* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Download Grade 2008-2010 final exam-A
Discovery and development of non-nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors wikipedia , lookup
Polysubstance dependence wikipedia , lookup
Pharmacokinetics wikipedia , lookup
Orphan drug wikipedia , lookup
Plateau principle wikipedia , lookup
Drug discovery wikipedia , lookup
Discovery and development of beta-blockers wikipedia , lookup
Pharmaceutical industry wikipedia , lookup
Discovery and development of direct thrombin inhibitors wikipedia , lookup
Prescription costs wikipedia , lookup
Prescription drug prices in the United States wikipedia , lookup
Pharmacogenomics wikipedia , lookup
Pharmacognosy wikipedia , lookup
Discovery and development of proton pump inhibitors wikipedia , lookup
Neuropharmacology wikipedia , lookup
Discovery and development of cephalosporins wikipedia , lookup
Drug interaction wikipedia , lookup
Pharmacology Exam for Grade 2008 Pakistan Students (Exam 2) — Part Ⅰ Single Choice Questions (50 points) 1. Which of the following most directly describes the mechanism of action of digitalis? A. Increases the intracellular level of ATP B. Stimulates production of cAMP C. inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase D. decreases intracellular sodium concentration E. Decreases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum 2. Which one of the following drugs decreases de novo cholesterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase? A. Niacin B. Gemfibrozil C. Lovastatin D. Cholestyramine E. Probucol 3. Among the following antihypertensive drugs, which can cause dry cough easily? A. verapamil B. captopril C. losartan D. propranolol E. nifedipine 4. The antihypertensive mechanism of diuretics for long-term treatment is: A. increasing water and sodium excretion from the kidneys. B. decreasing sodium concentration in vascular smooth muscle cell C. increasing the activity of rennin D. decreasing the activity of rennin E. decreasing the secretion of aldosterone 5. Which of the followings is NOT the characteristics of ACEI ? A. it can be used in mild, moderate and severe hypertension B. it does not cause reflective quick heart rate C. it not only improves life quality, but also decreases mortality D. it will not cause disorder of lipid metabolism E. it will not affect glucose metabolism 6. Which of the following antianginal drugs is harmful to patients with variant angina? A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Nitroglycerin D. Propranolol E. Aspirin 7. The mechanism of vasodilation of nitroglycerin is A. vasodilating directly B. blocking α receptor C. producing NO D. stimulating β2 receptor and causing vasodilation E.stimulating adenyl cyclase to increase intracellular cAMP concentration. 8. Which of the following drugs is the best choice for variant angina? A. propranolol B. nitroglycerin C. calcium channel blocker D. carvedilol E. procainamide 9. The followings belong to the adverse effects of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT: A. hypotension B. dry cough C. hyperglycaemia D. hyperkalemia, E. angioedema 10. Which of the following antiatherosclerotic drugs has antioxidant effect? A. Acipimox B. Gemfibrozil C. Lovastatin D. Cholestyramine E. Probucol 11. All of the following statement about glucocorticoids are true EXCEPT A. inhibiting both the early and the late manifestation of inflammation B. affecting all types of inflammatory reactions C. inhibiting the amount of neutrophil D. inhibiting the release of arachidonic acid E. inhibiting granulation tissue formation 12. Vit K is a substance to prevent or reduce bleeding caused by A. heprin B. aspirin C. urokinase D. streptokinase E. dicoumarin 13.Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the anti-thyroid effect of methylthiouracil? A. Inhibiting peroxidase and decreasing the thyroxin synthesis B. Inhibiting the thyroid releasing C. Inhibiting the absorption of iodine D. Interfering with the utilization of iodine E. Decomposing the thyroxin 14. Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the anticoagulant effect of heparin? A. Binding antithromin Ⅲ and accelerating the deactivation of coagulant factors consequently B. Interfering with the utilization of Vit k and decreasing synthesis of coagulant factors C. Inhibiting the platelet aggregation D. Inhibiting the activity of thrombase E. Antagonizing the effect of thromba 15. Which of the following statements about insulin is NOT true? A. It can be administrated orally B. It can be used in some psychotic disorders C. Hypoglycemia is its’ most common adverse reaction D. It can be used in IDDM and NIDDM E. It can cause anaphylactic reaction 16. All of the following statements about cimetidine are true except A. An H2-receptor blocker B. used in peptic ulcer C. reduced the secretion of gastric acid D. little adverse reactions E. recurrence is rare after treatment is stopped 17. The patients with bronchial asthma can not be given A. adrenaline B. ephedrine C. aspirin D. aminophylline E. salbutamol 18. Which