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EXAM REVIEW
PATTERNS OF INHERITANCE REVIEW
1.
An individual that is pure bred is said to:
A. have 2 different alleles for a particular trait
B. be hybrid
C. have a dominant and a recessive allele for a particular trait
D. be homozygous for a particular trait
2.
If 50 out of 100 offspring expressed dominant traits, and the other rest expressed
recessive
traits, then the parents were:
A.
both homozygous dominant
B.
both homozygous recessive
C.
both hybrids
D.
one heterozyous and one homozygous recessive
3.
Hemophilia is a recessive, sex-linked trait. If a carrier female married a normal male,
what percentage of their sons would be hemophiliacs?
A.
100%
B.
50%
C.
33.3%
D.
25%
4.
If two cows produce offspring that are 100% roan (red and white), what are the
phenotypes of the parents?
A. white and roan
B.
red and roan C. red and white
D.both roan
5.
Baldness is a sex-linked, recessive trait. What are the genotypes of the parents if 50% of
sons and daughters are bald.
A.
XBXB x XBY
B.
XBXb x XbY
C.
XBXB x XbY
D.
XbXb x XBY
6.
Albinism (lack of pigment) in humans, is caused by a recessive gene. If two normal
parents have an albino child, what is the probability that their next child will be normal
for pigment?
A.
100 %
B.
50%
C.
25%
D.
75%
E.
0%
7.
An organism of genotype AaBb can make gametes of all the following kinds except:
A.
AB
B.
Bb
C.
aB
D.
ab
8.
Choose the true statement regarding the characteristics of the pea plants that Mendel
worked with. The pea plants
A.
produced a small amount of offspring
B.
showed contrasting observable traits
C.
were difficult to grow offspring
9.
D.
all of the above are true
Mendel’s principle of segregation states that:
A. in a hybrid organism, only two of the two alleles will be expressed
B. two alleles that determine a characteristic will separate when sex cells are formed
C. the allele that is expressed is the dominant allele
D. the inheritance of a particular allele is not affected by the inheritance of another allele
unless it is on the same chromosome
10.
The fact that hybrids of pure breeding red and white flowers are all red is explained by
A. law of segregation
B. dominant-recessive inheritance
C. law of independent assortment
D. both A and B
11.
The genes are controlled by dominant-recessive inheritance. If an individual with the
genotype DDrr was crossed with an individual with the genotype ddRR, the F1
generation would be
A. all dominant for both traits
B. dominant for one trait and recessive for one trait
C. show a 9:6:1 ratio for dominant for both:dominant for one recessive for the other:
recessive for both
D. all recessive for both traits
12.
In human beings, a child’s sex is determined primarily by the:
A. mother
B. father
C. grandparents
chromosomes
Column A
13______ Dominant
14______ Recessive
15______ Mendel’s Law
of Segregation
16______ Hybrid
17______ Genes
19______ Alleles
D. autosomal
Column B
A. Mendel’s factors
B. being heterozygous for an allele
C. Alternate versions of a gene for a particular characteristic
20______ Punnett Square
D. Genetic composition of an individual for a characteristic
E. The allele which is expressed in the heterozygote
F. members of a pair of alleles of a given trait are
segregated when gametes are formed
G. A description of the appearance of an organism
21______ Homozygous
H. Used to determine possible outcomes of a cross
22______ Genotype
I. DD
23_____ Phenotype
J. trait that is only expressed in a homozygous individual
24.
K. when 2 or more pairs of characteristics are considered at one
time, each pair shows dominance and segregation independently
of the other.
A type A man whose mother was type O marries a woman with type B blood. Their son
has type B blood. This son marries a woman with woman with type B blood. They have
12 children, 10 type B and 2 type O. What are the genotypes of the man’s mother, the
man, woman, son, daughter-in-law, and the type O child.
Man’s mother: ___________
Man: __________________
Woman: ________________
Son: ___________________
Daughter-in-law: _________
Type O child: ___________
25.
Two white female mice are mated to the same white male mouse. The first female
produced 10 white offspring. The second female produced 15 white offspring and 5
black offspring.
a) What type of inheritance pattern does mouse coat colour display?
________________________
b) List the genotypes of the:
male mouse: __________________
first female mouse: ______________
offspring of the cross between the first female and the male:
_________________________
second female guinea pig: ________________
c) Give the genotype ratio of offspring of the second female:
_________________________
26.
Colour blindness is a sex-linked, recessive trait. A man’s maternal grandmother had
normal vision; his maternal grandfather was colourblind. His mother has normal vision;
his father has normal vision.
a) What are the genotypes of the two parents and the grandparents?
