Download Final Exam Chemistry B2A Mr. Kimball`s Class 2003

Final Exam Chemistry B2A
Mr. Kimball’s Class 2003
Name: ___________________________
Mark the answer sheet on the last page of this
booklet with the UPPER CASE letter of the best answer from
the question below. Pleas write your name on the answer
sheet, tear it from the booklet and hand in both the answer
sheet and the booklet with your name written on both.
1. Which of the following is concerned with the composition
of matter and the changes it undergoes?
a) science
b) physics
c) biology
d) chemistry
e) mathematics
2. Which branch of chemistry would publish a research
paper by the title of "The Study of the Compounds of the
Element Plutonium?"
a) inorganic chemistry
b) physical chemistry
c) analytical chemistry
d) organic chemistry
e) biochemistry
3. Which branch of chemistry would publish a research
paper by the title of "The Thermodynamics of Cold Fusion in
Aqueous Solutions?"
a) biochemistry
b) physical chemistry
c) analytical chemistry
d) organic chemistry
e) inorganic chemistry
4. How many significant digits are indicated in 0.019 m?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
5. Which of the following correctly rounds 76,150 to three
(3) significant digits?
a) 761
b) 762
c) 76100
d) 76200
e) 760.
6. Which of the following rounds off 3.2465 to three
significant digits?
a) 3.20
b) 3.24
c) 3.25
d) 3.26
e) 3.23
7. Which of the following expresses 623,000 in scientific
notation?
a) 6.23 x 10-5
b) 62.3 x 104
c) 6.23 x 105
d) 0.623 x 106
8. A football field is 120 yards long. What is the length of a
football field expressed in meters? (1 foot = .305 meters and 3
ft. = 1 yard)
a) 36.7 m
b) 360. m
c) 110 m
d) 131 m
9. The highest recorded temperature in the world was
recorded at 331 K at Aziza, Libya, in the Sahara desert on
September 13, 1922. What is this temperature in oC?
a) -137 oC
b) 136 oC
c) 604 oC
d) 58 oC
10. A 5.00 mL sample of isopropyl alcohol (also known as
rubbing alcohol) has a mass of 3.930 g when measured at 20
o
C. What is the specific gravity (20oC) of isopropyl alcohol?
a) 1.97
b) 19.7
c) 0.786
d) 1.27
11. The specific gravity of a sample of concentrated nitric
acid is 1.42. What is the volume in liters at 20oC
occupied by 145.3 g of this concentrate nitric acid
a) 0.206 L
b) 0.102 L
c) 0.146 L
d) 102 L
e) .946 L
12. Which substance is characterized by definite and constant
composition and having definite and constant properties under
a given set of conditions?
a) element only
b) mixture only
c) compound only
d) compound and mixture
e) element and compound
13. What is the smallest particle of an element that has the
properties of that element?
a) atom
b) molecule
c) formula unit
d) electron
e) ion
14. What is the name for the element with the symbol Pb?
a) plutonium
b) plumbium
c) lead
d) iron
15. What is the name for the element with the symbol Sn?
a) sodium
b) lead
c) iron
d) tin
16. How many atoms in Sr3(PO4)2?
a) 11
b) 13
c) 10
d) 12
e) 14
17. A chocolate chip cookie is classified as which of the
following?
a) element
b) compound
c) mixture
d) none of the above
18. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?
a) aluminum
b) germanium
c) arsenic
d) antimony
19. Gold being malleable is an example of which of the
following?
a) physical property
b) chemical property
c) physical change
d) chemical change
20. Indium is a relatively soft, bluish-white metal with a
specific heat of 0.0568 cal/goC and a melting point of 155oC.
It is often used as a standard to calibrate instruments that
measure temperature and heat changes. How many calories of
heat energy are required to heat 0.9652 g of indium from
68.0oF to 311.0oF? Note the differing temperature units.
a) 17.1 cal
b) 7.40 cal
c) 8.50 cal
d) 13.3 cal
e) 118 cal
21. A cube of metal, measuring 1.25 cm on an edge, has a
mass of 12.011 g. What is the density of the metal?
a) 9.61 g/mL
b) 12.0 g/mL
c) 7.69 g/mL
d) 6.15 g/mL
e) 2.14 g/mL
22. Which of the following is FALSE regarding an electron?
a) has a relative charge of -1
b) is abbreviated ec) has a mass of approximately 1 amu
d) exists outside the nucleus
e) exists in energy levels
23. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the nucleus
of an atom?
