Download Env. Geol Entrance Exam Part 1 – Multiple Choice / True

Env. Geol Entrance Exam
Part 1 – Multiple Choice / True-False
Place all answers on scantron.
1. The nucleus of an atom contains
a. protons and neutrons.
b. protons and electrons.
c. neutrons and electrons.
d. protons, neutrons, and electrons.
2. The most common rock-forming minerals in the crust are
a. carbonates.
b. silicates.
c. sulfates.
d. sulfides.
3. With increasing distance from an oceanic ridge,
a. the rocks become older.
b. the rocks become younger.
c. the rocks' ages alternate between younger and older.
d. Any of these patterns is possible.
4. At a convergent plate boundary,
a. sea floor is produced by spreading
b. high mountains may be built during continent-continent collision.
c. there are very few earthquakes.
d. all of these
5. A hot spot is
a. an isolated area of intense volcanic activity over which a plate moves.
b. an area of unusually strong earthquakes.
c. a strongly magnetic section of sea floor.
d. a place where sea floor is destroyed.
6. Silicates rich in iron and/or magnesium are termed
a. cations.
b. feldspars.
c. ferromagnesian.
d. magnetite.
7. Native elements are those elements that
a. do not have more than one isotope.
b. are found naturally in the earth.
c. are common in rocks of the United States.
d. occur as minerals consisting of a single element.
8. Magma that is erupted at the earth's surface is termed:
a. lava.
b. coarse-grained.
c. sedimentary.
d. granite.
9. The locations and ages of islands in the Hawaiian Island chain can be
used to show
a. the direction of drift of North America.
b. the rate and direction of movement of the Pacific Plate.
c. the size of earthquakes to be expected in the Pacific Ocean.
d. all of these
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10. Paleomagnetic studies are based on the fact that
a. the magnetic poles have moved all over the globe.
b. motions of the continents can cause reversals of earth's magnetic
field.
c. when iron-bearing minerals crystallize, they align themselves
parallel to the lines of force of the earth's magnetic field.
d. all of these
11. Typical rates of plate movement are on the order of
a. 2 to 3 centimeters per year.
b. 2 to 3 meters per year.
c. 2 to 3 kilometers per year.
d. 2 to 3 miles per year.
12. Which of the following is NOT a mineral (think of definition)?
a. quartz
b. mica
c. ice
d. oil
13. Evidence for plate tectonics includes
a. polar-wander curves.
b. magnetic "stripes" on the sea floor.
c. fossil correlation between continents.
d. all of these
14. The two classes of sedimentary rocks are chemical and
a. metamorphic.
b. clastic.
c. volcanic.
d. precipitated (from solution).
15. The age of the earth is approximately
a. 450,000 years.
c. 4.5 Billion yrs
b. 4.5 million years.
d. 20 billion yrs
16. Which of the following is NOT a feature of divergent plate boundaries?
a. rising magma
b. subduction
c. transform faults
d. earthquakes
17. Oceanic lithosphere
a. is made of alternating bands of granite and basalt.
b. is made totally of sandstone and marine fossils
c. records magnetic "stripes" of normally and reversely magnetized
rocks.
d. moves gradually toward the midocean ridges, where it is consumed.
18. Clastic sedimentary rocks are formed
a. from the broken-up fragments of preexisting rocks.
b. from chemicals dissolved in solution.
c. at very high temperatures because the grains must be fused
together to make rock.
d. All of these are true.
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19. An example of a chemical sedimentary rock is
a. granite.
c. Basalt.
b. limestone.
d. Graphite
20. Sea floor is created at spreading ridges and destroyed
a. at divergent boundaries.
b. in transform faults.
c. in subduction zones.
d. at the equator.
21. A plutonic igneous rock is one that has erupted from a volcano and is
very fine-grained. A. True
B. False
22. It is impossible to know the internal composition or structure of the
earth because geologists cannot sample the interior.
A. True
B. False
23. Clastic sedimentary rocks are classified or named on the basis of the
size of the fragments that form the rock. A. True
B. False
24. Along a transform fault, between offset segments of a spreading
ridge, two plates are moving together in the same direction.
A. True
B. False
25. The sulfide mineral group includes many valuable ores such as lead and zinc.
A. True
B. False
26. The Himalaya Mountains were formed by repeated volcanic eruptions
over a zone of hot spots. A. True
B. False
27. Earthquakes occur at subduction zones, but volcanoes do not because
the subducted lithosphere is pushed deep into the mantle.
A. True
B. False
28. Given a scale of 1:24,000, 5 inches on a map is equal to 10 miles on the ground.
A. True
B. False
29. Contour lines will always make a V when crossing a stream, and the vertex of the V will
point upstream.