Grandmother: _______
Grandfather: _________
Mother:
Father:
_______
_________
b) Use a Punnett square to determine the possible phenotypes of the man and his sisters.
27.
The gene for comb size in chickens displays dominant-recessive inheritance with pea
comb being dominant to large comb, but the gene for feather colour has a codominant
inheritance pattern, with homozygous individuals being white or red and heterozygous
birds being white with red heads. A red and white bird with a large comb is mated with a
bird that is heterozygous for both genes. Give the genotypic and phenotypic ratios for the
F1generation.
28.
Sketch the stages of meiosis and describe the major events.
29.
Compare mitosis and meiosis by completing the table below:
MITOSIS
In what cellular process(es) is this type of
cell division involved?
In what type of cell does this type of cell
division occur?
How many times does DNA replicate?
How many divisions occur?
How many daughter cells are formed?
What is the chromosome number of the
daughter cells compared to the parent?
How does the genetic information of the
daughter cells compare to the parent?
When do synapsis and crossing-over
occur?
MEIOSIS
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
30. During which phase of the meiotic cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
31. When does crossover take place in meiosis?
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
32. During which phase of meiosis does the nuclear membrane reform around chromosomes?
a. interphase
b. prophase I
c. metaphase II
d. anaphase I
e. telophase II
33. A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is...
a. a somatic cell of a male
b. a zygote
c. a somatic cell of a female
d. a sperm cell
e. an ovum
34. Homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles of a dividing cell during...
a. mitosis
b. meiosis I
c. meiosis II
d. fertilization
e. binary fission
35. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that...
a. homologous chromosomes synapse
b. DNA replicates before the division
c. the daughter cells are diploid
d. sister chromatids separate during anaphase
e. the chromosome number is reduced
36. Metaphase of meiosis I and meiosis II differ in that...
a. chromosomes line up at the equator
b. homologues line up in meiosis I and duplicated chromosomes line up in meiosis II
c. sister chromatids line up in meiosis I and chromosomes line up in meiosis II
d. there are the same number of chromosomes
37. Asexually reproducing organisms produce offspring that are genetically identical to each
other
and to the parents. What type of cell division are the offspring a product of?
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. binary fission
d. fertilization
38. At which stage of meiosis do chromatids separate and become daughter chromosomes?
a. metaphase I
b. anaphase I
c. metaphase II
d. anaphase II
e. telophase II
39. The process in which haploid gametes are formed in diploid organisms is called:
a. cytokinesis
b. interphase
c. meiosis
d. mitosis
e. nuclear division
40. A human cell containing 44 autosomes and two X chromosomes is...
a. a somatic cell of a male
b. a zygote
c. a somatic cell of a female
d. a sperm cell
e. an ovum
41. Independent assortment is one of the factors that contributes to genetic diversity. Independent
assortment is associated with which stage of meiosis?
a. anaphase I
b. prophase I
c. metaphase I
d. anaphase II
e. metaphase II
42. The fertilized egg (zygote) of a human contains how many chromosomes?
a. 1
b. 22
c. 46
d. 23
e. 48
43. Which cells of the human body are made through the process of meiosis?
a. gametes
b. somatic cells
c. all cells of the body
d. X and Y chromosomes
e. autosomes
44. A _____________ is the complete set of chromosomes of an organism, arranged and
displayed in pairs and ordered by size. (Select the BEST answer.)
a. genome
b. karyotype
c. nucleus
d. heredity
e. gene
45. Which 2 cells would be more genetically similar to each other?
a. two gametes produced by the same person
b. two somatic cells produced by the same person
c. two eggs produced by the same woman
d. two sperm produced by the same man
46. If a diploid organism has a genome consisting of 22 chromosomes, its gametes will have
_____ chromosomes.
a. 44
b. 11
c. 22
d. 88
e. 19
47. The term 'synapsis' is associated with which process?
a. crossing over
b. independent assortment
c. mitosis
d. anaphase
e. fertilization
EVOLUTION
1.
Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection was influenced by Malthus who said
A) the earth is billions of years in age and changes occurred very gradually.
B) organisms can change their characteristics during their lifetime.
C) evolution can occur very rapidly
D) populations tend to increase geometrically.
E) the factors that produced the Earth’s landforms are still at work today.
2.
Which one of the following is not correct?
A) Lamarck believed in inheritance of acquired characteristics.
B) Lamarck was influenced by Malthus.
C) Lamarck developed his theory of evolution before Darwin.
D) Both Darwin and Lamarck believed that evolution occurred over many generations.
E) Both Darwin and Lamarck believed that evolution of a species was influenced by the
environment.
3.
In an ancestor of the horse, the species walked only on a central toe, but had 3 smaller
toes not involved in walking. These toes are considered to be
A) mutations.
