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Final Exam Chemistry B2A Mr. Kimball’s Class 2003 Name: ___________________________ Mark the answer sheet on the last page of this booklet with the UPPER CASE letter of the best answer from the question below. Pleas write your name on the answer sheet, tear it from the booklet and hand in both the answer sheet and the booklet with your name written on both. 1. Which of the following is concerned with the composition of matter and the changes it undergoes? a) science b) physics c) biology d) chemistry e) mathematics 2. Which branch of chemistry would publish a research paper by the title of "The Study of the Compounds of the Element Plutonium?" a) inorganic chemistry b) physical chemistry c) analytical chemistry d) organic chemistry e) biochemistry 3. Which branch of chemistry would publish a research paper by the title of "The Thermodynamics of Cold Fusion in Aqueous Solutions?" a) biochemistry b) physical chemistry c) analytical chemistry d) organic chemistry e) inorganic chemistry 4. How many significant digits are indicated in 0.019 m? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 5. Which of the following correctly rounds 76,150 to three (3) significant digits? a) 761 b) 762 c) 76100 d) 76200 e) 760. 6. Which of the following rounds off 3.2465 to three significant digits? a) 3.20 b) 3.24 c) 3.25 d) 3.26 e) 3.23 7. Which of the following expresses 623,000 in scientific notation? a) 6.23 x 10-5 b) 62.3 x 104 c) 6.23 x 105 d) 0.623 x 106 8. A football field is 120 yards long. What is the length of a football field expressed in meters? (1 foot = .305 meters and 3 ft. = 1 yard) a) 36.7 m b) 360. m c) 110 m d) 131 m 9. The highest recorded temperature in the world was recorded at 331 K at Aziza, Libya, in the Sahara desert on September 13, 1922. What is this temperature in oC? a) -137 oC b) 136 oC c) 604 oC d) 58 oC 10. A 5.00 mL sample of isopropyl alcohol (also known as rubbing alcohol) has a mass of 3.930 g when measured at 20 o C. What is the specific gravity (20oC) of isopropyl alcohol? a) 1.97 b) 19.7 c) 0.786 d) 1.27 11. The specific gravity of a sample of concentrated nitric acid is 1.42. What is the volume in liters at 20oC occupied by 145.3 g of this concentrate nitric acid a) 0.206 L b) 0.102 L c) 0.146 L d) 102 L e) .946 L 12. Which substance is characterized by definite and constant composition and having definite and constant properties under a given set of conditions? a) element only b) mixture only c) compound only d) compound and mixture e) element and compound 13. What is the smallest particle of an element that has the properties of that element? a) atom b) molecule c) formula unit d) electron e) ion 14. What is the name for the element with the symbol Pb? a) plutonium b) plumbium c) lead d) iron 15. What is the name for the element with the symbol Sn? a) sodium b) lead c) iron d) tin 16. How many atoms in Sr3(PO4)2? a) 11 b) 13 c) 10 d) 12 e) 14 17. A chocolate chip cookie is classified as which of the following? a) element b) compound c) mixture d) none of the above 18. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid? a) aluminum b) germanium c) arsenic d) antimony 19. Gold being malleable is an example of which of the following? a) physical property b) chemical property c) physical change d) chemical change 20. Indium is a relatively soft, bluish-white metal with a specific heat of 0.0568 cal/goC and a melting point of 155oC. It is often used as a standard to calibrate instruments that measure temperature and heat changes. How many calories of heat energy are required to heat 0.9652 g of indium from 68.0oF to 311.0oF? Note the differing temperature units. a) 17.1 cal b) 7.40 cal c) 8.50 cal d) 13.3 cal e) 118 cal 21. A cube of metal, measuring 1.25 cm on an edge, has a mass of 12.011 g. What is the density of the metal? a) 9.61 g/mL b) 12.0 g/mL c) 7.69 g/mL d) 6.15 g/mL e) 2.14 g/mL 22. Which of the following is FALSE regarding an electron? a) has a relative charge of -1 b) is abbreviated ec) has a mass of approximately 1 amu d) exists outside the nucleus e) exists in energy levels 23. