Download 4.Variants of test

MINISTRY OF HIGHER AND SECONDARY
SPECIAL EDUCATION
TASHKENT FINANCIAL INSTITUTE
Department “Management and marketing”
VARIANTS OF TESTS
on course
«MARKETING»
Prepared by:
Superviser:
Goyipnazarov S.B. – senior teacher–assistant
Nzarova F.H.– doctor of science, professor
Approved at the meeting of the
department which held in the ...th of
March, 2013.
Head of Department: _______
prof: Nzarova F.H.
TASHKENT 2013
TEST VARIANTS ON COURSE MARKETING
1 Astrategy that aims to produce a perfect product that will suit everybody is
called:
(A) Production orientation.
(B) Marketing orientation.
(C) Product orientation.
2 Astrategy that aims to produce the maximum amount of goods at the lowest
possible selling price is called:
(A) Selling orientation.
(B) Societal marketing.
(C) Production orientation.
3 Someone who has responsibility for marketing decisions concerning a group
of products is:
(A) A sales manager.
(B) A product manager.
(C) A brand manager.
4 Which of the following is true?
(A) Price is always lower than value.
(B) Cost is always lower than price.
(C) Value is what consumers are prepared to pay.
5 The marketing concept should be central to business strategy because:
(A) Companies have a moral responsibility to care for their customers.
(B) Customers will only spend money with firms that look after their
needs.
(C) Marketing enables firms to persuade their customers to buy things
they do not really need.
6 Which of the following statements is true, from a marketer’s perspective?
(A) A need is something that is necessary for life.
(B) A want is something that is ‘just for fun’.
(C) A want is something that derives from a need.
7 Demand is created when:
(A) A significant group of people want to buy something.
(B) People who can afford something want to buy it.
(C) Marketers persuade people to want something.
8 The four Ps of marketing are:
(A) Product, price, place and promotion.
(B) Product, price, persuasion and place.
(C) Product, price, promotion and profit.
9 Physical evidence refers to:
(A) Those features of a product that can be seen.
(B) Those features of a service that are tangible.
(C) Those features of a product that can be proved to exist.
10 Process refers to:
(A) The way a product is made.
(B) The way a service is delivered.
(C) The way a product is disposed of.
Glossa
11 Factors that are common to society as a whole are called:
(A) The micro-environment.
(B) The external environment.
(C) The macro-environment.
12 STEP stands for:
(A) Strengths, Technical ability, Energy and Power.
(B) Style, Trying, Effort and Presentation.
(C) Socio-cultural, Technological, Economic and Political.
13 Which of the following is not part of the micro-environment?
(A) Government economic policy.
(B) Competitors’ activity.
(C) Customers’ preferences.
14 Firms that distribute the firm’s goods are called:
(A) Customers.
(B) Suppliers.
(C) Intermediaries.
15 The study of population factors is called:
(A) Economics.
(B) Demographics.
(C) Sociology.
16 Employees of the firm are considered to be:
(A) Part of the macro-environment.
(B) The internal publics.
(C) Part of the socio-economic environment.
17 Grouping customers with similar needs is called:
(A) Segmentation.
(B) Targeting.
(C) Marketing.
18 A manager who regards environmental factors as uncontrollable is:
(A) Proactive.
(B) Reactive.
(C) Realistic.
19 Monopolistic competition arises when:
(A) One company has the whole of a market.
(B) Two or three companies control the market.
(C) One company has a large market share.
20 A situation where only a few companies have almost total control of the
market is called:
(A) Perfect competition.
(B) Oligopoly.
(C) Monopoly.
21 What is meant by assortment depletion?
(A) The consumer owns very few possessions.
(B) The consumer has worn out or used up some of his or her possessions.
(C) The consumer has decided to concentrate on owning only a few
possessions.
22 Hedonic needs refer to:
(A) The practical aspects of owning something.
(B) Unnecessary purchases.
(C) The cult of pleasure.
23 Utilitarian needs refer to:
(A) Only buying things that are strictly necessary.
(B) The practical aspects of living.
(C) Products that are plain or boring.
24 Remembering information about products is part of:
(A) The internal search.
(B) The external search.
(C) Interrupts.
25 Affective states are:
(A) Emotional feelings about products.
(B) Emotions that dictate heuristics.
(C) Circumstances that change behaviour patterns.
26 A consideration set is:
(A) A group of products that would meet the consumer’s needs.
