Download Final Exam 2007 key

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Bio 309F
Comprehensive Final Exam
May 12, 2007
Name___________________________________
Note: please place your name, course unique number (49790, 49795, 49800, 49805, 49810) and
bubble in your answers on the scantron. We will only grade the scantron so double check to be
sure the answers on the scantron are as you want them. Through out the exam, please cover your
answers. Do not use electronic gadgets, including telephone--so, please turn off your telephone
prior to starting the exam. Turn in the scantron and the exam. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
Note: Your course grade will be based on three exams. If the score on the final exam is higher
than the score on one of the three exams, the lowest score will be replaced by the final exam
score. If the score on the final exam is lower than the three exam scores, then your course grade
will be based on the three highest exam scores.
I. Multiple Choice (2 points each, 100 points total)
1. Exchange of DNA between two non-homologous chromosomes is known as:
A. crossing over
B. inversion
C. transformation
D. translocation
E. aneuploidy
2. Sickle cell anemia occurs in individuals due to a(n):
A. inversion
B. deletion
C. excision
D. point mutation
E. nonsense mutation
3. DNA consists of all of the following except:
A. adenine
B. deoxyribose
C. phosphate groups
D. uracil
E. thymine
4. Plasma (serum) from an individual with type AB blood contains
A. A and B antigens
B. antibodies to A and B
C. antibodies to A
D. antibodies to B
E. none of the above
5. A blood type A child was deemed to be homozygous for blood type A at birth based solely on
the blood types of the mother and father. Which genetic cross would give rise to a child who is
homozygous for blood type A?
A. blood type of one parent is A and the other is B
B. blood type of one parent is A and the other is O
C. blood type of both parents are AB
D. blood type of one parent is AB and the other is 0
E. none of the above
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6. RNA processing consists of all of the following except:
A. addition of a “cap” to the 5’ end
B. addition of a poly-A tail to the 3’ end
C. removal of exons
D. removal of introns
E. ligation following processing
7. Someone with type A blood may receive a transfusion of plasma only from donors with blood
type:
A. type A
D. type B
B. type O
E. A and C
C. type AB
8. Translation occurs:
A. in the nucleus
B. in the cytoplasm
C. in the golgi apparatus
D. on the cell membrane
E. none of the above
9. UV light induces mutations in DNA known as:
A. adenine dimers
B. Thymine dimers
C. guanine dimers
D. purine dimers
E. none of the above
10. An allele which is only expressed in the homozygous condition must be:
A. recessive
B. dominant
C. sex-linked
D. autosomal
E. co-dominant
11. Genes that enhance cell proliferation, thereby, contributing to the development of cancer are
called
A. carcinogenes
B. tumor suppressor genes
C. oncogenes
D. alleleogenes
E. introns
12. Genes that prevent the development of cancer are called
A. carcinogenes
B. tumor suppressor genes
C. oncogenes
D. alleleogenes
E. introns
13. Her-2/Neu is a cancer gene that is found in high levels in ___________cancers.
A. lung
B. kidney
C. liver
D. breast
E. prostate
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14. The “Pol” gene of retroviruses codes for
A. long terminal repeats
B. group associated proteins
C. membrane associated proteins
D. reverse transcriptase
E. DNA polymerase
15. Cancers (example: breast cancer) will most likely be identified by which of the following?
A. aneuploidy
B. rapid cell division
C. accumulation of cells of the same lineage
D. chromosomal abnormalities such as deletions
E. all of the above
16. Cellular immunity is derived from
A. B cells
B. macrophages
C. T cells
D. erythrocytes
E. monocytes
17. Humoral or antibody mediated immunity is derived from
A. B cells
B. macrophages
C. T cells
D. NK cells
E. monocytes
18. Which statement regarding the immune response system is not correct?
A. exhibits a high degree of specificity to different pathogens
B. exhibits enhanced immunity following exposure to a pathogen (called memory)
C. distinguishes self from non-self
D. genes giving rise to proteins with specificity to non-self are in the genome
E. specificity of proteins to non-self are generated following exposure to non-self
19. Each of us, at birth, exhibited circulating antibodies (immunoglobulins) received from our
mothers via entrance into our blood stream by the placenta. These immunoglobulins are called:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
20. An individual is allergic to molds. During exposures, the serum of the allergic individual
will contain elevated levels of____ antibodies bound to ____receptor of _____ cells.
A. IgG antibodies bound to Fc receptor of cytotoxic T cells
B. IgG antibodies bound to Fab receptor of mast cells
C. IgA antibodies bound to Fc receptor of cytotoxic T cells
D. IgE antibodies bound to Fc receptor of cytotoxic T cells
E. IgE antibodies bound to Fc receptor of mast cells
21. Which genetic cross will give a 3:1 phenotypic ratio?
A. AaBb X AaBb
B. Aa X aa
C. AaBb X Aabb
D. Aa Bb X AaBB
E. AaBb X aabb
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22. Which genetic cross will give a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio?
