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1. What is the latitude of the Tropic of Cancer?
A. 6634’S
B. 2326’N
C. 2326’S
D. 0
2. Which of the planet in the Solar System has
almost the same size as the Earth?
A. Venus
B. Neptune
C. Pluto
D. Mars
3. Retrograde motion is possible only for
________.
A. Mars
B. Earth
C. Venus
D. Mercury
4. The dimmest stars that could be reasonably
used for navigational purpose are of what
magnitude?
A. first
B. third
C. sixth
D. tenth
5. The motion of the planets in the solar system
is governed by _______.
A. Kepler’s Law
B. Newton’s Law
C. Archimedes Principle
D. Sumner’s Theory
6. The Tropic of Capricorn marks the southern
limit of ________.
A. South Frigid Zone
B. North Frigid Zone
C. Torrid Zone
D. North Temperate Zone
7. The superior planet are brightest and closest
to the earth at ________.
A. opposition
B. inferior conjunction
C. east quadrature
D. west quadrature
8. What is the phase of the moon when it rises
about noon and sets about midnight?
A. New moon
B. Full moon
C. First quarter
D. Last quarter
9. What is the position of a suspended magnet
over the magnetic pole?
A. slanting
B. horizontal
C vertical
D. diagonal
10. The orbit of each planet is an ellipse with the
sun at one of its foci” is a law that is
associated with _________.
A. Kepler
B. Newton
C. Archimedes
D. Aristotle
11. The period of revolution of planet Venus is
225 days. The mean distance of the Sun from
the Earth is 92.9 million miles. Find the mean
distance of Venus from the Sun.
A. 67,288,700 miles
B. 70,000,200 miles
C. 80,000,200 miles
D. 69,288,700 miles
12. The magnitude of three stars is indicated.
Which star is the brightest?
A. Canopus –0.9
B. Vega +0.1
C. Antares +1.2
D. Cannot be determined
13. What will become of an ellipse if the distance
between the foci is equal to the length of the
major axis?
A. a circle
B. a straight line
C. a curve line
D. a semi-circle
14. A first magnitude star is _______.
A. 2.5 minutes as bright as a second
magnitude star
B. 3 times as bright as a second magnitude
star
C. 5 times as bright as a second magnitude
star
D. 10 times as bright as a second magnitude
star
15. The expression “first magnitude” is usually
used to refer only to bodies of magnitude
________.
A. 1.5 and greater
B. 1.25 and greater
C. 1.0 and greater
D. 0.5 and greater
16. The magnitude of three stars is indicated.
Which star is the brightest?
• A. Antares +1.2
• B. Altair +0.9
• C. Vega +0.1
• D. Cannot be determined; magnitude
indicates size not brightness
17. The mean distance of the Earth from the Sun
is 92,960,000 miles. What is the Earth’s
distance from the Sun in Astronomical Unit?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0.5
D. 2.1
18. What are the relative positions of the Sun, the
Earth, and a planet when the planet is at
opposition?
A. Sun is between the Earth and the Planet
B. Earth is between the Sun and the Planet
C. Planet is between the earth and the Sun
D. The Planet, the Sun and the Earth are not
in line
19. The sun is closer to the earth in what month?
A. October
B. July
C. April
D. January
20. When the sun is between the Earth and
Planet Venus, Venus is said to be at
_________.
A. superior conjunction
B. inferior conjunction
C. east quadranture
D. west quadranture
21. When a planet Venus is between the Earth
and the Sun, Venus is said to be at
_________.
A. greatest elongation west
B. superior conjunction
C. inferior conjunction
D. greatest elongation east
22. What are the relative positions of the Sun, and
a planet when the planet is at inferior
conjunction?
A. The Planet is between the Earth and the
Sun
B. The Sun is between the Earth and the
Planet
C. The Earth is between the Planet and the
Sun
D. The Planet is between the Earth and
Mercury
23. Inferior conjunction is possible for _________.
A. Mars
B. Venus
C. Saturn
D. Jupiter
24. As the inferior planet moves along its orbit
from superior conjunction to inferior
conjunction its elongation __________.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. does not change
D. is maximum
25. What is the latitude of the Antarctic Circle?
A. 4306’N
B. 6633’S
C. 4306’S
D. 6633’N
26. Why is planet Venus not visible at midnight in
any latitude? Because _________.
A. its greatest elongation is only 46
B. it is superior planet
C. its radius vector is longer than that of the
Earth
D. it is a “morning star”
27. Planetary aberration is due, in part, to
_______.
A. rotation of the earth on her axis
B. refraction of light as it enters the Earth’s
atmosphere
C. required for its light to reach the Earth
D. a false horizon
28. The Tropic of Cancer marks the northern limit
of _______.
