Download Ap Bio Review - Ecology

Ap Bio Review
1. Define:
a. Isotope: An alternate form of an element with a different number of neutrons, but the same number of protons
and electrons.
b. Valence Shell: The electrons in the outer shell or the valence shell of an atom; in the formation of a chemical
bond an atom can accept electrons into its valence shell, or donate or share valance electrons.
c. Covalent Bonds: The chemical bond involving shared pairs of electrons; may be single, double or triple (with
one, two, or three shared pairs of electrons, respectively).
d. Ionic Bonds: The chemical attraction between a cation and an anion.
2. Hydrogen bonds result in a weak attractive force existing between a hydrogen atom with a partial positive charge and
an electronegative atom (usually oxygen or nitrogen) with a partial negative charge. Hydrogen bonds are responsible
from the cohesion, surface tension, and high specific heat of water.
a. pH is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution (expressed as moles per liter).
Neutral pH is 7, values less than 7 are acidic, and those greater than 7 are basic.
3. How many covalent bonds can carbon form? Carbon can form four covalent bonds.
4. Hydrogen bonds form between poles that are slightly positive and slightly negative as seen in water (the hydrogen side
and the oxygen side respectively).
5. pH is a measure of the hydrogen concentration in a solution.
6. Buffer: A substance in a solution that tends to lessen the change in hydrogen ion concentration (pH) that otherwise
would be produced by adding an acid or base.
7. What are the differences between catabolic and anabolic reactions? Catabolic reactions are reactions involved with
breaking down complex substance into simpler forms; catabolic reactions are particularly important in releasing
chemical energy stored by the cell. Anabolic reactions, on the other hand, are reactions involved with the building up of
simpler substances into more complex forms, resulting in the storage of energy, the production of new cellular
materials, and growth.
8. What is an isomer? An isomer is one of two or more chemical compounds having the same chemical formula, but
different structural formulas.
a. Structural: one of two or more chemical compounds having the same chemical formula, but differing in the
covalent arrangement of their atoms, e.g., glucose and fructose.
b. Geometric: A chemical compound having the same molecular formula as another but a different geometric
configuration, as when atoms or groups of atoms are attached in different spatial arrangements on either side of
a double bond or other rigid bond.
c. Steroisomers: Isomerism created by differences in the spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule.
9. Name the following functional groups:
a. -OH- hydroxyl
b. C = O carbonyl
c. –COOH carboxyl
d. –NH2 amino
e. –SH sulfhydryl
f. –OPO3 phosphate
10. What is the general formula for monosaccharide? The general formula for monosaccharides is (CH2O)n.
a. What is the function of monosaccharides? The main function of monosaccharides is to provide energy in a
simple form that is easy to breakdown.
11. What are polysaccharides? Polysaccharides are carbohydrates consisting for many monosaccharide subunits.
a. What are the functions of polysaccharides? Polysaccharides serve as storage materials, and protection in plants
and fungi.
b. What are the differences between glycogen, starch, cellulose, and chitin? Glycogen is the principle storage
polysaccharide in animal cells; formed from glucose and stored primarily in the liver and, to a lesser extent, in
muscle cells. Starch is a polysaccharide composed of alpha glucose subunits; made by plants for energy
storage. Cellulose is a structural polysaccharide composed of beta glucose subunits; the main constituent of
plant primary cell walls. Chitin is a nitrogen-containing structural polysaccharide that forms the exoskeleton of
insects and the cell walls of many fungi.
12. What are the structural components of fats, phospholipids, and steroids? Fats or triglycerides are composed of a
glycerol molecule attached to 3 fatty acids. Phospholipids are composed of a glycerol molecule attached to a phosphate
group and tow fatty acids. Steroids are composed of a backbone of four linked carbon rings.
a. Fats store energy.
b. Phospholipids form phospholipid bilayers or membranes.
c. Steroids may function as hormone such as testosterone and estrogen.
13. Proteins are polymers of amino acids joined by covalent bonds called peptide bonds.
a. Primary: The primary structure of a protein describes the order of amino acids
b. Secondary: The secondary structure of a protein is a three dimensional shape that results from hydrogen
bonding between the amino and carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids. The bonding produces a spiral (alpha
helix) or a folded plane (beat pleated sheet).
c. Tertiary: The tertiary structure of a protein includes additional three dimensional shaping and often dominated
the structure of globular proteins. Hydrogen bonding, ionic bonding, the formation of disulfide bonds between
amino acids, and the hydrophobic effect influence the shape of the polypeptide.
d. Quaternary: The quaternary structure describes a protein that is assembled form two or more separate peptide
chains.
14. The three parts of a nucleotide are a nitrogenous base, a five carbon sugar (deoxyribose), and a phosphate group.
a. A and G are purines; C and T are pyrimidines.