(B) All the available products within a given group.
(C) The criteria by which a consumer will judge products.
27 The point at which anticipation becomes uncomfortable is called:
(A) The optimum stimulation level.
(B) The affective state.
(C) The ideal performance.
28 A decision-making rule is called:
(A) An interrupt.
(B) A heuristic.
(C) Dissonance.
29 Deciding whether a product met expectations is called:
(A) Post-purchase dissonance.
(B) Post-purchase evaluation.
(C) Post-purchase verbal response.
30 Complaints that are expressed to friends and acquaintances are called:
(A) Private responses.
(B) Verbal responses.
(C) Third-party responses.
31 Dividing markets into groups of customers with similar needs is called:
(A) Segmenting.
(B) Targeting.
(C) Perceptual mapping.
32 Positioning is the process of:
(A) Putting the product in the right shops.
(B) Putting the product in the right place in the customer’s mind.
(C) Putting the product in the right place within a retail store.
33 The purpose of segmentation is:
(A) To ensure that resources are used in the most effective way.
(B) To make it easier to find customers.
(C) To help customers understand what our products are.
34 Segmenting a market according to where people shop is an example of:
(A) Geographic segmentation.
(B) Psychographic segmentation.
(C) Behavioural segmentation.
35 Which of the following is inappropriate for segmenting industrial marke
(A) Psychographic segmentation.
(B) Geographical segmentation.
(C) Behavioural segmentation.
36 Niche marketing is an example of:
(A) Differentiated marketing.
(B) Undifferentiated marketing.
(C) Concentrated marketing.
37 Delphi is used for:
(A) Segmenting.
(B) Targeting.
(C) Sales forecasting.
38 The proportion of single-person households in the UK is:
(A) 50%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
39 Australia’s influx of Asian immigrants will cause:
(A) Demographic changes.
(B) Increased markets.
(C) Psychographic changes.
40 A low-resource company in a mass market containing high-differentiatio
consumers should:
(A) Follow an undifferentiated strategy.
(B) Follow a differentiated strategy.
(C) Follow a concentrated strategy.
41 A management information system is typically an example of:
(A) Secondary research.
(B) Primary research.
(C) Customer research.
42 Primary research is:
(A) The research that is carried out first.
(B) Research that is original.
(C) The most important research.
43 Which of the following is not an example of qualitative research?
(A) A self-administered survey.
(B) A focus group.
(C) A cartoon test.
44 A random sample is:
(A) A sample chosen in a way that the interviewer does not control.
(B) A sample that represents the whole population.
(C) A sample in which each member of the population has an equal chance
of being included.
45 People who participate in market research exercises are called:
(A) Respondents.
(B) Interviewers.
(C) Surveyors.
46 Product research is carried out in order to:
(A) Find new uses for old products.
(B) Identify new customers.
(C) Identify new ways to distribute products.
47 Which of the following is not a test of statistical confidence?
(A) A t-test.
(B) A chi-square test.
(C) A cartoon test.
48 Testing a questionnaire before running it is called:
(A) Piloting.
(B) Conferencing.
(C) Sampling.
49 A research exercise which investigates a number of different issues at once
with the same respondents is called:
(A) A decision-support system.
(B) An omnibus study.
(C) A panel.
50 Environment research is concerned with:
(A) Green issues.
(B) Investigating pressure groups.
(C) Investigating the general business climate within which the firm
operates.
51 A product is defined as:
(A) A manufactured article, most of whose features are tangible.
(B) A bundle of benefits.
(C) A coherent set of attributes, some of which are tangible and some of
which are intangible.
52 A brand is:
(A) A name given to a firm’s product to distinguish it from its competitors.
(B) A feature of the packaging of a product.
(C) A focus for the firm’s marketing activities around a specific product.
53 Brand extension is:
(A) Creating linked products which relate to the basic brand.
(B) Promoting the brand into new markets.
(C) Promoting the brand into new distributors.
54 A product that has a large share of a mature market is called:
(A) A Star.
(B) A Cash Cow.
(C) A Dog.
55 A product that has a small share of a shrinking market is called:
(A) A Dog.
(B) A War Horse.
(C) A Dodo.
56 Someone who is among the very first to buy a new product is called:
(A) An early adopter.
(B) A laggard.
(C) An innovator.
57 A shopping product is:
(A) A product that is bought on a regular basis.
