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Introduction of Biopsychology Study Guide for Test 4 Sections that will be on the test: 11.1, 11.2, 11.3, 14.1, 14.2, and 14.3 Test date: 5/3 Practice Questions: 1. What is the contribution of the sympathetic nervous system to emotions? a. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is necessary and sufficient for an emotional experience. b. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is necessary but not sufficient for an emotional experience c. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is sufficient but not necessary for an emotional experience d. Sympathetic nervous system arousal is neither necessary nor sufficient for an emotional experience but it contributes to the feeling aspect of an emotion 2. What brain area is associated with the behavioral activation system and a tendency to approach? a. The right hemisphere b. The left hemisphere c. The amygdala d. The hippocampus 3. When people consider a moral dilemma such as whether to push someone off a bridge to save five other people, which of the following correlates with a stronger tendency to agree to push the person? a. Weaker autonomic arousal b. Stronger autonomic arousal c. Lower intelligence d. Greater intelligence 4. Which of the following causes a panic attack? a. Lack of feedback to the brain from heartbeat and other autonomic responses. b. Decreased heart rate in a situation that should call for heightened arousal. c. Equal, simultaneous arousal of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. d. Intense, unexplained arousal of the sympathetic nervous system. 5. When researchers looked for brain areas associated with particular emotions, what did they find? a. Each emotion is centered in a different brain area. b. Anger is easy to localize in one brain area, but other emotions are not. c. Happiness and sadness each depends on one brain area, but other emotions do not. d. No brain area is responsible for one and only one emotion. 6. How do the functions of the sympathetic nervous system differ from those of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. The sympathetic system controls the left side of the body, and the parasympathetic system controls the right side. b. The parasympathetic system controls the left side of the body, and the sympathetic system controls the right side c. The sympathetic system readies the body for emergency activities, and the parasympathetic activates digestive and other less urgent responses. d. The parasympathetic system readies the body for emergency activities, and the sympathetic activates digestive and other less urgent responses. 7. Extinction of a learned response is most effective under which of these conditions? a. If extinction occurs at a different time of the day from the original learning b. If extinction occurs a few minutes after a brief reminder of the original experience c. If extinction occurs under the influence of a drug that increases protein synthesis d. If extinction occurs in the presence of soft, soothing music 8. After damage to the amygdala, what happens to the startle reflex? a. It becomes stronger than before b. It becomes weaker than before c. It disappears altogether d. It becomes more consistent from one time or situation to another 9. Aggressive behavior correlates with high levels of testosterone and low levels of what? a. Acetylcholine b. Epinephrine c. Cortisol d. Potassium 10. Which brain area most strongly inhibits or modifies the response of the amygdala to a potentially threatening stimulus? a. The prefrontal cortex b. The cerebellum c. The basal ganglia d. The locus coeruleus 11. Why do we know more about the brain mechanisms of fear and anxiety than we do about other emotions? a. Clinical psychologists have greater interest in anxiety than in other emotions b. Anxiety depends on brain areas that are easier to reach surgically c. Unlike other emotions, anxiety depends on only a single neurotransmitter d. Researchers can more satisfactorily measure anxiety than other emotions in laboratory animals. 12. What does the level of 5-HIAA in the cerebrospinal fluid indicate? a. The amount of serotonin in the neurons b. The amount of turnover of serotonin in the brain c. The ratio of serotonin to dopamine d. The number of serotonin receptors 13. The amygdala responds more strongly to a fearful face looking toward you than a similar face looking to the side. What is the likely interpretation? a. The stronger the viewer’s emotional response, the stronger the amygdala response. b. The amygdala response is equally strong in the person making a fearful face and in the person viewing it c. Amygdala response indicates the effort needed to interpret emotional information d. The amygdala responds more strongly to familiar than to unfamiliar scenes. 14. The less active form of the enzyme MAOa correlates with an increased probability of antisocial behavior for what type of people, if any? a. Those with a history of childhood maltreatment b. Those who do not have a history of childhood maltreatment c. Women d. None 15. Research on the amygdala supports which of these psychological conclusions? a. People who experience great fear also tend to experience a great amount of anger b. Anxiety disorders are more common in women than in men, the more common in young people than in older people. c. What we call fear is a combination of several components, not an indivisible entity. d. People have six basic types of emotion. 