Download All of the following mechanism of action correctly match a drug

Pharmacology Exams for Grade 2002 Pakistan students (2)
Part Ⅰ Choice questions （60 points）
Type A (only one answer is correct)
1. All of the following statements concerning nitroglycerin are correct
EXCEPT:
A. It cause an elevation of intracellular cGMP
B. It undergoes significant first-pass metabolism in the liver
C. It may cause significant reflex tarchycardia
D. It significantly decreases AV conduction
E. It can cause postual hypotention
2. Which of the following statement about the pharmacological effects of
nitroglycerin is wrong ?
A. decreasing the preload
B. contracting smooth muscle
C. decreasing the afterload
D. dilating the coronary artery
E. reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation
3. Which group of the following drugs is the first choice for variant angina
pectoris:
A. calcium channel blockers
B. β-blockers
C. nitrate
D. NSAIDs
E. anticoagulants
4. Which group of the following drugs can NOT be used in variant angina
pectoris:
A. calcium channel blockers
B. β-blockers
C. nitrate
D.NSAIDs
E.anticoagulants
5. Which one of the following adverse effects associated with nitroglycerin is
CORRECT:
A.hypertention
B.throbbing headache
C.brandycardia
D.sexual dysfunction
E.anemia
6. All of the following mechanism of action correctly match a drug
EXCEPT:
A. quinidine: block Na+ channel
B. bretylium: block K+ channel
C. verapamil: block Ca2+ channel
D. propranolol: block β-adrenoceptor
E. lidocaine: block Cl- channel
7. Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for ventricular
arrhythmia caused by cardiac glycoside ?
A. lidocaine
B. amiodarone
C. propranolol
D. phenytoin sodium
E. quinidine
8. The mechanism of Positive myodynamial action of cardiac glycoside is
due to
A. exciting vagus nerve.
B. exciting sympathetic nerve
C. activating Na+-K+-ATPase
D. inhibiting Na+-K+-ATPase
E. inhibiting Na+-Ca2+ exchange
9. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral
resistance EXCEPT:
A. chronic administration of diuretics
B. hydralazine
C. ACE inhibitors
D. β-R blockers
E. Calcium channel blockers
10. Orthostatic hypotension occurs most frequently in which of the
following drug in first use
A. clonidine
B. nifedipine
C. propranolol
D. methyldopa
E. prazosin
11. All of the following are useful in the treatment of digitalis overdose
EXCEPT
A. anti-digoxin Fragments
B.dietary potassium supplements for patients being treated
concomitantly with diuretics
C. lidocaine
D. phenytoin
E. quinidine
12. Which one of the following statements concerning congestive heart
failure is correct?
A. Digitoxin is more widely used than digoxin because it has a shorter
half-life
B. Serum levels of digoxin can be decreased by quinidine
C. Loop diuretics are used in patients with renal insufficiency
D. Digoxin is eliminated primarily in the bile
E. Congenital heart defects are the most common cause of congestive
heart failure
13. Which one of the following aggravates a digitalis-induced arrhythmia?
A. Decreased serum calcium
B. Decreasing heart rate with propranolol
C. Decreased serum sodium
D. Decreased serum potassium
E. Decreased serum angiotensin Ⅱ
14. Which one of the following drugs decrease de novo cholesterol
biosynthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase?
A. Niacin
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Lovastatin
D. Colestyramine
E. Probucol
15. Which one of the following is the most serious main side effect of statins
and this effect would be increased if a statin is taken with gemfibrozil,
ciclosporin or nicotinic acid.
A. Gastrointestinal problems
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Migraine headaches
E. Palpitations
16. All of the following measures can be used in the treatment of
digoxin-induced arrhythmia EXCEPT
A. stopping digoxin administration
B. diuretic agents such as furosemide are used to promote the excretion
of digoxin
C. phenytoin administration
D. atropine administration
E. lidocaine administration
17. Among the following anti-hypertensive drugs, which can cause dry
cough？
A. verapamil
B. captopril
C. losartan
D. propranolol
E. nifedipine
18. The mechanism of anti-hypertensive effect of losartan is
A. decrement of renin activity
B. inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme
C. blockade of the angiotensin Ⅱ receptors
D. increment of kinin synthesis
E. causing vasodilation directly
19. Chlorothiazide can produce which one of the following actions?
A. hyperkalemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. increase in blood pressure
D. hypercalcemia
E. hypoglycemia in diabetic patients
20. Which of the following hypertensive patients is most suited for primary
therapy with hydrochlorothiazide?
A. patients with gout
B. patients with hyperlipidemia
C. young hypertensive patients with rapid resting heart rate
D. patients with impaired renal function
E. elderly patients
21. The appropriate target in the nephron of Bumetanide is
A. Na+/K+ /2Cl- cotransporter of the luminal membrane in the ascending
limb of Henle’s loop
B. Na+/2Cl- cotransporter of the luminal membrane in the distal tubule
C. competes with aldosterone for intracellular cytoplasmic receptor sites
D. Na+/H+ exchanger of the luminal membrane in collecting duct
E. carbonic anhydrase of proximal tubule
22. Which of the following drugs acts at central imidazoline (I1) recptors?
A. verapamil
B. enalapril
C. hydralazine
D. minoxidil
E. clonidine
23. Which of the following drugs would reverse myocardial remodeling and
reduce overall mortality in patients with heart failure?