15. Explain the mechanism for DNA replication. First, helicases unwind the DNA producing a replication fork. Single
stranded DNA binding proteins prevent the single strands of DNA from recombining. Topoisomerase removes twists
and knots that form in the double stranded template as a result of the unwinding induced by helicase. RNA primase
initiates DNA replication at special nucleotides, origins of replication, with short segments of RNA nucleotides, RNA
primers. DNA polymerase attached to the RNA primers and begins elongation, the adding of DNA nucleotides to the
complement strand. The leading stand is assembled continuously as the double-helix DNA uncoils. The lagging
complementary strand is assembled in short Okazaki fragments, which are subsequently joined by DNA ligase. Finally
RNA primers are replaced by DNA nucleotides.
a. The leading strand is the strand of DNA is synthesized continuously. The lagging strand is the strand of DNA
that is synthesized as a series of short segments. The 5`& 3` ends are the polarity of each end of the DNA the
5` end is the one which is the leading end and the 3` end is the end that is the tail end of the deoxyribose.
Okazaki fragments are the short fragments, which are connected together in the lagging DNA strand. The
origin of replication is the specific site on the DNA where replication can begin. The RNA primer is the
sequence of about five RNA nucleotides that are synthesized during RNA replication to provide a 3` end to
which DNA polymerase can add nucleotides. The RNA primer is later degraded and replaced with DNA. DNA
polymerase is a family of enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of DNA from a DNA template, by adding
nucleotides to a growing 3`end. Helicases are enzymes that unwind the tow strands of a DNA double helix.
DNA ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the joining of the 5` and 3` ends of two DNA fragments essential in
DNA replication and used in recombinant DNA technology.
16. Explain how DNA codes for a protein. DNA codes for a protein by undergoing a series of reactions known as
transcription and translation. During transcription, an mRNA molecule transcribes information from the template strand
and this information is then carried to the ribosomes where it is translated into amino acids.
a. What are the steps in transcription and translation? Where does each occur? Transcription occurs in the
nucleus and beings with initiation. In initiation, the RNA polymerase attaches to promoter regions, called the
TATA box, on the DNA and begins to unzip the DNA into two strands. Elongation occurs as the DNA
polymerase unzips the DNA and assembles RNA nucleotides using one strand of the DNA as a template. As in
DNA replication, elongation of the RNA molecule occurs in the 5` -- > 3` direction. In contrast to DNA
replication, new nucleotides are RNA nucleotides (rather than DNA nucleotides), and only one DNA strand is
transcribed. Lastly, Termination occurs when the RNA polymerase reaches a special sequence of nucleotides
that serve as a termination point. In eukaryotes, the termination region often contains the DNA sequence
AAAAAAA. Translation occurs in the cytoplasm with the help of ribosomes and begins with initiation, when
the small ribosomal subunit attaches to a special region near the 5` end of the mRNA. A tRNA with the
anticodon UAC attaches to the mRNA at the start codon, AUG, by the use of hydrogen bonds. The large
ribosomal subunit attaches to the mRNA, forming a complete ribosome with the tRNA occupying the P site.
Elongation begins when the next tRNA bearing an amino acid binds to the A site of the ribosome. The
methionine is removed from the first tRNA and attached to the amino acid on the newly arrived tRNA. The
first tRNA, which no longer carries an amino acid, is released. After its release, the tRNA can again bind with
its specific amino acid, allowing repeated delivers to the mRNA during translation. The remaining tRNA
(together with the mRNA to which it is bonded) moves from the A site to the P site. Now the A site is
unoccupied and a new codon is exposed. This is analogus to the ribosome moving over one codon. A new
tRNA carrying a new amino acid enters the A site. The two amino acids on the tRNA in the P site are
transferred to the new amino acid, forming a chain of three amino acids. The tRNA in the P site is released,
and subsequent steps are repeated. As each new tRNA arrives, the polypeptide chain is elongated by one new
amino acid, growing in sequence and length as dictated by the codons on the mRNA. Termination occurs when
the ribosome encounters one of the three “stop” codons. At termination, the completed polypeptide, the last
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tRNA, and the two ribosomal subunits are released. The ribosomal subunits can now attach to the same or
another mRNA and repeat the process.
b. RNA polymerase: RNA polymerase is an enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template;
this is also known as DNA-dependant RNA polymerase.
Energy is defined as the capacity to do work and can be expressed in kilojoules or kilocalories.
What is entropy? Entropy is disorderliness or a quantitative measure of the amount of the random, disordered energy
that is unavailable to do work.
How does ATP power cellular work? ATP or adenosine triphosphate is a high energy molecule that has energy stored
in its bonds. Mitochondrion work along with the electron transport chain and glycolysis to break down ATP, releasing
the stored energy which powers cellular work.
