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1. The G0 phase is
A) another name for interphase
B) the checkpoint before G1
C) the state of most cells in an animal body
D) a permanent state of all body cells
1) only D is valid
2) only C is valid
3) only A is valid
4) only B is valid
5) none (A-D) is valid
2. Exocytosis is a process by which cells
1) pass substances out of the cell through the membrane by diffusion
2) release substances directly into the extracellular fluid through a pore
3) release substances directly into the extracellular fluid through a pit
4) pass substances out of the cell in vesicles
5) identify substances in the environment
3. Crossing-over can occur between homologues during
1) anaphase I
2) metaphase I
3) prophase II
4) metaphase II
5) pr ophase I
4. The function of mRNA is to
1) transport amino acids to the ribosome
2) provide a site for polypeptide synthesis
3) translate DNA
4) transcribe DNA
5) tr avel to the r ibosome to dir ect the assembly of polypeptides
5. Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a
1) histone
2) genetisome
3) nucleolus
4) nucleotide
5) nucleosome
Correct answers are marked with red
Biology
7. In transcription, the nucleotide sequence CAT in DNA would specify in mRNA
1) CAT
2) GAU
3) TAC
4) GUA
5) GTU
8. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term 2pq represents the frequency of the
1) dominant allele
2) heter ozygotes
3) recessive allele
4) recessive homozygotes
5) dominant homozygotes
9. Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused by a nondisjunction resulting in a genotype of
A) XXY
B) XXX
C) YYY
D) XYY
1) only D is valid
2) only A is valid
3) none (A-D) is valid
4) only B is valid
5) only C is valid
10. Which of the following are mismatched
1) gamete-n
2) zygote-n
3) sperm cell-n
4) somatic cells-2n
5) haploid-n
Correct answers are marked with red
6. During synapsis
A) sister chromatids pair at the centromeres
B) homologues pair all along their length
C) homologues repel each other except at the ends
D) sister chromatids pair all along their length
1) only C is valid
2) only B is valid
3) none (A-D) is valid
4) only A is valid
5) only D is valid
12. In the process of transcription in prokaryotes
1) rRNA is specified by exons in DNA
2) mRNA is formed as coded by introns
3) the base sequence of DNA is copied into tRNA
4) a str and of mRNA is for med with base sequences complementar y to those of
DNA
5) a polypeptide is formed as specified by the genes in a chromosomes
13. Which phase of mitosis is associated with separation of chromatids?
1) anaphase
2) metaphase
3) prophase
4) telophase
5) interphase
14. Even though sickle-cell anemia is usually fatal to homozygous individuals, the disease
persists because
1) a combination of all of the above
2) the disease is carried on a dominant allele
3) individuals with one allele for sickle-cell anemia ar e r esistant to malar ia
4) none of the above
5) gene therapy has alleviated the condition
15. Most cells are very small. A typical eukaryotic cell, both plant and animal, will occur in
which of the following size ranges?
1) 100 nm to 10 nm
2) 1 µm to 100 nm
3) 1 mm to 100 µm
4) 100 µm to 10 µm
5) 10 µm to 1 µm
16. Which of the following is not part of a human chromosome in any phase?
1) euchromatin
2) centromere
3) centr iole
4) nucleosome
5) histone
Correct answers are marked with red
11. Ribosomes are found
1) attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum only
2) attached to the smooth endoplasmic r eticulum and in the cytoplasm
3) only in eukaryotic cells
4) only in the nucleus
5) in the cytoplasm only
18. An individual who has two of the same allele is said to be
1) heterozygous
2) heterologous
3) diplozygous
4) homozygous
5) homologous
19. Mitochondrial enzymes for oxidative metabolism are
1) on or within the surface of cr istae
2) in mitochondrial lysosomes
3) floating freely in intermembrane space
4) in the matrix
5) located on the outer membrane
20. The term "homologous chromosomes"
A) means a pair of chromosomes of the same kind, such as sex chromosomes
B) is another name for sister chromatids
C) must be haploid
D) refers to replications of the same chromosome
1) only D is valid
2) only B is valid
3) none (A-D) is valid
4) B, C are valid
5) only A is valid
21. The function of tRNA is to
1) provide a site for polypeptide synthesis
2) travel to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides
3) transcribe DNA
4) translate DNA
5) tr anspor t amino acids to the r ibosome
Correct answers are marked with red
17. Passage through pores in the nuclear envelope is restricted primarily to
1) DNA and RNA
2) lipids and glycolipids
3) marker proteins for the plasma membrane
4) pr oteins, RNA, and pr otein-RNA complexes
5) RNA and protein-carbohydrate complexes
23. In eukaryotes, the "start" codon also specifies the amino acid
A) phenylalanine
B) methionine
C) valine
D) aspartate
1) C, D are valid
2) only C is valid
3) B, D are valid
4) only A is valid
5) only B is valid
24. The sodium-potassium pumps in plasma membrane transfer in each cycle
1) three sodium ions in and two potassium ions out
2) one potassium ion out and two sodium ions in
3) thr ee sodium ions out and two potassium ions in
4) one sodium ion out and one potassium ion in
5) two potassium ions in and two sodium ions out
25. The Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to
1) identify target plasmids
2) seal "sticky ends"
3) amplify a small amount of DNA
4) none of the above
5) cleave bacterial plasmids
Correct answers are marked with red
22. In the DNA molecule
A) adenine pairs with thymine
B) cytosine pairs with thymine
C) adenine pairs with cytosine
D) guanine pairs with thymine
1) only D is valid
2) only C is valid
3) only A is valid
4) only B is valid
5) all (A-D) are valid
26. How many mL of NaOH (c = 0.40 mol/L) are needed to react completely with 80 mL of
H 2 SO 4 (c = 0.0125 mol/L)?