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the nucleus of an atom? a) a small, low density region b) located at the center of an atom c) contains protons and neutrons d) has positive electrical charge e) attracts electrons 24. Which of the following is a region in space within an atom in which the protons and neutrons are found? a) the nucleus b) atomic volume c) an orbital d) orbital volumes in space e) energy levels 25. Which of the following is equal to the sum of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom? a) atomic number b) mass number c) symbol number d) atomic mass 26. Strontium 90 (Atomic number = 38) is an important and lethal constituent of nuclear fallout. What is the number of protons and electrons in strontium-90? a) 90 protons and 90 electrons b) 90 protons and 52 electrons c) 38 protons and 90 electrons d) 38 protons and 38 electrons 27. Elements in the same group in the periodic table have which of the following? a) similar chemical properties but different electron configurations b) extremely different chemical properties and different electron configurations c) extremely different chemical properties but similar electron configurations d) similar chemical properties and similar electron configurations e) none of the above 28. Within a given group there is a gradual change in a) physical properties only b) chemical properties only c) both physical and chemical properties d) no properties. All the members of a group have the same physical and chemical properties 29. Which of the following are true regarding the classification of silicon (Si) and tungsten (W)? a) Si and W are both metalloids b) Si is a metalloid and W is a metal c) Si and W are both metals d) Si is a nonmetal and Mg is a metal e) Both are nonmetals 36. What is the shape of a Freon 12, (CCl2F2) molecule? a) linear b) trigonal planar c) tetrahedral d) bent e) pyramidal 30. The element polonium (Po) is classified as a a) metal b) nonmetal c) noble gas d) metalloid (semimetal) 37. What is the shape of a CO2 molecule? a) linear b) trigonal planar c) tetrahedral d) bent e) pyramidal 31. Which is more metallic, germanium or arsenic? a) germanium is more metallic b) arsenic is more metallic c) both have the same metallic properties d) there is no way to tell e) neither have metallic properties 32. Which of the following is FALSE regarding an ionic bond? a) a type of chemical bond formed by the transfer of one or more electrons b) holds together (a) cation(s) and (an) anion(s). c) forms because all the charges attract each other d) results in the bonded atoms usually satisfying the Rule of Eight and Rule of Two e) the force of attraction between ion of opposite charge which holds them together 33. Which of the following is NOT an important point regarding the formation of all covalent compounds? a) The properties of the individual uncombined atoms differ from that of the compound. b) there is a "transfer of electrons" with an overlap of the electron orbitals. c) Energy is required to break these compounds apart. d) the nuclei attract electrons to produce a more stable molecule e) the smallest unit is a molecule 34. Which of the following is NOT an important point regarding the formation of all covalent compounds? a) The properties of the individual uncombined atoms differ from that of the compound. b) there is "sharing of electrons" with an overlap of the electron orbitals. c) Energy is required to break these compounds apart. d) the nuclei attract electrons to produce a more stable molecule e) the smallest unit is a formula unit 35. Which one of the following is NOT written as diatomic molecules? a) Cl2 c) P2 e) I2 b) O2 d) N2 38. What is the correct formula for the compound formed by the combination of magnesium ions (Mg2+) with phosphate ions (PO43-)? a) MgPO4 b) Mg(PO4)2 c) Mg3(PO4)2 d) 3MgPO4 39. What is the formula for the phosphate ion? a) PO33b) PO43c) PO32d) P2O7240. Use the accompanying periodic table and your knowledge of the formulas and charges on polyatomic ions to determine the formula of calcium nitrite (nitrite = NO2-) a) Ca2NO3 b) Ca(NO3)2 c) CaNO2 d) Ca(NO2)2 41. Use the accompanying periodic table to predict whether the bonding in Mg(ClO4)2 and BBr3 is essentially ionic or covalent. a) Mg(ClO4)2 and BBr3, are both essentially ionic b) Mg(ClO4)2 and BBr3, are both essentially covalent. c) Mg(ClO4)2 is essentially ionic and BBr3, is essentially covalent. d) Mg(ClO4)2 is essentially covalent and BBr3, is essentially ionic. 