B) vestigial structures.
C) acquired characteristics.
D) due to polymorphism.
E) all of the above.
4.
According to Darwin, fitness refers to the individuals
A) that are strongest and fastest.
B) with the most mutations.
C) who leave the greatest number of offspring.
D) best adapted to the environment.
E) none of the above
5.
A constant proportion of all genotypes in a population will be maintained from
generation to generation unless
A) there is mutation.
D) two of the above
B) there is migration.
E) all of the above
C) there is random mating.
6.
The large number of tortoise species on the Galapagas Islands that came from a small
group of stranded tortoises is considered to be an example of
A) the Founder effect.
D) two of the above
7.
B) adaptive radiation.
E) all of the above
C) genetic drift.
Which one of the following is least likely to lead to the evolution of a new species?
A) stabilizing selection
B) disruptive selection
C) directional selection
E) B and C
D) genetic drift
8.
In Ontario there are two common types of fruit flies. One type has a complex courtship
ritual involving flipping their wings while the other’s ritual involves moving around in a
specific pattern of circles. The females only recognize their own ritual. This is an
example of
A) mechanical isolation.
B) temporal isolation.C) geographical isolation.
D) behavioural isolation.
E) ecological isolation.
9.
Which of the following is an example of a post-zygotic isolating mechanism?
A) Groundhogs on one side of the Grand Canyon never meet groundhogs that live on the
other side.
B) Development of a frog embryo is aborted at an early stage after gametes from two
species of frog fuse.
C) One kind of fish is nocturnal, while a similar type of fish is active during the day.
D) In the forest, tree frogs live in the trees and the wood frogs live on the ground.
E) None of the above
10.
Two species of rats live in Toronto sewers, one stays the dryer areas while the other
remains in the wet areas. This is an example of
A) gamete isolation.
B) temporal isolation.C) geographical isolation.
D) behavioural isolation.
E) habitat isolation.
11.
Which one of the following is an example of a mechanical isolation?
A) Two species of daisy, one small and the other large, have different pollinators.
B) Two species of sparrow have different mating songs.
C) Two species produce an infertile offspring.
D) Two species live in different habitats.
E) The gametes from two species will not fuse after mating.
12.
Biologically, species are considered to be groups of individuals that
A) are separated by large distances so they don’t interbreed.
B) have different courtship rituals.
C) can exchange genetic information and have fertile offspring.
D) differ in DNA by at least 5%.
E) show distinctly different physical characteristics.
13.
A _______________________ barrier to reproduction is one that prevents a fertilized
ovum from developing into a fertile adult.
14.
_______________________________ occurs in small populations, where random chance
leads to rapid changes in allele frequencies.
15.
_________________________________________ allows a population to adapt to its
environment.
16.
17.
The shark (a fish) and the dolphin (a mammal) are remarkably similar in shape. These
structures would be considered to be _______________________________.
The process where humans breed domesticated animals with certain traits to achieve the
characteristics they desire is known as _______________________________.
18.
List the two requirements for speciation.
i) ________________________________________________
ii) ________________________________________________
19.
An increase in the acidity of a small lake results in the elimination of the larger
individuals of a particular species of fish. This could lead to ____________________
selection.
20.
The graphs below show what happens if _______________________ selection has
occurred.

# frogs
# frogs
leg length (cm)
leg length (cm)
21.
_______________ isolation occurs when two species have different reproductive
seasons.
22.
Match the description with the appropriate letter.
____ a. two or more different phenotypes for a gene in the population
A macroevolution
B speciation
____ b. reduces the variability between 2 populations of a species
C bottleneck effect
D mutation
____ c. divergence of species into populations incapable of breeding
E equilibrium
F gene flow
____ d. causes rapid shifts in allele frequencies
G heterozygous
H polymorphism
____ f. all 5 conditions of Hardy-Weinberg theory are being met
____ g. results in new alleles
23.
Explain the importance of the following in speciation
change in environment
phenotype variation
reproductive isolation
natural selection
genetic drift and small population size
mutation
24.
Compare and contrast the following pairs of terms.
migration vs genetic drift
pre-zygotic vs post-zygotic isolating mechanisms
microevolution vs macroevolution
homologous structure vs analogous structure
vestigial structure vs fossilized structure
PLANT UNIT REVIEW
At the completion of the plant unit you should be able to:
construct a flow chart to classify plants into the following groups: non-vascular vs
vascular, spore vs seed producing, flowering vs cone producing, monocot vs dicot; and
describe the major differences between the groups
2.
Identify the following types of stems and label the parts indicated.
3.
1.
