8. Which of the following is not correct:
a. Zinex = Cefuroxime
b. Trovan = Tramadol
c. Jephazim = Ceftazidime
d. Klarimax = Clarithromycin
e. Lamirase = Terbinafine
9. State which of the following Pharmaceutical latin abbreviation is not correct:
a. gtt = a drop
b. qid = four time a day
c. p.r.n = at bedtime
d. q.o.d = every other day
e. o.d = right eye
10. How much sodium chloride is needed to make 50ml solution isotonic:
a. 0.45mg
b. 0.9gm
c. 1.32gm
d. 0.53gm
e. 9gm
11. How much Penicillin V.K is needed to fill the following prescription:
Rx
Penicillin V.K Susp
250mg / 5ml
sig. tsp i qid x 10 d
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
50ml
100ml
150ml
200ml
250ml
12. A medication is available in a 200mg/5ml vial. An Rx calls for 300mg bid X 10d.
How many (ml) are needed for a single day?
a. 15ml
b. 150ml
c. 75ml
d. 7.5ml
e. 20ml
13. The following Antidote is used in case of opiates (Heroin, Morphine, Codeine)
poisoning:
a.
Glucagon
b. Naloxone
c.
Protamine sulfate
d. Leucovorin
e.
D. penicillamine
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14. The following drug is classified as an Anti-tuberculosis agent and should not be used
in pregnancy:
a. Ofloxacin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Allopurinol
d. a + b
e. All of the above.
15. All of the following are used as Anticoagulant agents Except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Warfarin
Heparin
Protamine sulfate
Clexane
Cartia
16. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the drug Singulair:
a. Singulair contains Montelukast sodium as active ingredient
b. Singulair is used in Prophylaxis and Chronic treatment of Asthma
c. Singulair is used in Treatment of Hypertension
d. a & b
e. a & c
17. Fluconazole is classified as a/an:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Antifungal agent
Antiasthmatic agent
Antihypertensive agent
Antidepressant agent
Muscle relaxant
18. All of the followings are oral hypoglycemic agents Except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Chlorpropamide
Glimepiride
Metformin
Glipizide
None of the above
19. The drug Modex that is used for Irritable Colon Syndrome contains the following
active ingredient/(s):
a. Chlordiazepoxide
b. Clidinium bromide
c. Sulpride
d. a + b
e. a + b + c
20. Taricin eye drops contains the following active ingredient:
a. Tetrahydrazoline
b. Ofloxacin
e. Naphazoline
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Sodium Cromoglycate
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21. Benzyl alcohol is classified as:
a. Emulsifying agent
b. Preservative
e. Non of the above
c. Diluent
d. Suspending agent
22. Cold cream is an example of:
a. Suspension
b. O/W emulsion
e. . Non of the above
c. W/O emulsion
d. O/W/O emulsion
23. Which of the following drugs is an angiotensin receptor antagonist ?
a. Lisinopril
c. Methyldopa
b. Losartan
d. Captopril
e. Enalapril
24. The most useful glucose test employed in monitoring diabetes mellitus therapy is
a. Urine monitoring
b. blood monitoring
c. Renal function monitoring
d. cardiovascular monitoring
e. vascular monitoring
25. Which of the following is NOT an example of a live attenuated vaccine ?
a. Measles
c. Rubella
b. Diphtheria
d. Mumps
e. Influenza
26. As with most menopause symptoms, hot flashes are due to
a. Estrogen deficiency
c. Progesterone deficiency
b. Estrogen excess
d. Progesterone excess
e. Androgen excess
27. The symptoms of BPH are caused by
a. pressure exerted by the prostate gland on urethra
b. relaxation of bladder muscles
c. shrinkage of the prostate gland
d. relaxation of the prostate gland muscles
e. non of the above
28. Which of the following TCA is used in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis?
a. Doxepine
c. Sertraline
b. Imipramine
d. Amoxapine
e. Desipramine
29. ALL the following Antibiotics are Antineoplastics EXEPT
a. Vancomycin
c. Dactinomycin
b. Bleomycin
d. mitomycin
e.doxorubicin
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30. Which of the following drugs is the first line choice for treatment of hypertension?
a. Captopril
c. Propranolol HCl
b. Diltiazem
d. Quinidine
e. Nitroglycerine
31. Mr. X has a past history of depression. Now he is suffering from hypertension.
Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided because of his past
history of depression?
a. Amiodarone
c. Chlorothiazide
b. Clonidine
d. Furosemide
e. Propranolol HCl
32. Excessive hair growth is commonly reported with use of
a. Clonidine
b. Hydralazine
c. Minoxidil
d. Risperidonel
e. Olanzapine
33. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a CHF patients with B blocker?
a. Verapamil
b. Clonidine
e. Nitroglycerin
c. Enalapril
d. Chlorothiazide
34. All of the following are true about Fexofenadine EXCEPT
a. It is anti-allergic drug with nonsedative properties.
b .It is a metabolite of Terfenadine.
c. Liver metabolism is very negligible.
d. Onset of action is within 60 minutes.
e. It is a H2 receptor antagonist
35. Which of the following cannot be refilled under any circumstances?
a. Metoprolol
b.Methylphenidate
e. NPH insulin
c. Mitomycin
d. Hydroxyurea
36. If a patient was taking Glyburide for type II diabetes and a physician prescribed
Chlorpropamide, the pharmacist will :
a. Fill the prescription.
b. Notify the physician about duplication of therapy.
c. Notify the physician about any interaction.
d. All of the above.
e. Notify the patient about duplication of therapy.
