Download Biology Mrs. Riney 2009-2010

BIOLOGY End of the Year FINAL EXAM REVIEW
_____ 1. Which of the following is NOT a goal of science?
a.
to investigate and understand nature
b. to explain events in nature
c.
to use data to support a particular point of view
d. to use derived explanations to make useful predictions
____
2.
Information gathered from observing a plant grow 3 cm over a two-week period results in
a.
inferences.
b. variables.
c.
hypotheses.
d. data.
____
3.
You state: The presence of water could accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is a(an)
a.
conclusion.
b. hypothesis.
c.
experiment.
d. analysis.
____
4.
Hypotheses may arise from
a.
prior knowledge.
b. logical inferences.
c.
imaginative guesses.
d. all of the above
____
5.
A controlled experiment allows the scientist to isolate and test
a.
a conclusion.
b. a mass of information.
c.
several variables.
d. a single variable.
____
6.
Scientists publish the details of important experiments so that
a.
their work can be repeated.
b. their experimental procedures can be reviewed.
c.
others can try to reproduce the results.
d. all of the above
____
7.
A theory
a.
is always true.
b. is the opening statement of an experiment.
c.
may be revised or replaced.
d. is a problem to be solved.
____
8.
A well-tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations is a(an)
a.
hypothesis.
b. inference.
c.
theory.
d. controlled experiment.
____
9.
The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions relatively stable is called
a.
homeostasis.
b. evolution.
c.
metabolism.
d. photosynthesis.
____
10.
Safety procedures are important when working
a.
in a laboratory.
b. in the field.
c.
with animals.
d. all of the above
____
11.
The chemical reactions through which an organism builds up or breaks down materials as it carries out its life processes is called
____________________.
a.
carbohydrate
c.
photosynthesis
b. respiration
d. metabolism
____
12.
As the result of an experiment, you reject your hypothesis. Explain why you should not consider your efforts a waste of time.
a.
The results may lead to possible solutions for other related c.
Both a and b are correct.
b.
____
13.
problems.
Your results advance scientific knowledge.
d.
Neither a nor b are correct.
A scientist conducted an experiment to determine the effect of environment on the color of fur of a Himalayan rabbit. The Himalayan rabbit
typically has a white coat except for its colder nose, feet, tail, and ears, which are black. The scientist shaved an area of hair on the back of each
rabbit, then placed an ice pack over the shaved area on one rabbit (A).
Figure 1-1
In Figure 1-1, which rabbit is the control?
a.
B
b. A
____
14.
c.
d.
In Figure 1-1, what is the independent variable in this experiment?
a.
shaved fur
c.
b. type of rabbit
d.
Both rabbits are the control.
There is no control.
ice
environment
____
15.
Based on your observations of Figure 1-1, conclude what effect temperature has on Himalayan rabbits.
a.
When the body of the rabbit is cool the fur will turn dark. c.
There is no connection between temperature and fur color
in hymalaian rabbits.
b. The fur does not change.
d. When the body of the rabbit is warm the fur will turn dark.
____
16.
Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
b. one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
c.
one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
d. two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
____
17.
The most abundant compound in most living things is
a.
carbon dioxide.
b. water.
c.
sodium chloride.
d. carbon.
____
18.
If the pH of pure water is 7 where would an acid be and where would a base be?
a.
both would be below 7.
b. both would be above 7.
c.
the pH of the acid would be above 7, but the pH of the base would be below 7.
d. the pH of the acid would be below 7, but the pH of the base would be above 7.
____
19.
A monosaccharide, disaccharides and polysaccharides are
a.
carbohydrates.
b. lipids.
c.
nucleic acids.
d. proteins.
____
20.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a.
carbohydrates
b. lipids
c.
nucleic acids
d. proteins
____
21.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?
a.
Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b. Enzymes are organic catalysts
c.
d.
Enzymes are proteins.
All of the above.
____
22.
__________ are weak acids or bases that can react with strong acids or bases to prevent sudden changes in pH.
a.
detergents
c.
compounds
b. solvents
d. buffers
____
23.
Which of the following is not one of the four groups of organic compounds found in living things?
a.
carbohydrates
d. lydocain
b. lipids
e.
nucleic acids
c.
proteins
____
24.
What does the energy come from that enables you to breathe and think?
a.
chemical reactions that release energy stored in food
c.
a power plant
b. the moon
d. chemical reactions that release energy stored in water
____
25.
____
26.
____
27.
____
28.
