Download Viral genomes may be any of the following EXCEPT: Single

1. Viral genomes may be any of the following EXCEPT:
a. Single-stranded DNA
b. Double-stranded RNA
c. Misfolded infectious proteins
d. A linear single-stranded RNA molecule
e. A circular double-stranded DNA molecule
2. The reverse transcriptase carried by retroviruses:
a. Uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands
b. Protects viral SNA from degradation by restriction enzymes
c. Destroys the host cell DNA
d. Translates RNA into proteins
e. Uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis
3. Virus particles are formed from capsid proteins and nucleic acid molecules:
a. By spontaneous self-assembly
b. At the direction of viral enzymes
c. Using host cell enzymes
d. Using ATP stored in the tail piece
e. By both b and d
4. Vertical transmission of a plant virus involves:
a. Movement of viral particles through plasmodesmata
b. Inheritance of an infection from a parent
c. A bacteriophage transmitting viral particles
d. Insects carrying viral particles between plants
e. The transfer of filtered sap
5. Drugs that are effective in treating viral infections:
a. Induce the body to produce antibodies
b. Inhibit the action of viral ribosomes
c. Interfere with the synthesis of viral nucleic acid
d. Change the cell-recognition sites on the host cell
e. Are vaccines that stimulate the immune system to create immunity
6. Which of the following is true of prions?
a. They are emerging viruses
b. They are fast-acting infectious agents
c. They probably evolved form transposons
d. They are infectious proteins that may convert brain proteins into misfolded forms
e. Are vaccines that stimulate the immune system to create immunity
7. An RNA viral genome may be replicated by:
a. DNA polymerase from the host
b. RNA polymerase coded by viral genes and carried in the viral capsid
c. Reverse transcriptase that synthesizes RNA
d. RNA polymerase from the host
e. Restriction enzymes from the host
8. The best description of natural selection is:
a. The survival of the fittest
b. The struggle for existence
c. The reproductive success of the members of a population best adapted to the environment
d. The overreproduction of offspring in environments with limited natural resources
e. A change in allele frequencies in a population
9. To Cuvier, the differences in fossils from different strata were evidence for:
a. Changes occurring as a result of cumulative but gradual processes
b. Divine creation
c. Evolution by natural selection
d. Continental drift
e. Local catastrophic events such as droughts or floods
10. Darwin proposed that new species evolve from ancestral forms by:
a. The gradual accumulation of adaptations to changing or different environments
b. The inheritance of acquired adaptations to the environment
c. The struggle for limited resources
d. The accumulation of mutations
e. The excessive production of offspring
11. All of the following influenced Darwin as he synthesized the theory of evolution by natural
selection EXCEPT:
a. The biogeographic distribution of species such as the mockingbirds of the Galapogos Islands
b. Lyell’s idea of gradualness of geological changes
c. Linnaeus’s hierarchical classification of species, which could be interpreted as evidence of
evolutionary relationships
d. Examples of artificial selection that produce rapid changes in domesticated species
e. Mendel’s paper in which he described his “laws of inheritance”.
12. The smallest unit that can evolve is:
a. An individual
b. A mating pair
c. A species
d. A population
e. A community
13. Which of the following statements is NOT considered part of the process of natural selection?
a. Many of the variations among individuals in a population are heritable.
b. More offspring are produced than are able to survive and reproduce
c. Individuals with traits best adapted to the environment are likely to leave more offspring
d. Many adaptive traits may be acquired during an individual’s lifetime, contributing to that
individual’s reproductive success
e. Unequal reproductive success leads to gradual change in a population
14. What might you conclude from the observation that the bones in your arm and hand are similar
to the bones that make up a bat’s wing?
