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GENERAL PSYCHOLOGY: 2002 final
EVERYTHING: must be filled out with a No. 2 pencil on an NCS answer sheet, form no. 4521 (blue scantron).
NAME: print last name, leave a blank, then print first name, and fill in the corresponding bubble for each letter.
IDENTIFICATION NUMBER: write the last four digits of your Social Security Number (or Student Number)
in columns A, B, C, D, and fill in the corresponding bubble for each digit.
ANSWER: fill in one bubble for each question (total 100 questions).
Hand in the blue scantron form. You should mark the question sheets and keep them for yourself to compare
with the correct answers, which will be posted on "http://dove.ccs.fau.edu/~dawei/PSY2002".
1.
2.
Which psychological specialty is most directly concerned with the
systematic study of problem solving, decision making, concept
formation, and forming judgments?
A)
developmental psychology
B)
social psychology
C)
clinical psychology
D)
cognitive psychology
E)
personality psychology
While completing a final exam, Karen labels her arousal as
energizing, whereas Mike labels his arousal as threatening. The
emotional experiences of the two test takers are likely to differ
the most with respect to:
A)
duration.
B)
intensity.
C)
adaptation level.
D)
valence.
3.
Chimpanzees are capable of learning to:
A)
understand spoken words.
B)
string signs together into a meaningful sequence.
C)
use computer keyboards to communicate with other
chimps.
D)
do all the above.
4.
Specific interpretations of the emotional significance of nonverbal
behaviors are risky because:
A)
there is very little relationship between cognition and
emotion.
B)
specific nonverbal responses may be associated with a
variety of different emotions.
C)
people typically attempt to conceal their true feelings.
D)
there is very little relationship between specific emotions
and specific facial expressions.
5.
6.
A general sense of happiness or life satisfaction is most
unrelated to whether or not people:
A)
exercise regularly.
B)
sleep well.
C)
are well educated.
D)
have a happy marriage.
E)
have a meaningful religious faith.
Cheryl's boyfriend says he loves her, but she wants proof. In
order to obtain the most trustworthy nonverbal signals of how he
really feels, Cheryl should carefully observe:
A)
his general body posture when he stands near her.
B)
the way he holds her hand when they walk together.
C)
how close he stands to her when they are talking.
D)
his facial expressions when they spend time together.
E)
the way he positions his legs when he sits near her.
Page 1
7.
Natural disasters and nuclear accidents trigger ________ rates
of heart attacks and ________ rates of depression.
A)
decreased; decreased
B)
increased; increased
C)
decreased; increased
D)
increased; decreased
8.
Joshi has been experiencing severe headaches and his
physician strongly recommends that he enroll in a stressmanagement class. The physician has probably diagnosed
Joshi's headaches as a(n) ________ disorder.
A)
hereditary
B)
psychophysiological
C)
immune system
D)
hypochondriacal
9.
The tendency for one's preexisting opinions to distort logical
reasoning is known as:
A)
belief bias.
B)
functional fixedness.
C)
framing.
D)
the availability heuristic.
E)
linguistic relativity.
10.
Word meaning is to word order as ________ is to ________.
A)
concept; prototype
B)
phoneme; grammar
C)
morpheme; phoneme
D)
semantics; syntax
E)
nomenclature; semantics
11.
In the process of classifying objects, people are especially likely
to make use of:
A)
algorithms.
B)
phonemes.
C)
prototypes.
D)
mental sets.
12.
The white blood cells that fight bacterial infections and attack
cancer cells and viruses are called:
A)
lymphocytes.
B)
glial cells.
C)
teratogens.
D)
stress hormones.
E)
steroids.
13.
Prolonged stress due to sustained child abuse is associated with
reductions in the size of the:
A)
adrenal cortex.
B)
temporal lobe.
C)
cerebellum.
D)
hippocampus.
14.
In order to more closely mimic human thought processes than
they now do, computers of the future must have the capacity for:
A)
the parallel processing of information.