A. Torrid Zone
B. North Frigid Zone
C. South Frigid Zone
D. North Temperature Zone
29. What is the latitude of the Arctic Circle?
A. 6633’S
B. 4306’N
C. 4306’S
D. 6633’N
30. How far (in angular distance) is the Arctic
Circle from the North Pole?
A. 2326’
B. 6634’
C. 4652’
D. 90
31. How far (in angular distance) is the Antarctic
Circle from the South Pole?
A. 2326’
B. 6634’
C. 4652’
D. 90
32. What is the difference of latitude between the
Antarctic Circle and the Tropic of Capricorn?
A. 6634’
B. 4308’
C. 2326’
D. 4652’
33. Between the parallel of about 2326’ N and
about 2326’ S the sun is directly overheard at
some time during the year. If you are situated
between these two parallels how many times
in a year will the sun pass your zenith?
A. twice
B. once
C. never
D. four times
34. What is the latitude of the Tropic of Capricorn?
A. 4606’N
B. 2326’N
C. 2326’S
D. 4606’S
35. Places situated in Lat 30N are within the
________.
A. North Temperature Zone
B. Torrid Zone
C. North Frigid Zone
D. limits of the circles
36. The hour circle that passes through the First
point of Aries is known as the ________.
A. solsticial colure
B. equinoctial colure
C. vernal equinoctial circle
D. circle of equal declination
37. The maximum elongation of Planet Venus
(expressed in time units) is about ________.
A. 3 hours
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 5 hours
38. In what planetary configuration should Venus
be situated if it is an evening star?
A. between greatest elongest east and inferior
conjunction
B. between greatest elongest west and inferior
conjunction
C. a greatest elongation west
D. at superior conjunction
39. What is the difference of latitude between the
Arctic Circle and the Tropic of Cancer?
A. 6634’
B. 4308’
C. 2326’
D. 4652’
40. Which of the sensitive element provides high
shock tolerance and greatly reduces the effect
of acceleration?
A. Fluid suspension
B. Gyro suspension
C. Neutral buoyancy
D. None of these
41. What is the angular distance of the sun from
the zenith of the observe at noon of Dec 21 or
23 if the observer is navigating along the
Tropic of Capricorn?
A. 0
B. 2327’
C. 6633’
D. 4306’
42. Which of the planet in the Solar System has
almost the same size as the Earth?
A. Neptune
B. Venus
C. Pluto
D. Mars
43. On which direction does a magnetic line of
forces flow in the vicinity of magnetic equator?
A. parallel to the surface
B. upward towards the pole
C. downward towards the pole
D. vertically upward
44. What will become of an ellipse if the distance
between the foci is zero?
A. a straight line
B. circle
C. a curve line
D. a semi-circle
45. In what planetary configuration should Venus
be situated if it is a morning star?
A. between inferior conjunction and greatest
elongation east
B. at opposition
C. between inferior conjunction and greatest
elongation west
D. at superior conjunction
46. When Venus disappears in the sky it can be
presumed to be at or near ________.
A. inferior or superior conjunction
B. greatest eastern elongation
C. greatest western elongation
D. west quadrature
47. Venus attains maximum brilliance of about five
weeks before and after _________.
A. greatest elongation east
B. superior conjunction
C. inferior conjunction
D. greatest elongation west
48. Which of the following is the basic property of
the gyro compass which is similar to the
gyroscopic inertia?
A. Rigidity in space
B. Torque
C. Balistic
D. Precession
49. Which deviation change sign approximately
each 90 degrees change of heading caused
by induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron?
A. Quadrantal deviation
B. Semi-circular deviation
C. Constant deviation
D. Residual deviation
50. What is the angular distance of the sun from
the zenith of the observer at noon of June 21
or 23 if the observer is navigating along the
Tropic of Cancer?
A. 0
B. 2327’
C. 4306’
D. 6633’
51. The term “velocity of escape” means
_________.
A. the speed at which the molecules of the
gas making up the atmosphere should attain
in order to overcome the
force of gravity
B. the speed of the planet along its orbit
C. the speed in space of the sun together
with all the planets revolving around in
D. the take-off speed of Rockets
52. The term “gegenschein” is associated with
________.
A. planets
B. meteors
C. moon
D. stars
53. Zodiacal light is related to ________.
A. meteors
B. stars
C. sun
D. moon
54. “Milky Way” is term associated with
________.
A. Sun’s way
B. Motion of a star through space
C. Galaxy
D. The path of the earth as it travels around
the sun
55. The celestial sphere as seen by an observer
at the equator is called the ______.
