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1. What is the latitude of the Tropic of Cancer? A. 6634’S B. 2326’N C. 2326’S D. 0 2. Which of the planet in the Solar System has almost the same size as the Earth? A. Venus B. Neptune C. Pluto D. Mars 3. Retrograde motion is possible only for ________. A. Mars B. Earth C. Venus D. Mercury 4. The dimmest stars that could be reasonably used for navigational purpose are of what magnitude? A. first B. third C. sixth D. tenth 5. The motion of the planets in the solar system is governed by _______. A. Kepler’s Law B. Newton’s Law C. Archimedes Principle D. Sumner’s Theory 6. The Tropic of Capricorn marks the southern limit of ________. A. South Frigid Zone B. North Frigid Zone C. Torrid Zone D. North Temperate Zone 7. The superior planet are brightest and closest to the earth at ________. A. opposition B. inferior conjunction C. east quadrature D. west quadrature 8. What is the phase of the moon when it rises about noon and sets about midnight? A. New moon B. Full moon C. First quarter D. Last quarter 9. What is the position of a suspended magnet over the magnetic pole? A. slanting B. horizontal C vertical D. diagonal 10. The orbit of each planet is an ellipse with the sun at one of its foci” is a law that is associated with _________. A. Kepler B. Newton C. Archimedes D. Aristotle 11. The period of revolution of planet Venus is 225 days. The mean distance of the Sun from the Earth is 92.9 million miles. Find the mean distance of Venus from the Sun. A. 67,288,700 miles B. 70,000,200 miles C. 80,000,200 miles D. 69,288,700 miles 12. The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is the brightest? A. Canopus –0.9 B. Vega +0.1 C. Antares +1.2 D. Cannot be determined 13. What will become of an ellipse if the distance between the foci is equal to the length of the major axis? A. a circle B. a straight line C. a curve line D. a semi-circle 14. A first magnitude star is _______. A. 2.5 minutes as bright as a second magnitude star B. 3 times as bright as a second magnitude star C. 5 times as bright as a second magnitude star D. 10 times as bright as a second magnitude star 15. The expression “first magnitude” is usually used to refer only to bodies of magnitude ________. A. 1.5 and greater B. 1.25 and greater C. 1.0 and greater D. 0.5 and greater 16. The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is the brightest? • A. Antares +1.2 • B. Altair +0.9 • C. Vega +0.1 • D. Cannot be determined; magnitude indicates size not brightness 17. The mean distance of the Earth from the Sun is 92,960,000 miles. What is the Earth’s distance from the Sun in Astronomical Unit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 0.5 D. 2.1 18. What are the relative positions of the Sun, the Earth, and a planet when the planet is at opposition? A. Sun is between the Earth and the Planet B. Earth is between the Sun and the Planet C. Planet is between the earth and the Sun D. The Planet, the Sun and the Earth are not in line 19. The sun is closer to the earth in what month? A. October B. July C. April D. January 20. When the sun is between the Earth and Planet Venus, Venus is said to be at _________. A. superior conjunction B. inferior conjunction C. east quadranture D. west quadranture 21. When a planet Venus is between the Earth and the Sun, Venus is said to be at _________. A. greatest elongation west B. superior conjunction C. inferior conjunction D. greatest elongation east 22. What are the relative positions of the Sun, and a planet when the planet is at inferior conjunction? A. The Planet is between the Earth and the Sun B. The Sun is between the Earth and the Planet C. The Earth is between the Planet and the Sun D. The Planet is between the Earth and Mercury 23. Inferior conjunction is possible for _________. A. Mars B. Venus C. Saturn D. Jupiter 24. As the inferior planet moves along its orbit from superior conjunction to inferior conjunction its elongation __________. A. increase B. decrease C. does not change D. is maximum 25. What is the latitude of the Antarctic Circle? A. 4306’N B. 6633’S C. 4306’S D. 6633’N 26. Why is planet Venus not visible at midnight in any latitude? Because _________. A. its greatest elongation is only 46 B. it is superior planet C. its radius vector is longer than that of the Earth D. it is a “morning star” 27. Planetary aberration is due, in part, to _______. A. rotation of the earth on her axis B. refraction of light as it enters the Earth’s atmosphere C. required for its light to reach the Earth D. a false horizon 28. The Tropic of Cancer marks the northern limit of _______. A. Torrid Zone B. North Frigid Zone C. South Frigid Zone D. North Temperature Zone 29. What is the latitude of the Arctic Circle? A. 6633’S B. 4306’N C. 4306’S D. 6633’N 30. How