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Ch. 22
1.
The classification of organisms into hierarchical groups is called
a. the scale of nature
b. taxonomy
c. natural theology
d. biogeography
e. natural selection
2.
The study of fossils is called
a. phylogeny
b. gradualism
c. paleontology
d. anthropology
e. biogeography
3. To Cuvier, the differences in fossils from different strata were evidence
for
a. changes occurring as a result of cumulative but gradual processes
b. divine creation
c. evolution by natural selection
d. continental drift
e. local catastrophic events such as droughts or floods
4.
Darwin proposed that new species evolve from ancestral forms by
a. the gradual accumulation of adaptations to changing or different
environments
b. the inheritance of acquired adaptations to the environment
c. the struggle for limited resources
d. the accumulation of mutations
e. the exponential growth of populations
5.
The best description of natural selection is
a. the survival of the fittest
b. the struggle for existence
c. the reproductive success of the members of a population best adapted
to the environment
d. the overproduction of offspring in environements with limited
natural resources
e. a change in the proportion of inheritable variations within a
population
6.
The remnants of pelvic and leg bones in a snakes
a. are vestigial structures
b. show that lizards evolved from snakes
c. are homologous structures
d. provide evidence for inheritance of acquired characteristics
e. resulted from artificial selection
7. The hypothesis that whales evolved from land-dwelling ancestors is
supported by
a. evidence from the biogeographic distribution of whales
b. molecular comparisons of whales, fish and reptiles
c. historical accounts of walking whales
d. the ability of captive whales to be trained to walk
e. fossils of extinct whales found in Egypt and Pakistan that had small
hind limbs
8. Darwin's claim that all of life descended from a common ancestor is best
supported with evidence from
a. the fossil record
b. comparative embryology
c. taxonomy
d. molecular biology
e. comparative anatomy
9.
The smallest unit that can evolve is
a. a genome
b. an individual
c. a species
d. a population
e. a community
10. Which of the following would not be considered part of the process of
natural selection?
a. Many of the variations among individuals in a population are
heritable.
b. More offspring are produced than ae able to survive and reproduce.
c. Individuals with traits best adapted to the environment are likely
to leave more offspring.
d. Many adaptive traits may be acquired during an individual's
lifetime, helping that individual to evole.
e. Differential reproductive success leads to gradual change in a
population.
11. When cytochrome c molecules are compared, yeasts and molds are found to
differ by approximately 46 amino acids per 100 residues (amino acids making
up a protein), whereas insects and vertebrates are found to differ by
approximately 29 amino acids per 100 residues. What can one conclude from
these data?
a. Very little can be concluded unless the DNA sequence for the
cytochrome c genes are compared.
b. Yeasts evolved from molds, but vertebrates did not evolve from
insects.
c. Insects and vertebrates diverged from a common ancestor more
recently than did yeasts and molds.
d. Yeasts and molds diverged from a common ancestor more recently than
did insects and vertebrates.
e. The evolution of cytochrome c occurred more rapidly in yeasts and
molds than in insects and vertebrates.
12. All of the following influenced Darwin as he synthesized the theory of
evolution by natural selection except
a. the biogeographic distribution of species such as the finches on the
Galapagos islands.
b. Lyell's book, Principles of Geology, on the gradualness of geologic
changes.
c. Linnaeus' hierarchical classification of species, which could be
interpreted as evidence of evolutionary relationships
d. examples of artificial selection that produce rapid changes in
domesticated species
e. Mendel's paper in which he described his "laws of inheritance"
13. What might you conclude from the observation that the bones in your arm
and hand are similar to the bones that make up a bat's wing?
a. The bones in the bat's wing are vestigial structures, no longer
useful as "arm" bones.
b. The bones in a bat's wing are homologous to your arm and hand bones.
c. Bats and humans evolved in the same geographic area.
d. Bats lost their opposable digits during the course of evolution.
e. Our ancestors could fly.
14.
The
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
best description of endemic species are species that are
found only on islands
found in the same geographic area
found only on mainlands
found only in that location and nowhere else on Earth
disease causing and pesticide resistant
15.
Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?
a. remnants of pelvic girdles and limb bones found in whales
b. two very different plants that are found in different habitats, but
evolved from a fairly recent common ancestor
c. similarities between the marsupial sugar glider and the eutherian
flying squirrel
d. the remodeling of a vertebrate forelimb in the evolution of a bird
wing
e. the many different bill sizes and shapes of finches on the Galpagos
Islands
16.
Chimpanzees and humans share many of the same genes, indicating that
a. the two groups belong to the same species
b. the two groups belong to the same phylum
c. the two groups share a relatively recent common ancestor
d. humans evolved from chimpanzees
e. chimpanzees evolved from humans
Chapter 23
1.
Darwinian fitness is a measure of
a. survival
b. number of matings
c. adaptation to the environment
d. successful competition for resources
e. number of viable offspring
2.
According to the Hardy-Weinberg theorem,
a. the allele frequencies of a population should remain constant from
one generation to the next if the population is large and there is no natural
selection
b. only natural selection, resulting in unequal reproductive success,
will cause evolution
c. the square root of the frequency of individuals showing the
recessive trait will always equal the frequency of q
d. genetic drift, gene flow and mutations are always maladaptive
e. all of the above are correct
3.
If a population has the following genotype frequencies, AA = 0.42, Aa =
0.46 and
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
aa = 0.12, what are the allele frequencies?
A = 0.42 a = 0.12
A = 0.6 a = 0.4
A = 0.65 a =0.35
A = 0.76 a = 0.24
A = 0.88 a = 0.12
4. In a population with two alleles, B and b, the allele frequency of b is
0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes if the population is in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 0.16
b. 0.24
c. 0.48
d. 0.6
e. You cannot tell from this information.
5. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for two alleles, C
and c, 16% of the population show a recessive trait. Assuming C is dominant
to c, what percent show the dominant trait?
a. 36%
b. 48%
c. 60%
d. 84%
e. 96%
6.
Genetic drift is likely to be seen in a population
a. that has a high migration rate
b. that has a low mutation rate
c. in which natural selection is occurring
d. that is very small
e. for which environmental conditions are changing
7.
Gene
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
8.
The existence of two distinct phenotypic forms in a species is known as
a. geographic variation
b. stabilizing selection
c. heterozygote advantage
d. polymorphism
e. directional selection
9.
Human gene diversity is estimated to be about 14%, which means that
a. 86% of our genes are identical
b. on average, 14% of an individual's gene loci are heterozygous
c. only 14% of nucleotide sites differ between individuals
d. nucleotide diversity must be very great between individuals
e. the human population never experienced a bottleneck effect
10.
flow often results in
populations that move to better environments
an increase in sampling error in the formation of the next generation
adaptive microevolution
a decrease in allele frequencies
a reduction of the allele frequency differences between populations
Mutations are rarely the cause of microevolution because
a. they are most often harmful and do ont get passed on
b. they do not directly produce most of the genetic variation present
in a diploid population
c.
d.
e.
they occur very rarely
they are only passed on when they occur in gametes
all of the above
11. In a study of a population of field mice, you find that 48% of the mice
have a coat color that indicates that they are heterozygous for a particular
gene. What would be the frequency of the dominant allele in this population?
a. 0.24
b. 0.48
c. 0.50
d. 0.60
e. You cannot estimate allele frequency from this information.
12. In a random sample of a population of shorthorn cattle, 73 animals were
red (RR), 63 were roan, a mixture of red and white (Rr) and 13 were white
(rr). Estimate the allele frequencies of R and r, and determine whether the
population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
a. R = 0.64 and r = 0.36; because the population is large and a random
sample was chosed, the population is in equilibrium
b. R = 0.7 and r = 0.3; the genotype ratio is ont what would be
predicted from these frequencies and the population is not in equilibrium
c. R = 0.7 and r = 0.3; the genotype rario is what would be predicted
from these frequencies and the population is in equilibrium
d. R = 1.04 and r = 0.44; the allele frequencies add up to greater
than 1 and the population is not in equilibrium
e. You cannot estimate allele frequency from this information.
13. A scientist observes that the height of a certain species of asters
decreases as the altitude on a mountainside increases. She gathers seeds
from samples at various altitudes, plants them in a uniform environment and
measures the height of the new plants. All of her experimental asters grow,
to approximately the same height. From this she concludes that
a. height is not a quantitative trait
b. the cline she observed was due to genetic variations
c. the differences in the parent plants' heights were due to
directional selection
d. the height variation she initially observed was an example of
nongenetic environmental variation
e. stabilizing selection was responsible for height differences in the
parent plants
14.