is the best scheme for treatment of megaloblastic anemia A. folic acid B. folic acid plus ferrous sulfate C. Vit B12 D. folic acid plus Vit B12 E. Vit B12 plus ferrous sulfate 19. Prednisolone (a kind of GCS) may cause all the following effects EXCEPT A. water and sodium retention B. negative balance of nitrogen C. peptic ulcer D. epileptic attack E. hypoglycemic effects 20. Which of the following mechanisms BEST accounts for the anti-thyroid effect of high concentrations of iodine A. Inhibiting peroxidase and decreasing the thyroxin synthesis B. Inhibiting the thyroid hormones release C. Inhibiting the absorption of iodine D. Interfering with the utilization of iodine E. Decomposing the thyroid hormones 21. Which of the following statements about antibiotics is TRUE? A. the cephalosporins inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting β-lactamases B. tetracyclines inhibit cell wall synthesis C. quinolones inhibit protein synthesis by interacting with the 30s ribosomal subunit D. sulfonamides inhibit DNA gyrase of bacteria E. erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis by interacting with the 50s ribosomal subunit 22. Which of the following drugs is the first choice in treating mycoplasma pneumonia? A. tetracycline B. azithromycin C. gendamycin D. cefaclor E. kanamycin 23. Which of the following drugs have no effect on pseudomonas aeruginosa infection? A.the third generation cephalosporins B. tetracycline C. netilmicin D. ciprofloxacin E. carbenicillin 24. Sulfonamides act synergistically with TMP because A. sulfonamides inhibit the metabolism of TMP B. TMP inhibit the metabolism of sulfonamides C. both drugs act at the same step in inhibiting folic acid synthesis D. both drugs act at different steps in inhibiting folic acid synthesis E. none of the above 25. Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for the treatment of osteomyelitis caused by G+ bacteria? A. penicillin G B. carbenicillin C. chloramphenicol D. clindamycin E. ciprofloxacin PART Ⅱ Please explain the following pharmacological terms(20 points,4/item) 1. post-antibiotic effect 2. chemotherapy 3. antibacterial spectrum 4.chemotherapeutic index 5. superinfection PART ⅢAssay Questions (30 points, 10/item) 1. Why are the ACEI used as regular therapeutic drugs in the treatment of CHF at present? 2. Please compare the anticoagulant mechanisms of heparin and oral anticoagulants. 3.Please describe the characteristics of four generations of cephalosporins. Answers: Part Ⅰ 1.C 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.E 14.A 15.A 16.E 17.C 6.D 7.C 8.C 18.D 19.E 20.B 9.C 10.E 11.C 12.E 13.A 21.E 22.B 23.B 24.D 25. D Part Ⅱ 1.Postantibiotic effect (PAE): Persistent suppression of bacterial growth after limited exposure to an antimicrobial agent 2.chemotherapy is the drug treatment for the diseases caused by bacteria and the other pathogenic microorganisms, parasites and tumor cells. 3.Antimicrobial spectrum :is the scope that an antimicrobial drug kills or suppresses the growth of microorganisms 4. CI=LD50/ED50, used to judge the value and safety of a chemotherapeutic drug 5.Superinfection: modify the normal flora , living in vagina or enteron or oral cavity, with suppression susceptible microorganiams, overgrowth of unsusceptible microorganiams can cause various new infections. Part Ⅲ 1. Why are the ACEI used as regular therapeutic drugs in the treatment of CHF at present? 1)Inhibit ACE (1) decreased the formation of angiotensin II both in circulation and local tissue (2) decreased aldosterone secretion and decreased salt & water retention (3) decreased degradation of bradykinin 2) reduce sympathetic activity by decreased angiotensin-mediated norepinephrine release 3) Inhibit proliferation and hypertrophy of cardiac myocytes and vascular smooth muscle cells, reverse myocardial and vascular remodeling 4)ACEI are used as first-line agents for CHF therapy and decrease mortality, prevent and reverse myocardial remodeling. no reflex tachycardia (unlike vasodilators), therefore safe for use in persons with ischemic heart disease. 2. Please compare the anticoagulant mechanisms of heparin and oral anticoagulants. (1)Mechanism of heparin: enhance the anticoagulative activity of ATⅢand accelerate inactivation of clotting factors (Ⅱa, Ⅸa, Ⅹa, Ⅺa, Ⅻa ) . Because ATⅢ is plasma serine protease inhibitor, it is an α-globulin that inhibits protease, and several active clotting factors belong to serine protease (including factorⅡa, Ⅸa, Ⅹa, Ⅺa, Ⅻa ). (2)Mechanism of oral anticoagulants: antagonizing Vitamin K→ inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factor Ⅱ, Ⅶ, Ⅸ, Ⅹ. Because several of the protein clotting factors (including FactorⅡ, Ⅶ, Ⅸ, Ⅹ) that are involved in the coagulation reactions depend on vitamin K as a cofactor in their complete synthesis by the liver. 3.Please describe the characteristics of four generations of cephalosporins. first second third fourth G+ +++ ++ + +++ G- + ++ +++ ++++ P.aeruginosa - - + ++ anaerobes - ± + ++ Stability to - ++ +++ ++++ + - - β-lactamase nephrotoxcity ++