Download Exam #4_REVIEW-11042016-LW

BIOL 1406: GENERAL BIOLOGY I. LECTURE EXAM #4 REVIEW QUESTIONS
1) What defines a genome?
Section: 13.1
2) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
Section: 13.2
3) A triploid cell contains sets of three homologous chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42
chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following? Section: 13.2
4) In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which
of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?
Section: 13.2
Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure below to answer the following question(s).
5) Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?
Section: 13.2
6) Which of the life cycles is typical for most fungi and some protists? Section: 13.2
7) Homologous chromosomes _____. Section: 13.2
8) When we first see chiasmata under a microscope, we know that _____.
Section: 13.3
Refer to the drawings in the figure below of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during
various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following questions.
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9) Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis?
Section: 13.3
Refer to the information and figure below to answer the following question(s).
A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on
chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in
the figure.
10) A certain female's number 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long
gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following?
Section: 13.3
11) In meiosis, homologous chromosomes are separated during _____.
Section: 13.3
12) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism?
13) For the duration of meiosis I, each chromosome _____.
Section: 13.3
Section: 13.3
14) Homologous pairs of chromosomes align opposite of each other at the equator of a cell during _____.
Section: 13.3
15) Centromeres split and sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles in meiosis _____. Section: 13.3
16) Quaking aspen can send out underground stems for asexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction is not as common, but
when it does happen, the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the cells of the
underground stems?
Section: 13.3
17) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs during _____.
Section: 13.4
18) Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of _____.
Section: 13.4
19) What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?
Section: 14.1
20) What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
Section: 14.1
21) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype
AaBbCCDdEE?
Section: 14.1
22) Which of the following statements about independent assortment and segregation is correct? Section: 14.1
23) Mendel accounted for the observation that traits that had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2
generation by proposing that _____. Section: 14.1
24) The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most
probably indicates which of the following? Section: 14.1
25) Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases
of cell division?
Section: 14.1
26) Mendel's second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I?
Section: 14.1
Use the figure and the following description to answer the question(s) below. Work out the Punnett’s square and them
solve the problems.
In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves,
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and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding, dark-leaved plant is
crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is
diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in the figure, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to
each box within the square.
27) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?
Section: 14.1
28) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype? Section: 14.1
29) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants that will be true-breeding?
Section: 14.1
30) Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties?
Section: 14.1
31) Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but
both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). What is the probability that their first child will
be an albino?
Section: 14.1
32) When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow seeded. When he
took these F1 yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants, what genotypic ratio was expected?
Section: 14.1
33) Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What
proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent with genotype AABBCc?
Section: 14.2
34) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs, what is the probability that the following parents, AABbCc ×
AaBbCc, will produce an AaBbCc offspring?
Section: 14.2
35) Suppose two AaBbCc individuals are mated. Assuming that the genes are not linked, what fraction of the offspring are
expected to be homozygous recessive for the three traits?
Section: 14.2
36) Which of the following describes the ability of a single allele to have multiple phenotypic effects?
37) Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?
Section: 14.3
Section: 14.3
38) A gene for the MN blood group has codominant alleles M and N. If both children are of blood type M, which of the
following is possible?
Section: 14.3
39) Marfan syndrome in humans is caused by an abnormality of the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Patients are usually
very tall and thin, with long spindly fingers, curvature of the spine, sometimes weakened arterial walls, and
sometimes ocular problems, such as lens dislocation. Which of the following would you conclude about Marfan
syndrome from this information?
Section: 14.3
40) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual cannot appropriately metabolize the
amino acid phenylalanine. This amino acid is not naturally produced by humans. Therefore, the most efficient and
effective treatment is which of the following?
Section: 14.4
The following questions refer to the pedigree chart in the figure below for a family, some of whose members exhibit
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the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.
41) What is the genotype of individual II-5?
Section: 14.4
The figure below shows the pedigree for a family. Dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two
major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis. Males are
represented by squares, females by circles.
42) From this pedigree, this trait seems to be inherited _____.
Section: 14.4
43) Which of the following statements is a correct explanation for the observation that all offspring exhibit a phenotype
for a particular trait that appears to be a blend of the two parental varieties? Section: 14.3
44) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both
red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
Section: 15.1
45) In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A recessive lethal allele
that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in
the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
Section: 15.2
46) All female mammals have one active X chromosome per cell instead of two. What causes this?