37. All of the following drugs should be carefully prescribed with aspirin EXCEPT
a. Enoxaprine
b. Coumadin
e.Fraxiparine
c. Heparin
d. Metoclopropamide
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38. Overdose of Coumadin can be treated by
a. Vitamin K
b. Acetylcysteine
e. Deferoxamine
c. Mesna
d. Protamine sulfate. d. Protamine sulfate.
39. Prochlorperazine can be classified as a
a. Antiemetic
b. Antidepressant
e. Antiallergic
c. Anti-anxiety
d. Antihypertensive
40. Clopidrogel is classified as a :
a. Anti-hypertensive.
b. Platelet aggregation inhibitor.
c. Anti-diabetic.
d. Anti-Parkinson’s.
e. Non of the above.
41. All of the following drugs can be indicated for the treatment of asthma EXCEPT
a. Ipratropium
b. Metoprolol
e.Salbutamol
c. Albuterol
d. Zafirlukast
42. Which of the following auxiliary labels is required when dispensing Otocort otic
solution ?
a. Take with food.
b. Do not consume alcoholic beverages.
c. For ear only.
d. Shake well before dispensing.
e. For eye only .
43. The active ingredient in Cymbalta is
a – Reboxetine
c - Mirtazapine
b – Doxepine
d – Paroxetine
e – Duloxetine
44. The active ingredient in Secure is
a – Amlodipine
b – Valsartan
e – Cilazapril
45. The active ingredient in Kalbeten is
a – Kaoline
b – Pectine
e – All of the above
c – Doxazosin
d – Bisoprolol
c – Furazolidine
d – Bismuth Subsalicylate
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46. Tavanic is classified as
a – Quinolones AB
b – Macroldes AB
e –Carbapenemes AB
c – Aminoglycosides AB
d – Cephalosporines AB
47. The active ingredient in Glucomin is
a- Glibenclamide
c – Metformin
b – Glimepiride
d – Glipizide
e –Chlorpropamide
48. The active ingredient in Mobicol is
a – Sulindac
b – Tadalafil
e – Sotalol
c – Sulfadoxine
d – Zanosar
49. The active ingredient in Allow is
a – Dexamethasone
b – Prednisolone
e – Desloratadine
c – Betamethasone
d – Clobetasol
50. The active ingredient in Aerius is
a – Desloratadine
b – Cetrizine
e – Dimethindene
c – Loratadine
d – Mebhydrolin
51. The active ingredient in Dican is
a – Itracanazole
b – Dicanazole
e – Bifanazole
c – Flucanazole
d – Micanazole
52. The manufacturer of Dican is
a – Birzeit
b – Pharmacare
e – Gama
c – Beit jala
d – Jerusalem
Questions 53–64
Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of the responses is (are) correct.
Decide which of the responses is (are) correct. Then choose:
a- if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b- if 1 and 2 only are correct
c- if 2 and 3 only are correct
d- if 1 only is correct
e- if 3 only is correct
53.Transdermal fentanyl:
1 - is used for pain relief
2 - contains a pure agonist for μ-opioid receptors
3 - provides long-lasting analgesic effect
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54. Clozapine has an affinity for:
1 - dopamine receptors
2 - serotonin receptors
3 - muscarinic receptors
55. Ciclosporin:
1 - has an inhibitory effect on T-lymphocytes
2 - may cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine
during the first few weeks of treatment
3 - causes hyperlipidaemia
56. When candesartan is started in the older person, recommended monitoring includes:
1 - plasma potassium
2 - bilirubin
3 - blood glucose
57. Dose reduction and delays in administration of planned cytotoxic
chemotherapy are caused by:
1 - alopecia
2 - extravasation
3 - leucopenia
58. Aldosterone:
1 - production is regulated primarily by the liver
2 - levels are decreased by low-sodium diets
3 - is produced by the adrenal cortex
59. Proteinuria:
1 - is an indicator of renal disease
2 - may be an indicator of pre-eclampsia
3 - 24-h urine specimen collection could be recommended if proteinuria is significant
60. Patients with type I diabetes should be advised:
1 - to self-monitor blood glucose
2 - to have access to a source of fast sugars
3 - to avoid participating in sport
61. When aspirin is compared with warfarin, it:
1 - decreases platelet aggregation
2 - has higher rates of major haemorrhage
3 - requires the same degree of monitoring
62. Potential beneficial effects of cannabis include:
1 - anti-emetic
2 - analgesia
3 - appetite suppressant
63. Drugs that may cause hypertension include:
1 - corticosteroids
2 - phenothiazines
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3 - alpha-adrenoceptor blockers
64. Patients receiving oral iron tablets should be advised:
1 - to take the preparation with food
2 - that stools may be black-coloured
3 - to rinse their mouth after drug administration
Questions 65–67 concern the following:
a - ophthalmoscope
b - otoscope
c - stethoscope
d - sphygmomanometer
e - reflex hammer
Select, from A to E, which one of the above is used:
65) to investigate retinopathy
66) to assess breath sounds
67) to test deep tendon reflexes
Questions 68–70 concern the following:
a - gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
b - C peptide
c - troponin I
d - prolactin
e - human chorionic gonadotrophin
Select, from A to E, which one of the above:
68. is produced by the placenta
69. is released from the beta cells of the pancreas
70. is released from the anterior pituitary gland
71. Increased serum levels of which of the following is associated with a decreased risk of
atherosclerosis?