A. True
B. False
30. Rocks are aggregates of one or more minerals.
A. True
B. False
31. In any uncombined atom, the number of protons equals the number of electrons.
A. True
B. False
32. The crust under the ocean bottom is thinner that the crust under the
continental surface A. True
B. False
33. Lines of latitude:
a) are called meridians
b) are used in dividing time
zones
c) are rarely parallel
d) run east and west
e) converge at the poles
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34. Which of the following examples of fractional scales represent
the smallest scale map?
a) 1:1,000,000
d) 1:125,000
b) 1:100,000
e) 1:48,000
c) 1:24,000
35. Given a scale of 1:24,000, 6000 feet on the ground equals how
many inches on the map?
a) 6
d) 0.25
b) 12
e) 3
c) 4
36. Which of the following is NOT true of contouring elevation
data?
a) all points on a contour line d) contour lines always
lie at the same elevation
"V" downstream
b) contour lines never cross one e) contour lines may
another
never split apart
c) contour lines may close on
themselves
37. Which two elements are most abundant in the earth's crust?
a) iron, aluminum
d) silica, magnesium
b) oxygen, silica
e) all of the above
c) oxygen, aluminum
38. The oceanic crust is predominantly comprised of which of the
following rock types?
a) granite
d) diorite
b) limestone
e) basalt
c) gneiss
39. Which of the following examples of fractional scales represent the largest aereal land
coverage?
a) 1:1,000,000
d) 1:125,000
b) 1:100,000
e) 1:48,000
c) 1:24,000
40. Because they travel through the earth, body waves cause the most
structural damage during earthquakes. A. True B. False
41. Landslides may be triggered by earthquakes or by heavy rains.
A. True B. False
42. The removal of vegetation usually makes soil covered slopes more
stable because it removes excess weight.
A. True B. False
43. Volcanic ash and gases are warm; therefore, when large quantities of
these are put into the air, the atmosphere warms up worldwide.
A. True B. False
44. Most human activities tend to reduce flood hazards, so the frequency
of floods of a given size has been decreasing for nearly all streams. A. True B. False
45. Chemical weathering is ineffective in polar regions.
A. True B. False
46. Clay minerals are a product of chemical weathering.
A. True B. False
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47. Slump is an imperceptibly slow, downhill flow of soil.
A. True B. False
48. The gradient of a river usually decreases downstream.
49. Sediment deposited by rivers is termed alluvium.
A. True B. False
A. True B. False
50. Point bars are deposited on the outer side of a meander.
A. True B. False
51. The cut bank is a zone of active erosion located on the inside of a meander.
A. True B. False
52. Chemical weathering would be most effective:
A. in a warm, dry climate
B. in a cold, dry climate
C. in a warm, humid climate
D. has the same effectiveness in any kind of climate
53. Which one of these is not true about mechanical weathering?
A. produces smaller pieces
B. adds to the effectiveness of chemical weathering
C. may lead to the formation of talus slopes
D. does not affect metamorphic rocks
54. The incorporation and transportation of material by water, wind, or ice describes the
process of:
A. weathering
D. sheeting
B. erosion
E. none of these
C. mass wasting
55. The transfer of rock material downslope under the influence of gravity is termed:
A. weathering
D. exfoliation
B. erosion
E. hydrolysis
C. mass wasting
56. When water freezes, its volume: A. increases B. decreases C. remains unchanged
57. Soil consists of:
A. mineral matter
B. organic matter
C. air and water
D. all of the above
E. both a and b, but not c
58. Which of these statements best describes slump?
A. slippage of a mass of material moving as a unit along a curved
surface with backward rotation.
B. blocks of bedrock sliding down a slope
C. a rapid flowage of debris containing a large amount of water and
most common in arid, mountainous areas
D. a slow, downhill movement of soil and regolith
E. none of these
59. The vertical drop of a stream channel over a certain distance defines:
A. discharge
D. gradient
B. laminar flow
E. alluvium
C. runoff
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60. If you were to examine the longitudinal profile of a typical river, you would probably
find that the gradient is:
A. steepest near the mouth
B. steepest near the head
C. about the same at both the head and the mouth
D. none of these
61. At a bend in a river, the main erosion is:
A. on the outside of the bend C. both outside and inside the bend
B. on the inside of the bend D. at an oxbow lake
62. As stream discharge increases:
A. stream velocity, channel width, and channel depth all increase
B. stream velocity increases but channel width and depth decrease
C. stream velocity, channel width, and channel depth all decrease
D. channel depth increases but channel width and stream velocity decrease
E. none of the above
63. The bedload of a stream most likely consists of:
a. boulders
d. pebbles
b. clay and silt
e. very coarse sand
c. dissolved ions
64. Water penetrating into soil promotes chemical weathering by acting as a
weak _.
