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SAM Cardiology
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1. the drug of choice for treatment of atrial filbrillation is:
A. digitalis
B. quinidine
C. aminophylline
D. propranolol
E. otrapine
Answer: A
2. out of the following breeds, which one is known to have aortic stenosis?
A. english setter
B. poodle
C. cocker spaniel
D. Newfoundland
E. german sheperd
Answer: D
3. a water hamer pulse, a b-b shop pulse is characteristic of:
A. patent ductus arterionosus
B. pulmonic stenosis
C. ventricular septal defect
D. atrial filbrillation
E. aortic stenosis
Answer: A
4. prolongation of the qrs complex on an electrocardiogram is seen with:
A. subaortic stenosis
B. dirofilariasis
C. tricupsil valvular disease
D. heat bore tumors
E. pulmonic stenosis
Answer: A
5. which of the following is a dependable sign of cardio-vascular disease?
A. cough
B. acitics
C. a grade i/v murmur
D. right bundle branch blade
E. all of the above
Answer: C
6. what is the normal heart rate for adult dogs?
A. 170-200 beats per min.
B. 70-160 beats per min.
C. 40-60 beats per min.
D. 40 or less beats per min.
E. 200-250 beats per min.
Answer: B
7. what is the average heart rate of a cat?
A. 60 beats per min.
B. 140 beats per min.
C. 197 beats per min.
D. 250 beats per min.
E. 300 beats per min.
Answer: C
8. what is the normal mean electrical axis for a dog?
A. +40 degrees - +100 degrees in the frontal plain
B. +40 to -30 degrees in the frontal plain
C. +100 to -180 degrees in the frontal plain
D. greater than 180 degrees in the frontal plain
E. any of the above
Answer: A
9. what is the maximum amplitude p-wave in the dog?
A. .2 m
B. .3 m
C. .4 m
D. .5 m
E. .6 m
Answer: A
10. what is the maximum p-wave induration in the dog?
A. .04 sec.
B. .03 sec.
C. .05 sec.
D. .10 sec.
E. .13 sec.
Answer: A
11. what is the normal p-r interval in the dog?
A. .18 - .22 sec.
B. .02 - .04 sec.
C. .06 - .13 sec.
D. .13 - .18 sec.
E. .22 - .26 sec.
Answer: C
12. what is the normal duration of the qrs complex in the dog?
A. .01 - .03 sec.
B. .04 - .06 sec.
C. .06 - .08 sec.
D. .08 - .10 sec.
E. .10 - .13 sec.
Answer: B
13. what is the normal qt interval in the dog?
A. .06 - .13 sec.
B. .14 - .22 sec.
C. .22 - .28 sec.
D. .28 - .32 sec.
E. none of the above
Answer: B
14. what is the requirement for the t-wave in the dog?
A. same height as the r-wave
B. 1/2 the height of the r-wave
C. no greater than 1/4 the height of the r-wave
D. no requirement
E. the t-wave must be positive
Answer: C
15. what is syncope?
A. a fast heart rate
B. fainting with or without seizures
C. convulsions
D. a slow heart rate
E. noctonnal sleeping
Answer: B
16. what is a pulse defect?
A. a week femoral pulse
B. a strong bounding femoral pulse
C. no pulse at all
D. more heart beats than femoral pulse
E. a fast pulse
Answer: D
17. the normal amplitude of the r-wave in the dog is:
A. less than 1mv
B. not greater than 3mv
C. 2.5 - 3 mv
D. no special requirements
E. same as the t-wave
Answer: C
18. negative p-waves on the electrograph suggest:
A. functional tachycordia
B. ventricular tachycoria
C. pvc
D. wandering pacemaker
E. right atral enlargement
Answer: E
19. on an electrocardiograph you see tall peak t-waves. what could this mean?
A. of no importance
B. elevated serum potassium
C. elevated serum sodium
D. elevated serum calcium
E. low serum potassium
Answer: B
20. deep q-wave in lead ii greater than .5 mv suggest:
A. right atral enlargement
B. right ventricular enlargement
C. left atral enlargement
D. left ventricular enlargement
E. none of the above
Answer: B
21. a wide qrs complex greater than .06 seconds suggest:
A. right ventricular enlargement
B. left ventricular enlargement
C. elevated serum potassium
D. decreast serum calcium
E. left atrial enlargement
Answer: B
22. a dog with atrial fibrillation has a life expectancy with treatment of about:
A. 3 months or less
B. 1 year or less
C. 6 months
D. 2 -3 years
E. a good prognosis
Answer: C
23. you look at an electrocardiogram and notice the r-wave and t-wave are less than 1 mv and are
the same amplitude. what would you suggest?