Sexual selection will
a. select for traits that enhance an individual's chance of mating
b. increase the size of individuals
c. result in individuals better adapted to the environment
d. result in stabilizing selection
e. result in a relative fitness of more than 1
15. The
is from
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
16.
greatest source of genetic variation in plant and animal populations
mutations
sexual recombination
selection
polymorphism
recessive masking in heterozygotes
A plant population is found in an area that is becoming more arid.
The
average surface area of leaves has been decreasing over the generations.
This trend is an example of
a. a cline
b. directional selection
c. disruptive selection
d. gene flow
e. genetic drift
17. Mice that are homozygous for a lethal recessive allele die shortly after
birth. In a large breeding colony of mice, you find that a surprising 5% of
all newborns die from this trait. In checking lab records, you discover that
the same proportion of offspring have been dying from this trait in this
colony for the past three years. (Mice breed several times a year and have
large litters.) How might you explain the persistence of this lethal allele
at such a high frequency?
a. Homozygous recessive mice have a reproductive advantage.
b. A large mutation rate keeps producing this lethal allele.
c. There is some sort of heterozygote advantage and perhaps selection
against the homozygous dominant trait.
d. Genetic drift has kept the recessive allele at this high frequency
in the population.
e. Since this is a diploid species, the recessive allele cannot be
selected against when it is in the heterozygote.
18. In breeding experiments with Drosophila, you count the offspring
produced by three different genotypes and determine that flies with the
genotype AA have a relative fitess of 1. What does that mean?
a. AA flies have a lower Darwinian fitness than do flies that are Aa or
aa.
b. AA flies produce more viable offspring than do Aa or aa flies.
c. This fly population must be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
d. AA flies live longer than do Aa or aa flies.
e. The A and a alleles must both have a frequency of 0.5.
19. All of the following would tend to maintain balanced polymorphism in a
population except
a. hybrid vigor
b. directional selection
c. diversifying selection
d. heterozygote advantage
e. frequency-dependent selection
20. Genetic analysis of a large population of mink inhabiting an island in
Michigan revealed an unusual number of loci where one allele was fixed.
Which of the following is the most probable explanation for this genetic
homogeneity?
a. The population exhibited nonrandom mating, producing homozygous
genotypes.
b. The gene pool of this population never experienced mutation or gene
flow.
c. A very small number of mink may have colonized this island, and this
founder effect and subsequent genetic drift could have fixed many alleles.
d. Natural selection has selected for and fixed the best adapted
alleles at these loci.
e. The colonizing population may have had much more genetic diversity,
but genetic drift in the last year or two may have fixed these alleles by
chance.
21.
Directional selection would be most likely to occur when
a. a population's environment has changed
b. a population's environment has two very different habitats
c. frequency-dependent selectin is acting on a population
d. a population's environment is very harsh
e. a population is small and its environment is stable
22.
If an allele is recessive and lethal in homozygotes,
a. the allele is present in the population at a frequency of 0.001
b. the allele will be removed from the population by natural selection
in approximately 1000 years
c. the relative fitness of the homozygous recessive genotype is 0
d. the allele will most likely remain in the population at a low
frequency becaue it cannot be selected against when in a heterozygote
e. Both c and d are correct
23.
Sexual reproduction may be maintained by natural selection because
a. it produces the greatest number of offspring
b. intrasexual selection produces the strongest males
c. intrersexual selection allows females to choose their mates
d. maintaining a high variability in a population for traits such as
cell surface markers protects against pathogens such as viruses, bacteria,
and parasites
e. it maintains high genetic variability in a population's gene pool so
that the population can adapt should environmental conditions change
24.
Which of the following is an example of frequency-dependent selection?
a. the genetic drift that occurs within a founder population
b. a ritualized contest in which one male wins reproductive access to a
group of females
c. host-parasite interactions in which parasites in a region are
genetically adapted to infect the most common morph of host
d. the very rapid evolution of HIV due to its short generation time and
high rate of mutation
e. the high frequency of intermediate phenotypes that results from
stabilizing selection
CHAPTER 24
1. The type of evolution that results in the greatest increase in biological
diversity is
a. anagenesis
b. cladogenesis
c. phyletic evolution
d. microevolution
e. Both a and c are correct
2.