a) a small, low density region
b) located at the center of an atom
c) contains protons and neutrons
d) has positive electrical charge
e) attracts electrons
24. Which of the following is a region in space within an
atom in which the protons and neutrons are found?
a) the nucleus
b) atomic volume
c) an orbital
d) orbital volumes in space
e) energy levels
25. Which of the following is equal to the sum of the protons
and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom?
a) atomic number
b) mass number
c) symbol number
d) atomic mass
26. Strontium 90 (Atomic number = 38) is an important and
lethal constituent of nuclear fallout. What is the number of
protons and electrons in strontium-90?
a) 90 protons and 90 electrons
b) 90 protons and 52 electrons
c) 38 protons and 90 electrons
d) 38 protons and 38 electrons
27. Elements in the same group in the periodic table have
which of the following?
a) similar chemical properties but different electron
configurations
b) extremely different chemical properties and
different electron configurations
c) extremely different chemical properties but
similar electron configurations
d) similar chemical properties and similar electron
configurations
e) none of the above
28. Within a given group there is a gradual change in
a) physical properties only
b) chemical properties only
c) both physical and chemical properties
d) no properties. All the members of a group have
the same physical and chemical properties
29. Which of the following are true regarding the
classification of silicon (Si) and tungsten (W)?
a) Si and W are both metalloids
b) Si is a metalloid and W is a metal
c) Si and W are both metals
d) Si is a nonmetal and Mg is a metal
e) Both are nonmetals
36. What is the shape of a Freon 12, (CCl2F2) molecule?
a) linear
b) trigonal planar
c) tetrahedral
d) bent
e) pyramidal
30. The element polonium (Po) is classified as a
a) metal
b) nonmetal
c) noble gas
d) metalloid (semimetal)
37. What is the shape of a CO2 molecule?
a) linear
b) trigonal planar
c) tetrahedral
d) bent
e) pyramidal
31. Which is more metallic, germanium or arsenic?
a) germanium is more metallic
b) arsenic is more metallic
c) both have the same metallic properties
d) there is no way to tell
e) neither have metallic properties
32. Which of the following is FALSE regarding an ionic
bond?
a) a type of chemical bond formed by the transfer of
one or more electrons
b) holds together (a) cation(s) and (an) anion(s).
c) forms because all the charges attract each other
d) results in the bonded atoms usually satisfying the
Rule of Eight and Rule of Two
e) the force of attraction between ion of opposite
charge which holds them together
33. Which of the following is NOT an important point
regarding the formation of all covalent compounds?
a) The properties of the individual uncombined
atoms differ from that of the compound.
b) there is a "transfer of electrons" with an overlap
of the electron orbitals.
c) Energy is required to break these compounds
apart.
d) the nuclei attract electrons to produce a more
stable molecule
e) the smallest unit is a molecule
34. Which of the following is NOT an important point
regarding the formation of all covalent compounds?
a) The properties of the individual uncombined
atoms differ from that of the compound.
b) there is "sharing of electrons" with an overlap of
the electron orbitals.
c) Energy is required to break these compounds
apart.
d) the nuclei attract electrons to produce a more
stable molecule
e) the smallest unit is a formula unit
35. Which one of the following is NOT written as diatomic
molecules?
a) Cl2
c) P2
e) I2
b) O2
d) N2
38. What is the correct formula for the compound formed by
the combination of magnesium ions (Mg2+) with phosphate
ions (PO43-)?
a) MgPO4
b) Mg(PO4)2
c) Mg3(PO4)2
d) 3MgPO4
39. What is the formula for the phosphate ion?
a) PO33b) PO43c) PO32d) P2O7240. Use the accompanying periodic table and your
knowledge of the formulas and charges on polyatomic ions to
determine the formula of calcium nitrite (nitrite = NO2-)
a) Ca2NO3
b) Ca(NO3)2
c) CaNO2
d) Ca(NO2)2
41. Use the accompanying periodic table to predict whether
the bonding in Mg(ClO4)2 and BBr3 is essentially ionic or
covalent.
a) Mg(ClO4)2 and BBr3, are both essentially ionic
b) Mg(ClO4)2 and BBr3, are both essentially
covalent.
c) Mg(ClO4)2 is essentially ionic and BBr3, is
essentially covalent.
d) Mg(ClO4)2 is essentially covalent and BBr3, is
essentially ionic.