How do enzymes control the rate of chemical reactions? Enzymes control the rate of chemical reactions by being either
catalysts anablysts; thereby speeding up the rate of reaction by lowering the amount of activation energy required or
slowing the reaction down by increasing the amount of activation energy required.
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b. Explain the induced fit model. The induced fir model describes how enzymes work. Within the enzyme, there
is an active site with which the reactants readily interact because of the shape, polarity, or other characteristics
of the active site. The interaction of the reactants (substrate) and the enzyme causes the enzyme to change
shape. The new position places the substrate molecules into a position favorable to their reaction. Once the
reaction takes place, the product is released.
c. Explain how metabolic pathways are regulated by allosteric enzymes and cooperativity. Allosteric enzymes
have two kinds of binding sites – one an active site for the substrate and one an allosteric site for an allosteric
effector. There are two kinds of allosteric effectors. An allosteric activator binds to the enzyme and induces the
enzyme’s active form. An allosteric inhibitor binds to the enzyme and induces the enzyme’s inactive form. In
cooperativity, an enzyme becomes more receptive to additional substrate molecules after one substrate
molecule attaches to an active site.
List eight organelles found in the cell and their functions.
a. Nucleus: A cellular organelle in eukaryotes that contains DNA and serves as the control center of the cell.
b. Endoplasmic Reticulum: A interconnected network of internal membranes in eukaryotic cells enclosing a
compartment, the ER lumen. Rough ER has ribosomes attached to the cytosolic surface; smooth ER, a site of
lipid biosynthesis, lacks ribosomes.
c. Lysosome: An intracellular organelle present in many animal cells, containing a variety of hydrolytic enzymes
for protection and maintenance of the cell.
d. Perioxisome: A membrane bound organelle in eukaryotic cells that contains enzymes that produce or degrade
hydrogen peroxide.
e. Mitochondrion: An intracellular organelle that is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotes; includes
an outer membrane and an inner membrane.
f. Golgi Apparatus: An organelle composed of stacks of flattened, membranous sacs. Mainly responsible for
modifying, packaging, and sorting proteins that will be secreted or targeted to other organelles of the internal
membrane system or to the plasma membrane.
g. Cell Wall: The structure outside the plasma membrane of certain cells; may contain cellulose (plant cells),
chitin (most fungal cells), Peptidoglycan and/or lipopolysaccharide (most bacterial cells), or other material.
h. Centrioles: One of a pair of a small, cylindrical organelles lying at right angles to each other near the nucleus
in the cytoplasm of animal cells and certain protest and plant cells; each centriole is in the form of a cylinder
composed of nine triplets of microtubules (9X3 structure).
What are the differences between diffusion and active transport? Simple diffusion is the movement of solutes with a
concentration gradient without the expenditure of energy and the need for transport proteins; whereas active transport is
the movement of solutes against a gradient and requires the expenditure of energy and the usage of transport proteins.
The three steps in respiration are glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation.
a. Glycolysis starts with glucose and produces 2 pyruvates and 2 NADH.
b. Krebs cycle starts with two pyruvates and produces carbon dioxide, 6 NADH, and 2 FADH2.
Where do the following occur:
a. Glycolysis: Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm.
b. Krebs cycle: The Krebs cycle occurs in the matrix or fluid part of the mitochondrion.
c. Electron Transport Chain: The electron transport chain occurs in the cristea or the internal folds of the
mitochondrion.
What are the two major parts of photosynthesis? Where does each part occur? The two major parts of photosynthesis
are the light reactions and the dark reactions or the Calvin Benson cycle. The light dependant reactions occur on the
thylakoid membranes. The light independent reactions occur in the stroma or the fluid of the chloroplast.
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What enters the light reactions? What is produced? The light reactions are induced by light causing an electron
to be excited and jump around in the two photosystems. ATP is created along with hydrogen ions and electrons
as water is split.
b. What enters the Calvin cycle? What is produced? In order to initiate the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide must be
present. The carbon dioxide combines with RuBP and produces 12 PGA. 12 ATP and 12 NADPH are used to
convert the 12 PGA to 12 PGAL. 6 ATP are used to convert 10 PGAL to 6 RuBP. 2 PGAL were used to
produce glucose, the end product of the Calvin Benson cycle.
List the phases of mitosis. The phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase/cytokinesis.
List the parts of the cell cycle. The cell cycle consists of G1, S(ynthesis), G2, and mitosis or meiosis depending on the
type of cell.
Define:
 Hypoosmotic: A term referring to a solution having an osmotic pressure (or solute concentration) less than that of
the solution with which it is compared.
 Hyperosmotic: A term referring to a solution having an osmotic pressure (or solute concentration) greater than that
of the solution with which it is compared.
 Isomotic: A term applied to solutions that have identical concentrations of solute molecules and hence the same
osmotic pressure.
