Download Transport and cardiovascular systems

Transport and cardiovascular systems
Which of the following does NOT require hemoglobin to deliver oxygen to
the tissues.
a. Earthworms
b. Insects
c. Mammals
d. Birds
e. Amphibians
The vessels that return blood to the heart in a closed circulatory
system are referred to as
a. arteries.
b. veins.
c. capillaries.
d. sinuses.
e. auxiliary hearts.
Which of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the following is NOT a component of vertebrate blood?
plasma.
leukocytes.
erythrocytes.
platelets.
myoglobin.
Hemoglobin is more likely to release oxygen in metabolically active
tissues because
a. Metabolically active tissues produce more hemoglobin
b. Metabolically active cells are nearer to capillaries
c. CO2 is an allosteric regulator of hemoglobin
d. CO2 competes for heme binding
e. Endorphins released by active tissues trigger oxygen release
What allows many marine invertebrates (e.g. corals, jellyfish, sea
anemones) to grow large in size even though they have only a
gastrovascular cavity for circulation?
a. these organisms are only a few cells thick and can rely on
diffusion to transport nutrients and oxygen throughout the body
b. there are many branches within the gastrovascular cavity that
directly transport nutrients and oxygen to various tissues
c. a single, large heart provides enough pressure to deliver the
blood throughout the entire body
d. there are many openings to the gastrovascular cavity that
allow nutrients and oxygen to be taken up from all directions
Why are respiratory and circulatory systems tightly coupled in
organisms with closed circulatory systems?
a. all cells in the body require nutrients, oxygen, and waste
removal
b. organisms with a low surface area:volume ratio cannot only
rely on the simple diffusion of nutrients and gases to sustain
life
c. if these systems weren’t coupled, the blood pressure would be
too low to circulate the blood throughout the entire body
d. all of the above are true
e. only A and B are true
Cooperative
because
a. it
b. it
c. it
sites
d. it
e. it
binding of O2 by hemoglobin is physiologically important
overcomes the limitation imposed by diffusion rates
allows saturation of blood with O2 at low partial pressure
allows hemoglobin to readily give up most of its oxygen at
of physiological activity
increases the O2 carrying capacity of blood
allows efficient exchange of O2 for CO2
Plant gas exchange occurs mainly through which of the following
structures?
a. companion cells
b. trachea
c. alveoli
d. stomata
e. vessels
Consider the graphs shown. The center, blue line represents the O2 dissociation
curve for adult hemoglobin. The line that represents fetal hemoglobin is
a. A because adult hemoglobin has a higher affinity than fetal Hb for O2
b. A because fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity than adult Hb for O2
c. B because adult hemoglobin has a higher affinity than fetal Hb for O2
d. B because fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity than adult Hb for O2
Which of the following factors contribute to water flow in xylem?
a. active transport in root cells and evapotranspiration through
stomates
b. root peristalsis and evapotranspiration through stomates
c. active transport in root cells and capillary action
d. capillary action and evapotranspiration through stomates
e. active transport in root cells and capillary action
What is an advantage for insects to have an open circulatory system
rather than a gastrovascular cavity?
a. Insects are more efficient with a single heart.
b. Insects are terrestrial.
c. Open circulatory systems allow high hemolymph pressures.
d. An open circulatory system allows coupling of respiratory and
circulatory systems.
What is an advantage for insects to have an open circulatory system
rather than a gastrovascular cavity?
a. An open circulatory system provides for more metabolic dynamic
range; the animal can respond to changes in energy demands.
b. Insects don’t have open circulatory systems.
c. Open circulatory systems allow high hemolymph pressures.
d. An open circulatory system allows coupling of respiratory and
circulatory systems.
Which of the following statements about amphibian and mammalian circulatory
systems is true?
a. Pulmonary circulation occurs at reduced blood pressure.
b. Amphibians have 4 heart chambers similar to mammals.
c. Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange only occursin the lungs and skin.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about a capillary bed?
a. The drop in blood pressure across the capillary is partially due to fluid
loss.
b. Large proteins diffuse out of the vasculature on the arteriole side and
intothe vasculature on the on the venule side.
c. The lymphatic system collects water and solutes that are not picked up by
the venules.
d. The addition of CO2 to the blood decreases the pH of the blood.
e. None of the above. All of the above statements are true.