Figure 2-3
Based on Figure 2-3, which enzyme would have the most activity in humans?
a.
X
c.
Both X and Y
b. Neither X or Y
d. Y
Which of the following is NOT a principle of the cell theory?
a.
Cells are the basic units of life.
b. All living things are made of cells.
c.
Very few cells reproduce.
d. All cells are produced by existing cells.
Figure 7-1
The structure labeled I in Figure 7-1 is a thin, flexible barrier around a cell. It is called the
a.
cell membrane.
b. cell wall.
c.
cell envelope.
d. cytoplasm.
Which cell structure is involved the cell’s metabolic activities (it provides the energy)?
a.
organelle
b. nucleus
c.
mitochondria
d. cytoplasm
____
29.
The structure labeled G in Figure 7-1 is a center for modifying and then packaging proteins for transport. The structure labeled A in Figure 7-1 is
where the proteins are transported through on their way to G.
a.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus
b. Golgi body, rough endoplasmic reticulum
c.
Endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria
d. Prokaryote, eukaryote
____
30.
Which of the following contains a nucleus?
a.
prokaryotes
b. bacteria
c.
eukaryotes
____
31.
The main function of the cell wall is to
a.
support and protect the cell.
b. store DNA.
c.
direct the activities of the cell.
____
32.
Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?
a.
stores DNA
b. controls most of the cell’s processes
c.
contains the information needed to make proteins
d. all of the above
____
33.
Which organelle breaks down food into particles the cell can use?
a.
Golgi apparatus
b. lysosome
c.
endoplasmic reticulum
d. mitochondrion
____
34.
Which organelles help provide cells with energy?
a.
mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. rough endoplasmic reticulum
c.
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. Golgi apparatus and ribosomes
____
35.
Which organelles would you expect to find in plant cells but not animal cells?
a.
Mitochondrion and chloroplast
b. Ribosome and cell membrane
c.
Chloroplast and cell wall
d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum and lysosomes
____
36.
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from
a.
an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
b. an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
c.
an area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration.
d. all of the above
____
37.
Which means of particle transport requires input of energy from the cell?
a.
diffusion
b. osmosis
c.
facilitated diffusion
d. active transport
____
38.
The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called
a.
osmotic pressure.
b. osmosis.
c.
facilitated diffusion.
d. active transport.
____
39.
On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed
a.
completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
b. species exactly like those found in South America.
c.
somewhat similar species that were similar to those in S. America but with traits that suited their particular environments.
d. species completely unrelated to those found in South America.
____
40.
When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is
a.
natural selection.
b. artificial selection.
c.
artificial variation.
d.
survival of the fittest.
____
41.
An adaptation is an inherited characteristic that can be
a.
physical or behavioral.
b. physical or geographical.
c.
acquired during the organism’s lifetime.
d. the result of artificial selection.
____
42.
When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be
used to describe this situation?
a.
acquired characteristics
b. reproductive isolation
c.
survival of the fittest
d. descent with modification
____
43.
Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment
a.
diversity.
b. fitness.
c.
adaptation.
d. evolution.
Figure 15-1
____
44.
In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur shown in Figure 15-1 are
a.
examples of fossils.
b. vestigial structures.
c.
acquired traits.
d. examples of natural variation.
____
45.
The same kinds of cells that grow in similar patterns in different but related organisms produce
a.
homologous structures such as wings and arms.
b. the same kind of embryos.
c.
natural variations in a population.
d. descent with modification.
____
46.
Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution?
a.
descent with modification (changes through generations)
b. natural selection
c.
transmission of acquired characteristics
d. competition among the members of a population
____
47.
Which phrase best defines evolution by natural selection?
a.
an adaptation of a species to its environment
b. a sudden replacement of one population by another
c.
changes in a species as it becomes more perfect
d. a process of change in species over time
____
48.
A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at a temperature of 27°C. The gas being collected is probably
a.
oxygen.
b. carbon dioxide.
c.
ATP.
d. vaporized water.
____
49.
Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into
a.
oxygen.
b. high-energy sugars.
c.
ATP and oxygen.
d. oxygen and high-energy sugars.
____
50.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a.
6O2 + C6H12O6
2 + 6H2O + Energy
b. 6O2 + C6H12O6
2 + 6H2O
c.
6CO2 + 6H2
2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d. 6CO2 + 6H2
2 + C6H12O6
____
51.
Compared to small cells, large cells have more trouble
a.
dividing.
b. producing daughter cells.
c.
moving needed materials in and waste products out.
d. making copies of their DNA.