(B) A product that requires a lengthy decision-making process.
(C) A product that is bought from a retail shop.
58 Accessory equipment is:
(A) Equipment bought by a firm for its peripheral needs.
(B) Extra products that complement a main product purchase.
(C) Equipment used to access other equipment.
59 Which of these is untrue?
(A) Service products are intangible.
(B) Service products are bundles of benefits.
(C) Service products are luxuries.
60 Tamper resistance is an aspect of:
(A) Packaging design.
(B) Product design.
(C) Promotion design.
61 Pricing which is based on how much it costs to produce a product is called:
(A) Cost-plus pricing.
(B) Demand pricing.
(C) Customary pricing.
62 What is the difference between mark-up and margin?
(A) Mark-up is based on customers’ perceptions, margin is based on
producers’ perceptions.
(B) Mark-up is based on bought-in price, margin is based on selling price.
(C) Mark-up is based on a fixed percentage, margin is variable.
63 Setting a high price which gradually reduces as competitors enter the market
is called:
(A) Penetration pricing.
(B) Competitive pricing.
(C) Skimming.
64 Selling a product at one price in one market and a lower price in another is
called:
(A) Second-market discounting.
(B) Penetration pricing.
(C) Competitive pricing.
65 Predatory pricing is:
(A) Setting a price below the costs of production so as to bankrupt
competitors.
(B) Setting a price low to capture a large share of a new market.
(C) Setting prices high to give an impression of high quality.
66 Which of the following is not an assumption underpinning the economist’s
model of price setting by supply and demand?
(A) That price is the only issue that concerns consumers.
(B) That supply will always rise as demand falls.
(C) That consumers have perfect knowledge of the marketplace.
67 Having to choose between alternatives when one has limited resources is
called:
(A) The economic choice.
(B) The decision-making unit.
(C) The value chain.
68 Demand pricing is used because:
(A) It is easiest to apply.
(B) It is consumer-orientated.
(C) It gives the most profit per unit of production.
69 Ending a price with 99¢ is an example of:
(A) Psychological pricing.
(B) Demand pricing.
(C) Customary pricing.
70 A reverse auction is one in which:
(A) Buyers compete against each other to buy an item.
(B) The price gets higher as more people enter the market.
(C) Buyers combine to force prices down.
71 The shipping of goods from supplier to customer is called:
(A) Logistics.
(B) Physical distribution.
(C) Place.
72 Which of the following does not take possession of goods?
(A) An agent.
(B) A retailer.
(C) A wholesaler.
73 A wholesaler who deals in goods without storing them is called:
(A) An agent.
(B) A drop shipper.
(C) A mail order wholesaler.
74 Which of the following is not an activity of wholesalers?
(A) Assorting.
(B) Bulk breaking.
(C) Merchandising.
75 A wholesaler that provides promotion, delivery and own-brand services to
independent retailers is called:
(A) A speciality line wholesaler.
(B) A full-service merchant wholesaler.
(C) A cash-and-carry wholesaler.
76 A retailer is:
(A) Any firm that sells to the final consumer.
(B) Any firm with a shop.
(C) Any firm which sells physical products.
77 A shop offering a limited range of goods at discount prices is called:
(A) A niche marketer.
(B) A discount shed.
(C) A baby shark.
78 A retailer who rents a space inside a department store is called:
(A) A concessionaire.
(B) A niche marketer.
(C) A rack jobber.
79 The physical environment of the store is called:
(A) Its atmospherics.
(B) Its store image.
(C) Its decor.
80 Which of the following is a non-economic source of power?
(A) Referent power.
(B) Legitimate power.
(C) Reward power.
81 Taking control of suppliers is an example of:
(A) Backward integration.
(B) Forward integration.
(C) Horizontal integration.
82 Introducing new products to existing markets is an example of:
(A) Concentric diversification.
(B) Horizontal diversification.
(C) Conglomerate diversification
83 What is the marketing audit?
(A) An examination of the costs and expenditures involved in marketing.
(B) A ‘snapshot’ of the firm’s current marketing activities.
(C) A check on the cost-effectiveness of the firm’s marketing expenditure.
84 The objective and task method of budgeting involves:
(A) Finding out what the competitors’ objectives are and deciding what
tasks they will be carrying out.
(B) Determining our own objectives and deciding what tasks we need to
carry out.