What is chemisosmosis? Chemiosmosis is the process by which phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP is coupled to the
transfer of electrons down an electron transport chain, the electron transport chain powers proton pumps that produce a
proton gradient across the membrane and ATP is formed as protons diffuse through transmembrane channels in ATP
synthase.
What is photophosphorylation? Photophosphorylation is the production of ATP in photosynthesis, accomplished by
phosphorylation of ADP.
What is the difference between meiosis I and meiosis II? In meiosis I, synapsis or intimate paring of homologous
chromosomes occurs during which crossing over occurs at the chiasmata. Moreover, the chromosomes exist as tetrads
or bivalents.
What are the differences between aneuploidy, polyploidy, and structural alterations in chromosomes? What is the
difference between a linked and unlinked gene? Aneuploidy is when any chromosomal aberration in which there are
either extra or missing copies of chromosomes. Polyploidy is the condition of having more than two sets of
chromosomes per nucleus. Linked genes are genes that are located on the same chromosome and, as a result, travel
together during inheritance and do not reassort in the individual, whereas unlinked genes are not connected and reassort
independently meaning they are inherited separately.
List some differences between viruses and bacteria. A bacterium is a truly living earthling. It is able to reproduce
without need of a host and its genetic material is limited to DNA. The bacterium is a true cell with a cell wall, cell
membrane, and ribosomes to produce proteins. Viruses, on the other hand, are not living but not anabolic, have an outer
protein coat, must reproduce by the aid of a host either through the lytic cycle or lysogenic cycle, and its genetic
material can either be DNA or RNA both which can be double or single stranded.
List the tools and techniques of DNA technology. DNA technology employs the tools of restriction enzymes to cut up
DNA and DNA ligase to join the fragments back together. Some types of DNA technology are gel electrophoresis,
which separates DNA fragments according to their weight,; restriction fragment length polymorphisms, which are
useful in DNA fingerprinting, as polymorphs account for slight differences in DNA sequences; and polymerase chain
reaction, which uses synthetic primers that initiate replication at specific nucleotide sequences proliferating the amount
of DNA available.
a. Explain the use of restriction enzymes in both RFLP analysis and Recombinant DNA technology? Restriction
enzymes cut up pieces of DNA into fragments, these restriction fragments serve as templates, which can be
later compared to a test sample as in DNA fingerprinting. In recombinant technology, restriction enzymes are
used to cut the bacterial chromosome to allow it to be lineated, allowing the recombinant gene to enter the
chromosome of the bacteria.
b. How can DNA be sequenced? Amplified? Analyzed? DNA can be sequenced by the use of restriction
enzymes to cut it up into fragments, where the restriction enzyme recognizes a sequence or a recognition site.
DNA can be amplified by the process of polymerase chain reaction, where a synthetic primer initiates
replication at specific nucleotide sequences. DNA can be analyzed by being run through gel electrophoresis,
where DNA fragments will move according to size toward the positive terminal.
List some applications of DNA technology. DNA technology can be used for the identification of criminals, paternal
tests, and the creation of hormones such as insulin.
Describe three major types of mutations. Three major types of mutations are substitution, deletion, and insertion.
Substitution mutations place a nucleotide in place of another, but do not case frame shifts. Deletion and addition, take
out or add a nucleotide into a DNA and cause a frame shift or cause the DNA to be read out of frame from the point of
the mutation and onward.
37. Describe some causes of mutations. Mutations are caused by incorrect or rather faulty checking by the DNA
polymerase. Mutation rather is increased by radiation and chemicals called mutagens, which include carcinogens that
activate uncontrolled cell growth or cancer.
38. What are the differences between the lytic and lysogenic cycle? The lytic and lysogenic cycles are the methods by
which viruses reproduce. In the lytic cycle, a virus penetrates the cell membrane of the host and uses the enzymes of
the host cell to replicate viral DNA, transcribing the viral DNA into RNA, and translating the RNA into proteins. The
proteins and DNA are then assembled into new viruses which subsequently erupt from the host cell, destroying the cell
in the process. The new viruses then infect other cells, and the process repeats. The lysogenic cycle, is longer than the
lytic cycle; the viral DNA is temporarily incorporated into the DNA of the host cell. A virus in this dormant state is
called a provirus (in bacteriophages, a prophage). The virus remains inactive until some trigger; usually an external
environmental stimulus causes the virus to begin the lytic cycle.
39. Define:
a. Operon: In prokaryotes, a group of structural genes that are coordinately controlled and transcribed as a single
message, plus their adjacent regulatory elements.
b. Promoter: The nucleotide sequence in DAN to which RNA polymerase attaches to begin transcription.
c. Structural gene:
d. Repressor: A negative regulatory protein that inhibits transcription when bound to DNA; some repressors
require a corepressor to be active some other repressors become inactive when bound to an inducer molecule.
e. Inducer: A substance that binds to a repressor protein, converting it to its inactive form, which is unable to
prevent transcription.
f. Activator: A positive regulatory protein that stimulates transcription hen bound to DNA.
