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Supplementary MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2014-15 Course Code: MBS202 Paper ID: S322405 Microbiology-I Time: 2 Hours 40 Minutes Max Marks: 30 Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support your answer. Part ‘B’ 1. Lab Diagnosis of Enteric Fever. 2. Define Hypersensitivity reaction, mention various types of hypersensitivity reactions & describe in details about type I hypersensitivity reaction. (7) 3. (7) Write short notes on: Bacterial Growth Curve Chemical Method of Sterilization (4+4) a) b) (4+4) a) b) Write short notes on: Lab diagnosis of Gas Gangrene Difference between T cell & B cell 4. Supplementary MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2014-15 Roll No. Student’s Name Student’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature Course Code: MBS202 Paper ID: S322405 Microbiology-I Part ‘A’ Time: 20 Minutes Max Marks: 10 Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 20 Minutes. 2. Please tick (√) correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed. 3. For answering please use Ball- pen only. Q.1 Father of Microbiology: a) Robert Koch b) Lord Lister c) Louis Pasture d) Alexander Fleming Q.2 Dark ground Microscopy is used for detection of: a. Spirochetes b. Fungi c. Chlamydia d. Virus Q.6 Q.7 Which of the following is enrichment medium: a) Selenite F Broth b) Chocolate Medium c) Meet Extract Medium d) Egg Medium Most drug Resistance occurs due to: a) Transduction b) Transformation c) Mutation d) Conjugation Q.3 An example of Negative Staining is: a) Gram Staining b) India Ink Prepration c) Fontana Stain d) Ziehl-Neelsen Staining Q.8 Lancefield’s classification of β hemolytic Streptococci is based on: a) M. Protein b) Polysaccharide C Antigen c) Type of lipids in cell membranes d) Biochemical properties Q.4. Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called: a) Monotrichate b) Lophotrichate c) Peritrichate d) Bipolar Q.9 Anti-Streptolysin O (ASO) test is diagnostic in: a) Acute Rheumatic fever b) SLE c) Sub acute Bacterial Endocarditis d) Rheumatoid arthritis Q.5 Glass by: a) b) c) d) Q.10 Pneumococcus can be differentiated from streptococci by: a) Type of Haemolysis b) Gram’s Stain c) Growth Characteristics d) Bile solubility test wares and syringe are best sterilize Hot air oven Auto Claving Irradiation Ethylene dioxide P.T.O. Q.11 Gonococci virulence is due to: a) Pilli b) Cell membrane c) It’s intracellular location d) Catalytic Enzyme Q.12 Elek’s Gel Precipitation test is for: a) Gonococcus b) Diphtheria c) Haemophillus d) Anthrax Q.13 Nagler’s reaction detects: a) Coagulase b) Hyluronidase c) Lecithinase d) Non of the above Q.14 Darting motility shown by: a) Proteus b) Serratia c) Vibrio d) E.coli Q.15 Satellitism is a feature of: a) Haemophillus b) Serratia c) Yersinia d) Corynebacterum Q.16 Mites transmit: a) Scrub Typhus b) Trench Fever c) Endemic Typhus d) Epidemic Typhus Q.17 The reaction of Soluble antigen with antibody is known as: a) Agglutination b) Precipitation c) Flocculation d) Complement Fixation Q.18 Green pigment producing Bacteria: a) Staphylococcus b) Proteus c) Pseudomonas d) Corynebacterium Q.19 Cytokines are: a) Polypeptides b) Act on surface receptors c) d) Q.20 Take part in intrinsic enzymatic reaction Chemotactic Immunoglobuin cross the placenta is: a) Ig A b) Ig M c) Ig G d) Ig E