A. AaBb X AaBb
B. Aa X aa
C. AaBb X Aabb
D. AaBbCc X AaBbCc
E. AaBb X aabb
23. Which genetic cross will give a 3:3:1:1 phenotypic ratio?
A. AaBb X AaBb
B. Aa X aa
C. AaBb X Aabb
D. Aabb X Aabb
E. Aa X Aa
24. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) is a molecular procedure that is useful in:
A. DNA fingerprinting
B. distinguishing between exons and introns
C. determining the number of chromosomes in a somatic cell
D. identifying the promoter region
E. none of the above
25. tRNA’s have site(s) that allow specific ______ to bind
A. codons
B. anticodons
C. amino acids
D. A and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
26. Meiotic non-disjunction can result in the following human disorder(s)
A. Turner Syndrome
B. Klinefelter Syndrome
C. Down Syndrome
D. B and C are correct
E. A, B and C are correct
27. The biological functions of proteins are determined by the
A. ribosomal RNA
B. sequence of amino acids
C. sequence of simple sugars
D. sequence of fatty acids
E. none of the above
28. The four base nucleotides of the DNA double helix pair in the following 1:1 ratio:
A. A:T G:C
B. A:G T:C
C. A:C T:G
D. A:U G:C
E. A:G U:C
29. The base nucleotide that is present in RNA and not DNA is:
A. adenine
B. guanine
C. thymine
D. uracil
E. purine
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30. A child who has inherited a defective Rb allele (Rb+/Rb-) has a risk of getting a cancer called
retinoblastoma by age 5-8 (late onset) in:
A. left eye only
B. right eye only
C. either right or left eye but not both
D. both right and left eye
E. neither eye
31. The specificity of antibody molecules is encoded by:
A. heavy and light chain C region genes
B. heavy and light chain V region genes
C. heavy chain Fc domain genes
D. light chain Fc domain genes
E. C and D are correct
32. The predominant antibody (immunoglobulin) in Mother’s milk is:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
33. Which immune disorder is/are an example(s) of an autoimmune disorder?
A. systemic lupus erythematosus (lupus)
B. cystic fibrosis
C. Huntington Disease
D. marfan syndrome
E. none of the above
34. A somatic cell from a Klinefelter syndrome individual will contain ____ Barr bodies
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three
E. four
35. A somatic cell from a Turner syndrome individual will contain ____ Barr bodies
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three
E. four
36. Familial hypercholesterolemia is a(n) ____________ trait
A. autosomal recessive
B. autosomal dominant
C. sex-linked dominant
D. sex-linked recessive
E. co-dominant
37. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a(n) ____________ trait
A. autosomal recessive
B. autosomal dominant
C. sex-linked dominant
D. sex-linked recessive
E. co-dominant
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38. Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized as "self destructive"
A. Tay Sachs disease
B. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
C. Galactosemia
D. Huntington disease
E. Fragile-x syndrome
39. p53 is mutated in 50% of cancers, and is an important gene because it
A. inhibits cells in the metaphase phase of the cell cycle
B. serves as a checkpoint in the cell cycle
C. enhances cell proliferation
D. binds to transcription factor E2F and blocks the cell cycle
E. blocks the prophase to metaphase transition of mitosis
40. Cancer caused by ultra violet (sun) light in some individuals is:
A. multiple myeloma due to inability to repair DNA damage from UV light
B. leukemia due to inability to repair DNA damage from UV light
C. lymphoma due to inability to repair DNA damage from UV light
D. skin cancer due to inability to repair DNA damage from UV light
E. retinoblastoma due to inability to repair DNA damage from UV light
41. HIV infected individuals who progress to AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) can be
identified by loss of ___________.
A. macrophages
B. NK cells
C. dendritic cells
D. T helper cells
E. cytotoxic T cells
42. The actual alleles an individual has refers to his or her:
A. phenotype
B. pedigree
C. heredity
D. genotype
E. sex-chromosomes
43. The Ames "His" test is performed in order to test for:
A. mutagens
B. PKU
C. cancer
D. bacterial contamination
E. genetic disease
44. In humans, there are ___ autosomes in somatic cells
A. 23
B. 46
C. 45
D. 44
E. 22
45. The SRY gene on the Y chromosome that is involved in sex determination codes for a ____.
A. structural protein
B. transfer protein
C. transcription protein
D. enzyme
E. membrane receptor protein
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46. Gastrointestinal problems in individuals who drink milk is called:
A. galactose intolerance
B. fructose intolerance
C. glucose intolerance
D. lactose intolerance
E. maltose intolerance
47. Beno (A) pyrene is well known as a "perfect mutagen/carcinogen" in that it causes mutations
in which gene?
A. Rb
B. ERB-B
C. p53
D. HER-2/Neu
E. E2F
48. Phenotypically the new baby Jane was a female; however, at 15 years of age it was
discovered that Jane's karyotype was XY rather than XX. How could this happen?
A. defective or non-functional androgen receptor
B. defective or non-functional estrogen receptor
C. inhibitor of maleness
D. inducer of femaleness
E. none of the above
49. The wife (but not the husband) and all her sons and daughters suffer from a disorder similar
to chronic fatigue syndrome. Which defect best contributes to this condition?
A. defective DNA repair gene
B. mitochondria defect
C. golgi apparatus defect
D. cell cycle defect
E. polygenic defect
50. Multifactorial traits
A. are determined by a single gene
B. are determined by intermediate or lack of dominance inheritance
C. are expressed only in humans
D. reflect the environment and genes
E. none of the above