40. List the five conditions necessary for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
a. No mutations.
b. No gene flow, or no genes being introduced to or taken out of the population
c. No genetic drift, meaning the amount of genes must remain constant.
d. Random mating, so no favoritism of a certain trait.
e. Large population for statistical analysis.
41. Give the Hardy-Weinberg formula and state what each term in the equation represents.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 p2, 2pq, q2= genotype frequency
p+q=1
p = dominant allele frequency
q = recessive allele frequency
42. Describe some prezygotic and postzygotic barriers to the ability to interbreed.
43. What is allopatric speciation? What is sympatric speciation? Allopatric speciation is speciation that occurs when one
population becomes geographically separated from the rest of the species and subsequently evolves. Sympatric
speciation is the evolution of a new species within the same geographical region as the parental species.
44. What are the differences between microevolution and macroevolution? A microevolution is a small scale evolutionary
change due to changes in allele or genotype frequencies that occur within a population over successive generations.
Macroevolution, however, is a large scale evolutionary change over long time spans.
45. What is genetic drift? Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequency in a small breeding population.
46. What is gene flow? Gene flow is the movement of alleles between local populations due to the migration of individuals,
which can lead to significant evolutionary consequences.
47. What is selection? Selection is the process by which the environment selects traits favorable to it. Thus; weeding out
the weakest with the most ill suited traits and allowing those with the better suited traits to have an easier life.
48. What kind of cell is a protist? A protist is a eukaryotic cell which can either be unicellular or simple multicellular can
be algaelike, animallike, or funguslike.
49. How is the domain system of classification different from the kingdom classification? The domain system of
classification only had tow kingdoms – Animalia and Plantea; thereby it was extremely difficult to group the various
species on earth into either of these two, so this was done awat with and replaced by the five kingdom system.
50. List and describe the 6 kingdoms of life.
a. Kingdom Eubacteria: One of the two major subdivisions of the prokaryotes (includes all except
Archaebacteria. most gram-positive bacteria, cyanobacteria, mycoplasmas, enterobacteria, pseudomonads and
chloroplasts are Eubacteria. The cytoplasmic membrane contains ester linked lipids, there is peptidoglycan in
the cell wall (if present) and no introns have been discovered.
b. Kingdom Archaebacteria: The other major subdivision of prokaryotes. There are three main orders, extreme
halophiles, methanogens and sulphur dependant extreme thermophiles. Archaebacteria have ribosomes, but
their ribosomes differ from those of Eubacteria.
c. Kingdom Protista: Kingdom Protista is an artificial kingdom and is used for convenience rather than to
establish actual evolutionary relationships. There are algae-like protists, protozoa or animal like protists, and
fungus like protists.
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d. Kingdom Fungi: Fungi grow as filaments called hyphae. A mass of hyphae is called mycelium. Some fungi
have speta, or cross walls, which divide the filaments into compartments containing a single nucleus. When
filaments lack septa they are multinucleated, or coenocytic. The cell walls of fungi consist of chitin.
e. Kingdom Plantae: Species of the Kingdom Plantae all go through the alteration of generations. They have a
waxy cuticle and posses vascular tissues, the xylem and phloem.
f. Kingom Animalia: In the Kingdom Animalia, all animals are multicellular, heterotrophic, are in the diploid
generation, motile at least some part of their life, and undergo a period of embryonic development.
Define the following:
a. Phototroph: An organism that uses light as a source of energy.
b. Chemotroph: An organism that uses organic compounds or inorganic substances, such as iron, nitrate,
ammonia, or sulfur, as sources of energy.
c. Autotroph: An organism that synthesizes complex organic compounds from simple inorganic raw materials;
also known as a producer.
d. Heterotroph: An organism that cannot synthesize its own food from inorganic raw materials and therefore must
obtain energy and body-building materials from other organisms.
Define the following:
a. Eumetazoa:
b. Acoelomate: An animal lacking a body cavity (coelom).
c. Pseudocoelomate: An animal possessing a pseudocoelom, a coelom partially, not fully derived from the
mesoderm.
d. Coelomate: An animal possessing a true coelom.
e. Protostomes: A major division of the animal kingdom in which the blastopore develops into the mouth and the
anus forms secondarily; includes annelids, arthropods, and mollusks.
f. Deuterostomes: A major division of the animal kingdom in which the anus develops from the blastopore;
includes echinoderms and chordates.
The three main parts of the plant are roots, stem, and leaves.
The three basic tissue types in a plant are ground tissue, dermal tissue, and vascular tissue.