Which of the following is not a type of intrinsic reproductive isolation?
a. mechanical isolation
b. behavior isolation
c. geographic isolation
d. gametic isolation
e. temporal isolation
3.
Two species of frogs occasionally mate, but the offspring do not complete
development. What type of barrier isolates these gene pools?
a. gametic isolation
b. prezygotic barrier
c. hybrid breakdown
d. reduced hybrid viability
e. reduced hybrid fertility
4. For which of the following is the biological species concept least
appropriate?
a. plants
b. animals
c. bacteria
d. fossils
e. both c and d
5. A horse (2n = 64) and a donkey (2n = 62) can mate and produce a mule.
How many chromosomes would there be in a mule's cells?
a. 31
b. 62
c. 63
d. 64
e. 126
6.
What
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
prevents horses and donkeys from hybridizing to form a new species?
reduced hybrid fertility
reduced hybrid viability
mechanical isolation
gametic isolation
behavioral isolation
7. Which of the following species concepts identifies species based on their
similarities resulting from their unique niche or role in the environment?
a. biological
b. ecological
c. genealogical
d. morphological
e. pluralistic
8.
Allopatric speciation is more likely to occur when an isolated population
a. is large and thus has more genetic variation
b. is reintroduced to its original homeland
c. is exposed to different selection pressures in its new habitat
d. inhabits an island close to its parent species' mainland
e. All of the above contribute to allopatric speciation.
9. A tetraploid plant species (with four identical sets of chromosomes) is
probably the result of
a. allopolyploidy
b. autopolyploidy
c. hybridization and nondisjunction
d. allopatric speciation
e. a and c
10. All of the following are examples of the evolution of reproductive
barriers except
a. pleiotropic effects of genes that may allow specialization on
different resources but also change cuticle odor in fruit flies reared on
different nutrient sources
b. loss of selection for genes that maintain hybrid viability between
widely separated populations of monkey flowers
c. lack of gene flow and different selection pressures for populations
at the ends of opposite arms of the distribution of a ring species
d. the ability of two widely separated subspecies of mice to produce
viable, fertile hybrids when bred in a laboratory
e. hybridization and cell division mistakes that create a fertile
allopolyploid that cannot reproduce with either parent species
11. There are 28 morphologically diverse species of a group of sunflowers
called silverswords found on the Hawaiian Archipelago. These species are an
example of
a. geographical cline
b. adaptive radiation
c. allopolyploidy
d. the bottleneck effect
e. sympatric speciation
12. Which of the following is descriptive of the punctuated equilibrium
model?
a. Long periods of stasis are punctuated by episodes of relatively
rapid speciation and change.
b. Microevolution is the driving force of speciation.
c. Most rapid speciation events involve polyploidy in plants.
d. Evolution occurs gradually as the environment gradually changes.
e. In the framework of geological time periods, speciation events occur
very slowly and the equilibrium of species is punctuated by frequent
extinctions.
13. A new plant species C formed from hybridization of species A (2n = 18)
with species B (2n = 12) would probably produce gametes with a chromosome
number of
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 30
e. 60
14.
15.
Which of the following would not contribute to allopatric speciation?
a. geographic separation
b. genetic drift
c. gene flow
d. different selection pressures
e. founder effect
What is meant by the concept of species selection?
a. Reproductive isolating mechanisms (both prezygotic and postzygotic)
are responsible for maintaining the integrity of individual species.
b. Characteristics that increase the probability of selection as a mate
or success in competition for mates will be selected for and increase in
frequency in a population.
c. The species that last the longest and speciate the most often will
determine the direction of evolutionary trends.
d. A new species accumulates most of its unique features as it
originates and then maintains long periods of stasis in body form.
e. The colonization of new and diverse habitats can lead to the
adaptive radiation of numerous species.
16.