4.
label the diagram of the parts of a flower and identify the function of the parts
4. label the parts leaf and explain how the leaf makes it well adapted to perform their functions
5.
Identify the parts on the diagram of the root and give their functions.
6.
describe the structure and general function of the xylem and phloem
7.
describe how water and minerals move from the soil to the leaves
8.
describe the Pressure-flow theory for the transport of sugars from the leaves to the roots
9.
write the equations for photosynthesis and cellular respiration
10.
describe methods of seed dispersal in plants
11.
List the 4 types of tissues in plants and describe their location and function.
INTERNAL SYSTEMS REVIEW
1.
label and give the functions for the structures in the following diagrams.
2.
Label the diagram of the heart and draw arrows indicating the direction of blood flow.
Colour areas with oxygenated blood red and with deoxygenated blood blue.
3. differentiate between chemical and mechanical digestion
4. state the source and discuss the role of enzymes and bile in chemical digestion
5. name and give the functions of the 3 parts of the small intestine
DIVERSITY OF LIVING THINGS
1.
According to the Linnaean System of Classification, organisms are grouped/classified
according to their:
a.
colour
b.
usefulness
c.
structural similarities
d.
habitat
2.
Which of the following is written correctly according to binomial nomenclature system?
a.
canis familiaris
b.
Canis familiaris
c.
canis Familiaris
d.
Canis Familiaris
3.
Which of the following taxonomic levels is arranged from the most general to the most
specific?
a.
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
b.
Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus, Species
c.
Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom
d.
Phylum, Kingdom, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
4.
Which of the following is arranged correctly from the simplest to the most complex?
a.
Animalia, Plantae, Protists, Fungi, Archaebacteria, Eubacteria
b.
Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Protists, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
c.
Eubacteria, Archaebacteria, Fungi, Protists, Animalia, Plantae
d.
Eubacteria, Archaebacteria, Protists, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
5.
Which taxon includes all unicellular eukaryotes?
a.
Archaebacteria
b.
Protists
c.
Bryophyta
d.
Mollusca
6.
Kingdom Archaebacteria is different from Kingdom Eubacteria because
a.
their DNA is unique.
b.
Archaebacteria only reproduce sexually and Eubacteria only reproduce asexually.
c.
Archaebacteria are prokaryotic and Eubacteria are eukaryotic.
d.
Archaebacteria are autotrophic and Eubacteria are heterotrophic.
7.
Choose the taxon containing prokaryotic cells.
a.
Eubacteria
b.
Protista
c.
Fungi
d.
Porifera
8.
A difference between Animal-like Protists and Plant-like Protists is:
a.
Animal-like Protists are heterotrophic and Plant-like Protists are autotrophic.
b.
Animal-like Protists are motile and Plant-like Protists are sessile.
c.
Animal-like Protists reproduce sexually and Plant-like Protists reproduce
asexually.
d.
Animal-like Protists are multicellular and Plant-like Protists are unicellular.
9.
An example of a Plant-like Protist is:
a.
c.
an amoeba
a seaweed
b.
d.
a cyanobacteria
a liverwort
10.
A special feature of the Kingdom Fungi is:
a.
a cell wall made of peptidoglycan
b.
they secrete enzymes and absorb nutrients
c.
they are both autotrophic and heterotrophic
d.
their mode of reproduction is strictly sexual
11.
All the organisms in the Kingdom Plantae:
a.
have cell walls made of cellulose
b.
have specialized tissue such as roots, stems, and leaves
c.
can produce spores
d.
can make fruit
12.
An example of Anthophyta (Plantae) is
a.
ferns
b.
c.
mushrooms
d.
dandelions
mosses
13.
All the organisms in the Kingdom Plantae are
a.
single celled
b.
motile
c.
heterotrophic
d.
none of the above
14.
All the organisms in the Kingdom Animalia:
a.
are motile
b.
are eukaryotic
c.
have a skeleton
d.
have specialized internal organs
15.
Which of the following belongs to the taxa, Chordata
a.
sea stars
b.
dolphins
c.
clams
d.
tape worms
Use the following choices to answer questions 16-21
a. Platyhelminthes
b. Mollusca
c. Arthropoda
d. Echinodermata
e. Porifera
16.
A special feature of this taxon is radial symmetry
17.
A special feature of this taxon is the presence of a shell
18.
19.
A special feature of this taxon is they are asymmetrical with not specialized organs or
tissues.
A special feature of this taxon is bilateral symmetery + flat body
20.
A special feature of this taxon is jointed legs + segmented body
21.
22.
An example of Class Mammalia is:
a.
human beings
b.
c.
birds
d.
fish
reptiles
Make a dichotomous key that can be used to identify the following invaders from outer
space.