a. acid
d. neutral agent
b. base
e. catalyst
c. saline solution
65. The dominant naturally occuring atmospheric gas that is most responsible for chemical weathering processes is:
a. carbon dioxide
d. nitrogen
b. oxygen
e. none of the above
c. argon
66. A list of sediment in decreasing order of size is:
a. sand, clay, silt, gravel
b. gravel, silt, clay, sand
c. gravel, sand, silt, clay
d. clay, sand, silt, gravel
67. The steepest angle that can be assumed by loose weathered debris
is known as:
a. angle of response
b. equilibrium slope
c. hillslope angle
d. none of the above
68. The largest intrusive body is called:
a. batholith b. laccolith c. stock
d. dike
e. sill
69. Which one of these intrusive structures is tabular and cross-cuts layers?
a. batholith b. laccolith c. stock d. dike e. sill
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70. When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from
its source. The source is also referred to as the:
a. inertial point d. seismic zone
b. wave front
e. none of these
c. focus
71. Which one of these statements is true concerning primary waves?
a. travel only in solids
b. travel faster than S waves
c. are responsible for most of the destruction associated with an
earthquake
d. cannot be recorded on a seismograph
e. travel slower than surface waves
72. The position of the earth's surface directly above the earthquake
source is called:
a. epicenter
d. seismic site
b. inertial point
e. wave front
c. focus
73. S waves are not transmitted through this layer:
a. crust
d. mantle
b. inner core
e. low velocity zone
c. outer core
74. Crater Lake, Oregon, is an example of a _ in volcanic terminology:
a. lava flow
b. peak
c. caldera
d. batholith
e. neck
75. The nature of a volcanic eruption is determined largely by the of the magma.
a. pressure
b. color
c. density
d. chemistry e. none
76. Outpouring of magma from a long crack in the lithosphere is a
a. pyroclastic eruption.
b. nuee ardente.
c. fissure eruption.
d. cascade volcano.
77. A cutoff meander is also known as
a. a drainage basin.
b. an oxbow.
c. a floodplain.
d. a discharge.
78. A volcano built of many thin flows of fluid lava is a
a. shield volcano.
b. volcanic dome.
c. cinder cone.
d. subduction zone volcano.
79. Liquefaction is
a. flooding of coastal areas due to tectonic subsidence.
b. a quicksand like condition arising in some wet soils during
earthquakes.
c. flooding caused by tsunamis.
d. flooding caused by dam failure resulting from an earthquake.
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80. Volcanic ash, cinders, and bombs are examples of __________ material.
a. plutonic
b. phreatic
c. fissure
d. pyroclastic
81. How well a concrete structure withstands an earthquake depends on
a. the basic design of the structure.
b. the length of the main shock.
c. the material on which the structure is built.
d. all of these
82. The principal source of evaporated water that becomes precipitation is
a. streams
b. glacier ice
c. the oceans
d. volcanic eruptions
83. Caves most commonly form in:
A. limestone D. granite
B. sandstone E. shale
C. gneiss
84. What is the phreatic zone?
A. zone where are pores are filled with water.
B. zone where all fractures are filled with water.
C. zone where spaces within sediments contain both water and air.
D. zone where atmospheric pressure is greater than hydrostatic
E. both A and B
85. How high will the level of water in wells drilled into an unconfined aquifer rise?
A. 10 feet above the water table
B. 20 feet below the potentiometric surface
C. level with the water table
D. to the surface of the Earth
E. the well will be dry
86. What feature is formed by tributaries to the main glacier after retreat in an alpine setting?
A. U-shaped valleys
B. glacial troughs
C. hanging valleys
D. paternoster lakes
E. fjord
87. As you leave the ship dock and head out to sea, which seafloor feature will you be sailing
over first?
A. continental rise
B. continental slope C. abyssal plain
D. continental shelf E. midocean ridge
88. This fundamental principle of geology is commonly summarized as the "present is the key to
the past"
A. uniformitarianism
B. catastrophism
D. superposition
C. radiometric dating
E. relative dating
89. The formation of the Hawaiian Islands is associated with:
A. divergent boundaries
D. no plate boundary of any kind
B. convergent boundaries
E. both a and b
C. transform fault boundaries
90. A tombolo is a sand bar that completely closes of the mouth of a bay. A. True B. False
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Short Answer / Problem Solving
Name______________
1. An earthquake occurs on the coast of Japan, the tsunami generated travels at a speed
of 750 km/hr. A distant shoreline is located 1250 nautical miles away from the epicenter.
What is the maximum warning time the coastal community will have to evacuate to
higher ground. Answer in hours and minutes. Show all of your math work.
(Conversions: 1 nautical mile = 1.15 statute miles, 10 km = 6.2 statute miles).
2. A saline solution is mixed by adding 0.5 kg of potassium chloride to 2.3 liters of water.
Determine the salt concentration for the following units (show all of your math work).
o/oo ___________________
ppm ___________________
ppb
___________________
molarity __________________
parts per thousand
parts per million
parts per billion
moles / liter
Data from periodic table:
Potassium = Group 1 on period chart
Atomic No. of Potassium = 19
Atomic Wt. of Potassium = 39 AMU
No. of Valence Electrons = 1
Chlorine = Group 7 on periodic chart
Atomic No. of Chlorine = 17
Atomic Wt. of Chlorine = 35
No. of Valence Electrons = 7
Density of water = 1 gram/ml = 1 kg/L
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