42. Match the anion suffixes with their corresponding acid suffixes. (a) -ide = -ic, -ate = -ic and -ite = -ous (b) -ide = -ic, -ate = -ous and - ite = -ic (c) -ide = hydro _____ -ic, -ate = -ic and -ite = -ous (d) All acids end in -ic (e) it depends, the pattern is not always the same 43. Which of the following is the correct name for the substance H2SO3? (a) sulfuric acid (b) hydrogen sulfide (c) sulfurous acid (d) hydrogen sulfite (e) hydrosulfuric acid 44. Which of the following is NOT a correct or possible formula of a compound? (a) K2Cr2O7 (b) SO2 (c) K2CrO4 (d) HClO4 (e) AlSO4 45.Which of the following is NOT a correct or possible name of a compound? (a) aluminum acetate (b) sodium hyperbromate (c) calcium hydrogen phosphate (d) copper (II) oxalate (e) phosphorus tribromide 46.How many moles of sulfuric acid are in 9.56 x 1024 molecules of H2SO4? a) 15.9 mol b) 356 mol c) 1560 mol d) 9.56 x 1022 mol e) 1588 mol 47. How many moles of lead (II) sulfate, PbSO4, are in 1.06 x 1022 formula units of lead (II) sulfate? a) .176 mol b) .0176 mol c) 1.76 mol d) 17.6 mol e) .00176 mol 48. What is the mass in grams to three significant digits of one atom of an isotope of silver with an atomic mass of 109 amu? a) 109 g b) 1.00 g c) 6.02 x 1023 g d) 5.52 x 10-24 g e) 1.81 x 10-22 g 49. What is the mass of 8.56 x 1023 molecules of H2SO4? a) 139 g b) 5.05 x 1023 g c) 69.6 g d) 1.42 g e) 98.01 g 50. How many formula units of Ca(NO3)2 are in 23.7 g? a) 1.40 x 1023 formula units b) 1.43 x 1024 formula units c) 8.69 x 1022 formula units d) 4.17 x 1025 formula units 51. Plaster of Paris is actually a form of calcium sulfate (CaSO4). How many moles of CaSO4 are there in 534.2 g of Plaster of Paris? a) 3.922 mol b) 6.057 mol c) 7.276 x 10… mol d) 0.2550 mol e) 534.2 mol 52. Which of the following does NOT contain 9.06 x 1023 atoms? a) 6.01 g of hydrogen b) 18.1 g of carbon c) 42.3 g of silicon d) 312 g of lead e) 53.4 g of chlorine (monatomic) 53. Which of the following does NOT contain 9.06 x 1023 atoms? a) 1.50 g of hydrogen b) 18.1 g of carbon c) 42.3 g of silicon d) 207 g of lead e) 53.4 g of chlorine 54. Phosgene (COCl2) is a colorless and toxic gas that was used as a weapon during World War I. What is its percent by mass composition? a) 33.3% C, 33.3% Cl, 33.3% O b) 12.1% C, 71.7% Cl, 16.2% O c) 18.9% C, 55.9% Cl, 25.2% O d) 25.0% C, 50.0% Cl, 25.0% O e) 30.0% C, 30.0% Cl, 40.0% O 55. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a catalyst? a) increases the rate of a chemical reaction b) only a negligible amount is consumed in catalyzing the reaction c) may appear above or below the reaction arrow in the equation d) is recovered unchanged at the end of the reaction e) chlorophyll is one of nature's most important catalysts 56. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the guidelines for balancing chemical equations? a) any coefficients that work should be used to balance the equation b) only use whole number coefficients in front of formulas c) balance the polyatomic ions that remain the same on both sides d) do not change the formulas once written e) balance the H and O last 57. A type of chemical reaction in which one compound breaks down to form two or more substances. a) Combination b) Decomposition c) Single-replacement d) double replacement 58. A type of chemical reaction in which two or more substances react to produce a compound. a) Combination b) Decomposition c) Single-replacement d) double replacement e) Neutralization 59. Which of the following conditions will NOT generally occur in a double replacement reaction? a) an insoluble product being formed b) a weakly ionized product being formed c) a gas being formed d) a positive ion of one compound forms a precipitate by bonding with a cation from another compound e) two compounds react together by exchanging "partners" 60. When this equation is balanced, what are the coefficients? ___ Mg(ClO3)2 ------> ___ MgCl2 + ___ O2 a) 1,1,1 b) 1,1,3 c) 2,2,3 d) 1,1,6 e) 3,2,2 61.When this equation is balanced, what are the coefficients? ___ P4 + ___ O2 ------> ___ P2O5 a) 1,1,1 b) 5,1,2 c) 1,3,1 d) 2,1,3 e) 1,5,2 62. When this equation is balanced, what are the coefficients? ___ CH2O + ___ O2 ------> ___ CO2 + ___ H2O a) 1,2,1,1 b) 2,2,1,1 c) 2,1,1 ,1 d) 1,1,1,1 e) 1,0,3,1 63. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the information obtained from a balanced equation? a) the reactants and products b) the molecules of reactants and products c) the moles of reactants and products d) the relative masses of the reactants and products e) the volumes of gases if all measured at standard temperature and pressure 64. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the actual yield? a) amount of product obtained in an actual chemical reaction b) it is always more than the theoretical yield c) it differs from theoretical yield because of the production of minor by-products d) the amount really obtained e) it differs from theoretical yield because of losses in the isolation and purification stages 65.Which of the following is FALSE regarding percent yield? a) percent of the theoretical yield actually obtained b) it is expressed as the actual yield divided by the theoretical yield with the result multiplied by 100 c) percent of the actual yield obtained d) is always less than 100% e) a useful calculation of interest to chemical manufacturers 66. Which of the following is FALSE regarding energy and chemical reactions? a) an exothermic reaction is when heat energy is absorbed b) energy is measured in calories or joules c) heat of reaction is the energy evolved or absorbed for given amounts of reactant or product d) an endothermic reaction is a reaction where heat is absorbed e) energy is conserved 67.Aluminum cans can be converted into alum [KAl(SO4)2 · 12 H2O] and hydrogen gas via a very simple procedure summarized by the overall equation given below. Alum is a useful agent in water-proofing and hydrogen gas is a very useful fuel. An aluminum soda pop can with a mass of 19.56 g reacted with an excess of potassium hydroxide. What is the volume at STP of the hydrogen gas produced? 2 Al (s) + 2 KOH (s) + 4 H2SO4(aq) + 10 H2O(l) =====> 2 KAl(SO4)2· 12 H2O(s) + 3 H2(g) a) 16.2 L b) 24.3 L c) 10.9 L d) 29.3 L e) 34.6 L 68. ClO2 is a very hazardous gas (toxic and explosive) that is used in the commercial preparation of sodium chlorite (NaClO2), an important bleaching agent in the textile and paper industry. ClO2 is prepared as described in the balanced equation below. How many liters of ClO2 measured at STP would be expected from 100.0 kg of NaClO3? 3 NaClO3(s) + H2SO4(l) =====> 2 ClO2(g) + H2O(l) + Na2SO4(aq) + NaClO4(aq) a) 3.17 x 103 L b) 1.40 x 104 L c) 14.0 L d) 2.10 x 104 L 69. Gases that conform to the assumptions of the kinetic theory are called a) model gases b) kinetic gases c) ideal gases d) real gases e) just plain "gases" 70. A sample of helium gas occupies a volume of 24.9 mL when measured at 20.9oC and 527 torr. What is the volume of the gas in milliliters if the temperature is increased to 99.8oC and the pressure remains constant? a) 5.21 mL b) 19.6 mL c) 31.6 mL d) 119 mL e) 56.4 mL 71. A sample of gas occupies a volume of 13.7 L at 33.0oC and 1.06 atm. What is the pressure of the gas in atm at 223oC and a volume of 10.0 L? a) 0.889 atm b) 0.474 atm c) 1.26 atm d) 2.35 atm e) 9.81 at, 72. A sealed container of neon gas is maintained at a pressure of 143 mm Hg and a temperature of 225o C What will happen to the pressure in the container (assuming no volume change) if the temperature is raised to 1000oC? a) the pressure will decrease to 32.2 mm Hg b) the pressure will increase to 366 mm Hg c) the pressure will increase to 636 mm Hg d) the pressure will decrease to 55.9 mm Hg e) The pressure will remain the same 73. Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of solids? a) very limited expansion b) rigid definite shape c) maintain a constant volume d) practically incompressible e) mix or diffuse very quickly 74. Which of the following is an exothermic change? a) evaporation b) condensation c) sublimation d) melting e) none of the above 75. Which of the following is an endothermic change? a) deposition b) condensation c) sublimation d) freezing e) none of the above 76. Which of the following is FALSE regarding freezing? a) the temperature decreases slightly as the liquid freezes b) the kinetic energy of the particles decreases after all of the liquid freezes c) the particles become oriented in a definite geometric pattern d) heat energy is removed e) the temperature at which a liquid becomes a solid 77. Liquid helium is used for cooling systems to very low temperatures (4oK). How much heat energy (in kcal) is absorbed when 1.0 L of liquid helium at 4oK is converted to gaseous helium at 4oK? The molar heat of vaporization of helium is 19.6 cal/mol and the density of liquid helium is 0.147 g/mL. a) 33.3 kcal b) 0.72 kcal c) 2880 kcal d) 0.88 kcal e) 543 kcal 78. Which of the following observations about water is NOT explained, in part, by hydrogen bonding? a) Water has a relatively high melting point compared to what one would predict. b) Water has a bond angle of 105øC. c) Water has a relatively high boiling point compared to what one would predict. d) Water has a relatively large heat of vaporization compared to other compounds of similar size and shape. e) Water is soluble in other polar solvents such as alcohols 79. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a solution? a) is a homogeneous mixture b) fixed composition c) composed of a solute and solvent d) each component of the solution retains its original properties e) involves two or more pure substances 80. Which of the following is true regarding the solvent in a solution? a) the dissolving substance in a solution b) is usually present in lesser quantity than the solute c) disperses as individual molecules d) is always a liquid e) none of the above are true 81. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the theory of solutions? a) covalently bonded substance disperse in the solvent as individual molecules b) ionic substance usually dissolves as individual molecules c) dissolved molecules are considered to be hydrated d) energy is released in the formation of hydrated Ions or molecules 82. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a supersaturated solution? a) the concentration of solute is actually greater than that of a saturated solution under the same conditions b) is stable c) reverts to a saturated solution if a "seed" crystal of solute is added d) the excess solute crystallizes out of solution when a "seed" crystal of solute is added e) honey is an example of a supersaturated solution of sugar 83. Which of the following is NOT a step in crystallization? a) sample is dissolved in hot solvent to form a saturated solution b) solution is then filtered c) additional solvent added d) solution then cooled to induce crystallization of the purified solid. e) filter out the purified solid 84. Which of the following is true regarding molal freezing point depression? a) is the reduction of the normal freezing point due to the number of solute particles b) all molecular substances change the freezing point of a given solvent in an identical fashion c) a colligative property d) the dissolved solute also raises the boiling point of the solution e) the freezing point of the solution is higher than the pure solvent 85. Lead (II) ions are toxic to humans, with children being especially susceptible to such problems. The presence of 0.0010 g of Pb2+ in 2 L of blood is indicative of lead poisoning. Calculate the concentration of Pb2+ in moles per liter that would support a diagnosis of lead poisoning. a) 1.4 x 10-6 M b) 2.4 x 10-6 M c) 4.8 x 10-6 M d) 5.7 x 10-6 M e) 6.6 M 86. A 10.00 mL sample of blood contains 32.2 mg of sodium + ions (Na ). What is the sodium ion concentration in the blood sample in mol/L? a) 3.22 M b) 1.14 M c) 0.311 M