Section: 15.2
47) A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with
normal vision whose father is color blind marries a color-blind male. What is the probability that this couple's first son
will be color blind? Section: 15.2
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48) In a Drosophila experiment, a cross was made between homozygous wild-type females and yellow-bodied males. All
of the resulting F1s were phenotypically wild type. However, adult flies of the F2 generation (resulting from matings
of the F1s) had the characteristics shown in the figure above. Consider the following questions:
Section: 15.2
49) Sturtevant provided genetic evidence for the existence of four pairs of chromosomes in Drosophila in which of these
ways?
Section: 15.3
50) Which of the following statements is true of linkage?
Section: 15.3
51) How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than
recombinant-type offspring are produced? Section: 15.3
52) What is the definition of one map unit?
Section: 15.3
53) Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome for which of the
following reasons? Section: 15.3
54) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. What is this
alteration called? Section: 15.4
55) A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products? Section: 15.4
56) Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the
individual? Section: 15.4
57) Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in malignant tumors. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in
close proximity to different control regions. Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse?
Section: 15.4
58) What is a syndrome?
Section: 15.4
59) Genomic imprinting is generally due to the addition of methyl (-CH3) groups to C nucleotides and chemical histone
changes to silence a given gene. If this depends on the sex of the parent who transmits the gene, which of the
following must be true?
Section: 15.5
60) Correns found that the inheritance of variegated color on the leaves of certain plants was determined only by the
maternal parent. What phenomenon explains this pattern?
Section: 15.5
61) Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for protein complexes of the electron
transport chain and ATP synthase. Therefore, mutations in mitochondrial genes would most affect _____.
Section: 15.5
62) A certain kind of snail can have a right-handed direction of shell coiling (DD or Dd) or left-handed coiling (dd).
However, if direction of coiling is due to a protein deposited by the mother in the egg cytoplasm, then a Dd eggproducing snail and a dd sperm-producing snail will have offspring of which genotype(s) and phenotype(s)?
Section: 15.5
63) During meiosis, a defect occurs in a cell that results in the failure of microtubules, spindle fibers, to bind at the
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kinetochores, a protein structure on chromatids where the spindle fibers attach during cell division to pull sister
chromatids apart. Which of the following is the most likely result of such a defect?
Section: 15.4
64) How do we describe transformation in bacteria?
Section: 16.1
65) After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent (light-emitting) strain of bacteria with a living, nonphosphorescent strain,
you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observation(s) would provide the best
evidence that the ability to phosphoresce is a heritable trait? Section: 16.1
66) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the
following facts?
Section: 16.1
67) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? Section: 16.1
68) In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being
added and _____ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
Section: 16.1
69) The DNA of telomeres has been highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. This most likely reflects
_____.
Section: 16.2
70) If you are given the nucleotide sequence below as an example of a sequence present at a DNA replication fork:
C C T A G G C (T) G C A A T C C
can you design an RNA primer starting at the underlined T (T) of the template? Determine the primer sequence?
Section: 16.2
71) In E. coli, to repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act?
Section: 16.2
72) In E. coli, what is the function of DNA polymerase III?
Section: 16.2
73) The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that _____.
Section: 16.2
74) A new DNA strand elongates only in the
75) What is the function of topoisomerase?
to
direction because _____.
Section: 16.2
Section: 16.2
76) Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
Section: 16.2
77) Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase? Section: 16.2
78) In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" nitrogen (15N) and then
transferred them to a medium containing 14N. Which of the results in the figure above would be expected after one
round of DNA replication in the presence of 14N? Section: 16.2
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79) After the first replication was observed in their experiments testing the nature of DNA replication, Meselson and Stahl
could be confident of which of the following conclusions? Section: 16.2
80) You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge
the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very
large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA
(several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent _____.
Section: 16.2
81) Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is the template?
82) DNA is synthesized through a process known as _____.
Section: 16.2
83) Telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells?
Section: 16.2
Section: 16.2
84) Which of the following cells have reduced or very little active telomerase activity?
Section: 16.2
85) Researchers found E. coli that had mutation rates one hundred times higher than normal. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of these results? Section: 16.2
86) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
Section: 16.3
87) Which of the following represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin?
Section: 16.3
88) Which of the following statements describes chromatin?
Section: 16.3
89) Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?
Section: 16.3
90) Hershey and Chase used a DNA-based virus for their work. What would the results have been if they had used an
RNA virus? Section: 16.1
91) The lagging strand is characterized by a series of short segments of DNA (Okazaki fragments) that will be joined
together to form a finished lagging strand. The experiments that led to the discovery of Okazaki
fragments gave evidence for which of the following ideas? Section: 16.2
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