16. People with amygdala damage have trouble recognizing expressions of fear. If you wanted to help such people recognize fear, which of the following should you ask them to change? a. The direction they focus their eyes b. The amount of protein in their diet c. Their time of waking and sleeping d. Their ratio of talking to listening 17. How does alcohol decrease anxiety? a. By shifting blood flow from the left hemisphere to the right hemisphere b. By increasing glutamate activity in the prefrontal cortex c. By facilitating the effects of GABA on certain receptors d. By inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin 18. Suppose a researcher wants to determine whether someone is afraid of cars. Which of the following would be the most reasonable approach? a. Present a photo of a cat and see whether it elicits a startle reflex b. Present a photo of a cat and then a loud sound. See whether the photo enhances the usual startle reflex. c. Present a loud sound and then show a photo of a cat. See whether the photo calms the person after the startle reflex d. Present a loud sound to both a person and a cat and see which one shows the greater startle reflex. 19. Of the people who endure traumatic experiences, which of the following are the most likely to develop PTSD? a. The people who suffered the most severe traumas b. The people who reacted most intensely to the trauma at the time and shortly after it c. People with a smaller than average hippocampus d. People with a larger than average hippocampus 20. Prolonged stress is known to damage which brain area? a. The visual cortex b. The hippocampus c. The cerebellum d. The corpus callosum 21. How does cortisol help the body deal with a stressful event? a. It maintains the salt in the blood and therefore maintains blood volume b. It lowers body temperature c. It activates the parasympathetic nervous system d. It increases blood sugar, providing more energy 22. How do the functions of the HPA axis compare to those of the sympathetic nervous system? a. The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for brief, vigorous action, and the HPA axis controls digestion and other vegetative activities. b. The sympathetic nervous system activates the brain, and the HPA axis activates the rest of the body c. The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for brief, vigorous action, and the HPA axis prepares the body for prolonged coping with a persistent stressor d. The sympathetic nervous system is active during a stressful situation, and the HPA axis becomes active at the end of the stressful situation. 23. Why do nearly all infections produce similar symptoms, such as fever, sleepiness, and loss of energy? a. Every infection damages the body’s ability to maintain body temperature and overall activity b. “Sickness behaviors” are an effective way for a sick person to gain sympathy and help c. Infectious particles clog the arteries, making it difficult for other chemicals to reach their targets d. The immune system sends prostaglandins to the brain, where they stimulate the hypothalamus to produce these effects 24. What are the effects of stress on the immune system? a. All stressful experiences impair the immune system b. Brief stress activates the immune system, but prolonged stress weakens it c. Brief stress weakens the immune system, but prolonged stress strengthens it. d. All stressful experiences strengthens the immune system 25. Which of these drugs improves attention at low doses and impairs at high doses? a. Morphine b. Amphetamine c. Alcohol d. Marijuana 26. Which of the following predicts that aperson is more likely than average to develop alcohol abuse? a. Failing to experience much relief from stress after drinking a moderate amount b. Better than average scores on the Stop Signal task c. Being able to drink moderate amounts of alcohol without staggering or slurred speech d. Showing strong physical effects such as staggering or slurred speech after moderate drinking 27. What evidence indicates that tolerance is to a large extent learned? a. Tolerance is greater in the location where one previously took the drug than elsewhere b. Tolerance is greater in highly educated people than in poorly educated people c. Tolerance is easily forgotten with the passage of time d. Telling people about the effects of a drug can produce tolerance 28. Which type of alcoholism has a stronger genetic basis? Which type has earlier onset? a. Type I… Type I b. Type I… Type II c. Type II… Type I d. Type II… Type II 29. Addictive drugs and other activities producing reward increase the release of the neurotransmitter _____ in the _____. a. Glutamate… hippocampus b. Dopamine… nucleus accumbens c. GABA… basal ganglia d. Acetylcholine… occipital cortex 30. Which of the following types of drug would be a strong agonist? a. One with high affinity and high efficacy b. One with high affinity and low efficacy c. One with low affinity and high efficacy d. One with low affinity and low efficacy 31. What is the advantage of taking methadone instead of morphine or heroin? a. Methadone is not addictive b. Someone can gradually taper off methadone and become drug-free c. Methadone is readily available without a prescription d. Methadone satisfies the craving without seriously disrupting behavior. 