A. right sphere
B. parallel sphere
C. oblique sphere
D. quadrantal sphere
56. The celestial sphere as seen by an observer
at the geographical poles is called the
_________.
A. right sphere
B. parallel sphere
C. oblique sphere
D. quadrantal sphere
57. The point at which the plane of the moon’s
orbit intersects the ecliptic is called the
_______.
A. nodes
B. Solar point
C. Solstice
D. Saros
58. The inclination of the plane of the moon’s
orbit with the plane of the ecliptic is about
_______.
A. 5
B. 23
C. 15
D. 26
59. If the orbit of the moon coincided with the
plane of ecliptic how many solar eclipse
would occur in one month?
A. None
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
60. The moon is at last quarter. What kind of
eclipse is possible to occur?
A. no eclipse
B. lunar eclipse
C. solar eclipse
D. annular eclipse
61. Annular eclipse occurs because ________.
A. the moon’s shadow cannot reach the
earth
B. the moon’s shadow is turned away from
the earth
C. the moon is at first quarter
D. the moon is at perigee
62. Annular eclipse occurs when the ______.
A. the moon is 6 hours ahead of the sun
B. the earth is between the moon and the
sun
C. the sun is west of the moon
D. the moon is between the earth and the
sun
63. Planetary aberration is due in part, to
________.
A. the body’s orbital motion during the time
required for its light to reach the earth
B. refraction of light as it enters the Earth’s
atmosphere
C. rotation of the Earth on its axis
D. a false horizon
64. Diurnal aberration is due to _________.
A. false a horizon
B. motion of the Earth in its orbit
C. the body’s orbital motion during the time
required for its light to reach the earth
D. rotation of the Earth on its axis
65. Elongation becomes zero at _________.
A. Inferior conjunction
B. Opposition
C. west quadranture
D. east quadranture
66. In the equinoctial system of celestial
coordinates, what is not similar to the
longitude of the Earth?
A. SHA
B. t
C. LHA
D. Zn
67. The prime vertical is the great circle on the
celestial sphere that passes through the
_______.
A. celestial poles and the zenith
B. zenith, nadir and the east point of the horizon
C. celestial poles and the celestial body
D. zenith, nadir and the celestial body
68. What do you call the low disturbances which
travel along the inert-tropical convergence
zone?
A. Permanent waves
B. Tidal waves
C. Tropical disturbances
D. Tropical waves
69. What is the energy created by the wind?
A. Kinetic
B. Thermal
C. Potential
D. Mechanical
70. What is the effect of super refraction?
A. Bend radar rays downward and increase
radar range
B. Bend radar rays upward and decrease radar
range
C. Bend radar rays upward and increase radar
range
D. Bend radar rays downward and decrease
radar range
71. Which of the following describes the forecast
for the next 24 hours of wind, weather, and
visibility for each coastal area and the latest
report from coastal stations?
A. coastal weather report
B. coastal warnings
C. coastal forecast
D. general synopsis
72. When sending the radio pratique message,
this could be done by using?
A. signal code
B. plain language
C. signal and coded signal
D. all of these
73. What is the term used to identify the length of
the arc of a meridian between the equator and
a given parallel on a mercator chart?
A. difference of longitude
B. meridional part
C. difference of latitude
D. departure
74. What do you call the gyro error used the
rotation of the earth the affects the heading
system of the compass?
A. gyroscopic error
B. apparent drift
C. tilting error
D. gravity error
75. Among the following, which station determines
accurately the satellite present and future orbit
as it passes within radio line-of-sight?
A. injection station
B. central computing station
C. tracking station
D. orbit control station
76. What does “P/C” stands in GPS Satellite
operation stand?
A. personal code
B. Precise code
C. private code
D. Periodic code
77. This is a layer in the atmosphere wherein the
freed electrons and ions apparently for normal
atoms and molecules of the rate field as the
stress of the ultra violet ray diminishes:
A. E layer
B. F2 layer
C. F1 layer
D. D layer
78. What is the term used to identify the vertical
displacement of high or low tide from a same
mean level?
A. flood
B. range
C. amplitude
D. magnitude
79. A type of precipitation consisting of
transparent or translucent pellets of ice, 5
millimeters or less in diameter:
A. Ice pellets
B. Ice rind
C. Ice storm
D. Ice fog
80. The condition when the azimuth limit switch
activates is called:
A. Lost satellite tracking
B. On-line
C. Azimuth drive
D. Open drive
81. In an old form of compass, how would you
apply your error?
