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Introduction of Biopsychology Study Guide for Test 4
Sections that will be on the test: 11.1, 11.2, 11.3, 14.1, 14.2, and 14.3
Test date: 5/3
Practice Questions:
1. What is the contribution of the sympathetic nervous system to emotions?
a. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is necessary and sufficient for an emotional
experience.
b. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is necessary but not sufficient for an
emotional experience
c. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is sufficient but not necessary for an
emotional experience
d. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is neither necessary nor sufficient for an
emotional experience but it contributes to the feeling aspect of an emotion
2. What brain area is associated with the behavioral activation system and a tendency to
approach?
a. The right hemisphere
b. The left hemisphere
c. The amygdala
d. The hippocampus
3. When people consider a moral dilemma such as whether to push someone off a bridge to
save five other people, which of the following correlates with a stronger tendency to
agree to push the person?
a. Weaker autonomic arousal
b. Stronger autonomic arousal
c. Lower intelligence
d. Greater intelligence
4. Which of the following causes a panic attack?
a. Lack of feedback to the brain from heartbeat and other autonomic responses.
b. Decreased heart rate in a situation that should call for heightened arousal.
c. Equal, simultaneous arousal of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
systems.
d. Intense, unexplained arousal of the sympathetic nervous system.
5. When researchers looked for brain areas associated with particular emotions, what did
they find?
a. Each emotion is centered in a different brain area.
b. Anger is easy to localize in one brain area, but other emotions are not.
c. Happiness and sadness each depends on one brain area, but other emotions do not.
d. No brain area is responsible for one and only one emotion.
6. How do the functions of the sympathetic nervous system differ from those of the
parasympathetic nervous system?
a. The sympathetic system controls the left side of the body, and the
parasympathetic system controls the right side.
b. The parasympathetic system controls the left side of the body, and the
sympathetic system controls the right side
c. The sympathetic system readies the body for emergency activities, and the
parasympathetic activates digestive and other less urgent responses.
d. The parasympathetic system readies the body for emergency activities, and the
sympathetic activates digestive and other less urgent responses.
7. Extinction of a learned response is most effective under which of these conditions?
a. If extinction occurs at a different time of the day from the original learning
b. If extinction occurs a few minutes after a brief reminder of the original experience
c. If extinction occurs under the influence of a drug that increases protein synthesis
d. If extinction occurs in the presence of soft, soothing music
8. After damage to the amygdala, what happens to the startle reflex?
a. It becomes stronger than before
b. It becomes weaker than before
c. It disappears altogether
d. It becomes more consistent from one time or situation to another
9. Aggressive behavior correlates with high levels of testosterone and low levels of what?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Potassium
10. Which brain area most strongly inhibits or modifies the response of the amygdala to a
potentially threatening stimulus?
a. The prefrontal cortex
b. The cerebellum
c. The basal ganglia
d. The locus coeruleus
11. Why do we know more about the brain mechanisms of fear and anxiety than we do about
other emotions?
a. Clinical psychologists have greater interest in anxiety than in other emotions
b. Anxiety depends on brain areas that are easier to reach surgically
c. Unlike other emotions, anxiety depends on only a single neurotransmitter
d. Researchers can more satisfactorily measure anxiety than other emotions in
laboratory animals.
12. What does the level of 5-HIAA in the cerebrospinal fluid indicate?
a. The amount of serotonin in the neurons
b. The amount of turnover of serotonin in the brain
c. The ratio of serotonin to dopamine
d. The number of serotonin receptors
13. The amygdala responds more strongly to a fearful face looking toward you than a similar
face looking to the side. What is the likely interpretation?
a. The stronger the viewer’s emotional response, the stronger the amygdala
response.
b. The amygdala response is equally strong in the person making a fearful face and
in the person viewing it
c. Amygdala response indicates the effort needed to interpret emotional information
d. The amygdala responds more strongly to familiar than to unfamiliar scenes.
14. The less active form of the enzyme MAOa correlates with an increased probability of
antisocial behavior for what type of people, if any?
a. Those with a history of childhood maltreatment
b. Those who do not have a history of childhood maltreatment
c. Women
d. None
15. Research on the amygdala supports which of these psychological conclusions?
a. People who experience great fear also tend to experience a great amount of anger
b. Anxiety disorders are more common in women than in men, the more common in
young people than in older people.
c. What we call fear is a combination of several components, not an indivisible
entity.
d. People have six basic types of emotion.