a- Cholesterol
c- HDL
b- LDL
d- Triglyceride
e- VLDL
72. A 35 year old pregnant woman appears to have familial combined hyperlipidemia.
Which of the following drugs should be avoided because of a risk of harming the fetus?!
a- Cholestyramine
c- Fenofibrate
b- Ezetimibe
d- Niacin
e- Pravastation
73. Aspirin overdose is characterized by a syndrome of
a- Bone marrow dysfunction and possibly aplastic anemia.
b- Fever, hepatic dysfunction and encephalopathy
c- Hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and coma
d- Rapid, fulminant hepatic failure
e- Rash, interstitial nephritis and acute renal failure
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74. The most likely cause of death associated with an overdose of acetaminophen is
a- Arrhythmia
c- Liver Failure
b- Hemorrhagic stroke
d- Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
e- Ventilatory failure
75. Normal values for hemoglobin and blood is
a- 10g/dL
c- 12-14g/d
b- 10-12g/dL
d- 12-16g/dL
76. Normal values for triglyceride
a- 100-200
b- 150-250
e- <100
77. Normal values for LDL
a- 120-150
b- <130
c- 180-220
d- <150
c- >130
d- 160-200
78. Circle the five controlled drugs from the following (5p)
a- Depalept
b- Pemoline
c- Tegretol
d- Balgesic
e- Migraleve
f- Spasmalgin
g- Tofranil
h- Tramal
i Vaben
j- stilnox
Put (T) next to the right statement and (F) next to the wrong statement for each of the
following:
79.Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal increase in the number of platelets in the blood; patients
with Thrombocytopenia are susceptible to hemorrhage.
80.Neutropenia is an abnormal increase in the number of neutrophils in the blood.
81.Pernicious anemia is a form of megaloplastic anemia that results from a lack of intrinsic
factor, which is produced by gastric mucosal cells and is required for intestinal absorption of
vit. B12.
82.Hemochromatosis is a condition of chronic excess total body iron that is caused by an
inherited abnormality of iron absorption or by frequent transfusions to treat certain types of
hemorlytic disorders (thalassemia major).
83.Megaloplastic anemia is a result from iron deficiency.
84. Deficiencies of folic acid or vit. B12 are the most common causes of megaloplastic anemia
85. Acute iron poisoning often causes hypotesion, cardiac arrhythmias and seizures.
86. Lipoproteins are a macro molecular complexes in the blood that serve to transport lipids.
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‫أجب بنعم أو ال على األسئلة من (‪:)96-87‬‬
‫‪ .87‬مستودع األدوية مخصص لبيع األدوية بالجملة والمفرق ألي كان‪( .‬‬
‫)‬
‫‪ .88‬يلغى الترخيص الممنوح من الوزارة في حال تم بيع الصيدلية دون علم وموافقة‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫الوزارة‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .89‬يجب أن ال تقل مساحة الصيدلية عن ‪ 40‬متر مربع‬
‫‪ .90‬يجوز للصيدلي أن يكون مالكا ً ألكثر من مؤسسة صيدالنية واحدة‪) (.‬‬
‫‪ .91‬إذا رسب المتقدم المتحان مزاولة مهنة الصيدلة في الفحص الشفوي يعفى من الفحص‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫التحريري للدورتين الالحقتين‪.‬‬
‫‪ . 92‬يجوز للصيدلي أن يصرف أية وصفة طبية ال تحمل اسم وعنوان وتوقيع الطبيب‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫الصادر عنه‪.‬‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫‪ .93‬يجب أن ال تقل مساحة مستودع األدوية عن ‪ 120‬متر مربع‪.‬‬
‫‪ .94‬يجوز استعمال الصيدلية كعيادة طبية‪ ،‬كما يجوز حقن اإلبر في الصيدلية من قبل‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫الصيدلي المسؤول فقط‪.‬‬
‫‪ .95‬يجوز أن يكون للصيدلية العامة بابان أحدهما على الطريق العام واآلخر يوصلها ببناء‬
‫)‬
‫(‬
‫أو طريق فرعي أو متصل بعيادة طبية أو مستودع أو منزل‬
‫‪ .96‬إذا لم تحمل األدوية الصق السعر والمورد فإنها تكون عرضة للمصادرة( )‬
‫مع تمنياتنا لكم بالنجاح‬
‫‪11‬‬
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