The differences between primary and secondary growth are that primary growth results in elongation, whereas
secondary growth involves the increase in the girth of a plant. Primary growth results from apical meristems and gives
rise to primary xylem and phloem. Secondary growth results in woody dicots and conifers and occurs in lateral
meristems, the vascular cambium and cork cambium. The vascular cambium gives rise to the secondary xylem and
phloem. The cork cambium gives rise to the periderm.
Compare and contrast transpiration and translocation. Transpiration is the loss of water vapor from the aerial surfaces
of a plant. Transpiration occurs through stomata and is responsible for the pull of water through the roots by bulk flow
in the plant. Translocation, however, is movement of sugar in the plant through the phloem.
What is the difference between xylem and phloem? The xylem is dead at maturity and consists of tracheids and vessel
members. N order to allow more efficient water transport up the plant, the xylem has pits and perforations, areas in
which the cell wall isn’t present. The phloem, however, consists of sieve tube members and companion cells. It is alive
at maturity and it responsible for translocation or the transport of sugar from the plant source to the plant sink.
What is photoperiodism? Photoperiodism is the physiological response of plants to variations in the length of daylight
and darkness.
How are short and long day plants different? Short day plants flower in the later summer and early fall when daylight is
decreasing. These plants flower when daylight is less than a critical length (or when night exceeds a critical length).
Long day plants, on the other hand, flower in the spring and early summer when daylight is increasing.
The four major tissue types in animals are epithelial tissue (other skin layers and internal protective coverings),
connective tissue (bone, cartilage, and blood), nervous tissue, and muscle tissue.
What are some functions of the circulatory system? The circulatory system provides the passage of blood throughout
the body. This allows all parts of the organism to be sustained because the blood that is transported provides the cells
with oxygen and nutrients. In addition, the circulatory system acts as a channel, as hormones in the blood are circulated
from one region of the body to another.
The three components of the circulatory system are the blood vessels (arteries, arterioles, capillaries, veins, and
venules) and the heart.
What is the difference between systemic and pulmonary circulation? Systemic circulation is the circulation of blood
through the entire body excluding the lungs. Pulmonary circulation is the movement of blood from the right side of the
heart to the longs and back to the left side of the heart.
What are the two main types of immune system defenses in animals? The two main types of immune system defenses
are nonspecific defenses. The nonspecific defense includes physical barriers such as the skin, cilia, and mucus. It also
includes phagocytes produced by the immune system, or the white blood cells that engulf nonself cells. The specific
defense includes the immune response which is composed of B and T cells. The immune response is the third line of
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defense and it targets specific antigens. B cells secrete antibodies, plasma cells that release antibodies, and memory
cells that provide immunity to many diseases after the first occurrence of it. T cells are divided into cytotoxic T cells
that cause nonself cells to lyse, and Helper T cells that stimulate the production of B cells and cytotoxic cells.
What is the inflammatory response? The inflammatory response is the series of nonspecific events that occur in
response to pathogens such as those when skin is damaged and anything enters the organism thought this breach.
Firstly, histamine is secreted by basophils. The histamine causes vasodilatation, allowing easier movement of white
blood cells to the site of infection. These phagocytes engulf the pathogens and damaged cells. Complement helps
phagocytes engulf foreign cells, stimulate basophils to release histamine, and help lyse foreign cells.
What is the difference between cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity? A cell mediated response uses mostly
T cells and responds to any nonself cells, including cells invaded by pathogens. When a nonself cell binds to a T cell,
the T cell undergoes clonal selection. The humoral response involves most cells and responds to antigens or pathogens
that are circulating in the lymph or blood.
Differentiate between the primary and secondary response. The primary response includes plasma cells which secrete
large amounts of antibodies. The secondary response includes the memory cells which quickly secrete antibodies.
What are some of the functions of the vertebrate kidney? The vertebrate kidney filters the blood. It consists of about a
million individual filtering tubes called nephrons. Two kidneys produce waste fluids, or urine, which pass through
ureters to the bladder for temporary storage.
What is the difference between an endotherm and an ectotherm? An endoderm is an animal that uses metabolic energy
to maintain a constant body temperature despite variations in environment temperature. Ectotherms are animals whose
temperature fluctuates with that of the environment. Ectotherms may use behavioral adaptations to regulate
temperature.
Describe the peripheral vs. central nervous system. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord,
which interprets signals. The peripheral nervous system, however, consists of sensory neurons that transmit impulses to
the CNS and motor neurons that transmit impulses from the CNS to effectors.
Contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic system. The sympathetic nervous system is involved the stimulation of
activities that prepare the body for action, which is usually involved in the increase of heart rate, increasing the release
of sugar from the liver into the blood, and other activities generally related to fight or flight responses. The
parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for tranquil activates such as stimulating the secretion of saliva or
digestive enzymes into the stomach.
What is the function of the glial cells? Glial cells produce myelin sheaths. The myelin sheaths create nodes of Ranvier,
which allow for saltatory conduction or the action potential jumping from node to node for quicker reaction time. The
myelin sheets also provides for protection of the axon, as it covers the actual nerve cell.