A. 4th and 2nd quadrant have the same
application
B. 1st and 3rd quadrant have opposite
application
C. 2nd and 1st quadrant have the same
application
D. 3rd and 4th quadrant have the same
application
82. What is developed by the coast guard to
enhance the visibility or range light is made of
15 foot long lighted tubes?
A. light pipes
B. lamp changer
C. Directional light
D. any of these
83. An arc formed 46 deg below the sun, with
red on the upperside is called:
A. Parhelion arc
B. Tangent arc
C. Sun pillar
D. Circumhorizontal arc
84. The parallax angle will vary the most with
the time of year for ______.
A . Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Saturn
D. Polaris
85. Ocean well originating from a typhoon can
move ahead of it at speed near _________.
A. 10 knots
B. 20 knots
C. 30 knots
D. 50 knots
86. When the moon’s declination is maximum
north, which of the following will occur?
A. Mixed tide
B. Higher high tide and lower low tides
C. Tropic tides
D. Equatorial tides
87. The depth of water is indicated on the chart
as 23 meters. This is equivalent to _______.
A. 11.5 fathoms
B. 12.6 fathoms
C. 69.0 feet
D. 78.6 feet
88. The velocity of the rotary tidal current will
increase when the moon is _________.
A. New
B. Full
C. At perigee
D. Any of these
89. One of the factors which affect the
circulation of ocean current is ________.
A. Humidity
B. Varying densities of water
C. Vessels traffic
D. The met stream
90. Which method of position-finding requires no
special receiving equipment?
A. Consol
B. Omega
C. Loran C
D. Decca
91. Mariners are first warned of serious defects
or important changes to aids to navigation
by means of __________.
A. Marine broadcast Notices to
Mariners
B. Weekly Notices to Mariners
C. Corrected edition of charts
D. Light List
92. Referring to the Navigational equipment, which of
the following statement is correct as one of the
basic principle to be observed in keeping a
navigational watch required by STCW/78
Regulation II/I?
The officer of the watch shall make the most
effective use of all navigational equipment at his
disposal.
When using radar, the officer of the watch shall
bear in mind the necessity to comply at all times
with the provisions on the use of radar contained in
the applicable regulations for preventing collision at
sea.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
93. In regions of heavy traffic, which of the following
statements concerning radar is CORRECT?
I. The need to use radar in good visibility would
apply to all vessels.
II. It apply especially to ships fitted with more
sophisticated radar system which incorporate the
ability to indicate whether there is a risk of collision
wit h several targets and to determine the
effectiveness of proposed maneouvers.
A. Both I and II
B. I only
C. II only
D. Neither I nor II
94. You are the officer in charge of the
navigational watch and the ship is on
automatic steering, and it gives an alarm
signal which of the following will be the
cause?
I. Off .course alarm
II. Power failure in the system
III. Overload
IV. Low oil level
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, III and IV
95. Which of the following are duties that an officer in
charge of the watch shall perform on a ship while at
anchor?
I. Make sure that the main engines and other
machinery are in state of readiness in accordance
with instructions of the master
II. Make sure that the ship exhibits the appropriated
lights, and shapes and the appropriate sound
signals made in accordance with all the applicable
regulations
III. Take measures to protect the environment from
pollution by the ship and comply with applicable
anti-pollution regulations.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
96. Which of the following shall an officer of the
watch attend to when the ship is safely
moored or at anchor in port?
I. Observe all regulations concerning safety
and fire protection
II. Pay attention to the water level in bilges
and tanks
III. Pay particular attention to the weather
and the state of sea
A. II and III only
B. I and III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, III
97. In regions of heavy traffic, which of the
following statements concerning radar is
CORRECT?
I. Radar can be used to assess the general
traffic situation in all conditions of visibility
II. The importance of radar for the purpose of
collision avoidance has now been recognized
in the 1972 Collision Regulation in Rules 6,
7, 8 and 19
A. Both I and II
B. I only
C. II only
D. Neither I nor II
98. Officers of the navigational watch shall be
familiar with the use of all electronic aids
and should bear in mind that the ________
is a valuable navigational aid as required by
STCW Code Section A-VIII/2 par. (36)
A. Radar
B. ARPA
C. Echo sounder
D. GMDSS
99. In restricted visibility, a vessel which detects
by radar alone the presence of another
vessel shall determine if a close quarter’s
situation is developing or risk of collision
exits. If so, she shall:
A. Sound the danger signal
B. When taking action, make only course
changes
C. Avoid altering course toward a vessel
abaft the beam
D. All of these
100. In a vessel of less than 20 meters in length,
shapes of lesser dimension but
commensurate with the size of the vessel
maybe used and the distance may be
correspondingly_____.
A. Reduced
B. Increased
C. Cast to case basis
D. None of these