a. The bones in the bat’s wing are vestigial structures, no longer useful as “arm” bones
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b. The bones in a bat’s wing are homologous to your arm and hand bones
c. Bats and humans evolved in the same geographical area
d. Bats lost their opposable digits during the course of evolution
e. Our ancestors could fly
The remnants of pelvic and leg bones in a snake:
a. Are vestigial structures
b. Show that lizards evolved from snakes
c. Are homologous structures
d. Provide evidence for inheritance of acquired traits
e. Resulted from artificial selection
The hypothesis that whales evolved from land-dwelling ancestors is supported by:
a. Evidence from the biogeographic distribution of whales
b. Molecular comparisons of whales, fish, and reptiles
c. Historical accounts of walking whales
d. The ability of captive whales to be trained to walk
e. Fossils of extinct whales that had increasingly reduced hind limbs
Mutations are rarely a direct source for microevolution in eukaryotes because:
a. They are most often harmful and do not get passed on
b. They do not directly produce most of the genetic variation present in a diploid population
c. They occur very rarely
d. They are passed on only when they occur in gametes
e. All of the above are true
Which of the following provides most of the genetic variation found in plant and animal
populations?
a. Mutations
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Sexual selection
d. Geographic variation
e. Recessive masking in heterozygotes
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle:
a. The allele frequencies of a population should remain constant from one generation to the
next if the population is large and only sexual reproduction is involved.
b. Only natural selection, resulting in unequal reproductive success, will cause evolution
c. The square root of the frequency of individuals showing the dominant trait will equal the
frequency of p.
d. P and q can only be determined for a population that is not evolving
e. All of the above are correct
If a population has the following genotype frequencies—AA = 0.42, Aa= 0.46, and aa = 0.12—
what are the allele frequencies?
a. A = 0.42, a = 0.12
b. A= 0.6, a =0.4
c. A=0.65, a = 0.35
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d. A= 0.76, a = 0.24
e. A= 0.88, a= 0.12
In a population with two alleles, B and b, the allele frequency of b is 0.4. What would be the
frequency of heterozygotes if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 0.16
b. 0.24
c. 0.48
d. 0.6
e. No way to tell
In a study of a population of field mice, you find that 48% of the mice have a coat color that
indicates that they are heterozygous for a particular gene. What would be the frequency of the
dominant allele in this population?
a. 0.24
b. 0.48
c. 0.50
d. 0.60
e. No way to tell
Genetic drift is likely to be seen in a population:
a. The has a high migration rate
b. That has a low migration rate
c. In which natural selection is occurring
d. That is very small
e. For which environmental conditions are changing
Genetic analysis of a large population of mink inhabiting an island in Michigan revealed an
unusual number of loci where one allele was fixed. Which of the following is the most probable
explanation for this genetic homogeneity?
a. The population exhibited nonrandom mating, producing a high proportion of homozygous
genotypes
b. A very small number of mink may have colonized this island, and this founder effect and
subsequent genetic drift could have fixed many alleles
c. The gene pool of this population never experienced gene flow
d. Natural selection has selected for and fixed the best adapted allele at these loci
e. The colonizing population may have had much more genetic diversity, but very recent
genetic drift may have fixed these alleles by chance.
All of the following tend to maintain two or more alleles at a particular locus in a population
EXCEPT:
a. Balancing selection
b. Disruptive selection
c. Heterozygote advantage
d. Directional selection
e. Frequency-dependent selection
Sexual selection:
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a. Selects for traits that enhance an individual’s chance of mating
b. Increases the size of individuals
c. Results in individuals better adapted to the environment
d. Produces more offspring
e. Selects for traits that increase fertility
A plant population is found in an area that is becoming more arid. The average surface area of
leaves has been decreasing over the generations. This trend is an example of:
a. A cline
b. Directional selection
c. Disruptive selection
d. Gene flow
e. Genetic drift
Which of the following describes an organisms relative fitness?
a. Survival
b. Number of matings
c. Adaptation to the environment
d. Successful competition for resources
e. Relative number of viable offspring
Which of the following is a type of intrinsic reproductive isolation?
a. Mechanical isolation
b. Behavioral isolation
c. Geographical isolation
d. Gametic isolation
e. Temporal isolation
A horse with (2n=64) and a donkey with (2n=62) can mate and produce a mule. How many
chromosomes would there be in a mule’s cells?