A. Cardiac glucosides
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Diuretics
D.Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
E. Calcium channel blockers
24. Which of the followings does not belong to the first-line drugs therapy
for mild congestive heart failure currently?
A. A vasodilator such as hydralazine
B. A cardiac Glycoside such as digoxin
C. A β-adrenergic agonist such as norepinephrine
D. A diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide
E. An ACE inhibitor, such as captopril
25. Which of the following drugs can cause ototoxicity?
A. mannitol
B. furosemide
C. tetracycline
D. hydrochlorothiazide
E. cefaclor
26. The antiplatelet mechanism of aspirin is
A. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in platelet
B. inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in endothelium
C. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in platelet
D. promoting synthesis of PGI2 in endothelium
E. promoting synthesis of PGE2 in endothelium
27. Which one is NOT right about the mechanism of the anticoagulant
effect of heparin?
A. Heparin has indirect effect on the clotting factors
B. Heparin enhances the anticoagulant activity of ATⅢ
C. Heparin keep existing blood clots from growing larger
D. Heparin prevents the formation of new blood clots
E. Heparin dissolves the formed blood clots
28.Heparin can accelerate inactivation of which clotting factors
A. Ⅱa
B. Ⅷa
C. Ⅹa
D. Ⅺa
E. Ⅻa
29. Which one of the following statements about heparin is true:
A. Mild anticoagulant effect
B. Slow onset of effect
C. No anticoagulant effect in vitro
D. Possessing anticoagulant effect in vitro
E. It can be administered orally
30.The blooding caused by warfarin can be overcome by
A. Aspirin
B. vitamin K
C. Cimetidine
D. heparin
E. sulfonamide
31.Pernicious anemia should be treated with
A. Vitaminn K
B. Folic acid +Vitamin B12
C. erythropoietin
D. iron
E. Vitamin B6
32.Which of the following dug can increase the absorption of iron
A. Vitamin C
B. calcium
C. Tannic acid
D. Antacids
E. H2-receptor blockers
33.Which of the following drugs can protect gastric mucosa and eliminate
helicobacter pylori?
A. Proglumide
B. colloidal bismuth subcitrate
C. omeprazole
D. cimetidine
E. sucralfate
34.Which drug can inhibit phosphodiesterase (PDE) in order to exert its
antiasthmatic effect?
A. isoprenaline
B. terbutaline
C. flunisolide
D.adrenaline
E. theophylline
35.Which one of the following is not the effect of theophylline?
A. relaxation of smooth muscle
B. cardiac stimulation
C. mucus hypersecretion
D. CNS stimulation
E. diuresis
36.Hyperthyroidism can be treated by all of the following drugs except
which one?
A. Surgical removal of part of the thyroid gland
B. T3 and T4
C. Large dose of iodide
D. Radioactive iodide
E. Thioureas
37. Which one of the following does NOT belong to the symptoms of
hyperthyroidism?
A. tachycardia
B. nervousness
C. poor resistance to cold
D. body wasting
E. fine tremor
38. Which one of the following is true?
A. Insulin can be administered orally.
B. Insulin is always required therapy in NIDDM.
C. Insulin is useful in the treatment of diabetic coma
D. The most serious adverse reaction of Insulin is allergic reactions
E. The half time of Insulin is very long
39. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Sulfonylureas decrease the secretion of insulin.
B. Sulfonylureas is effective in NIDDM.
C. Sulfonylureas increase glucagons secretion.
D.Sulfonylureas increase both the release of insulin and the
insulin-sensitivity of target tissue.
E. Sulfonylureas block the insulin receptors.
40. Which of the following is not true?
A. one of the most common side effects of oral hypoglycemic agents is
gastrointestinal disturbance
B. the most serious consequence of insulin overdose is hypoglycemia
C. weight reduction is often of therapeutic help in obese NIDDM patients
D. Insulin and glucocorticoids have similar effects on metabolism
E. Biguanides can be used in NIDDM alone
41. Which one of the following statements about glucocorticoids is not true?
A. They may produce peptic ulcer.
B. They are contraindicated in patients with serious hypertension.
C. they are used in the treatment of Addison’s disease.
D. they are useful in the treatment of shock.
E. they can cause hypoglycemia
42．Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the anti-thyroid
effect of Thioureas?
A. Inhibiting peroxidase and decreasing the thyroid hormones synthesis
B. Inhibiting the thyroid release
C. Inhibiting the absorption of iodine
D. Interfering with the utilization of iodine
E. Decomposing the thyroid hormone
43. Which of the following is the severe adverse reaction of
methylthiouracil?