16. People with amygdala damage have trouble recognizing expressions of fear. If you
wanted to help such people recognize fear, which of the following should you ask them to
change?
a. The direction they focus their eyes
b. The amount of protein in their diet
c. Their time of waking and sleeping
d. Their ratio of talking to listening
17. How does alcohol decrease anxiety?
a. By shifting blood flow from the left hemisphere to the right hemisphere
b. By increasing glutamate activity in the prefrontal cortex
c. By facilitating the effects of GABA on certain receptors
d. By inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin
18. Suppose a researcher wants to determine whether someone is afraid of cars. Which of the
following would be the most reasonable approach?
a. Present a photo of a cat and see whether it elicits a startle reflex
b. Present a photo of a cat and then a loud sound. See whether the photo enhances
the usual startle reflex.
c. Present a loud sound and then show a photo of a cat. See whether the photo calms
the person after the startle reflex
d. Present a loud sound to both a person and a cat and see which one shows the
greater startle reflex.
19. Of the people who endure traumatic experiences, which of the following are the most
likely to develop PTSD?
a. The people who suffered the most severe traumas
b. The people who reacted most intensely to the trauma at the time and shortly after
it
c. People with a smaller than average hippocampus
d. People with a larger than average hippocampus
20. Prolonged stress is known to damage which brain area?
a. The visual cortex
b. The hippocampus
c. The cerebellum
d. The corpus callosum
21. How does cortisol help the body deal with a stressful event?
a. It maintains the salt in the blood and therefore maintains blood volume
b. It lowers body temperature
c. It activates the parasympathetic nervous system
d. It increases blood sugar, providing more energy
22. How do the functions of the HPA axis compare to those of the sympathetic nervous
system?
a. The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for brief, vigorous action, and
the HPA axis controls digestion and other vegetative activities.
b. The sympathetic nervous system activates the brain, and the HPA axis activates
the rest of the body
c. The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for brief, vigorous action, and
the HPA axis prepares the body for prolonged coping with a persistent stressor
d. The sympathetic nervous system is active during a stressful situation, and the
HPA axis becomes active at the end of the stressful situation.
23. Why do nearly all infections produce similar symptoms, such as fever, sleepiness, and
loss of energy?
a. Every infection damages the body’s ability to maintain body temperature and
overall activity
b. “Sickness behaviors” are an effective way for a sick person to gain sympathy and
help
c. Infectious particles clog the arteries, making it difficult for other chemicals to
reach their targets
d. The immune system sends prostaglandins to the brain, where they stimulate the
hypothalamus to produce these effects
24. What are the effects of stress on the immune system?
a. All stressful experiences impair the immune system
b. Brief stress activates the immune system, but prolonged stress weakens it
c. Brief stress weakens the immune system, but prolonged stress strengthens it.
d. All stressful experiences strengthens the immune system
25. Which of these drugs improves attention at low doses and impairs at high doses?
a. Morphine
b. Amphetamine
c. Alcohol
d. Marijuana
26. Which of the following predicts that aperson is more likely than average to develop
alcohol abuse?
a. Failing to experience much relief from stress after drinking a moderate amount
b. Better than average scores on the Stop Signal task
c. Being able to drink moderate amounts of alcohol without staggering or slurred
speech
d. Showing strong physical effects such as staggering or slurred speech after
moderate drinking
27. What evidence indicates that tolerance is to a large extent learned?
a. Tolerance is greater in the location where one previously took the drug than
elsewhere
b. Tolerance is greater in highly educated people than in poorly educated people
c. Tolerance is easily forgotten with the passage of time
d. Telling people about the effects of a drug can produce tolerance
28. Which type of alcoholism has a stronger genetic basis? Which type has earlier onset?
a. Type I… Type I
b. Type I… Type II
c. Type II… Type I
d. Type II… Type II
29. Addictive drugs and other activities producing reward increase the release of the
neurotransmitter _____ in the _____.
a. Glutamate… hippocampus
b. Dopamine… nucleus accumbens
c. GABA… basal ganglia
d. Acetylcholine… occipital cortex
30. Which of the following types of drug would be a strong agonist?
a. One with high affinity and high efficacy
b. One with high affinity and low efficacy
c. One with low affinity and high efficacy
d. One with low affinity and low efficacy
31. What is the advantage of taking methadone instead of morphine or heroin?
a. Methadone is not addictive
b. Someone can gradually taper off methadone and become drug-free
c. Methadone is readily available without a prescription
d. Methadone satisfies the craving without seriously disrupting behavior.