42. Match the anion suffixes with their corresponding acid
suffixes.
(a) -ide = -ic, -ate = -ic and -ite = -ous
(b) -ide = -ic, -ate = -ous and - ite = -ic
(c) -ide = hydro _____ -ic, -ate = -ic and -ite = -ous
(d) All acids end in -ic
(e) it depends, the pattern is not always the same
43. Which of the following is the correct name for the
substance H2SO3?
(a) sulfuric acid
(b) hydrogen sulfide
(c) sulfurous acid
(d) hydrogen sulfite
(e) hydrosulfuric acid
44. Which of the following is NOT a correct or possible
formula of a compound?
(a) K2Cr2O7
(b) SO2
(c) K2CrO4
(d) HClO4
(e) AlSO4
45.Which of the following is NOT a correct or possible name
of a compound?
(a) aluminum acetate
(b) sodium hyperbromate
(c) calcium hydrogen phosphate
(d) copper (II) oxalate
(e) phosphorus tribromide
46.How many moles of sulfuric acid are in 9.56 x 1024
molecules of H2SO4?
a) 15.9 mol
b) 356 mol
c) 1560 mol
d) 9.56 x 1022 mol
e) 1588 mol
47. How many moles of lead (II) sulfate, PbSO4, are in 1.06
x 1022 formula units of lead (II) sulfate?
a) .176 mol
b) .0176 mol
c) 1.76 mol
d) 17.6 mol
e) .00176 mol
48. What is the mass in grams to three significant digits of
one atom of an isotope of silver with an atomic mass of 109
amu?
a) 109 g
b) 1.00 g
c) 6.02 x 1023 g
d) 5.52 x 10-24 g
e) 1.81 x 10-22 g
49. What is the mass of 8.56 x 1023 molecules of H2SO4?
a) 139 g
b) 5.05 x 1023 g
c) 69.6 g
d) 1.42 g
e) 98.01 g
50. How many formula units of Ca(NO3)2 are in 23.7 g?
a) 1.40 x 1023 formula units
b) 1.43 x 1024 formula units
c) 8.69 x 1022 formula units
d) 4.17 x 1025 formula units
51. Plaster of Paris is actually a form of calcium sulfate
(CaSO4). How many moles of CaSO4 are there in 534.2 g of
Plaster of Paris?
a) 3.922 mol
b) 6.057 mol
c) 7.276 x 10… mol
d) 0.2550 mol
e) 534.2 mol
52. Which of the following does NOT contain 9.06 x 1023
atoms?
a) 6.01 g of hydrogen
b) 18.1 g of carbon
c) 42.3 g of silicon
d) 312 g of lead
e) 53.4 g of chlorine (monatomic)
53. Which of the following does NOT contain 9.06 x 1023
atoms?
a) 1.50 g of hydrogen
b) 18.1 g of carbon
c) 42.3 g of silicon
d) 207 g of lead
e) 53.4 g of chlorine
54. Phosgene (COCl2) is a colorless and toxic gas that was
used as a weapon during World War I. What is its percent by
mass composition?
a) 33.3% C, 33.3% Cl, 33.3% O
b) 12.1% C, 71.7% Cl, 16.2% O
c) 18.9% C, 55.9% Cl, 25.2% O
d) 25.0% C, 50.0% Cl, 25.0% O
e) 30.0% C, 30.0% Cl, 40.0% O
55. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a catalyst?
a) increases the rate of a chemical reaction
b) only a negligible amount is consumed in
catalyzing the reaction
c) may appear above or below the reaction arrow in
the equation
d) is recovered unchanged at the end of the reaction
e) chlorophyll is one of nature's most important
catalysts
56. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the
guidelines for balancing chemical equations?
a) any coefficients that work should be used to
balance the equation
b) only use whole number coefficients in front of
formulas
c) balance the polyatomic ions that remain the same
on both sides
d) do not change the formulas once written
e) balance the H and O last
57. A type of chemical reaction in which one compound
breaks down to form two or more substances.
a) Combination
b) Decomposition
c) Single-replacement
d) double replacement
58. A type of chemical reaction in which two or more
substances react to produce a compound.
a) Combination
b) Decomposition
c) Single-replacement
d) double replacement
e) Neutralization
59. Which of the following conditions will NOT generally
occur in a double replacement reaction?
a) an insoluble product being formed
b) a weakly ionized product being formed
c) a gas being formed
d) a positive ion of one compound forms a
precipitate by bonding with a cation from another
compound
e) two compounds react together by exchanging
"partners"
60. When this equation is balanced, what are the coefficients?
___ Mg(ClO3)2 ------> ___ MgCl2 + ___ O2
a) 1,1,1
b) 1,1,3
c) 2,2,3
d) 1,1,6
e) 3,2,2
61.When this equation is balanced, what are the coefficients?