B)
following precise rules of logic.
C)
using heuristics to solve problems.
D)
retrieving detailed facts from memory.
E)
using algorithms to solve problems.
23.
The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion places more emphasis on
the importance of ________ than does the James-Lange theory.
A)
cognitive activity
B)
facial expression
C)
physiological arousal
D)
catharsis
24.
Four-year-old Sarah told her mom, "The doggy runned away."
Which theory would most likely emphasize the significance of
Sarah's misapplication of a grammatical rule?
A)
Frisch's biological theory
B)
Skinner's language acquisition theory
C)
Whorf's linguistic relativity theory
D)
Chomsky's language acquisition theory
25.
Pigeons can reliably discriminate pictures of cars from pictures of
chairs. This best illustrates their capacity to develop:
A)
concepts.
B)
syntax.
C)
heuristics.
D)
mental sets.
E)
algorithms.
15.
Japanese citizens are less likely than Americans to express their
feelings of anger nonverbally. This cultural difference best
reflects the Japanese culture's greater emphasis on:
A)
privacy.
B)
happiness.
C)
personal meditation.
D)
interdependence.
E)
verbal communication.
16.
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system ________
respiration and ________ salivation.
A)
increases; increases
B)
increases; decreases
C)
decreases; decreases
D)
decreases; increases
17.
The first phase of the general adaptation syndrome is:
A)
stress appraisal.
B)
resistance.
C)
alarm.
D)
exhaustion.
E)
adjustment.
26.
According to the two-factor theory, the two basic components of
emotions are ________ and ________.
A)
facial expressions; cognitive labels
B)
emotion-arousing events; physical arousal
C)
physical arousal; overt behavior
D)
cognitive labels; physical arousal
18.
Research on the language capabilities of apes indicates that
they cannot:
A)
translate spoken words into signs.
B)
acquire a vocabulary of more than two dozen signs.
C)
use signs to communicate with other members of their own
species.
D)
grammatically order language symbols as well as most 3year-old children.
27.
In terms of ability to recognize others' facial expressions of
emotion, introverts do ________ than extraverts and women do
________ than men.
A)
better; better
B)
worse; better
C)
better; worse
D)
worse; worse
28.
19.
After being physically aroused by his daily 3-mile run, Casper
finds that he experiences stronger resentment if his wife asks for
an unexpected favor and more intense romantic feelings if she
kisses him. Casper's experience can best be explained by the:
A)
two-factor theory.
B)
James-Lange theory.
C)
Cannon-Bard theory.
D)
opponent-process theory.
E)
adaptation-level principle.
In their classic 9-year study, Friedman and Rosenman reported
that, compared to Type A men, Type B men were ________
susceptible to ________.
A)
more; stomach ulcers
B)
less; stomach ulcers
C)
more; heart attacks
D)
less; heart attacks
29.
Many bilinguals experience a different sense of self, depending
on which language they are using. This most clearly illustrates
the implications of:
A)
Whorf's linguistic relativity hypothesis.
B)
Skinner's language acquisition theory.
C)
Bandura's social-cognitive theory.
D)
Chomsky's language acquisition theory.
30.
After two minutes of exposure to an unbroken, monotone string
of nonsense syllables, infants could recognize three-syllable
sequences that appeared repeatedly. This best illustrates the
importance of ________ in language development.
A)
reinforcement
B)
inborn universal grammar
C)
statistical learning
D)
imitation
31.
Two-year-old Stephen's sentences—"Dad come," "Mom laugh,"
and "Truck gone"—are examples of:
A)
babbling.
B)
artificial grammar.
C)
telegraphic speech.
D)
universal grammar.
20.
21.
22.
According to Chomsky, the fact that young children
overgeneralize certain rules of grammatical structure suggests
that:
A)
language skills are not developed simply through the
processes of imitation and reinforcement.