far (in angular distance) is the Arctic Circle from the North Pole? A. 2326’ B. 6634’ C. 4652’ D. 90 31. How far (in angular distance) is the Antarctic Circle from the South Pole? A. 2326’ B. 6634’ C. 4652’ D. 90 32. What is the difference of latitude between the Antarctic Circle and the Tropic of Capricorn? A. 6634’ B. 4308’ C. 2326’ D. 4652’ 33. Between the parallel of about 2326’ N and about 2326’ S the sun is directly overheard at some time during the year. If you are situated between these two parallels how many times in a year will the sun pass your zenith? A. twice B. once C. never D. four times 34. What is the latitude of the Tropic of Capricorn? A. 4606’N B. 2326’N C. 2326’S D. 4606’S 35. Places situated in Lat 30N are within the ________. A. North Temperature Zone B. Torrid Zone C. North Frigid Zone D. limits of the circles 36. The hour circle that passes through the First point of Aries is known as the ________. A. solsticial colure B. equinoctial colure C. vernal equinoctial circle D. circle of equal declination 37. The maximum elongation of Planet Venus (expressed in time units) is about ________. A. 3 hours B. 2 hours C. 6 hours D. 5 hours 38. In what planetary configuration should Venus be situated if it is an evening star? A. between greatest elongest east and inferior conjunction B. between greatest elongest west and inferior conjunction C. a greatest elongation west D. at superior conjunction 39. What is the difference of latitude between the Arctic Circle and the Tropic of Cancer? A. 6634’ B. 4308’ C. 2326’ D. 4652’ 40. Which of the sensitive element provides high shock tolerance and greatly reduces the effect of acceleration? A. Fluid suspension B. Gyro suspension C. Neutral buoyancy D. None of these 41. What is the angular distance of the sun from the zenith of the observe at noon of Dec 21 or 23 if the observer is navigating along the Tropic of Capricorn? A. 0 B. 2327’ C. 6633’ D. 4306’ 42. Which of the planet in the Solar System has almost the same size as the Earth? A. Neptune B. Venus C. Pluto D. Mars 43. On which direction does a magnetic line of forces flow in the vicinity of magnetic equator? A. parallel to the surface B. upward towards the pole C. downward towards the pole D. vertically upward 44. What will become of an ellipse if the distance between the foci is zero? A. a straight line B. circle C. a curve line D. a semi-circle 45. In what planetary configuration should Venus be situated if it is a morning star? A. between inferior conjunction and greatest elongation east B. at opposition C. between inferior conjunction and greatest elongation west D. at superior conjunction 46. When Venus disappears in the sky it can be presumed to be at or near ________. A. inferior or superior conjunction B. greatest eastern elongation C. greatest western elongation D. west quadrature 47. Venus attains maximum brilliance of about five weeks before and after _________. A. greatest elongation east B. superior conjunction C. inferior conjunction D. greatest elongation west 48. Which of the following is the basic property of the gyro compass which is similar to the gyroscopic inertia? A. Rigidity in space B. Torque C. Balistic D. Precession 49. Which deviation change sign approximately each 90 degrees change of heading caused by induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron? A. Quadrantal deviation B. Semi-circular deviation C. Constant deviation D. Residual deviation 50. What is the angular distance of the sun from the zenith of the observer at noon of June 21 or 23 if the observer is navigating along the Tropic of Cancer? A. 0 B. 2327’ C. 4306’ D. 6633’ 51. The term “velocity of escape” means _________. A. the speed at which the molecules of the gas making up the atmosphere should attain in order to overcome the force of gravity B. the speed of the planet along its orbit C. the speed in space of the sun together with all the planets revolving around in D. the take-off speed of Rockets 52. The term “gegenschein” is associated with ________. A. planets B. meteors C. moon D. stars 53. Zodiacal light is related to ________. A. meteors B. stars C. sun D. moon 54. “Milky Way” is term associated with ________. A. Sun’s way B. Motion of a star through space C. Galaxy D. The path of the earth as it travels around the sun 55. The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at the equator is called the ______. A. right sphere B. parallel sphere C. oblique sphere D. quadrantal sphere 56. The celestial sphere as seen by an observer at the geographical poles is called the _________. A. right sphere B. parallel sphere C. oblique sphere D. quadrantal sphere 57. The point at which the plane of the moon’s orbit intersects the ecliptic is called the _______. A. nodes B. Solar point C. Solstice D. Saros 