___ P4 + ___ O2 ------> ___ P2O5
a) 1,1,1
b) 5,1,2
c) 1,3,1
d) 2,1,3
e) 1,5,2
62. When this equation is balanced, what are the
coefficients?
___ CH2O + ___ O2 ------> ___ CO2 + ___ H2O
a) 1,2,1,1
b) 2,2,1,1
c) 2,1,1 ,1
d) 1,1,1,1
e) 1,0,3,1
63. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the
information obtained from a balanced equation?
a) the reactants and products
b) the molecules of reactants and products
c) the moles of reactants and products
d) the relative masses of the reactants and products
e) the volumes of gases if all measured at standard
temperature and pressure
64. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the actual
yield?
a) amount of product obtained in an actual chemical
reaction
b) it is always more than the theoretical yield
c) it differs from theoretical yield because of the
production of minor by-products
d) the amount really obtained
e) it differs from theoretical yield because of losses
in the isolation and purification stages
65.Which of the following is FALSE regarding percent yield?
a) percent of the theoretical yield actually obtained
b) it is expressed as the actual yield divided by the
theoretical yield with the result multiplied by 100
c) percent of the actual yield obtained
d) is always less than 100%
e) a useful calculation of interest to chemical
manufacturers
66. Which of the following is FALSE regarding energy and
chemical reactions?
a) an exothermic reaction is when heat energy is
absorbed
b) energy is measured in calories or joules
c) heat of reaction is the energy evolved or
absorbed for given amounts of reactant or product
d) an endothermic reaction is a reaction where heat
is absorbed
e) energy is conserved
67.Aluminum cans can be converted into alum [KAl(SO4)2 ·
12 H2O] and hydrogen gas via a very simple procedure
summarized by the overall equation given below. Alum is a
useful agent in water-proofing and hydrogen gas is a very
useful fuel. An aluminum soda pop can with a mass of 19.56 g
reacted with an excess of potassium hydroxide. What is the
volume at STP of the hydrogen gas produced?
2 Al (s) + 2 KOH (s) + 4 H2SO4(aq) + 10 H2O(l) =====>
2 KAl(SO4)2· 12 H2O(s) + 3 H2(g)
a) 16.2 L
b) 24.3 L
c) 10.9 L
d) 29.3 L
e) 34.6 L
68. ClO2 is a very hazardous gas (toxic and explosive) that is
used in the commercial preparation of sodium chlorite
(NaClO2), an important bleaching agent in the textile and
paper industry. ClO2 is prepared as described in the balanced
equation below. How many liters of ClO2 measured at STP
would be expected from 100.0 kg of NaClO3?
3 NaClO3(s) + H2SO4(l) =====> 2 ClO2(g) + H2O(l) +
Na2SO4(aq) + NaClO4(aq)
a) 3.17 x 103 L
b) 1.40 x 104 L
c) 14.0 L
d) 2.10 x 104 L
69. Gases that conform to the assumptions of the kinetic
theory are called
a) model gases
b) kinetic gases
c) ideal gases
d) real gases
e) just plain "gases"
70. A sample of helium gas occupies a volume of 24.9 mL
when measured at 20.9oC and 527 torr. What is the volume of
the gas in milliliters if the temperature is increased to 99.8oC
and the pressure remains constant?
a) 5.21 mL
b) 19.6 mL
c) 31.6 mL
d) 119 mL
e) 56.4 mL
71. A sample of gas occupies a volume of 13.7 L at 33.0oC
and 1.06 atm. What is the pressure of the gas in atm at 223oC
and a volume of 10.0 L?
a) 0.889 atm
b) 0.474 atm
c) 1.26 atm
d) 2.35 atm
e) 9.81 at,
72. A sealed container of neon gas is maintained at a pressure
of 143 mm Hg and a temperature of 225o C What will happen
to the pressure in the container (assuming no volume change)
if the temperature is raised to 1000oC?
a) the pressure will decrease to 32.2 mm Hg
b) the pressure will increase to 366 mm Hg
c) the pressure will increase to 636 mm Hg
d) the pressure will decrease to 55.9 mm Hg
e) The pressure will remain the same
73. Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of
solids?
a) very limited expansion
b) rigid definite shape
c) maintain a constant volume
d) practically incompressible
e) mix or diffuse very quickly
74.