32. What evidence indicates that many people with drug addiction had a predisposition
toward abuse?
a. Brothers and sisters of the person with drug addiction show similar abnormalities
of brain and behavior
b. People with drug addiction remember having a positive experience in their fist
encounter with the drug
c. Most young people can accurately predict whether they will eventually develop a
drug addiction
d. An fMRI study on newborns accurately predicted which ones would later develop
drug addiction
33. Developing an addiction to a substance causes the nucleus accumbens to respond _____
strongly to that substance and _____ strongly to other rewards.
a. Less…more
b. Less…less
c. More…more
d. More…less
34. If someone metabolizes acetaldehyde to acetic acid more slowly than normal, how (if at
all) will this tendency affect the likelihood of alcohol abuse?
a. It will increase the likelihood of alcohol abuse
b. It will have no significant effect on the likelihood of alcohol abuse
c. It will decrease the likelihood of alcohol abuse
35. When addiction develops, why does the individual have less ability to inhibit undesirable
impulses?
a. Decreased activity in the nucleus accumbens
b. Decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex
c. Decreased release of dopamine
d. Impairment of the blood-brain barrier
36. How do tricyclic drugs block the reuptake of serotonin and other neurotransmitters?
a. They lock the transporter protein into one position
b. The transporter protein transports the tricyclic drug instead of the neurotransmitter
c. They chemically bond with the neurotransmitter, making a molecule that is too
large to cross the membrane
d. They make the fluid in the synaptic cleft more viscous, inhibiting the motion of
molecules
37. Where is seasonal affective disorder most common?
a. Near the equator
b. Nearer the poles
c. Close to the ocean
d. In the mountains
38. Which of the following is the most typical outcome after someone develops major
depression?
a. The person will remain seriously depressed for life
b. The depression will grow worse over time
c. The person will alternate between episodes of depression and periods of normal
mood
d. The person will recover without any likelihood of returning to depression
39. Physicians prescribe drug A for a large group of depressed patients. Six weeks later they
switch to drug B for every patient who did not respond to drug A. Many of these patients
show improvement over the next few weeks. What conclusion, if any, follows?
a. Drug B is more effective than drug A
b. Some people respond to drug B but not to drug A
c. Any switch in drugs increases patients’ motivation and therefore helps them
recover
d. None of these conclusions follows
40. Which of the following is evidence against the idea that antidepressant drugs relieve
depression simply by elevating neurotransmitter levels?
a. The dose of drug necessary for relieving depression is greater than the amount
necessary to elevate neurotransmitter levels.
b. The drugs quickly affect levels of serotonin and other neurotransmitters but take
weeks to alter mood
c. The drugs become less and less effective in relieving depression after weeks of
use
d. Several procedures other than antidepressant drugs are also effective in relieving
depression
41. How does the effectiveness of psychotherapy compare to that of antidepressant drugs?
a. Psychotherapy helps a higher percentage of depressed patients
b. Antidepressant drugs help a higher percentage of depressed patients
c. Patients who would respond to psychotherapy do not respond to antidepressant
drugs, and vice versa
d. Psychotherapy and antidepressant drugs help about an equal percentage of
patients, and mostly the same patients
42. What is the disadvantage of using St. John’s wort as an antidepressant?
a. St. John’s wort is more expensive than standard antidepressant drugs
b. St. John’s wort is less effective and produces benefits more slowly
c. St. John’s wort decreases the effectiveness of other drugs someone might be
taking
d. St. John’s wort cannot be obtained legally
43. Which of these is a major disadvantage of ECT>
a. Its benefits don’t last long
b. Its benefits develop slowly
c. It helps only a small percentage of patients
d. It causes permanent memory damage
44. Which of the following has been shown to decrease the probability of a renewed episode
of bipolar disorder?
a. Uric Acid
b. Avoidance of bright lights
c. Consistent, adequate sleep
d. A high carbohydrate diet
45. Relatives of people with late-onset depression have an increased probability of what type
of disorder?
a. Anxiety disorders
b. Circulatory problems
c. Alcohol abuse
d. Migraine headaches
46. Which of the following is a likely reason why it has been difficult to identify a gene
associated with depression?
a. Depression does not have a genetic basis
b. Only early-onset depression has a genetic basis
c. Certain genes link to depression only in people who have undergone severe stress
d. Researchers have studied only animal models, not humans
47. What is the advantage of SSRIs compared to tricyclic drugs?
a. They produce their antidepressant benefits more quickly
b. They help a larger percentage of people with depression
c. They produce milder side effects
d. They are less expensive
48. If you are already in a normal mood, could you make yourself feel even better by taking
antidepressant drugs? If not, why not?
