Download Biology 232 Final

Biology 232 Final
Name________________________________________________
1. The heart is located within the:
a) mediastinum
b) pleural cavity
c) pericardial cavity
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
7. Which of the following lists the elements of the heart’s conduction system in the correct order?
a) SA node, AV bundle, bundle branches, AV node,
Purkinje fibers
b) AV node, SA node, AV bundle, bundle branches,
Purkinje fibers
c) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches,
Purkinje fibers
d) Purkinje fibers, AV bundle, bundle branches, AV node,
SA node
e) SA node, AV bundle, AV node, bundle branches,
Purkinje fibers
2. Which of the following is not part of cardiac muscle histology:
a) striations
b) intercalated disks
c) gap junctions
d) branched cells
e) multiple (more than 5) nuclei per cell
3. Blood flows from the pulmonary veins into the:
a) pulmonary arteries
b) right atrium
c) lungs
d) left atrium
e) left ventricle
4. The bicuspid (mitral) valve is located between the:
a) right ventricle and aorta
b) right ventricle and pulmonary trunk
c) left atrium and left ventricle
d) right and left atria
e) right and left ventricles
5. The function of the chordae tendineae is to:
a) pull the walls of the ventricles inward during contraction
b) open the AV valves
c) open the semilunar valves
d) prevent inversion of the AV valves during ventricular
systole
e) hold the heart in place within the mediastinum
6. A blockage of the acute marginal branch of the coronary circulation would most affect the:
a) right atrium
b) right ventricle
c) pericardium
d) left atrium
e) left ventricle
8. During the cardiac cycle, the atria contract when they are
directly stimulated by the:
a) SA node
b) AV node
c) Purkinje fibers
d) bundle branches
e) vagus nerve
9. On an EKG, depolarization of the atria is represented by the:
a) P wave
b) T wave
c) QRS complex
d) P-Q interval
e) S-T segment
10. Cardiac muscle fibers remain depolarized longer than skeletal
muscle fibers because:
a) voltage-gated sodium channels close more quickly to
trap sodium inside the cell longer
b) voltage-gated calcium channels open slightly after the
sodium channels open
c) voltage-gated potassium channels open slightly after the
sodium channels open
d) voltage-gated sodium, calcium and potassium channels
open all at the same time
e) the chordae tendinae hold the myocardium in an open
state
11. On an EKG, repolarization of the ventricles is represented by
the:
a) P wave
b) T wave
c) QRS complex
d) P-Q interval
e) S-T segment
12. During isovolumetric contraction, which of the following
heart valves are open?
a) aortic valve
b) AV valves
c) pulmonary valve
d) both a and c
e) none of the above
13. During ventricular systole:
a) blood pressure in the aorta increases
b) blood pressure in the aorta decreases
c) cardiac output decreases
d) the ventricles fill with blood
e) there is no change in blood pressure
14. The second heart sound (dupp) is due to:
a) closing of the AV valves
b) opening of the AV valves
c) vibration of the chordae tendinae
d) opening of the semilunar valves
e) closing of the semilunar valves
15. Which of the following would decrease the stroke volume?
a) increased preload
b) increased afterload
c) stimulation of the heart by the sympathetic nervous
system
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
16. If someone had a decreased stroke volume, what would the
heart have to do in order to maintain the same cardiac output?
a) decrease the heart rate
b) increase the heart rate
c) increase the afterload
d) a and c
e) all of the above
17. The cardiovascular center is located in the:
a) thalamus
b) hypothalamus
c) midbrain
d) pons
e) medulla oblongata
18. The tunica interna of a blood vessel is made of:
a) smooth muscle
b) cardiac muscle
c) skeletal muscle
d) endothelium
e) dense connective tissue
19. Valves are present in:
a) arteries
b) arterioles
c) veins
d) capillaries
e) all of the above
20. The vessels responsible for maintaining a constant flow of
blood during ventricular diastole are called:
a) elastic arteries
b) muscular arteries
c) arterioles
d) veins
e) capillaries
21. Vasomotion is best defined as:
a) movement of the arteriole due to changes in pulse
pressure
b) opening and closing of precapillary sphincters to alter
blood flow through a capillary bed
c) constriction of veins in response to low blood pressure
d) movement of vaso vasorum
e) a new dance move
22. Which of the following is not found in veins?
a) internal elastic lamina
b) tunica media
c) external elastic lamina
d) tunica externa (adventitia)
e) both a and c
23. At rest, which of the following contains the most blood:
a) venous system
b) arterial system
c) capillaries
d) heart
e) pulmonary vasculature
24. Vascular resistance depends on:
a) size of the lumen of the blood vessel
b) viscosity of the blood
c) total blood vessel length
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
25. The most common type of capillary is the:
a) continuous
b) fenestrated
c) sinusoid
d) lumbar
e) tubular
26. Which of the following vessels would have the fastest rate of
blood flow?
a) aorta as it exits the heart
b) superior vena cava before it enters the heart
c) arterioles
d) capillaries
e) all of the above have the same rate of flow
32. The compisition of lymphatic fluid is similar to:
a) plasma
b) serum
c) cytosol
d) interstitial fluid
e) cerebrospinal fluid
33. The thoracic duct empties lymph into the:
a) right lymphatic duct
b) cisterna chyli
c) left subclavian vein
d) ventricles of the brain
e) right atrium of the heart
34. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?