Which of the following is an exothermic change?
a) evaporation
b) condensation
c) sublimation
d) melting
e) none of the above
75.
Which of the following is an endothermic change?
a) deposition
b) condensation
c) sublimation
d) freezing
e) none of the above
76. Which of the following is FALSE regarding freezing?
a) the temperature decreases slightly as the liquid
freezes
b) the kinetic energy of the particles decreases after
all of the liquid freezes
c) the particles become oriented in a definite
geometric pattern
d) heat energy is removed
e) the temperature at which a liquid becomes a solid
77. Liquid helium is used for cooling systems to very low
temperatures (4oK). How much heat energy (in kcal) is
absorbed when 1.0 L of liquid helium at 4oK is converted to
gaseous helium at 4oK? The molar heat of vaporization of
helium is 19.6 cal/mol and the density of liquid helium is
0.147 g/mL.
a) 33.3 kcal
b) 0.72 kcal
c) 2880 kcal
d) 0.88 kcal
e) 543 kcal
78. Which of the following observations about water is NOT
explained, in part, by hydrogen bonding?
a) Water has a relatively high melting point
compared to what one would predict.
b) Water has a bond angle of 105øC.
c) Water has a relatively high boiling point
compared to what one would predict.
d) Water has a relatively large heat of vaporization
compared to other compounds of similar size and
shape.
e) Water is soluble in other polar solvents such as
alcohols
79. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a solution?
a) is a homogeneous mixture
b) fixed composition
c) composed of a solute and solvent
d) each component of the solution retains its
original properties
e) involves two or more pure substances
80. Which of the following is true regarding the solvent in a
solution?
a) the dissolving substance in a solution
b) is usually present in lesser quantity than the
solute
c) disperses as individual molecules
d) is always a liquid
e) none of the above are true
81. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the theory of
solutions?
a) covalently bonded substance disperse in the
solvent as individual molecules
b) ionic substance usually dissolves as individual
molecules
c) dissolved molecules are considered to be
hydrated
d) energy is released in the formation of hydrated
Ions or molecules
82. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a
supersaturated solution?
a) the concentration of solute is actually greater
than that of a saturated solution under the same
conditions
b) is stable
c) reverts to a saturated solution if a "seed" crystal
of solute is added
d) the excess solute crystallizes out of solution
when a "seed" crystal of solute is added
e) honey is an example of a supersaturated solution
of sugar
83. Which of the following is NOT a step in crystallization?
a) sample is dissolved in hot solvent to form a
saturated solution
b) solution is then filtered
c) additional solvent added
d) solution then cooled to induce crystallization of
the purified solid.
e) filter out the purified solid
84. Which of the following is true regarding molal freezing
point depression?
a) is the reduction of the normal freezing point due
to the number of solute particles
b) all molecular substances change the freezing
point of a given solvent in an identical fashion
c) a colligative property
d) the dissolved solute also raises the boiling point
of the solution
e) the freezing point of the solution is higher than
the pure solvent
85. Lead (II) ions are toxic to humans, with children being
especially susceptible to such problems. The presence of
0.0010 g of Pb2+ in 2 L of blood is indicative of lead
poisoning. Calculate the concentration of Pb2+ in moles per
liter that would support a diagnosis of lead poisoning.
a) 1.4 x 10-6 M
b) 2.4 x 10-6 M
c) 4.8 x 10-6 M
d) 5.7 x 10-6 M
e) 6.6 M
86. A 10.00 mL sample of blood contains 32.2 mg of sodium
+
ions (Na ). What is the sodium ion concentration in the
blood sample in mol/L?
a) 3.22 M
b) 1.14 M
c) 0.311 M
d) 0.0574 M
e) 0.140 M
87. How many milliliters of 0.1256 M NaOH are required to
provide 1.852 g of NaOH?
a) 369 mL
b) 2.71 mL
c) 49.2 mL
d) 590 mL
e) 125 mL
88. Which of the following is true regarding a weak base?
a) produces few hydroxide ions
b) readily accepts protons from other molecules or
ions
c) is mainly in the ionic form
d) is less concentrated than a strong base
e) donates just a few protons to another molecule or
ion
89. Which of the following is a strong base?
a) Cu(OH)2
b) Zn(OH) 2
c) NaOH
d) Fe(OH)3
e) Al(OH)3
90. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
neutralization point?