B)
language acquisition does not proceed in an orderly
sequence.
C)
language acquisition develops normally even in the
absence of social interaction.
D)
parents overemphasize correct grammatical usage.
Hans Selye referred to the body's response to stress as:
A)
the fight-or-flight response.
B)
the general adaptation syndrome.
C)
Type B behavior.
D)
psychophysiological illness.
E)
burnout.
The various vowel sounds that can be placed between a "t" and
an "n" produce words such as tan, ten, tin, and ton. These
various vowel sounds represent different:
A)
morphemes.
B)
prototypes.
C)
phonemes.
D)
semantics.
E)
phenotypes.
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32.
The fact that people from widely different cultures display and
interpret facial expressions of emotion in a similar manner best
illustrates the impact of:
A)
human genetic similarities.
B)
the adaptation-level phenomenon.
C)
cognition on emotion.
D)
opponent-processes.
E)
the worldwide distribution of American television
programming.
33.
Karl von Frisch discovered that ________ communicate by
means of an intricate dance.
A)
ants
B)
honeybees
C)
spiders
D)
flamingos
E)
butterflies
34.
Our most rapid and automatic emotional responses may result
from the routing of sensory input from the thalamus directly to
the:
A)
hippocampus.
B)
hypothalamus.
C)
cerebellum.
D)
brainstem.
E)
amygdala.
35.
Which of the following illustrates an application of artificial
intelligence?
A)
a computer that enables apes to communicate with
humans
B)
a computer-controlled system that simulates the sound of
human voices
C)
a computer programmed to play chess
D)
All the above are applications of artificial intelligence.
36.
The emotion of anger is characterized by negative valence and
________ arousal.
A)
high
B)
positive
C)
low
D)
negative
37.
The release of large amounts of epinephrine, norepinephrine,
and cortisol:
A)
decreases chronic hypertension.
B)
diverts blood flow from muscle tissue to the body's internal
organs.
C)
inhibits the buildup of plaques on artery walls.
D)
suppresses the production of lymphocytes.
38.
39.
40.
A chess-playing computer program that routinely calculates all
possible outcomes of all possible game moves best illustrates
problem solving by means of:
A)
the availability heuristic.
B)
belief perseverance.
C)
an algorithm.
D)
the representativeness heuristic.
E)
functional fixedness.
The use of heuristics rather than algorithms is most likely to:
A)
save time in arriving at solutions to problems.
B)
yield more accurate solutions to problems.
C)
minimize the overconfidence phenomenon.
D)
involve greater reliance on language skills.
During an emergency, increasing levels of emotional arousal are
likely to be accompanied by:
A)
decreases in blood sugar levels.
B)
slowing of digestion.
C)
increases in salivation.
D)
constriction of pupils to increase visual acuity.
E)
decreases in respiration rate.
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41.
Semantics refers to the:
A)
logical and methodical procedures for solving problems.
B)
orderly arrangement of words into grammatically correct
sentences.
C)
rule-of-thumb strategies that facilitate quick decision
making.
D)
derivation of meaning from morphemes, words, and
sentences.
42.
The spontaneous utterance of a variety of sounds by infants is
called:
A)
universal grammar.
B)
babbling.
C)
telegraphic speech.
D)
semantics.
43.
After spending 2 hours trying to solve an engineering problem,
Amira finally gave up. As she was trying to fall asleep that night,
a solution to the problem popped into her head. Amira's
experience best illustrates:
A)
the belief perseverance phenomenon.
B)
the availability heuristic.
C)
insight.
D)
the framing effect.
E)
confirmation bias.
44.
Binet and Terman would have been most likely to disagree about
the:
A)
extent to which intelligence is determined by heredity.
B)
need to standardize intelligence tests.
C)
possibility of predicting people's academic success from
intelligence test scores.
D)
extent to which individuals differ in their intellectual
abilities.
45.