32. What evidence indicates that many people with drug addiction had a predisposition toward abuse? a. Brothers and sisters of the person with drug addiction show similar abnormalities of brain and behavior b. People with drug addiction remember having a positive experience in their fist encounter with the drug c. Most young people can accurately predict whether they will eventually develop a drug addiction d. An fMRI study on newborns accurately predicted which ones would later develop drug addiction 33. Developing an addiction to a substance causes the nucleus accumbens to respond _____ strongly to that substance and _____ strongly to other rewards. a. Less…more b. Less…less c. More…more d. More…less 34. If someone metabolizes acetaldehyde to acetic acid more slowly than normal, how (if at all) will this tendency affect the likelihood of alcohol abuse? a. It will increase the likelihood of alcohol abuse b. It will have no significant effect on the likelihood of alcohol abuse c. It will decrease the likelihood of alcohol abuse 35. When addiction develops, why does the individual have less ability to inhibit undesirable impulses? a. Decreased activity in the nucleus accumbens b. Decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex c. Decreased release of dopamine d. Impairment of the blood-brain barrier 36. How do tricyclic drugs block the reuptake of serotonin and other neurotransmitters? a. They lock the transporter protein into one position b. The transporter protein transports the tricyclic drug instead of the neurotransmitter c. They chemically bond with the neurotransmitter, making a molecule that is too large to cross the membrane d. They make the fluid in the synaptic cleft more viscous, inhibiting the motion of molecules 37. Where is seasonal affective disorder most common? a. Near the equator b. Nearer the poles c. Close to the ocean d. In the mountains 38. Which of the following is the most typical outcome after someone develops major depression? a. The person will remain seriously depressed for life b. The depression will grow worse over time c. The person will alternate between episodes of depression and periods of normal mood d. The person will recover without any likelihood of returning to depression 39. Physicians prescribe drug A for a large group of depressed patients. Six weeks later they switch to drug B for every patient who did not respond to drug A. Many of these patients show improvement over the next few weeks. What conclusion, if any, follows? a. Drug B is more effective than drug A b. Some people respond to drug B but not to drug A c. Any switch in drugs increases patients’ motivation and therefore helps them recover d. None of these conclusions follows 40. Which of the following is evidence against the idea that antidepressant drugs relieve depression simply by elevating neurotransmitter levels? a. The dose of drug necessary for relieving depression is greater than the amount necessary to elevate neurotransmitter levels. b. The drugs quickly affect levels of serotonin and other neurotransmitters but take weeks to alter mood c. The drugs become less and less effective in relieving depression after weeks of use d. Several procedures other than antidepressant drugs are also effective in relieving depression 41. How does the effectiveness of psychotherapy compare to that of antidepressant drugs? a. Psychotherapy helps a higher percentage of depressed patients b. Antidepressant drugs help a higher percentage of depressed patients c. Patients who would respond to psychotherapy do not respond to antidepressant drugs, and vice versa d. Psychotherapy and antidepressant drugs help about an equal percentage of patients, and mostly the same patients 42. What is the disadvantage of using St. John’s wort as an antidepressant? a. St. John’s wort is more expensive than standard antidepressant drugs b. St. John’s wort is less effective and produces benefits more slowly c. St. John’s wort decreases the effectiveness of other drugs someone might be taking d. St. John’s wort cannot be obtained legally 43. Which of these is a major disadvantage of ECT> a. Its benefits don’t last long b. Its benefits develop slowly c. It helps only a small percentage of patients d. It causes permanent memory damage 44. Which of the following has been shown to decrease the probability of a renewed episode of bipolar disorder? a. Uric Acid b. Avoidance of bright lights c. Consistent, adequate sleep d. A high carbohydrate diet 45. Relatives of people with late-onset depression have an increased probability of what type of disorder? a. Anxiety disorders b. Circulatory problems c. Alcohol abuse d. Migraine headaches 46. Which of the following is a likely reason why it has been difficult to identify a gene associated with depression? a. Depression does not have a genetic basis b. Only early-onset depression has a genetic basis c. Certain genes link to depression only in people who have undergone severe stress d. Researchers