58. The inclination of the plane of the moon’s orbit with the plane of the ecliptic is about _______. A. 5 B. 23 C. 15 D. 26 59. If the orbit of the moon coincided with the plane of ecliptic how many solar eclipse would occur in one month? A. None B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 60. The moon is at last quarter. What kind of eclipse is possible to occur? A. no eclipse B. lunar eclipse C. solar eclipse D. annular eclipse 61. Annular eclipse occurs because ________. A. the moon’s shadow cannot reach the earth B. the moon’s shadow is turned away from the earth C. the moon is at first quarter D. the moon is at perigee 62. Annular eclipse occurs when the ______. A. the moon is 6 hours ahead of the sun B. the earth is between the moon and the sun C. the sun is west of the moon D. the moon is between the earth and the sun 63. Planetary aberration is due in part, to ________. A. the body’s orbital motion during the time required for its light to reach the earth B. refraction of light as it enters the Earth’s atmosphere C. rotation of the Earth on its axis D. a false horizon 64. Diurnal aberration is due to _________. A. false a horizon B. motion of the Earth in its orbit C. the body’s orbital motion during the time required for its light to reach the earth D. rotation of the Earth on its axis 65. Elongation becomes zero at _________. A. Inferior conjunction B. Opposition C. west quadranture D. east quadranture 66. In the equinoctial system of celestial coordinates, what is not similar to the longitude of the Earth? A. SHA B. t C. LHA D. Zn 67. The prime vertical is the great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the _______. A. celestial poles and the zenith B. zenith, nadir and the east point of the horizon C. celestial poles and the celestial body D. zenith, nadir and the celestial body 68. What do you call the low disturbances which travel along the inert-tropical convergence zone? A. Permanent waves B. Tidal waves C. Tropical disturbances D. Tropical waves 69. What is the energy created by the wind? A. Kinetic B. Thermal C. Potential D. Mechanical 70. What is the effect of super refraction? A. Bend radar rays downward and increase radar range B. Bend radar rays upward and decrease radar range C. Bend radar rays upward and increase radar range D. Bend radar rays downward and decrease radar range 71. Which of the following describes the forecast for the next 24 hours of wind, weather, and visibility for each coastal area and the latest report from coastal stations? A. coastal weather report B. coastal warnings C. coastal forecast D. general synopsis 72. When sending the radio pratique message, this could be done by using? A. signal code B. plain language C. signal and coded signal D. all of these 73. What is the term used to identify the length of the arc of a meridian between the equator and a given parallel on a mercator chart? A. difference of longitude B. meridional part C. difference of latitude D. departure 74. What do you call the gyro error used the rotation of the earth the affects the heading system of the compass? A. gyroscopic error B. apparent drift C. tilting error D. gravity error 75. Among the following, which station determines accurately the satellite present and future orbit as it passes within radio line-of-sight? A. injection station B. central computing station C. tracking station D. orbit control station 76. What does “P/C” stands in GPS Satellite operation stand? A. personal code B. Precise code C. private code D. Periodic code 77. This is a layer in the atmosphere wherein the freed electrons and ions apparently for normal atoms and molecules of the rate field as the stress of the ultra violet ray diminishes: A. E layer B. F2 layer C. F1 layer D. D layer 78. What is the term used to identify the vertical displacement of high or low tide from a same mean level? A. flood B. range C. amplitude D. magnitude 79. A type of precipitation consisting of transparent or translucent pellets of ice, 5 millimeters or less in diameter: A. Ice pellets B. Ice rind C. Ice storm D. Ice fog 80. The condition when the azimuth limit switch activates is called: A. Lost satellite tracking B. On-line C. Azimuth drive D. Open drive 81. In an old form of compass, how would you apply your error? A. 4th and 2nd quadrant have the same application B. 1st and 3rd quadrant have opposite application C. 2nd and 1st quadrant have the same application D. 3rd and 4th quadrant have the same application 82. What is developed by the coast guard to enhance the visibility or range light is made of 15 foot long lighted tubes? A. light pipes B. lamp changer C. Directional light D. any of these 83. An arc formed 46 deg below the sun, with red on the upperside is called: A. Parhelion arc B. Tangent arc C. Sun pillar D. Circumhorizontal arc 84. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for ______. A . Venus B. Jupiter C. Saturn D. Polaris 85. Ocean well originating from a typhoon can move ahead of it at speed near _________. A. 10 knots B. 20 knots C. 30 knots D. 50 knots 86. When the moon’s declination is maximum north, which of the following will occur? A. Mixed tide B. Higher high tide and lower low tides C. Tropic tides D. Equatorial tides 87. The depth of water is indicated on the chart as 23 meters. This is equivalent to _______. A. 11.5 fathoms B. 12.6 fathoms C. 69.0 feet D. 78.6 feet 88. The velocity of the rotary tidal current will increase when the moon is _________. A. New B. Full C. At perigee D. Any of these 89. One of the factors which affect the circulation of ocean current is ________. A. Humidity B. Varying densities of water C. Vessels traffic D. The met stream 90. Which method of position-finding requires no special receiving equipment? A. Consol B. Omega C. Loran C D. Decca 91. Mariners are first warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation by means of __________. A. Marine broadcast Notices to Mariners B. Weekly Notices to Mariners C. Corrected edition of charts D. Light List 92. Referring to the Navigational equipment, which of the following statement is correct as one of the basic principle to be observed in keeping a navigational watch required by STCW/78 Regulation II/I? The officer of the watch shall make the most effective use of all navigational equipment at his disposal. When using radar, the officer of the watch shall bear in mind the necessity to comply at all times with the provisions on the use of radar contained in the applicable regulations for preventing collision at sea. A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II 93. In regions of heavy traffic, which of the following statements concerning radar is CORRECT? I. The need to use radar in good visibility would apply to all vessels. II. It apply especially to ships fitted with more sophisticated radar system which incorporate the ability to indicate whether there is a risk of collision wit h several targets and to determine the effectiveness of proposed maneouvers. A. Both I and II B. I only C. II only D. Neither I nor II 94. You are the officer in charge of the navigational watch and the ship is on automatic steering, and it gives an alarm signal which of the following will be the cause? I. Off .course alarm II. Power failure in the system III. Overload IV. Low oil level A. I only B. II and III only C. I and II only D. I, II, III and IV 95. Which of the following are duties that an officer in charge of the watch shall perform on a ship while at anchor? I. Make sure that the main engines and other machinery are in state of readiness in accordance with instructions of the master II. Make sure that the ship exhibits the appropriated lights, and shapes and the appropriate sound signals made in accordance with all the applicable regulations III. Take measures to protect the environment from pollution by the ship and comply with applicable anti-pollution regulations. A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III 96. Which of the following shall an officer of the watch attend to when the ship is safely moored or at anchor in port? I. Observe all regulations concerning safety and fire protection II. Pay attention to the water level in bilges and tanks III. Pay particular attention to the weather and the state of sea A. II and III only B. I and III only C. I and II only D. I, II, III 97. In regions of heavy traffic, which of the following statements concerning radar is CORRECT? I. Radar can be used to assess the general traffic situation in all conditions of visibility II. The importance of radar for the purpose of collision avoidance has now been recognized in the 1972 Collision Regulation in Rules 6, 7, 8 and 19 A. Both I and II B. I only C. II only D. Neither I nor II 98. Officers of the navigational watch shall be familiar with the use of all electronic aids and should bear in mind that the ________ is a valuable navigational aid as required by STCW Code Section A-VIII/2 par. (36) A. Radar B. ARPA C. Echo sounder D. GMDSS 99. In restricted visibility, a vessel which detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel shall determine if a close quarter’s situation is developing or risk of collision exits. If so, she shall: A. Sound the danger signal B. When taking action, make only course changes C. Avoid altering course toward a vessel abaft the beam D. All of these 100. In a vessel of less than 20 meters in length, shapes of lesser dimension but commensurate with the size of the vessel maybe used and the distance may be correspondingly_____. A. Reduced B. Increased C. Cast to case basis D. None of these