(C) Determining what the consumer’s objectives are, and deciding what
tasks we need to carry out to meet those objectives.
85 A strategy that focuses on keeping costs low is called:
(A) A focus strategy.
(B) A cost leadership strategy.
(C) A differentiated strategy.
86 An organisation structure where managers take responsibility for groups of
customers is called a:
(A) Product structure.
(B) Segmental structure.
(C) Matrix structure.
87 A pull strategy focuses on:
(A) Promoting heavily to members of the distribution chain.
(B) Promoting heavily to retailers only.
(C) Promoting heavily to final consumers.
88 Salespersons’ salaries are an example of:
(A) Non-traceable common costs.
(B) Direct costs.
(C) Traceable common costs.
89 Persuading customers that a brand will meet a need is called:
(A) Brand awareness promotion.
(B) Category need promotion.
(C) Brand purchase intention promotion.
90 An organisation structure in which leadership changes according to task is
called:
(A) A bureaucratic structure.
(B) A mechanistic structure.
(C) An organismic structure.
91 The theory of competitive advantage states that:
(A) Some countries are better than others at producing some goods.
(B) Some companies are better than others at producing some goods.
(C) Some companies are better at beating their competitors than others.
92 WTO stands for:
(A) World Trade Organisation.
(B) World Tariff Organisation.
(C) Western Territory Organisation.
93 Which of the following is not an agreement on trade?
(A) The Cairns Agreement.
(B) The Mercosur Pact.
(C) The Yalta Treaty.
94 Manufacturing in one country and selling in another is an example of:
(A) Globalisation.
(B) Exporting.
(C) Trade agreement.
95 The tendency to believe that one’s own culture is the only ’right’ one is
called:
(A) Ethnocentrism.
(B) Geocentrism.
(C) Psychological proximity.
96 What is countertrading?
(A) An agreement to buy an equal amount of export goods to match an
amount of import goods.
(B) An agreement to accept payment at some time in the future.
(C) An agreement to pay ‘cash on the counter’ for exported goods.
97 The stages of development model states that:
(A) Countries develop at different rates, so are at different stages at any
one time.
(B) Companies go through stages in their development from domesticonly firms to global firms.
(C) Products need to be redeveloped in stages when entering foreign
markets.
98 The theory that firms take an overall view of internationalisation strategies
and choose the most effective is called:
(A) The eclectic theory.
(B) The ethnic theory.
(C) The gestalt theory.
99 A firm which brings buyers and sellers together without actually taking
ownership of goods is called:
(A) An export house.
(B) A clearing house.
(C) An export agent.
100 The process of looking for commonalities in global markets is called:
(A) Transactional orientation.
(B) Transnational segmentation.
(C) Ethnocentrism.
101 Relationship marketing is about:
(A) Ensuring that customers are happy with what they have bought.
(B) Building long-term loyalty between customers and suppliers.
(C) Ensuring that customers’ complaints are handled promptly.
102 People who have frequent contact with customers, but no traditional
marketing role, are called:
(A) Modifiers.
(B) Contactors.
(C) Isolateds.
103 People who might recommend our product to others are called:
(A) Recommenders.
(B) Referral markets.
(C) Reserve markets.
104 The benefits which the product shares with its competitors are called:
(A) Potential benefits.
(B) Residual benefits.
(C) Generic benefits.
105 Total quality management is the process of:
(A) Ensuring that products are perfect before they are allowed to leave the
factory.
(B) Ensuring that faulty products are replaced immediately.
(C) Ensuring that each stage of the production process is carried out
perfectly.
106 Benchmarking means:
(A) Trying to make each department in the firm operate to the level of the
equivalent department in the best of the competitors’ firms.
(B) Setting a standard for quality and ensuring that the firm keeps to it.
(C) Checking that customers’ expectations for the product match up to
what is actually being delivered.
107 Stakeholders are:
(A) Staff, customers and shareholders.
(B) Staff, customers, shareholders and competitors.
(C) Everyone on whom the company’s activities has an impact.
108 The automatic delivery of interesting information to a customer’s e-mail in
box is called:
(A) Spamming.
(B) Webcasting.
(C) Teleology.
109 Which of the following is not a feature of the Internet?
(A) Customer control of content.
(B) Social control.
(C) Social contact.
110 A strategy that seeks to avoid the consequences of problems is called:
(A) A defence strategy.
(B) An accommodation strategy.
(C) A reaction strategy.