a. Yes, you could. Antidepressant drugs are equally effective for everyone
b. No, you could not. Laws prevent doctors from prescribing antidepressant drugs
for anyone who is not depressed
c. No, you could not. Antidepressant drugs promote new learning that competes
with depressed thoughts. Someone without depressed thoughts has little to gain
d. No, you could not. If people in a normal mood take antidepressants, they
experience worse side effects than depressed people do
49. What is the most common sleep problem of people with depression?
a. They sleep without dreaming
b. They have trouble falling asleep
c. They awaken early and cannot get back to sleep
d. They fall asleep suddenly in the middle of the day
50. What is the conclusion from twin studies regarding schizophrenia?
a. Monozygotic twins are more likely to develop schizophrenia than are dizygotic
twins
b. Monozygotic twins are more likely to be concordant for schizophrenia than are
dizygotic twins.
c. Dizygotic twins are more likely to be concordant for schizophrenia than are
monozygotic twins
d. Monozygotic and dizygotic twins are equally likely to be concordant for
schizophrenia
51. According to the dopamine hypothesis that schizophrenia, what is the chemical basis for
schizophrenia?
a. Deficient synthesis of dopamine
b. Lack of sufficient dopamine type 1 receptors
c. Lack of sufficient dopamine type 2 receptors
d. Excessive activity at dopamine synapses
52. If schizophrenia is due to abnormal brain development in early life, how can we account
for the fact that behavioral symptoms are not apparent until later in life?
a. Schizophrenia impairs only social behavior, which is more important in adulthood
b. Other people do not notice the problems until the person is old enough to seek
employment
c. A prime area of damage is the prefrontal cortex, which matures very slowly
d. Symptoms of brain abnormality do not emerge until the person encounters stress
53. Keeping someone’s working memory busy with an unrelated task causes normal, healthy
people to produce which of these items that are characteristic of schizophrenia?
a. Hallucinations
b. Delusions
c. Loss of emotion and social behavior
d. Incoherent speech
54. What are the synaptic effects of glycine?
a. It directly stimulates glutamate receptors
b. It facilitates the effects of glutamate
c. It directly stimulates acetylcholine receptors
d. It facilitates the effects of acetylcholine
55. Which of the following is currently the most plausible statement about the role of
genetics in schizophrenia?
a. An aberrant form of the DISC1 gene causes schizophrenia
b. One gene is responsible for schizophrenia, but investigators have not yet found
that gene
c. Many mutations or microdeletions can increase the probability of schizophrenia
d. Schizophrenia is not related to genetics
56. Schizophrenia is more common than average in which of the following types of people?
a. People with allergies
b. People who live in cities
c. People who move from Europe to one of the Caribbean countries
d. People who eat a diet rich in fish
57. Which of the following has not been shown to increase the risk of schizophrenia?
a. Being born during the winter
b. Having a pet cat in childhood
c. Having a father over age 55
d. Living near the ocean
58. What is an alternative to the hypothesis that schizophrenia relates to excess dopamine
activity?
a. Increased reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron
b. Decreased glutamate activity in the prefrontal cortex
c. Decreased metabolism in the cerebellum
d. Increased adenosine levels in the hypothalamus
Answers:
1. D – 11.1
2. B - 11.1
3. A - 11.1
4. D - 11.1
5. D - 11.1
6. C - 11.1
7. B - 11.2
8. D - 11.2
9. C - 11.2
10. A - 11.2
11. D - 11.2
12. B - 11.2
13. C - 11.2
14. A - 11.2
15. C - 11.2
16. A - 11.2
17. C - 11.2
18. B - 11.2
19. C - 11.2
20. B - 11.3
21. D - 11.3
22. C - 11.3
23. D - 11.3
24. B - 11.3
25. B - 14.1
26. C - 14.1
27. A - 14.1
28. D - 14.1
29. B - 14.1
30. A - 14.1
31. D - 14.1
32. A - 14.1
33. D - 14.1
34. C - 14.1
35. B - 14.1
36. A – 14.2
37. B – 14.2
38. C – 14.2
39. D – 14.2
40. B – 14.2
41. D – 14.2
42. C – 14.2
43. A – 14.2
44. C – 14.2
45. B – 14.2
46. C – 14.2
47. C – 14.2
48. C – 14.2
49. C – 14.2
50. B – 14.3
51. D – 14.3
52. C – 14.3
53. D – 14.3
54. B – 14.3
55. C – 14.3
56. B – 14.3
57. D – 14.3
58. B – 14.3
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Links:
https://quizlet.com/24261075/chapter-12-behavioral-neuro-flash-cards/
https://quizlet.com/16072243/chapter-123-stress-health-flash-cards/
https://quizlet.com/80513792/biopsych-exam-attack-and-escape-behaviors-112-final-exam-flash-cards/
https://quizlet.com/11448245/bio-psych-3-test-flash-cards/