d) 0.0574 M e) 0.140 M 87. How many milliliters of 0.1256 M NaOH are required to provide 1.852 g of NaOH? a) 369 mL b) 2.71 mL c) 49.2 mL d) 590 mL e) 125 mL 88. Which of the following is true regarding a weak base? a) produces few hydroxide ions b) readily accepts protons from other molecules or ions c) is mainly in the ionic form d) is less concentrated than a strong base e) donates just a few protons to another molecule or ion 89. Which of the following is a strong base? a) Cu(OH)2 b) Zn(OH) 2 c) NaOH d) Fe(OH)3 e) Al(OH)3 90. Which of the following is FALSE regarding neutralization point? a) is also known as the end point b) is the point where an acid or base is exactly neutralized c) is the point where exactly the same volume of acid or base is added d) part of the titration process e) none of the above are false 91. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a double arrow (<====>) in a chemical equation? a) a reverse reaction and a forward reaction b) both reactants and products are present c) an equilibrium exists d) there is a reverse reaction e) all the reactants can be converted into products 92. The following equation represents what kind of reaction? HCHO2(s) + H2O(l) <====> H3O+(aq) + CHO2-(aq) a) neutralization b) dissociation c) ionization d) equilibrium e) single replacement 93. Commercial baking soda is powdered sodium bicarbonate. A 25.00 mL sample of aqueous baking soda is neutralized to a methyl orange end point with 39.02 mL of 0.1002 N hydrochloric acid. What is the normality of the sodium bicarbonate in the baking soda solution? a) 15.58 N b) 0.5621 N c) 0.07820 N d) 0.5641 N e) 0.1564 N 94. The pH of a sample of blood is 7.4. What is the [OH-] in the sample? a) 7 x 10-4 M b) 2.5 x 10-7 M c) 4.0 x 10-8 M d) 7 x 10-8 M 95. The [H+] of a solution in a chemical processing plant must be between 0.014 and 0.020 M. To what pH range does this correspond? a) 2.4 to 3.0 b) 1.5 to 1.7 c) 1.7 to 1.9 d) 1.4 to 2.0 e) 2.0 to 4.0 96. Which of the following best describes the oxidation of a substance? a) gaining of hydrogen b) loss of protons c) gaining of electrons d) loss of oxygen e) loss of electrons 97. What is the oxidation number of the chlorine atom (Cl) in HClO2? a) 4+ b) 3+ c) 2+ d) 1+ e) 5+ 98. Zinc metal reacts vigorously with hydrochloric acid to produce a gas (H2) and aqueous zinc and chloride ions. What is the balanced net equation describing this process? + +2 a) 2 Zn + 2 H ---------> 2 Zn + H2(g) b) Zn + 2 H+ + 2 Cl- ---------> Zn2+ + Cl2 + H2(g) c) Zn + 2 H+ ---------> Zn2+ + H2(g) d) Zn + 2 H+ ---------> Zn2+ + 2 H(g) e) Zn + H+ ---------> Zn2+ + H(g) 99. Which process increases the atomic number of an element by one? A. gamma ray emission B. alpha particle emission C. beta particle emission D. positron emission E. electron capture 100. An alpha particle has a mass number of _____ and a charge of _____. A. 1, 2+ B. 2, 0 C. 4, 2+ D. 4, 0 E. 4, 0 101. Gamma rays are: A. high-energy electromagnetic radiation. B. H nuclei. C. electrons. D. He nuclei. E. positrons. 102. Alpha particles are equivalent to: A. He atoms. B. H atoms. C. electrons. D. positrons. E. He nuclei. 103. Beta particles are equivalent to: A. He nuclei. B. H atoms. C. electrons only. D. positrons only. E. either electrons or positrons. 104. Thorium-234 decays by alpha emission to form a new nuclide. Identify the new nuclide. A. radium-228 B. radium-230 C. protactinium-234 D. protactinium-230 E. thorium-232 105. What is the missing symbol in the following nuclear transformation? A. He B. He Li + n → _____ + He C. β + D. H E. H 106. What is the missing symbol in the following nuclear transformation? A. U B. Np C. Am D. Np E. Am Pu + n → _____ + β- 107. What is the missing symbol in the following nuclear transformation? A. At B. Bi C. Bi D. Pb E. Po Bi + He → _____ + 2 n 108. Select the most stable isotope from the following choices. A. O B. Si C. N D. C E. N 109. What type of radioactive decay would be expected for the unstable nuclide C? A. alpha particle emission B. beta particle (electron) emission C. positron emission D. gamma ray emission E. neutron emission