Name and describe the parts of a neuron. A neuron or nerve cell is composed of three parts, the cell body, which
contains the nucleus and other organelles, the dendrites, which are the slender extensions from the cell body that
receives the nerve impulses, and the axon, which sends the nerve impulses.
Describe mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors. A mechanoreceptor is a sensory cell or organ that
perceives mechanical stimuli such as touch or pressure and is the skin. Chemoreceptors are sensory cells or an organ
that perceive chemical stimuli such as smells and is the nose. Photoreceptors are sensory cells or organs that perceive
visual stimuli and are the eyes.
What is a sarcomere? A sarcomere is a segment of a striated muscle cell located between adjacent Z lines that serves as
a unit of contraction.
Describe the sliding filament model. ATP binds to the myosin head and forms ADP + P. Calcium ions exposes the
binding site on actin filaments. Cross bridges between myosin heads and actin filaments form, ADP and P are released
and sliding motion of actin results. ATP causes the cross bridges to unbind. When a new ATP molecule binds to the
myosin head, the contraction is initiated once again.
What are four essential nutrients? The four essential nutrients are starches, proteins fats (or lipids), and nucleic acids.
Starches are broken down into glucose molecules. Proteins are broken down into amino acids. Proteins are broken
down into amino acids. Fats are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. Nucleic acids are broken down into
nucleotides.
Trace the pathway of blood through the heart.
Show where it is oxygenated and deoxygenated.
What is plasma? What is its function? Plasma is the liquid part of blood in which red blood cells, white blood cells, and
plasma are suspended. The function of plasma is to provide a liquid medium though which red blood cells, white blood
cells, platelets, and nutrients are transported throughout the entire body.
80. What are the functions of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets? Erythrocytes are red blood cells to which oxygen is
bound to by the use of hemoglobin. Leukocytes are the police of the blood and make sure that it is kept clean and free
of pathogens. Platelets are cell fragments exist in order to make a clot and prevent severe loss of blood in an area of
rupture.
81. What is the difference between systole and diastole? Systole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart is
contracting and diastole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart is relaxed.
82. What types of cells contribute to humoral immunity? Give the function for each type of cell. The cells that contribute to
humoral immunity are B cells, plasma cells, memory cells, and helper T cells. The B cells are responsible for the
production for the plasma and memory cells. Plasma cells release antibodies that bind with antigens or antigen-bearing
pathogens. Memory cells provide further immunity. Helper T cells stimulate the production of B cells, which in turn
stimulates the production of plasma cells and memory cells.
83. What types of cells contribute to cell mediated immunity? Give the function of each type of cell. The cells that
contribute to cell mediated immunity are T cells, cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and B cells. T cells produce cytotoxic
T cells, which destroy non self cells. T cells further produce helper T cells which are responsible for the production of
more T cells (thus, more cytotoxic T cells) and B cells.
84. How does aldosterone work? Aldosterone increases both re reabsorption of water and reabsorption of Na+. This is done
by increasing the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to Na+. As a result, more Na+ diffuses
out of this tubule and duct. Since Na+ increases the salt concentration outside the tubule, water passively follows.
85. How does the rennin-angiotesin system work?
86. How does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) work? ADH increases the reabsorption of water by the body and increases the
concentration of salts in the urine. It does this by increasing the permeability of the collecting duct to water. As a result,
more water diffuses out of the collecting duct as the filtrate descends into the renal pelvis.
87. What is the mechanism of steroid hormone function? Steroid hormones usually diffuse though the plasma membrane,
through the cytoplasm, and into the nucleus. The hormone binds to a receptor protein in the nucleus. The receptor
protein, in turn, activates a portion of the DNA that turns on specific genes.
88. What is the mechanism of peptide hormone function? Peptide hormones bind to a receptor protein on the plasma
membrane of the cell. The receptor protein, in turn, stimulates the production of second messengers, cAMP or Inositol
triphosphate.
89. How do secondary messengers work? Give two examples of secondary messengers. Secondary messengers work by
either triggering an enzyme that generates specific changes (as in cyclic AMP) or by triggering the release of ions from
the endoplasmic reticulum, activating enzymes that generate cellular changes (as in Inositol triphosphate). Two
secondary messengers are cyclic AMP or cAMP and inositol triphosphate or IP3.
90. Where is insulin produced? Giver three functions of insulin. Insulin is produced in the beta cells of the pancreas. The
functions of insulin are to stimulate glucose transport, stimulate amino acid transport, and increase glycogen synthase
activity.
91. Where is glucagon produced? Give two functions of glucagon. Glucagon is produced in the alpha cells of the pancreas.
The functions of glucagon are to increase blood sugar and it is the storage material of glucose.