____
52.
The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells that are identical is called
a.
cell division.
b. metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d. mitosis.
____
53.
The cell cycle is the
a.
series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
b. period of time between the birth and the death of a cell.
c.
time from prophase until cytokinesis.
d. time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.
____
54.
During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell having four chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each containing
a.
two chromosomes.
b. four chromosomes.
c.
eight chromosomes.
d. sixteen chromosomes.
____
55.
Cancer cells form masses of cells called
a.
tumors.
b. cyclins.
c.
growth factors.
d. p53.
____
56.
Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a.
hybrid.
b. homozygous.
c.
heterozygous.
d. dominant.
Tt
T
t
T
TT
Tt
T
TT
Tt
TT
____
57.
T
=
tall
t
=
short
Figure 11-1
In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11-1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross?
a.
About half are expected to be short.
b. All are expected to be short.
c.
d.
About half are expected to be tall.
All are expected to be tall.
____
58.
If you made a Punnett square showing Gregor Mendel’s cross between true-breeding tall plants and true-breeding short plants, the square would
show that the offspring are
a.
Homozygous tall
b. Homozygous short
c.
Heterozygous tall
d. Heterozygous short
____
59.
How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY?
a.
2
b. 4
c.
8
d. 16
____
60.
Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called
a.
multiple alleles.
b. incomplete dominance.
c.
polygenic inheritance.
d. multiple genes.
____
61.
Variation in human skin color is a result of
a.
incomplete dominance.
b. codominance.
c.
polygenic traits.
d. multiple alleles.
____
62.
____
63.
Gregor Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to
a.
plants only.
b. animals only.
c.
pea plants only.
d. all organisms.
If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is
a.
12.
b. 6.
c.
24.
d. 3.
____
64.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of four
a.
diploid cells.
b. haploid cells.
c.
2N daughter cells.
d. body cells.
____
65.
Figure 12-1 shows the structure of a(an)
a.
DNA molecule.
b. amino acid.
c.
RNA molecule.
d. protein.
Figure 12-1
____
66.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a.
ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b. ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.
deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
____ 67. What is structure X in figure 12-1?
a.
Nucleotide
b. Nucleic acid
c.
Phosphate – sugar backbone
d. Hydrogen bonds
____ 68. What type of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?
a.
Nucleotide
b. Nucleic acid
c.
Phosphate – sugar backbone
d. Hydrogen bonds
____
69.
DNA is copied during a process called
a.
replication.
b. translation.
c.
transcription.
d. transformation.
____
70.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
each with two new strands.
b. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
each with one new strand and one original strand.
d. each with two original strands.
____
71.
During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases
a.
TCGAAC.
b. GATCCA.
c.
AGCTTG.
d. GAUCCA.
____
72.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
is located in the nucleus.
b. floats freely in the cytoplasm.
c.
is located in the ribosomes.
d. is circular.
____
73.
RNA contains the sugar
a.
ribose.
b. deoxyribose.
c.
glucose.
d. lactose.
____
74.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
adenine.
b. uracil.
c.
phosphate groups.
d. thymine.
____
75.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
transfer RNA only
b. messenger RNA only
c.
ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
____
76.
What is produced during transcription?
a.
RNA molecules
b. DNA molecules
c.
RNA polymerase
d. proteins
____
77.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
3
b. 6
c.
9
____
78.
Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon?
a.
Some codons have the same sequence of nucleotides.
b. There are 64 different kinds of codons but only 20 amino acids.
c.
Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
d. The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine and serves as the “start” codon for protein synthesis.
____
79.
During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the
a.
codon on the mRNA only.
b. anticodon on the mRNA only.
c.
anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached only.
d. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached.
____
80.
A mutation is a
a.
chromosomal mutation.
b. Change in DNA
c.
Change in RNA
d. translocation.
____
81.
Which of the following is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for a genetic defect?
a.
inbreeding
b. hybridization
c.
genetic engineering
d. transformation
____
82.
Which has become the most important source for environmental change on Earth?
a.
climate
b. energy
c.
human activity
d. conservation biology
____
83.
Land is a resource that provides
a.
space for cities and suburbs.
b. raw materials for industry.
c.
soil for growing crops.
d. all of the above
____
84.
Why are fossil fuels nonrenewable?
a.
They require hundreds of millions of years to form.
b. Their ecosystems change forever when they are burned.
c.
They are converted to carbon dioxide when they are burned.
d. They exist in a very small supply.
____
85.