A. 3rd degree heart block
B. atrioventricular dissociation
C. myocardial inforction
D. pericardial effusion
E. 2nd degree heart block
Answer: D
24. cardiovascular disease most likely affects what valve?
A. aortic
B. pulmonic
C. tricupsid
D. mitral
E. all of the above
Answer: D
25. deep s-wave is lead i, ii, iii and avf is diagnostic for:
A. right ventricular enlargement
B. biventricular enlargement
C. left ventricular enlargement
D. mitral insufficiency
E. tricupsial insufficiency
Answer: A
26. when possible all electrocardiographs should be taken with the dog in:
A. left lateral recumbancy
B. right lateral recumbancy
C. standing
D. it doesn't make any difference
E. dorsal recumbancy
Answer: B
27. the most common arrhythamia in the dog is:
A. ventricular arrhythamia
B. sinuatrial arrhythmia
C. sinus arrhythmia
D. wandering pacemaker
E. 1st degree heart block
Answer: C
28. a split second heart sound in the dog may indicate what?
A. pda (patent ductus arteriosus)
B. pericardial effusion
C. heartworm disease
D. pulmonic stenosis
E. junctional tachycardia
Answer: C
29. the most common type of feline cardiomyopically is:
A. restrictive
B. hypertrophic
C. congestive (dilatative)
D. atropic
E. eosinophilic
Answer: B
30. what is the 1st sign of digilatis intoxication?
A. vomiting
B. diarrhea
C. anerrhea
D. polydipsia
E. convulsions
Answer: C
31. a six year old male mixed breed dog with a heart rate of 242 would most likely have which of
the following:
A. ventricular tachycardia
B. 1st degree heart block
C. 3rd degree heart block
D. atrial fibrillation
E. sinus bradycardia
Answer: D
32. a five year old miniture poodle has a heart rate of 42 beats per min. which of the following
conditions might he have?
A. 2nd degree heart block
B. sinus bradycardia
C. 3rd degree heart block
D. 1st degree heart block
E. right bundle branch block
Answer: C
33. most superventricular arrhythmias should be treated with?
A. quinidine
B. procainanide
C. lidocaine
D. atrophic
E. digoxin
Answer: E
34. a good bronchodilator to use in congestive heart failure is:
A. hycodan
B. aminophylline
C. neo-synephrine
D. dopran
E. epinephrine hch
Answer: B
35. a low sodium diet is indicated in heart problems because:
A. it increases water retention
B. it decreases water retention
C. it maintains the level of calcium in the body
D. it decreases the level of calcium in the body
E. it increases the level of calcium in the body
Answer: B
36. very sudden left heart failure is most likely due to what?
A. left bundle branch block
B. right bundle branch block
C. pericardial effusion
D. rupture chordae tendinae
E. atrial fibrillation
Answer: D
37. the first treatment for 3rd degree heart block or the sick sinus syndrome is:
A. atropine
B. digoxin
C. lidoccaine
D. artificial pacemaker
E. isopraterenal
Answer: A
38. what drug do you use to treat toxic hepatitis from thiaciorsanide therapy?
A. paba
B. bal (dimercapral)
C. sodium bicarbonate
D. calcium gluconate
E. calcium chloride
Answer: B
39. antibiotic therapy for endocarditis should be bacteriocial and continued for a minimum of
how long?
A. 6 months
B. 6 - 8 weeks
C. 3 months
D. 9 months
E. at least 1 year
Answer: B
40. the surgical convertion of aortic thromboembolism is very poor because
A. kidneys maybe damaged
B. brain may have been damaged
C. acidosis distal to the abstruction
D. thromlic can still be present in the heart ready to embolize
E. none of the above
Answer: D
41. what is the daily dose for diethylcarbogive?
A. 5 mg/lb
B. 3 mg/lb
C. 1 - 2 mg/lb
D. 6 mg/lb
E. .0 mg/lb
Answer: B
42. what specific changes does endocarditis produce in the oracis radiographs?
A. pulmonary edena
B. left heart enlargement
C. right heart enlargement
D. biventricular enlargement
E. none
Answer: E
43. how long should you wait after adult therapy to being microfilaria therapy?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
E. 6 months
Answer: D
44. how often should microfilaria exams be performed on dogs?
A. every 3 months
B. every 6 months
C. every 9 months
D. every year
E. every 18 months
Answer: B
45. the diagnosis of idiopathic cardiomyopathy is based on what:
A. enlarged right atrium
B. enlarged left atrium
C. enlarged right ventricle
D. enlarged left ventricle
E. generalized enlargement
Answer: E
46. which clinical sign is most common in feline cardiomyopathy?
A. acities
B. peripheral edema
C. pulmonary edema
D. diastolic murmur
E. syncope without convulsions
Answer: D
47. which of the following are not potassium losing diuretics?