Twenty-five-year-old Carmella is mentally handicapped and can
neither read nor write. However, after hearing lengthy, unfamiliar,
and complex musical selections just once, she can reproduce
them precisely on the piano. It is likely that Carmella is:
A)
gifted with a high level of Spearman's g factor.
B)
gifted with a high level of creativity.
C)
suffering from Down syndrome.
D)
someone with savant syndrome.
46.
The test created by Alfred Binet was designed specifically to:
A)
measure inborn intelligence in adults.
B)
measure inborn intelligence in children.
C)
predict school performance in children.
D)
identify mentally retarded children so that they could be
institutionalized.
E)
do all of the above.
47.
Gerardeen has superb social skills, manages conflicts well, and
has great empathy for her friends and co-workers. Peter Salovey
and John Mayer would probably say that Gerardeen possesses
a high degree of:
A)
g.
B)
social intelligence.
C)
practical intelligence.
D)
emotional intelligence.
48.
Sandra completed the Computer Programming Aptitude Test
when she applied for a position with Beta Electronics. Six
months later, she took the same test when she applied for a
position with another company. The fact that her scores were
almost identical on the two occasions suggests that the test has
a high degree of:
A)
content validity.
B)
reliability.
C)
predictive validity.
D)
standardization.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
Which of the following provides the strongest evidence of the
role of heredity in determining intelligence?
A)
The IQ scores of identical twins raised separately are very
similar.
B)
The intelligence scores of fraternal twins are more similar
than those of ordinary siblings.
C)
The intelligence scores of identical twins raised together
are more similar than those of identical twins raised apart.
D)
The intelligence scores of adopted children show relatively
weak correlations with scores of adoptive as well as
biological parents.
According to the text, what can be concluded from early
intelligence testing in the United States?
A)
Most European immigrants were "feeble-minded."
B)
Army recruits of other than West European heritage were
intellectually deficient.
C)
The tests were biased against people who did not share
the culture assumed by the test.
D)
Both a. and b. could be concluded.
Tests of ________ measure what an individual can do now,
whereas tests of ________ predict what an individual will be able
to do later.
A)
aptitude; achievement
B)
achievement; aptitude
C)
reliability; validity
D)
validity; reliability
Psychologists assess the correlation between scores obtained
on two halves of a single test in order to measure the ________
of a test.
A)
validity
B)
reliability
C)
standardization
D)
normal distribution
E)
factor analysis
Binet and Simon designed a test of intellectual abilities in order
to:
A)
provide a quantitative estimate of inherited intellectual
potential.
B)
distinguish between academic and practical intelligence.
C)
identify children likely to have difficulty learning in school.
D)
assess general capacity for goal-directed adaptive
behavior.
54.
Five-year-old Jaime performs on an intelligence test at a level
characteristic of an average 4-year-old. Jaime's mental age is:
A)
4.
B)
4.5.
C)
5.
D)
80.
E)
125.
55.
Tests designed to predict ability to learn new skills are called
________ tests.
A)
achievement
B)
interest
C)
reliability
D)
standardized
E)
aptitude
56.
If a test is standardized, this means that:
A)
it accurately measures what it is intended to measure.
B)
a person's test performance can be compared with that of
a pretested group.
C)
most test scores will cluster near the average.
D)
the test will yield consistent results when administered on
different occasions.
Page 4
57.
The bell-shaped pattern that represents the frequency of
occurrence of intelligence test scores in the general population is
called a:
A)
standardization sample.
B)
reliability coefficient.
C)
factor analysis.
D)
normal curve.
E)
savant syndrome.
58.
A test that measures or predicts what it is supposed to is said to
have a high degree of:
A)
validity.
B)
standardization.
C)
reliability.
D)
normality.
59.
Twenty-two-year-old Tawana is slightly overweight and loves to
eat, particularly snack foods and rich desserts. Fearful of
becoming overweight, she frequently takes a laxative after eating
too much. Tawana most clearly suffers from:
A)
bulimia nervosa.