The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment is called
a.
economy.
b. modeling.
c.
recycling.
d. ecology.
____
86.
Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
a.
Communities make up species, which make up populations.
b. Populations make up species, which make up communities.
c.
Species make up communities, which make up populations.
d. Species make up populations, which make up communities.
____
87.
What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems?
a.
carbohydrates
b. sunlight
c.
water
d. carbon
Figure 3-1
____
88.
The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3-1 are
a.
consumers.
b. decomposers.
c.
producers.
d. heterotrophs.
____
89.
____
90.
The small fishes in Figure 3-1 are
a.
Primary consumers.
b. decomposers.
c.
producers.
d. Secondary consumers.
An organism that uses energy to produce its own food supply from inorganic compounds is called a(an)
a.
heterotroph.
b. consumer.
c.
detritivore.
d. autotroph.
____
91.
An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)
a.
heterotroph.
b. chemotroph.
c.
autotroph.
d. producer.
____
92.
Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants and animals are called
a.
decomposers.
b. omnivores.
c.
autotrophs.
d. producers.
____
93.
The trophic levels in Figure 3-2 illustrate
a.
the relative amount of energy at each level.
b. the amount of living organic matter at each level.
c.
the relative number of individual organisms at each level.
d. the producers outnumber first-level consumers.
____
94.
In which way does Figure 3-2 differ from a typical model of trophic levels?
a.
Second-level consumers outnumber first-level consumers.
b. Third-level consumers outnumber second-level consumers.
c.
First-level consumers outnumber producers.
d. First-level consumers outnumber second-level consumers.
____
95.
Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the
organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a.
used in reproduction.
b. stored as body tissue.
c.
stored as fat.
d. eliminated as heat.
Figure 3-2
____
96.
The movements of energy and nutrients through living systems are different because
a.
energy flows in one direction and nutrients recycle.
b. energy is limited in the biosphere and nutrients are always available.
c.
nutrients flow in one direction and energy recycles.
d. energy forms chemical compounds and nutrients are lost as heat.
____
97.
If a nutrient is in such short supply in an ecosystem that it affects an animal’s growth, the
a.
animal becomes a decomposer.
b. substance is a limiting nutrient.
c.
nutrient leaves the food chain.
d. ecosystem will not survive.
____
98.
What must be present in a population, when there is an environmental change, so that the species can evolve? Why?
a.
Trait/mutation, since offspring can not get genes the parents didn’t have
b.
____ 99.
Nothing, they can adapt
When is a trait considered an adaptation?
a.
When it is neat
b. When it is nonexistent
c.
When it is harmful
d. When it is helpful
____
100.
In a population of finches if the environment changes to favor a longer beak what process will probably happen? The longer beak is now
considered a(an)
a.
Natural selection, adaptation
b. disruptive selection, trait
c.
Natural selection, characteristic
d. Adaptation, genetic drift
____
101.
Which system regulates and controls growth, development, and metabolism?
a.
endocrine system
c.
integumentary system
b. lymphatic system
d. skeletal system
____
102.
The levels of organization in the body include
a.
endocrine, respiratory, digestive, and nervous.
b. cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems.
c.
cells, tissues, and functions.
d. lymphatic, respiratory, and circulatory.
____
103.
Which system coordinates the body’s response to changes in its internal and external environment?
a.
lymphatic system
c.
excretory system
b. nervous system
d. reproductive system
____
104.
Cells that transmit electrical signals through the nervous system to various organs in the body are called
a.
cells.
c.
organelles.
b. neurons.
d. tissues.
____
105.
What is the function of the central nervous system?
a.
to relay messages
b. to process information
____
106.
c.
d.
Which division(s) of the peripheral nervous system transmit(s) impulses from sense organs to the central nervous system?
a.
sensory division
c.
sensory and motor divisions
b. motor division
d. spinal cord division
____107. The division of the nervous system that helps the body react to pain is the
a.
somatic nervous system.
c.
b. sensory nervous system.
d.
____
108.
to analyze information
all of the above
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
a.
brain and spinal cord
b. thalamus and hypothalamus
c.
d.
autonomic nervous system.
sympathetic nervous system.
somatic and autonomic
sensory and motor
____
109.
Which of the following provides support for the body, attachment sites for muscles, and protection for internal organs?
a.
skin
c.
skeleton
b. spinal cord
d. joints
Figure 36–1
____
____
____
110.
111.
112.
Diagram A in Figure 36–1 is an example of a
a.
ball-and-socket joint.
b. saddle joint.
c.
d.
hinge joint.
pivot joint.