Allometric growth
a. results in paedomorphosis
b. results in an evolutionary trend of increasing body size
c. results from differences in the locations of expression of Hox genes
and thus the placement of body parts
d. is usually associated with polyploidy in plants
e. is the relative differences in growth rates of different body parts
17. The evolution of lungs from the swim bladder of ancestral fish is an
example of
a. heterochrony
b. paedomorphosis
c. exaptation
d. changes in homeotic gene expression
e. punctuated equilibrium
18. Which of the following is thought to be a critical event in the
evolution of vertebrates from an invertebrate ancestor?
a. exaptation of body segments to vertebrae
b. duplication of the Hox complex (homeotic genes)
c. allometric growth of tail segments
d. allopatric speciation
e. sympatric speciation
19. A botanist identifies a new species of plant that has 32 chromosomes.
It grows in the same habitat with three similar species: species A (2n =
14), species B (2n = 16) and species C (2n = 18). Suggest a possible
speciation mechanism for the new species.
a. allopatric divergence by development of a reproductive isolating
mechanism
b. change in a key developmental gene that causes the plants to flower
at different times
c. autopolyploidy, perhaps due to a nondisjunction in the formation of
gametes of species B
d. allopolyploidy, a hybrid formed from species A and C
e. Either answer c or d could account for the formation of this new
plant species
20. Which concept of species would be most useful to a field biologist
identifying new species in a tropical rain forest?
a. biological
b. ecological
c. genealogical
d. morphological
e. pluralistic
CHAPTER 25
1.
The richest source of fossils is found
a. in coal and peat moss
b. along gorges
c. within sedimentary rock strata
d. encased in volcanic rocks
e. in amber
2.
Which of the following is least likely to leave a fossil?
a. a soft-bodied land organism such as a slug
b. a marine organism with a shell such as a mussel
c. a vascular plant embedded in layers of mud
d. a freshwater snake
e. a human
3.
Index fossils are fossils of
a. unique organisms that are used to determine the relative rates of
evolution in different areas
b. widespread organisms that allow geologists to correlate strata of
rocks from different locations
c. transitional forms that link major evolutionary groups
d. extinct organisms that indicate the separation of different eras
e. organisms with new derived characteristics
4. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. A fossil that is 22,920 years
old would have what amount of the normal proportion of C-14 to C-12?
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/6
d. 1/8
e. 1/16
5.
The Permian mass extinction between the Paleozoic and Mesozoic eras
a. affected a large percentage of marine and terrestrial species
b. coincided with the breaking apart of Pangaea
c. made way for the adaptive radiation of mammals, birds, and
pollinating insects
d. appears to have been caused by a large asteroid striking Earth
e. did all of the above
6.
Related families are grouped into the next highest taxon called a
a. class
b. order
c. phylum
d. genus
e. kingdom
7. Which of the following would provide the best data for determining the
phylogeny of three very similar species?
a. the fossil record
b. a comparison of embrylogical development
c. a quantitative analysis of their morphological similarities and
differences
d. comparisons of amino acid sequences in proteins or DNA sequence
e. comparisons of their taxonomic assignments
8.
9.
Convergent evolution may result
a. when older structures are co-opted for new functions
b. when homologous structures are adapted for different functions
c. from adaptive radiation
d. when species are widely separated geographically
e. when species have similar ecological roles
Lystrasaurus, a fossil dinosaur, is found on most continents.
This
distribution is best explained by
a. the relative ease of finding dinosaur bones
b. convergent evolution
c. divergent evolution
d. dispersal capabilities of ancient reptiles
e. biogeography
10. The temperature at which hybrid DNA melts is indicative of the degree of
homology between the DNA sequences. The more extensive the pairing, the
higher the temperature required to separate the strands. You are trying to
determine the phylogentic relationships among species A, B and C. You mix
single-stranded DNA from all three species (in test groups of two) and
measure the temperatures at which the hybrid DNA melts (separates). You find
that hybrid BC has the highest melting temperature, AC the next highest and
AB the lowest. From these data you conclude that
a. species A and B are most closely related, whereas B and C are least
closely related
b. B and C must be the same species, and A is more closely related to C
than to B
c. species B and C must have diverged most recently, and A is more
closely related to C than to B
d. A hybridizes most easily with B, and they must have a more recent
common ancestor than do A and C
e. these tests are inconclusive and you had better go back and check
the fossil record
11. A comparative study of which of the following would provide the best
data on the early evolution of fungi and plants?
a. mitochondrial DNA
b. DNA from a chloroplast
c. the amino acid sequence of chlorophyll
d. DNA for ribosomal RNA
e. the morphology of present-day specimens