a) is also known as the end point
b) is the point where an acid or base is exactly
neutralized
c) is the point where exactly the same volume of
acid or base is added
d) part of the titration process
e) none of the above are false
91. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a double
arrow (<====>) in a chemical equation?
a) a reverse reaction and a forward reaction
b) both reactants and products are present
c) an equilibrium exists
d) there is a reverse reaction
e) all the reactants can be converted into products
92. The following equation represents what kind of reaction?
HCHO2(s) + H2O(l) <====> H3O+(aq) + CHO2-(aq)
a) neutralization
b) dissociation
c) ionization
d) equilibrium
e) single replacement
93. Commercial baking soda is powdered sodium
bicarbonate. A 25.00 mL sample of aqueous baking soda is
neutralized to a methyl orange end point with 39.02 mL of
0.1002 N hydrochloric acid. What is the normality of the
sodium bicarbonate in the baking soda solution?
a) 15.58 N
b) 0.5621 N
c) 0.07820 N
d) 0.5641 N
e) 0.1564 N
94. The pH of a sample of blood is 7.4. What is the [OH-] in
the sample?
a) 7 x 10-4 M
b) 2.5 x 10-7 M
c) 4.0 x 10-8 M
d) 7 x 10-8 M
95. The [H+] of a solution in a chemical processing plant must
be between 0.014 and 0.020 M. To what pH range does this
correspond?
a) 2.4 to 3.0
b) 1.5 to 1.7
c) 1.7 to 1.9
d) 1.4 to 2.0
e) 2.0 to 4.0
96. Which of the following best describes the oxidation of a
substance?
a) gaining of hydrogen
b) loss of protons
c) gaining of electrons
d) loss of oxygen
e) loss of electrons
97. What is the oxidation number of the chlorine atom (Cl) in
HClO2?
a) 4+
b) 3+
c) 2+
d) 1+
e) 5+
98. Zinc metal reacts vigorously with hydrochloric acid to
produce a gas (H2) and aqueous zinc and chloride ions. What
is the balanced net equation describing this process?
+
+2
a) 2 Zn + 2 H ---------> 2 Zn + H2(g)
b) Zn + 2 H+ + 2 Cl- ---------> Zn2+ + Cl2 + H2(g)
c) Zn + 2 H+ ---------> Zn2+ + H2(g)
d) Zn + 2 H+ ---------> Zn2+ + 2 H(g)
e) Zn + H+ ---------> Zn2+ + H(g)
99. Which process increases the atomic number of an element
by one?
A. gamma ray emission
B. alpha particle emission
C. beta particle emission
D. positron emission
E. electron capture
100. An alpha particle has a mass number of _____ and a
charge of _____.
A. 1, 2+
B. 2, 0
C. 4, 2+
D. 4, 0
E. 4, 0
101. Gamma rays are:
A. high-energy electromagnetic radiation.
B. H nuclei.
C. electrons.
D. He nuclei.
E. positrons.
102. Alpha particles are equivalent to:
A. He atoms.
B. H atoms.
C. electrons.
D. positrons.
E. He nuclei.
103. Beta particles are equivalent to:
A. He nuclei.
B. H atoms.
C. electrons only.
D. positrons only.
E. either electrons or positrons.
104. Thorium-234 decays by alpha emission to form a new
nuclide. Identify the new nuclide.
A. radium-228
B. radium-230
C. protactinium-234
D. protactinium-230
E. thorium-232
105. What is the missing symbol in the following nuclear
transformation?
A.
He
B.
He
Li +
n → _____ +
He
C. β +
D. H
E. H
106. What is the missing symbol in the following nuclear
transformation?
A.
U
B.
Np
C.
Am
D.
Np
E.
Am
Pu +
n → _____ +
β-
107. What is the missing symbol in the following nuclear
transformation?
A.
At
B.
Bi
C.
Bi
D.
Pb
E.
Po
Bi +
He → _____ + 2
n
108. Select the most stable isotope from the following
choices.
A.
O
B.
Si
C.
N
D.
C
E.
N
109. What type of radioactive decay would be expected for the
unstable nuclide
C?
A. alpha particle emission
B. beta particle (electron) emission
C. positron emission
D. gamma ray emission
E. neutron emission