A. Toxic hepatitis
B. Granulocytopenia
C. Gastrointestinal reactions
D. Skin rash
E. Enlargement of lymph nodes
44. Which of the following symptoms is a withdrawal syndrome of
glucocorticoids?
A. Induction and aggravation of infections
B. Rebound phenomenon
C. Truncal obesity
D. Hypertension
E. Osteoporosis
45. The reason that Glucocorticoids can be used to treat severe bacterial
infections is
A. They can act as good antibiotics
B. They are able to enhance the immmunity
C. They possess anti-inflammatory and antitoxic actions
D. They can increase the effect of antibiotics
E. They can promote the neutrophils’ ability
46. Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for the treatment of
osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus auerus ?
A. penicillin
B. polymyxin B
C. chloramphenicol
D. clindamycin
E. ciprofloxacin
47. .Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of
antibiotics is most accurate
A. aminoglycosides bind to receptors on the 50s ribosomal subunit to
prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA
B. cephalosporins inhibit the synthesis of precursor of the linear
peptidoglycan chain of the cell wall
C. fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D. the bactericidal action of penicillin is partly due to their activation of
autolytic enzymes
E. vancomycin inhibit peptidyl transferases involved in cell wall synthesis
48. which of the following drug has no effect on pseudomonas aeruginosa
infections
A. carbencillin
B. imipenem
C. netilmicin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. amoxicilin
49. which of the following drugs may cause superinfections?
A. penicillin G
B. streptomycin
C. erythromycin
D. tetracycline
E.neomycin
50. which of following drugs prevents synthesis of cell-wall, but does not
belong to β-lactam antibiotics
A. penicillin G
B. Vancomycin
C. aztreonam
D. cefaclor
E. amoxycillin
51. which of the following drug may cause aplastic anemia?
A. penicillin G
B. streptomycin
C. tetracycline
D. chloramphenicol
E. doxycyline
52.sulfonamides act synergistically with trimethoprim because
A. sulfonamides inhibit the metabolism of trimethoprim
B. trimethoprim inhibits the metabolism of sulfonamides
C. both drugs act at the same step in inhibiting folic acid synthesis
D. both drugs act at the different steps in inhibiting folic acid synthesis
E. toxicity of the two drugs can be decreased
53. which of the following drug is active against rickettsia
A. lincomycin
B. tetracycline
C. penicillin G
D. streptomycin
E. norfloxacin
54. which of the following statements is WRONG?
A. isoniazid readily penetrates cells and caseous tuberculous lesions
B. isoniazid can cause peripheral neuritis
C. rifampicin is only used in the treatment of tuberculosis
D. rifampicin is an inducer of liver microsomal enzyme
E. isoniazid is only used in the treatment of tuberculosis
55. a drug that inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and can be used
to treat patients with tuberculosis is
A. isoniazid
B. streptomycin
C.rifampicin
D.ethambutol
E.ciprofloxacin
56. the major adverse reaction of chloramphenicol is
A. ototoxicy
B. GI tract reactions
C. bone marrow disturbances
D. renal toxicity
E. hepatic necrosis
57. which of the following adverse reactions is NOT likely to be caused by
tetracyclines?
A.GI tract reactions
B. superinfections
C. damage of growing bone and teeth
D. hepatotoxicity
E. gray-baby syndrome
58. which drug is the first choice in the treatment of severe fungal
pneumonia or cryptococcal meningitis?
A.
amphotericin B
B.
griseofulvin
C.
terbinafine
D.
isoniazid
E.
methothrexate
59. all of the following antibiotics act by interfering with protein synthesis
except
A. tetracycline
B. streptomycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. ampicillin
E. clindamycin
60. which of the following statements about antibiotics is TRUE?
A. the cephalosporins inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting β
-lactamases
B. tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by interacting with the 50s
ribosomal subunit
C. quinolones inhibit protein synthesis by interacting with the 30s
ribosomal subunit
D. sulfonamides inhibit DNA gyrase of bacteria
E. chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis by interacting with the
50s ribosomal subunit
PART Ⅱ Please explain the following pharmacological terms（10 points）
1. chemotherapy
2. post-antibiotic effect
3. superinfection
4.chemotherapeutic index
5. bactericidal drugs
PART Ⅲ Assay questions （30 points）
1. Why are the ACEI used as regular therapeutic drugs in the
treatment of CHF at present?
2. Please describe the pharmacological action of glucocorticoids.
3. Please compare the characteristics of four generations of
cephalosporins.
GOOD LUCK
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GOOD LUCK !!!
1.D 2.B 3. A 4. B 5.B 6.E 7.A 8. D 9.D 10.E 11.E 12.C
15.B 16.B 17.B 18.C 19. B 20.E 21.A 22.E 23.B 24.A
27.E 28.B 29.D 30.B 31.B 32.A 33.C 34.E 35.C 36－45.
48.E 49.D 50.B 51.D 52.D 53.B 54.C 55.C 56.C 57.E 58.A
59 60 题有错误
问答题 glucocorticoids
13.D
25.B
46.D
59.D
14. C
26.A
47.D
60.E