1) 5.0
2) 20.0
3) 12.5
4) 2.5
5) 7.5
27. Calculate the concentration of H 3 O+ (mol.dm -3 ) in a solution of NaOH that was prepared
by dilution of 2,5 cm3 of stock solution of NaOH (pH 12) to final volume of 25 cm3.
1) 0.005
2) 0.01
3) 0.001
4) 10-11
5) 10-13
28. Choose compound with the highest number of oxygen atoms in its molecule:
1) dihydroxy propanone
2) uracil
3) benzoic acid
4) ethylene glycol
5) ethanedioic acid
29. What type of hybridization is typical of ethyne?
1) sp3
2) does not hybridize
3) sp
4) sp2
5) dsp3
30. The oxidation of β-hydroxybutanoic acid results in
1) an ester
2) an unsaturated acid
3) an anhydride
4) a lactone
5) an oxo acid
31. Ca(ClO) 2 is
1) calcium perchlorate
2) calcium chloride
3) calcium hypochlor ite
4) calcium hypochloride
5) calcium chlorite
Correct answers are marked with red
Chemistr y
33. Propenoic acid
A) could be hydrated to a keto acid
B) is a dicarboxylic acid
C) forms cis-trans isomers
D) is an unsaturated acid
1) A, D are valid
2) only B is valid
3) only D is valid
4) none (A-D) is valid
5) A, C, D are valid
34. Hydrogen bonds
A) stabilize molecule of DNA
B) are formed between molecules of water
C) decrease the ability of hydrofluoric acid to dissociate
D) are formed between two atoms of hydrogen
1) A, D are valid
2) only B is valid
3) C, D are valid
4) all (A-D) are valid
5) A, B, C ar e valid
35. Let us have reaction Zn + 2 AgNO 3 → 2 Ag + Zn(NO 3 ) 2 . Choose (a) true
statement/s about this reaction:
A) it is a neutralization reaction
B) zinc nitrate is not soluble in aqueous solution
C) Zn a Ag are solids
D) zinc is a reducing agent
1) all (A-D) are valid
2) A, B are valid
3) A, C are valid
4) C, D ar e valid
5) only D is valid
Correct answers are marked with red
32. Choose (a) compound/s containing (a) chiral carbon atom/s:
A) glucose
B) 2-hydroxy butanoic acid
C) 1,3-dihydroxy propanone
D) benzene
1) only A is valid
2) B, C are valid
3) A, B ar e valid
4) B, D are valid
5) all (A-D) are valid
37. CH 3 – COO – CH 2 – CH 3 could be named
A) ethylacetate
B) ethyl methyl ketone
C) butanone
D) ethyl methyl ester
1) A, D are valid
2) only B is valid
3) only A is valid
4) B, C are valid
5) none (A-D) is valid
38. BaSO 4
A) is a strong reducing agent
B) absorbs X-rays
C) is soluble in water
D) is called gypsum
1) A, D are valid
2) A, B are valid
3) C, D are valid
4) only C is valid
5) only B is valid
39. Choose a heterocycle with two nitrogen atoms in its molecule:
1) imidazole
2) pyrane
3) purine
4) indol
5) pyridine
40. How many gr ams of silver nitrate would you have to weigh to prepare 50 g of silver
bromide? You would prepare silver bromide as precipitate by adding silver nitrate to
potassium bromide. (A.m.: Ag = 108; O = 16; N = 14; K = 39; Br = 80)
1) 22.6
2) 45.2
3) 100.0
4) 73.9
5) 55.3
Correct answers are marked with red
36. Balance redox reaction given: potassium dichromate + potassium iodide + hydrochloric
acid → iodine + chromium trichloride + potassium chloride + water
1) 3, 3, 14 → 6, 2, 8, 7
2) 1, 3, 14 → 3, 1, 8, 7
3) 3, 5, 3 → 3, 5, 3, 6
4) 1, 6, 14 → 3, 2, 8, 7
5) 1, 3, 7 → 3, 1, 4, 7
42. Choose (a) true statement/s about H 2 N – CH 2 – CH 2 – NH 2 :
A) it is a secondary amine
B) it is methylene diamine
C) it is an amide
D) it is ethane, 1,2-diamine
1) A, D are valid
2) A, B are valid
3) only B is valid
4) only C is valid