B)
anorexia nervosa.
C)
extrinsic motivation.
D)
an abnormally high set point.
E)
hypermetabolism.
60.
Supervisors who give employees informative compliments for
effective performance are likely to ________ the employees'
________.
A)
increase; need for social approval
B)
decrease; extrinsic motivation
C)
decrease; intrinsic motivation
D)
increase; intrinsic motivation
61.
Motivation is best understood as a state that:
A)
reduces a drive.
B)
aims at satisfying a biological need.
C)
energizes an organism to act.
D)
energizes and directs behavior.
62.
Needs are ________ correlated with ________.
A)
positively; incentives
B)
negatively; incentives
C)
positively; drives
D)
negatively; drives
63.
It has been said that the body's major sex organ is the brain.
With regard to sex education:
A)
transmission of value-free information about the wide
range of sexual behaviors should be the primary focus of
the educator.
B)
transmission of technical knowledge about the biological
act should be the classroom focus, free from the personal
values and attitudes of researchers, teachers, and
students.
C)
the home, not the school, should be the focus of all
instruction about reproductive behavior.
D)
people's attitudes, values, and morals cannot be separated
from the biological aspects of sexuality.
64.
Over the past 50 years, American women have expressed
________ satisfaction with their physical appearance and have
experienced a(n) ________ incidence of serious eating
disorders.
A)
increasing; decreasing
B)
increasing; increasing
C)
decreasing; decreasing
D)
decreasing; increasing
65.
Ali's parents have tried hard to minimize their son's exposure to
sweet, fattening foods. If Ali has the occasion to taste sweet
foods in the future, which of the following is likely?
A)
He will have a strong aversion to such foods.
B)
He will have a neutral reaction to sweet foods.
C)
He will display a preference for sweet tastes.
D)
It is impossible to predict Ali's reaction.
66.
Which of the following is not typical of both anorexia and
bulimia?
A)
far more frequent occurrence in women than in men
B)
preoccupation with food and fear of being overweight
C)
weight significantly and noticeably outside normal ranges
D)
low self-esteem and feelings of depression
67.
Yang just spent an evening watching pornographic movies of
attractive women who actually seemed to enjoy being sexually
molested. This experience is most likely to lead Yang to:
A)
see his own girlfriend as sexually unreceptive.
B)
perceive himself as sexually impotent.
C)
be more willing to hurt women.
D)
feel unsure about his gender identity.
E)
view sexual promiscuity as morally wrong.
68.
69.
Motivation is defined by psychologists as:
A)
an impulse to accomplish something of significance.
B)
rigidly patterned behavioral urges characteristic of all
people.
C)
a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior
toward a goal.
D)
the cause of behavior.
Fixed patterns of behavior characteristic of a species and
developed without practice are called:
A)
intrinsic motives.
B)
drives.
C)
instincts.
D)
extrinsic motives.
E)
incentives.
70.
A need refers to:
A)
a physiological state that usually triggers motivational
arousal.
B)
an aroused or activated state that is often triggered by a
psychological need.
C)
anything that is perceived as having positive or negative
value in motivating behavior.
D)
a desire to perform a behavior due to rewards or threats of
punishment.
E)
a rigidly patterned behavioral urge characteristic of all
people.
71.
An aroused or activated state that is often triggered by
physiological need is called a(n):
A)
instinct.
B)
incentive.
C)
drive.
D)
intrinsic motive.
72.
For a thirsty person, drinking water serves to reduce:
A)
homeostasis.
B)
a drive.
C)
an instinct.
D)
extrinsic motivation.
E)
metabolic rate.
73.
74.
Joe has an intense, irrational fear of snakes. He is suffering from
a(n):
A)
generalized anxiety disorder.
B)
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)
phobia.
D)
mood disorder.
E)
bipolar disorder.
