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1. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of evolution by natural selection? a. variation among individuals b. differential survival and/or reproduction c. change in genetic composition of population d. infinite population size e. none of the above 2. The number of gene copies a phenotype places into the next generation relative to other phenotypes is its: a. relative fitness b. Darwinian fitness c. Reproductive fitness d. Relative reproductive fitness (RRF) e. None of the above 3. What lead biologists to believe that a severe struggle for existence occurs in natural populations? a. Natural populations have large excess reproductive capacities. b. Population sizes generally remain stable c. Resources are limiting d. All of the above e. None of the above 4. Peter and Rosemary Grant have demonstrated evolution in Galapagos Finches by showing changes in a. beak shape and body size b. food abundance during droughts c. relative abundance of G. fortis and G. scandens d. relatedness of finch colonies e. gross domestic product of finch colonies 5. A(n) _____________ is an observed difference between the DNA of two individuals a. b. c. d. e. Substitution Mutation Dinucleation Isochore None of the above 6. Homologous traits are similar because they a. are inherited from a common ancestor. b. are derived from different ancestors. c. are acquired characters that can be inherited. d. result from convergent or parallel evolution. e. none of the above. 7.A substitution that does not result in a change of amino acid is called a. redundant b. similar c. non-synonomous d. synonymous e. none of the above 8. The neutral theory of molecular evolution predicts that 2 potential answers a. proteins subject to weak selective constraints will evolve at rapid rates. b. the rate of protein evolution is roughly constant per site per year. c. the rate of neutral evolution is independent of population size. d. the majority of protein polymorphisms in natural populations are neutral. e. all of the above. 9. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? a. No mutation b. No migration c. No random mating d. No selection e. Population size is infinite HW Problem: Number of individuals in the population = 1,000 Number of individuals of genotype BB = 500 Number of individuals of genotype Bb = 100 Number of individuals of genotype bb = 400 10. What is the genotype frequency of bb? a. 0 b. 1 c. 0.4 d. 0.6 e. 0.65 11. What is the allele frequency of B? a. 0.1 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.55 e. 0.6 12. What is the expected genotype frequency of Bb under Hardy-Weinberg conditions? a. 0.1 b. 0.333 c. 0.4 d. 0.495 e. 0.5 13. Is this locus in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in this population? a) Yes b) No 14. If the B allele became fixed, what would be its new frequency? a. 0.333 b. 0.495 c. 0.5 d. 0.6 e. 1.0 15. Inbreeding tends to _____________ heterozygote frequencies and __________ allele frequencies. a. decrease; not affect b. increase; not affect c. decrease; increase d. increase; increase e. decrease; decrease 16. The Wahlund effect results from a. Weak selective pressure b. Population bottlenecks c. Inbreeding d. e. Strong selective pressure Sampling a mixed population 17. The principle of maximum parsimony discriminates among phylogenetic trees on the basis of differences in their a. numbers of synapomorphic characters. b. numbers of inferred evolutionary changes/steps. c. maximum likelihood scores. d. total branch lengths. 18. A form of phenotypic selection in which individuals with extreme values of a trait have the highest fitness is called 2 possible answers a. stabilizing selection b. directional selection c. disruptive selection d. balancing selection e. selection 19. Which of the following types of mutations cannot occur in non-coding DNA? a. deletions. b. transitions. c. transversions. d. frame-shift mutations. e. insertions. 20. Gene flow will always result in the a. elimination of genetic variation in the population receiving migrants. b. elimination of genetic differences among natural populations. c. elimination of deleterious mutations in natural populations. d. retention of advantageous mutations in natural populations. e. none of the above. 21. Biologists say the genetic code is redundant because a. DNA and RNA are considered “neutral” homologues b. there are only four nucleotides c. A, T, G, and C often repeat synonymously d. the 64 possible codons code for only 20 amino acids e. No scientists have yet been able to crack the code 22. Types of homoplasy are a. convergent evolution, parallel evolution and evolutionary reversals b. balancing selection, purifying selection and directional selection c. co-dominance, over-dominance and incomplete dominance d. none of the above 23. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, which of the following is TRUE? a. Environment creates variation in traits b. Environment sorts existing variation in traits c. Environment plays no role in the process of natural selection d. Environment changes due to natural selection 24. A genotype’s total fitness is influenced by its a. longevity. b. fecundity. c. viability. d. mating success. e. all of the above. 25. The form of evolution in which closely related species evolve similar traits by similar genetic mechanisms is called a. divergent evolution b. parallel evolution c. convergent evolution d. coevolution e. directional evolution 26. In a closed population not experiencing gene flow, random genetic drift will always result in a. fixation of advantageous mutations. 2 potential answers b. loss of neutral mutations. c. fixation of neutral mutations. d. loss or fixation of neutral mutations. e. none of the above. 27. One of the reasons why it is difficult to find effective drugs against HIV is because a. small population sizes of HIV can drift away from drug resistance b. large populations contain variants that are resistant to drugs c. low mutation rate help drug resistance d high mutation rate kills the host 28. Darwin and Wallace were both influenced by the writings of: a. Huxley b. Mendel c. Malthus d. Hennig 29. A Punnett square is used to: a. define mutation rates in natural populations b. predict the outcome of a cross c. define the genetic code d. none of the above 30. Mutations occur a. more frequently in coding regions b. less frequently in coding regions c more frequently in non-coding regions d less frequently in non-coding regions e. approximately at the same rate in coding and non-coding regions