A. furosemide
B. thiazides
C. ethacrynic acid
D. mercurials
E. none of the above
Answer: E
48. which of the following therapies are first indicated in the progression of conjestive heart
failure?
A. chlorthiozide
B. digoxin
C. low sodium diet
D. morphine
E. oxygen cage therapy
Answer: C
49. premature contractions not due to heart failure are treated with:
A. digoxin
B. quabain
C. aminophylline
D. quinidine
E. isoproterenal
Answer: D
50. tachycardias not due to heart failure are treated with:
A. atropine
B. aminophylline
C. quinidine
D. digoxin
E. norepinephrine
Answer: D
51. adams-stokes syndrome is syncope associated with:
A. 3rd degree au block
B. rbbb
C. lbbb
D. atrialtachycardia
E. any severe rhythma with fainting
Answer: E
52. sa block can be due to:
A. hyperphosphatemia
B. hypochloremia
C. hyperkalemia
D. hyponatremia
E. none of the above
Answer: E
53. what is the first indication for digitalization?
A. grade ii/v murmur
B. mild cardiac cough at right
C. mild cardiac cough unresponsive to aminophylline and low sodium diet
D. premature atrial contraction
E. premature ventricular contraction
Answer: C
54. in state iv/iv heart failure, which is indicated?
A. low sodium diet
B. aminophylline
C. digoxin
D. morphine
E. oxygen therapy
F. all of the above
Answer: F
55. the drug most indicated in a iv/iv heart failure from cvd with pvc is:
A. quinidine
B. digoxin
C. lasix
D. nitroglycerine
E. aminophylline
Answer: A
56. if a dog is ever in stage iv/iv heart failure, his life expectancy is:
A. less than 1 year
B. 1 - 2 years
C. 2 - 4 years
D. 4 - 6 years
E. very good if treated properly
Answer: A
57. most cardiovascular diseases cause valvular:
A. stenosis
B. fibrosis
C. insufficiency
D. vavular endocarlitis
E. all of the above
Answer: C
58. most cardiovascular murmurs are:
A. continuous
B. diastolic
C. systalic
D. presystolic
E. none of the above
Answer: C
59. which test or technique will give you more information about pathologic changes in the heart
and lungs
A. ekg
B. sgpt
C. bun
D. x-rays
E. urinalysis
Answer: D
60. what are the most surgically corrected congenital cardiovascular defects?
A. pulmonic stenosis and ventricular septal defect
B. aortic stenosis and pulmonic stenosis
C. ventricular septal defect and tetrology of fallot
D. atral septal defect and pda
E. pda and presistent aortic arches
Answer: E
61. in aortic stenosis the stenosis is usually:
A. super valvular
B. valvular
C. subvalvular
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Answer: C
62. pulmonic stenosis is seen most frequently in:
A. poodle
B. beagle
C. boxer
D. newfoundland
E. german sheperd
Answer: B
63. patent ductus arterious is hereditary in:
A. keeshond
B. poodle
C. german sheperd
D. beagle
E. irish setter
Answer: B
64. tetralogy of fallot is hereditary in the:
A. boxer
B. poodle
C. keeshound
D. german shepard
E. beagle
Answer: C
65. pericardial effusion is diagnosed on the ekg by:
A. tall r-waves (amplitude)
B. tall t-waves (amplitude)
C. low t-waves (amplitude)
D. low r-waves (amplitude)
E. no p-waves (amplitude)
Answer: D
66. one of the most frequent causes of right sided congestive heart failure is:
A. cardiac cachexia
B. hepatomegaly
C. congenital aortic stenosis
D. cor-pulmonate secondary to dirofilariosis
E. limb edema
Answer: D
67. in the horse it may be possible to ausculatae how many heart sounds:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: D
68. splitting of the second heart sound in the dog is usually caused by:
A. delayed closure of the pulmonic valve
B. delayed closure of the aortic valve
C. delayed closure of the mitral valve
D. delayed closure of the tricupsid valve
E. none of the above
Answer: A
69. ventricular premature contractions are diagnosed on an electrocardiograph by:
A. no p-waves
B. tall t-waves
C. negative p-waves
D. tall r-waves
E. biozarre, wide orst complexes
Answer: E
70. third degree heart block is diagnosed on the ekg:
A. prolonged pr interval
B. elevated s-t segment
C. slow heart rate with more p-waves than qrs complexes
D. negative t-waves
E. long qt interval
Answer: C
71. the drug of choice for treating adult heartworms is:
A. thiacetarsamide (caparsolate)
B. diethylcarbamazine
C. dithiozanine iodide
D. bal
E. any of the above
Answer: A
72. an 8 month old boxer is brought to your clinic with a history of being "normal" until recently
when the dog has exhibited shortness of breath, occasional "falling out: and excessive tiring with
exerci...
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