According to the medical model, psychological disorders are:
A)
sicknesses that need to be diagnosed and cured.
B)
maladaptive responses to a troubling environment.
C)
purely imaginary symptoms of distress.
D)
learned habits that need to be extinguished.
Page 5
75.
The early warning signs of schizophrenia, based on studies of
high-risk children, include all but which of the following?
A)
having a severely schizophrenic mother
B)
having been separated from parents
C)
having a short attention span
D)
having matured physically at a very early age
76.
Frequent nightmares, insomnia, and the intrusion of painful
memories are symptoms most commonly associated with:
A)
bipolar disorder.
B)
dissociative disorder.
C)
anorexia nervosa.
D)
post-traumatic stress disorder.
E)
histrionic personality disorder.
77.
A condition in which an individual is overexcited, hyperactive,
and wildly optimistic is known as:
A)
paranoia.
B)
a manic episode.
C)
a panic attack.
D)
catatonia.
78.
Wilma is extremely agitated because she hears voices that tell
her to sexually seduce the male nurses in her hospital ward.
Wilma is most clearly suffering from:
A)
a dysthymic disorder.
B)
an obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)
delusions of grandeur.
D)
a dissociative disorder.
E)
hallucinations.
79.
Claiming that she heard a voice commanding her to warn other
people that eating is harmful, Sandy attempts to convince others
in a restaurant not to eat. The psychiatrist to whom she is
referred finds that Sandy's thinking and speech are often
fragmented and incoherent. In addition, Sandy has an
unreasonable fear that someone is "out to get her" and
consequently trusts no one. Her condition is most indicative of:
A)
schizophrenia.
B)
generalized anxiety disorder.
C)
a phobia.
D)
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
E)
personality disorder.
80.
Which of the following provides evidence that human fears have
been subjected to the evolutionary process?
A)
Compulsive acts typically exaggerate behaviors that
contributed to our species' survival.
B)
Most phobias focus on objects that our ancestors also
feared.
C)
It is easier to condition some fears than others.
D)
All of the above provide evidence.
81.
Many psychologists dislike using DSM-IV because of its:
A)
failure to emphasize observable behaviors in the
diagnostic process.
B)
learning theory bias.
C)
medical model bias.
D)
psychoanalytic bias.
E)
social-cultural bias.
82.
The discovery that psychologically disordered behavior could
result from syphilis infections facilitated the credibility and
acceptance of:
A)
trait theory.
B)
psychoanalytic theory.
C)
the medical model.
D)
DSM-IV.
E)
the social-cognitive perspective.
83.
DSM-IV is a widely used system for:
A)
identifying the causes of psychological abnormality.
B)
distinguishing sanity from insanity.
C)
treating depression.
D)
classifying psychological disorders.
E)
doing all the above.
84.
When children are told that certain classmates are learning
disabled, they may behave in ways that inhibit the success of
these students in the classroom. This best illustrates the dangers
of:
A)
delusions.
B)
the medical perspective.
C)
linkage analysis.
D)
self-fulfilling prophecies.
E)
the psychoanalytic perspective.
85.
Dorothy is so alarmed by spiders and insects that she avoids
most outdoor activities and even refuses to enter the basement
of her own house alone. Dorothy appears to suffer from a(n):
A)
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B)
histrionic personality disorder.
C)
dissociative disorder.
D)
mood disorder.
E)
phobia.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
Major depression is most likely to be characterized by:
A)
delusions of persecution.
B)
a massive dissociation of self from ordinary
consciousness.
C)
alternations between extreme hopelessness and
unrealistic optimism.
D)
a persistent irrational fear of other people.
E)
feelings of personal worthlessness.
Those who idealize their dating partners as having many virtues
and few faults actually tend to develop more satisfying
relationships than do those who are more realistic. This best
illustrates the social significance of:
A)
the mere exposure effect.
B)
self-fulfilling prophecies.
C)
the fundamental attribution error.