Pivot joints are represented in which diagram in Figure 36–1?
a.
Diagram A
b. Diagram B
c.
d.
Diagram C
Diagram D
Which type of freely movable joints in Figure 36–1 are examples of joints that permit only back-and-forth movement?
a.
Diagram A
c.
Diagram C
b. Diagram B
d. Diagram D
Figure 36–2
____
____
____
113.
114.
115.
In Figure 36–2, B is an example of
a.
cardiac muscle.
b. skeletal muscle.
c.
d.
smooth muscle.
heart muscle.
Which diagram(s) in Figure 36–2 show(s) muscles that are striated?
a.
A and B
c.
b. B
d.
C
A and C
The most important function of the skin is
a.
protection.
b. storing fat.
sweating.
insulation.
c.
d.
____
____
116.
117.
Which organ helps to regulate blood pressure?
a.
spleen
b. kidney
c.
d.
liver
gall bladder
Which of the following is a function of blood?
a.
fight infection
b. regulate body temperature
c.
d.
transport nutrients
all of the above
____
118.
The process by which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between cells, the blood, and air in the lungs is called
a.
systemic circulation.
c.
emphysema.
b. respiration.
d. cellular respiration.
____
119.
Air is filtered, warmed, and moistened in the
a.
nose and mouth.
b. throat.
c.
d.
lungs.
pharynx.
Air is forced into the lungs by the contraction of the
a.
alveoli.
b. bronchioles.
c.
d.
diaphragm.
heart.
____
120.
____
121.
About how many kilocalories does the average teenager need per day?
a.
100 to 200
c.
2200 to 2800
b. 500 to 600
d. 10,000
____
122.
Substances that are needed by the body for growth, repair, and maintenance are called
a.
enzymes.
c.
ATP.
b. nutrients.
d. Calories.
____
123.
Inorganic nutrients that the body needs are called
a.
lipids.
b. proteins.
c.
d.
vitamins.
minerals.
____
124.
What can occur if a person does not take in enough water to replace what is lost?
a.
dehydration
c.
nervous system problems
b. circulatory problems
d. all of the above
____
125.
What “food tube” carries food between the pharynx and the stomach?
a.
small intestine
c.
esophagus
b. epiglottis
d. large intestine
____
126.
Where does the process of chemical digestion begin?
a.
stomach
b. esophagus
c.
d.
small intestine
mouth
Through which structure do wastes pass into the rectum?
a.
duodenum
b. large intestine
c.
d.
small intestine
villus
____
____
____
127.
128.
129.
The function of the excretory system is to control homeostasis and
a.
break down nutrients.
c.
b. remove wastes.
d.
absorb nutrients.
prevent infection.
The endocrine system is made up of
a.
hormones.
b. glands.
c.
d.
gonads.
prostaglandins.
____
130.
Unlike endocrine glands, exocrine glands
a.
release secretions through ducts.
b. release hormones.
c.
release secretions directly into the bloodstream.
d. are found throughout the body.
____
131.
Which endocrine gland secretes sex hormones?
a.
adrenal medulla
b. testis
c.
d.
hypothalamus
pituitary
Puberty usually begins between the ages of
a.
5 and 8.
b. 9 and 15.
c.
d.
16 and 19.
20 and 25.
____
132.
____
133.
The testes and the ovaries do not begin making active reproductive cells until
a.
birth.
c.
gastrulation.
b. fertilization.
d. puberty.
____
134.
Testosterone is needed for the development of
a.
eggs.
b. sperm.
c.
d.
the uterus.
all of the above
Specialized sex cells (haploid cells) are known as
a.
gametes.
b. hormones.
c.
d.
gonads.
organs.
____
135.
____
136.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the female reproductive system?
a.
to produce eggs
b. to prepare the body to carry an embryo
c.
to deliver sperm
d. to release eggs into the Fallopian tubes
____
137.
Which of the following is NOT a phase in the menstrual cycle?
a.
menstruation
b. luteal
c.
d.
fertilization
ovulation
One menstrual cycle usually lasts about a
a.
day.
b. week.
c.
d.
month.
year.
____
138.
_____ 139. What are three functions of the human skeleton?
a. protection, storage and style
b. blood cell formation, support and protection of organs and movement
c. storage of minerals, prettiness and structure
_____ 140. What are the three parts of the circulatory system?
a. heart, lungs, arms
b. blood, lymph, blood vessels
c. heart, blood vessels, brain
d. blood vessels, blood and heart