have studied only animal models, not humans 47. What is the advantage of SSRIs compared to tricyclic drugs? a. They produce their antidepressant benefits more quickly b. They help a larger percentage of people with depression c. They produce milder side effects d. They are less expensive 48. If you are already in a normal mood, could you make yourself feel even better by taking antidepressant drugs? If not, why not? a. Yes, you could. Antidepressant drugs are equally effective for everyone b. No, you could not. Laws prevent doctors from prescribing antidepressant drugs for anyone who is not depressed c. No, you could not. Antidepressant drugs promote new learning that competes with depressed thoughts. Someone without depressed thoughts has little to gain d. No, you could not. If people in a normal mood take antidepressants, they experience worse side effects than depressed people do 49. What is the most common sleep problem of people with depression? a. They sleep without dreaming b. They have trouble falling asleep c. They awaken early and cannot get back to sleep d. They fall asleep suddenly in the middle of the day 50. What is the conclusion from twin studies regarding schizophrenia? a. Monozygotic twins are more likely to develop schizophrenia than are dizygotic twins b. Monozygotic twins are more likely to be concordant for schizophrenia than are dizygotic twins. c. Dizygotic twins are more likely to be concordant for schizophrenia than are monozygotic twins d. Monozygotic and dizygotic twins are equally likely to be concordant for schizophrenia 51. According to the dopamine hypothesis that schizophrenia, what is the chemical basis for schizophrenia? a. Deficient synthesis of dopamine b. Lack of sufficient dopamine type 1 receptors c. Lack of sufficient dopamine type 2 receptors d. Excessive activity at dopamine synapses 52. If schizophrenia is due to abnormal brain development in early life, how can we account for the fact that behavioral symptoms are not apparent until later in life? a. Schizophrenia impairs only social behavior, which is more important in adulthood b. Other people do not notice the problems until the person is old enough to seek employment c. A prime area of damage is the prefrontal cortex, which matures very slowly d. Symptoms of brain abnormality do not emerge until the person encounters stress 53. Keeping someone’s working memory busy with an unrelated task causes normal, healthy people to produce which of these items that are characteristic of schizophrenia? a. Hallucinations b. Delusions c. Loss of emotion and social behavior d. Incoherent speech 54. What are the synaptic effects of glycine? a. It directly stimulates glutamate receptors b. It facilitates the effects of glutamate c. It directly stimulates acetylcholine receptors d. It facilitates the effects of acetylcholine 55. Which of the following is currently the most plausible statement about the role of genetics in schizophrenia? a. An aberrant form of the DISC1 gene causes schizophrenia b. One gene is responsible for schizophrenia, but investigators have not yet found that gene c. Many mutations or microdeletions can increase the probability of schizophrenia d. Schizophrenia is not related to genetics 56. Schizophrenia is more common than average in which of the following types of people? a. People with allergies b. People who live in cities c. People who move from Europe to one of the Caribbean countries d. People who eat a diet rich in fish 57. Which of the following has not been shown to increase the risk of schizophrenia? a. Being born during the winter b. Having a pet cat in childhood c. Having a father over age 55 d. Living near the ocean 58. What is an alternative to the hypothesis that schizophrenia relates to excess dopamine activity? a. Increased reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron b. Decreased glutamate activity in the prefrontal cortex c. Decreased metabolism in the cerebellum d. Increased adenosine levels in the hypothalamus Answers: 1. D – 11.1 2. B - 11.1 3. A - 11.1 4. D - 11.1 5. D - 11.1 6. C - 11.1 7. B - 11.2 8. D - 11.2 9. C - 11.2 10. A - 11.2 11. D - 11.2 12. B - 11.2 13. C - 11.2 14. A - 11.2 15. C - 11.2 16. A - 11.2 17. C - 11.2 18. B - 11.2 19. C - 11.2 20. B - 11.3 21. D - 11.3 22. C - 11.3 23. D - 11.3 24. B - 11.3 25. B - 14.1 26. C - 14.1 27. A - 14.1 28. D - 14.1 29. B - 14.1 30. A - 14.1 31. D - 14.1 32. A - 14.1 33. D - 14.1 34. C - 14.1 35. B - 14.1 36. A – 14.2 37. B – 14.2 38. C – 14.2 39. D – 14.2 40. B – 14.2 41. D – 14.2 42. C – 14.2 43. A – 14.2 44. C – 14.2 45. B – 14.2 46. C – 14.2 47. C – 14.2 48. C – 14.2 49. C – 14.2 50. B – 14.3 51. D – 14.3 52. C – 14.3 53. D – 14.3 54. B – 14.3 55. C – 14.3 56. B – 14.3 57. D – 14.3 58. B – 14.3 Videos: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4KbSRXP0wik https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gAMbkJk6gnE https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZwMlHkWKDwM Links: https://quizlet.com/24261075/chapter-12-behavioral-neuro-flash-cards/ https://quizlet.com/16072243/chapter-123-stress-health-flash-cards/ https://quizlet.com/80513792/biopsych-exam-attack-and-escape-behaviors-112-final-exam-flash-cards/ https://quizlet.com/11448245/bio-psych-3-test-flash-cards/