D)
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
E)
mirror-image perceptions.
The gradually escalating levels of destructive obedience in the
Milgram experiments best illustrate one of the potential dangers
of:
A)
deindividuation.
B)
social facilitation.
C)
the bystander effect.
D)
the fundamental attribution error.
E)
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
Class members are asked to work cooperatively in groups on
major course papers. Every member of a group is to receive
exactly the same grade based on the quality of the group's
paper. This situation is most likely to lead to:
A)
social loafing.
B)
social facilitation.
C)
deindividuation.
D)
the bystander effect.
E)
the fundamental attribution error.
Conformity resulting from the acceptance of others' opinions
about reality is said to be a response to:
A)
group polarization.
B)
social facilitation.
C)
informational social influence.
D)
normative social influence.
E)
deindividuation.
An overwhelming desire for harmony in a decision-making group
increases the probability of:
A)
social facilitation.
B)
the mere exposure effect.
C)
the bystander effect.
D)
groupthink.
E)
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
Page 6
92.
When 68-year-old Mrs. Blake had a flat tire on a fairly isolated
highway, she received help from a passerby in less than 10
minutes. One year later, she had a flat tire on a busy freeway
and an hour elapsed before someone finally stopped to offer
assistance. Mrs. Blake's experience best illustrates:
A)
the fundamental attribution error.
B)
the mere exposure effect.
C)
group polarization.
D)
the bystander effect.
E)
social loafing.
93.
Cognitive dissonance theory is most helpful for understanding:
A)
the mere exposure effect.
B)
group polarization.
C)
the fundamental attribution error.
D)
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
E)
the bystander effect.
94.
Violent male criminals tend to have relatively ________ levels of
serotonin and ________ levels of testosterone.
A)
low; high
B)
high; low
C)
low; low
D)
high; high
95.
Italo has voluntarily done a number of favors for his new
neighbor. As a result, Italo is likely to show:
A)
increased feelings of deindividuation.
B)
decreased feelings of deindividuation.
C)
increased liking for his neighbor.
D)
decreased liking for his neighbor.
E)
a lowered sense of self-esteem.
96.
The text defines social psychology as the scientific study of how
people ________ one another.
A)
understand, feel about, and behave toward
B)
think about, influence, and relate to
C)
observe, understand, and communicate with
D)
understand, predict, and control
E)
perceive, think about, and talk about
97.
Victor explains that his brother's aggressive behavior results
from his brother's insecurity. Victor's explanation of his brother's
behavior is an example of:
A)
the reciprocity norm.
B)
deindividuation.
C)
the bystander effect.
D)
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
E)
an attribution.
98.
The tendency for observers to underestimate the impact of the
situation and to overestimate the impact of personal dispositions
upon another's behavior is called:
A)
the bystander effect.
B)
the fundamental attribution error.
C)
deindividuation.
D)
ingroup bias.
E)
the mere exposure effect.
99.
Beliefs and feelings that predispose us to respond in particular
ways to objects, people, and events are called:
A)
roles.
B)
norms.
C)
attitudes.
D)
attributions.
100.
Solomon Asch asked people to identify which of three
comparison lines was identical to a standard line. His research
was designed to study:
A)
the mere exposure effect.
B)
the fundamental attribution error.
C)
social facilitation.
D)
deindividuation.
E)
conformity.
Answer Key -- 2002final
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
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31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
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44.
45.
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50.
D
D
D
B
C
D
B
B
A
D
C
A
D
A
D
B
C
D
A
A
B
C
A
D
A
D
A
D
A
C
C
A
B
E
C
A
D
C
A
B
D
B
C
A
D
C
D
B
A
C
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
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B
B
C
A
E
B
D
A
A
D
D
C
D
D
C
C
C
C
C
A
C
B
C
A
D
D
B
E
A
D
C
C
D
D
E
E
B
E
A
C
D
D
D
A
C
B
E
B
C
E