a. 31
b. 62
c. 63
d. 64
e. 126
Allopatric speciation is more likely to occur when an isolated population:
a. Is large and thus has more genetic variation
b. Is reintroduced to its original homeland
c. Is small and exposed to different selection pressures in its new habitat
d. Inhabits an island close to the mainland
e. All of the above
A tetraploid plant species (with four identical sets of chromosomes) is probably the result of:
a. Allopolyploidy
b. Autopolyploidy
c. Hybridization and nondisjunction
d. Allopatric speciation
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e. A and c are both correct
The primitive atmosphere of Earth may have favored the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules
because it:
a. Was highly oxidative
b. was reducing and had energy sources in the form of lightening and UV radiation
c. had a great deal of methane and organic fuels
d. had plenty of water vapor, carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen, providing the C, H, O, and N
needed for organic molecules
e. consisted almost entirely of Hydrogen gas, creating a very reducing environment
Which of the following is a proposed hypothesis for the origin of genetic information?
a. Early DNA molecules coded for RNA, which then catalyzed the production of proteins
b. Early polypeptides were the first “genes”, followed by RNA and then DNA
c. Short RNA strands were capable of self-replication and evolved by natural selection.
d. As protocells grew and split, they distributed copies of their molecules to their offspring
e. Early RNA molecules coded for the order of amino acids in polypeptide
Life on Earth is thought to have begun:
a. 540 mya, at the beginning of the Paleozoic era
b. 635 mya, at the start of Ediacaran
c. 2.7 billion years ago, when oxygen began to accumulate in the atmosphere
d. Between 3.5 and 3.9 Billion years ago, after Earth cooled and rocks began to form
e. 4.5 billion years ago, shortly after Earth was formed
The more than 500 species of fruit fly on the various Hawaiian Islands, all apparently descended
from a single ancestral species, are an excellent example of:
a. Plate tectonics
b. Adaptive radiation
c. Biogeography
d. Exaptation
e. An evolutionary trend
The evolution of major changes in animal body form is most likely to involve:
a. Duplication of Hox genes
b. Changes in regulatory sequences that determine where developmental genes are expressed
c. Mutations that alter the products of Hox genes
d. Genetic changes that affect the growth rates and different body parts during development
e. All of the above
Convergent evolution may occur:
a. When ancestral structures are co-opted for new functions
b. When homologous structures are adapted for different functions
c. From adaptive radiation
d. When species are widely separated geographically
e. When species have similar ecological roles
Which of the following provides the best example of analogous structures?
a. Forelimbs of bat and mole
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b. Tree-like and shrub-like silversword plants
c. Four-chambered heart of birds and bats
d. Skills of apes and humans
e. Hindlegs of Australian and North American moles
Some prokaryotes have specialized internal membranes that:
a. Have attached ribosomes and function in protein synthesis
b. Arose from endosymbiosis of smaller prokaryotes, creating mitochondria and chloroplasts
c. Form from infoldings of the plasma membrane and may function in cellular respiration or
photosynthesis
d. Are produced by the endoplasmic reticulum but differ in composition from eukaryotic
membranes
e. Enclose the nucleoid and separate plasmids from the single prokaryotic chromosome.
Which of the following statements is NOT descriptive of conjugation between an Hfr bacterium
and an F- bacterium?
a. The Hfr cell has an F plasmid integrated into its chromosome
b. The Hfr cell forms sex pilli and transfers one strand of its chromosomes into an F- cell
c. Random movements often break the mating bridhe before the entire single strand of its
chromosome and F factor is transferred
d. Hfr conjugation is the major mechanism that transfers antibiotic resistance genes between
bacteria
e. Crossing over between homologous genes creates recombinant recipient cell
Facultative anaerobes:
a. Can survive with or without oxygen
b. Are poisoned by oxygen
c. Can carry out anaerobic respiration or fermentation but not aerobic cellular respiration
d. Are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen to make NH3
e. Include the methanogens, which oxidize H2 and reduce CO2 to CH4
Archaea:
a. May be more closely related to eukaryotes than to bacteria
b. Have cell walls that lack peptidoglycan
c. Are often found in harsh habitats, reminiscent of the environment of early Earth.
d. Include the methanogens, extreme halophiles, as well as groups found in more moderate
habitats
e. All of the above.