27. Venous return from the lower extremities is aided by which of
the following?
a) respiritory pump
b) skeletal muscle pump
c) valves preventing backflow
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
28. Baroreceptors are located in the:
a) wall of the right ventricle
b) medulla oblongata
c) SA node
d) walls of the aorta and carotid arteries
e) wall of the superior vena cava
29. Which of the following hormones lowers blood pressure?
a) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b) epinephrine
c) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d) aldosterone
e) angiotensin II
30. Cardiogenic shock is due to:
a) inability of the heart to maintain cardiac output
b) sudden expansion of the blood vessels
c) blockage of arterial blood flow
d) depleted intravascular volume
e) Kramerica Industries
31. A portal system contains how many separate capillary beds?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) all of the above
a) drain excess interstitial fluid
b) transport dietary lipids and vitamins from the GI tract to
the blood
c) participate in the immune response
d) a and c
e) all of the above
35. Which of the following is considered to be a primary lymphatic organ?
a) red bone marrow
b) spleen
c) lymph nodes
d) pharyngeal tonsil
e) liver
36. Which of the following statements about lymphatic nodules is
not true?
a) they are surrounded by a capsule
b) they are also known as Mucosa Associated Lymphoid
Tissue
c) they make up structures called Peyer’s patches in the
intestines
d) they can be found in the tonsils
e) all of the above statements are true
37. Which of the following would most likely increase a person’s
risk of invasion by pathogenic microbes?
a) increased urine flow
b) loss of large areas of epidermal tissue
c) increased action of cillia
d) increased intestinal motility
e) all of the above
38. Which of the following is not part of nonspecific immunity to
disease?
a) inflammation
b) fever
c) binding of antibody to antigen
d) bacteriocidal chemicals in the skin
e) all of the above are part of nonspecific immunity
44. Antigen presenting cells activate T cells by:
a) releasing antigen next to the killer T cell
b) presenting the antigen in combination with an MHC I
molecule
c) presenting the antigen in combination with an MHC II
molecule
d) phyagocytizing the killer T cell
e) performing an interpretive dance
39. Plasma cells are derived from:
a) helper T cells
b) B cells
c) killer T cells
d) macrophages
e) antigen presenting cells
40. T cell maturation occurs in what area of the lymphatic system?
a) spleen
b) liver
c) thymus
d) lymph nodes
e) all of the above
41. An antigen is:
a) part of a T cell that reconizes foreign tissue
b) part of a B cell that reconizes foreign tissue
c) a chemical that is recognized as foreign by T and B cells
d) synonamus with a hapten
e) usually a very small molecule (like water)
42. Which of the following statements about antibodies is not
true?
a) they are made up of 4 polypeptide chains
b) they contain a variable region for binding antigen
c) they are produced by T cells and released into the blood
d) classes of antibodies include: IgG, IgA, IgD and IgM
e) all of the above are true
43. Presentation of an endogenous antigen bound to an MHC-I
molecule signals that:
a) everything is normal
b) the cell has differentiated into a plasma cell
c) a helper T cell has been activated
d) a phagocyte has processed the antigen
e) a cell has been infected with an intracellular pathogen
45. Which of the following is not a result of activating the
complement system?
a) formation of memory cells
b) inflammation
c) opsonization
d) cytolysis
e) chemotaxis
46. Someone does not become ill from a second exposure to the
chicken pox virus because:
a) of a previously activated complement system
b) of a disabled complement system
c) memory B cells quickly activte upon exposure to the
virus
d) antigen presenting cells quickly destroy the virus
e) these pretzels are making me thirsty
47. The first class of antibodies to be released during the primary
immune response is:
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG
e) IgM
1. a
26. a
2. e
27. e
3. d
28. d
4. c
29. c
5. d
30. a
6. b
31. b
7. c
32. d
8. a
33. c
9. a
34. e
10. b
35. a
11. b
36. a
12. e
37. b
13. a
38. c
14. e
39. b
15. b
40. c
16. b
41. c
17. e
42. c
18. d
43. e
19. c
44. c
20. a
45. a
21. b
46. c
22. e
47. e
23. a
24. e
25. a