5) only D is valid
43. Choose (a) oxidising agent/s:
A) potassium
B) hydrochloric acid
C) sodium hypochlorite
D) fluorine
1) none (A-D) is valid
2) C, D ar e valid
3) only A is valid
4) B, D are valid
5) A, C are valid
44. How many gr ams of sodium bicarbonate are needed to prepare 500 mL of solution
(c=0.125 mol/L)? A.m.: Na = 23; O = 16; H = 1; C = 12
1) 13.36
2) 10.50
3) 5.25
4) 6.63
5) 16.00
45. Choose a true statement about aqueous solution of sodium sulphate in association with
pH :
1) pH < 7
2) [H 3 O+] < [OH-]
3) sodium sulphate is insoluble in water
4) [OH -] = 10-7 mol/L
5) [H 3 O+] > [OH-]
Correct answers are marked with red
41. What is the oxidation number of manganese in potassium permanganate ?
1) 2
2) 6
3) 1
4) 4
5) 7
47. Glycerol
A) is a derivative of propane
B) is a derivative of benzene
C) could be oxidized to a ketone
D) contains three hydroxy groups in its molecule
1) C, D are valid
2) B, D are valid
3) A, C are valid
4) only B is valid
5) A, C, D ar e valid
48. The most typical reaction of toluene is
1) anhydride formation
2) electr ophilic substitution
3) esterification
4) polymerization
5) reduction
49. Choose (a) compound/s with summary formula C 4 H 10 O:
A) butan-1-ol
B) butanone
C) ethoxyethane
D) butanal
1) only C is valid
2) A, B, D are valid
3) A, C ar e valid
4) none (A-D) is valid
5) B, D are valid
50. Choose the strongest acid from those mentioned below:
1) 3-chlorpropanoic acid
2) 4-chlorbutanoic acid
3) benzylchloride
4) dichlor acetic acid
5) acetylchloride
Correct answers are marked with red
46. Ribose
A) contains an aldehyde group in its molecule
B) is a hexose
C) is a component of sucrose
D) is a monosaccharide
1) only B is valid
2) only A is valid
3) none (A-D) is valid
4) all (A-D) are valid
5) A, D ar e valid
51. What is the energy of a photon of red light (663 nm)?
1) 7·10-18 J
2) 5·10-17 J
3) 3·10-19 J
4) 6·10-10 J
5) 4·10-12 J
52. An object (weight 10 kg) is floating in the pool. 20 % of the volume of this object is
under the water level. Calculate the density of this object.
1) 200 kg/m 3
2) 400 kg/m3
3) 800 kg/m3
4) 100 kg/m3
5) 600 kg/m3
53. An object is falling down from the tower of the height 100 m (air resistance is
negligible). Its speed in the point A is 3 m/s and in the point B is 5 m/s. Find the distance
AB.
1) 18.6 m
2) 0.815 m
3) 8.15 m
4) 2.58 m
5) 1.86 m
Correct answers are marked with red
Physics
Use only the values of constants provided in the test. Round the final result, not the partial
result in the middle of your calculations. The result should be rounded to three valid digits if
not specified otherwise. The results have to be presented in the main (derived SI) physical
units if not specified otherwise.
Use these constants:
(pi) = 3.14
g = 9.81 m.s-2
R = 8.314 J.K-1.mole-1
k = 1.381*10-23 J.K-1
0 oC = 273.15 K
e = 1.602*10-19 C
h = 6.63*10-34 J.s
m e = 9.11*10-31 kg
relative atomic mass of oxygen = 16
Avogadro’s number = 6.023*1023 mole-1
permittivity of vacuum = 8.854*10-12 F.m-1
heat thermal capacity of water = 4186 J.K-1.kg-1
specific latent heat of fusion (melting) of water = 334 000 J.kg-1
density of water = 1000 kg.m-3
refractive index of water = 1.5
speed of light in air = 3*108 m.s-1
55. An alpha particle is accelerated by the voltage 100 kV. Calculate the maximum change of
kinetic energy of this particle (express result in keV).