92. Define the following:
a. Cleavage: Series of mitotic divisions, without physical growth, that converts the zygote to a multicellular
blastula.
b. Blastula: In animal development, a hollow ball of cell produced by cleavage of a fertilized; known as a
blastocyt in mammalian development.
c. Gastrulation: Process in embryotic development during which the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and
endoderm) form.
d. Holoblastic cleavage: A cleavage pattern in which the entire embryo cleaves; characteristic of eggs with little
or moderate yolk such as the eggs of echinoderms, amphioxus, and mammals.
e. Meroblastic cleavage: Cleavage pattern observed in the telolecithal eggs of reptiles and birds, in which
cleavage is restricted to a small disc of cytoplasm at the animal pole.
f. Archernteron: The central cavity of the gastrula stage of embryonic development that is lined with endoderm;
primitive digestive system.
93. Explain why the following are important in animal development:
a. Cytoplasmic determinants:
b. Gene expression:
c. Morphogenesis:
d. Pattern formation:
e. Positional information:
f. Morphogens:
94. What is the difference between the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system? The autonomic nervous
system is responsible foe the activities of involuntary muscles such as smooth muscle and cardiac muscle, and organs.
The somatic nervous system is responsible for the contraction of skeletal muscles.
95. Give the functions and locations of each of the following parts of the brain:
a. Medulla: Lower or hindmost part of the brain; continuous with spinal cord and is responsible for autonomal
functions such as breathing and heart rate.
b. Pons: The white bulge that is the part of the brain stem between the medulla and the midbrain and connects
various parts of the brain.
c. Cerebellum: Part of the vertebrate hindbrain that is responsible for emotions, nerve signal interpretation, and
balance.
d. Reticular formation:
e. Thalamus: The part of the vertebrate brain that serves as a main relay center, transmitting information between
the spinal cord and the cerebrum.
f. Hypothalamus: Part of the mammalian brain regulates the pituitary gland, the autonomal system, emotional
responses, body temperature, water balance, and appetite; located below the thalamus.
g. Cerebral cortex: The outer layer of the cerebrum composed of gray matter and consisting of mainly nerve
bodies.
96. What is demography? Demography is the science that deals with the human population statistics, such as size, density,
and distribution.
97. Describe some density dependant factors. Density dependant factors are environmental factors whose effects on a
population change as population density changes; density dependant factors tend to retard population growth as
population density increases and enhance population growth as population density decreases. These include increased
predation, shortages of food, and poisoning from wastes.
98. Describe some density independent factors. Density independent factors are environmental factor that affects the size of
a population but is not influenced by changes in population density. These include abiotic factors such as high soil pH
or forest fires.
99. What are the differences between exponential growth and logistic growth? Exponential growth is the rapid growth that
is not limited by any environmental factors that force it to stop growing at a certain point. Logistic growth, however,
has a carrying capacity that limits how many members the population may contain.
100.
Describe the three types of symbiosis. The three types of symbiosis are parasitism, commensalism, and
mutualism. In parasitism, a parasite benefits off a host, who is affected negatively. In commensalism, one organism
benefits of another, while the other partner in this relation neither benefits nor is harmed. In mutualism, both partners of
the relationship benefit.
a. What is competition? Competition is the interaction among two or more individuals that attempt to use the
same essential resource, such as food water, sunlight, or living space.
b. What is predation? Predation is the relationship in which one organism (the predator) kills and devours another
organism (the prey).
101.
What is trophic structure? Trophic structure is the organization of animals and plants into trophic levels, which
are sequential steps of matter and energy in a food pyramid, from producers to primary, secondary, tertiary consumers,
which are assigned based on its primary source of nourishment.
a. How does energy flow through an ecosystem? Energy flows from higher energy levels to lower energy levels.
This energy flow between trophic levels is inefficient; thus by the top of the pyramid, only 10% of the original
energy remain.
b. How are chemicals cycled though an ecosystem? Chemicals are cycled though an ecosystem through the major
storage locations(reservoirs) for essential elements, the process through which each element incorporates into
terrestrial plants and animals (assimilation), and the process through which each element returns to the
environment is the release.
102.
What steps must always be included in a lab question? The two types of lab questions are experimental
analysis and experimental design.
a. Experimental design may include graph data to which the following are important:
 Labeling each axis.
 Providing values along each axis at regular intervals.
 Using the x-axis for the independent variable and the y-axis for the dependant variable.
 Connecting the plotted points.
 In graphs with more than one plat, identifying each plot.
 Providing a title for the graph.
b. Designing an experiment asks for the design of an experiment related to the subject matter:
 Identify the independent and dependent variables.
 Describing the experiment treatment.
 Identifying a control treatment.
 Using only one independent variable.
 Random sample of subject.
 Drscribing the procedure
 Describing the expected results
 Providing an explanation of the expected resuls in relation to relevant biological principles.