1) 300 keV
2) 500 keV
3) 400 keV
4) 200 keV
5) 100 keV
56. A disc of diameter 2 m rotates with the frequency 100 Hz. What is the speed of the point
on the surface of disc 1 m from the axis of rotation?
1) 1260 m/s
2) 314 m/s
3) 628 m/s
4) 591 m/s
5) 15.9 m/s
57. An ideal heat engine operates with reservoir temperature between 200 oC and 50 oC.
Calculate its efficiency.
1) 25 %
2) 31.7 %
3) 42.3 %
4) 17.8 %
5) 75 %
58. What is the activity of 1 nmole of radionuclide with the half life 100 hours?
1) 3.64 MBq
2) 1.16 GBq
3) 4.08 MBq
4) 2.32 GBq
5) 5.27 kBq
59. The intensity level of the sound of human speech is 40 dB. What is the intensity level of
the sound in the classroom where all 50 students are just talking?
1) 90 dB
2) 57 dB
3) 2000 dB
4) 68 dB
5) 79 dB
Correct answers are marked with red
54. 10 m long copper wire of resistance 100 ohm is divided into 10 same length pieces. What
is the total resistance of the parallel connection of these pieces?
1) 10 ohm
2) 100 ohm
3) 1 ohm
4) 0.01 ohm
5) 0.1 ohm
Correct answers are marked with red
60. The pressure of gas of temperature 10 oC in reservoir is 100 kPa. Calculate the pressure
in reservoir when the temperature increases by 10 oC?
1) 104 kPa
2) 50.0 kPa
3) 200 kPa
4) 96.6 kPa
5) 144 kPa
61. Find the constants a and b so that all the 4 lines (equations are given below) pass through
the same point.
x + y = -1
-x + 3y = -11
ax + by = 4
2ax - by = 2
1) a=-2/3, b=-2
2) a=3/4, b=1
3) a=1, b=-2/3
4) a=3, b=2
5) a=-2, b=3/2
62. Find the slope of the tangent at (0,2) to the circle with equation (x + 2)2 + (y + 1)2 = 13.
1) - 2/3
2) 2/3
3) 3/2
4) 3/5
5) - 3/2
63. What function could be graphically expressed by hyperbola?
A) exponential
B) logaritmic
C) linear
D) periodic
1) only B is valid
2) none (A-D) is valid
3) only C is valid
4) only A is valid
5) only D is valid
64. Find the line which has the same distance from the points (3,4) and (-1,2).
1) 4x+y=8=0
2) 2x-3y+7=0
3) x-4y-3=0
4) 3x+2y-5=0
5) y+2x-5=0
Correct answers are marked with red
Mathematics
66. Find the line which is the axis of symetry of these functions: y=log x and y=10x.
1) x+y+1=0
2) x-y-1=0
3) x-y=0
4) x+y=0
5) no answer is correct
67. Let us have exponential function y= 100*10-2x. Transform this function to the new
system of coordinates x and log y. What is the x coordinate of the intersection of the
function with x axis in the new system of coordinates?
1) 4
2) 3
3) 1
4) 2
5) 5
68. What is the sum of slopes of two lines which are perpendicular to two lines given by
equations 3x+4y-5=0 and 6x-4y+10=0?
1) -3/2
2) 3/4
3) 2/3
4) 1
5) -4/3
69. The intensity Id of a radiation decreases with thickness of absorber d according to the
formula Id = I0 ∙e -d, where I0 is the original intensity (d= 0). Find the thickness d for
which the intensity Id = 0.25 ∙ I0.
1) ln16
2) ln1
3) ln8
4) ln4
5) ln2
Correct answers are marked with red
65. The blood groups of 400 patients are distributed as follows: 100 have blood group A, 140
have blood group B, 90 have blood group O and 70 have blood group AB. If a patient
from this experimental group of 400 patients is randomly selected, what is the probability
that this patient does not have A or B blood group?
1) 0.25
2) 0.6
3) 0.35
4) 0.5
5) 0.4
Correct answers are marked with red
70. Calculate the area of cycle given by equation x2+y2-4x-6y+4=0.
1) 16π
2) 9π
3) 2π
4) 6π
5) 4π