Which of the following statements about the blood vessels shown in this figure is
NOT true?
a. The endothelium provides the conduit for the transport of the blood while
allowing small molecules to diffuse into and out of the circulatory system.
b. The elastic layers of the large arteries and large veins help to moderate
blood pressure fluctuations during and between heart contractions.
c. Fenestrated capillaries allow more fluid loss than continuous capillaries.
d. The smooth muscle cells contribute to vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
e. None of the above. All of the statements are true.
Based on what is shown in these oxygen binding curves, which of the following is
true?
a. At lower temperatures hemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen.
b. Elevated temperatures increase hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen.
c. Increasing exertion at higher altitudes increases oxygen binding to
hemoglobin.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.
This question focuses on long-distance transport in the xylem. Which of
the following is NOT true?
a. Flow of fluids through xylem is not mediated by pressure
differences.
b. Cohesion-tension theory relies on the polar nature of water
molecules.
c. Transpiration involves evaporative loss of water.
d. None of the above. All of these statements are true.
The figure above is from your textbook. Which of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. Osmosis is a key component of water flow between the xylem and the
phloem.
b. Developing fruit represents a sucrose source.
c. Sink cells uptake sucrose by means of plasmodesmata and concentration
gradients.
d. Source cells have higher osmotic pressure than sink cells.
e. None of the above. All of these statements are true.
Stomatal opening is driven by….
a. Water efflux from the guard cells driven by osmosis due to
lower extracellular ion concentrations.
b. Water influx via osmosis into the guard cells due to pumping
of ions and cotransport of sugars into the guard cells.
What energy sources drive water transport in the xylem?
a. Gravity and photosynthesis
b. Stomates and soil pressure
c. Gas exchange and xylem vessels
d. Sunlight and ATP
Where to
a.
b.
c.
roots get their sugars?
From photosynthesis in the root hairs
Via the phloem from the leaves
By active transport from the soil
Which of the following is NOT an important aspect contributing to water
transport through the xylem?
a. cohesion among H2O molecules due to hydrogen bonding
b.
c.
d.
e.
osmosis due to sugar produced in photosynthesizing leaves
active transport of mineral ions from the soil into roots
transpirational H2O loss from leaves
continuous tubes created by dead vessel and tracheid cells
Consider the graphs shown. The center, blue line represents the O2
dissociation curve for hemoglobin under normal physiological
conditions. The line that represents hemoglobin (Hb) in tissues
undergoing intense metabolic demands is
a. A because CO2, low pH and high temperatures increase the
affinity of Hb for O2
b. A because CO2, low pH and high temperatures decrease the
affinity of Hb for O2
c. B because CO2, low pH and high temperatures increase the
affinity of Hb for O2
d. B because CO2, low pH and high temperatures decrease the
affinity of Hb for O2
Reproduction In plant
between
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
reproduction, alternation of generations refers to alternating
male and female
embryo and endosperm
haploid and diploid
epiphyte and halophyte
monocot and dicot
In mammals, male sex characteristics are determined by all the
following EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.
Having a Y chromosome
Having only one X chromosome
Testes determining factor
Testosterone levels
Which of the following is NOT true for both male and female mammalian
gametogenesis?
a. One primary cell produces four mature gametes.
b. Germ line cells multiply by mitosis.
c. Primary cells (spermatocytes and oocytes) are diploid.
d. Gametes are formed by meiosis.
e. Gametes develop in the gonads.
In mammalian females, germ cells (oocytes) are
a. not produced until puberty.
b. nearly all produced in the fetus.
c. fully mature gametes at birth.
d. produced in the embryo sac.
e. arrested in mitosis until puberty.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the placenta
a. It functions in exchange of gases, nutrients and wastes
between mother and fetus
b. It develops from maternal and fetal tissue
c. The fetal portion (chorion) has chorionic villi providing a
large surface area for exchange
d. Blood of the mother and fetus mix
e. It transports drugs and alcohol from mother to fetus
In mammals, the primary signal of a successful fertilization is
a. the uterus produces chorionic gonadotropin which signals the
corpus luteum in the ovary
b. the follicle produces estrogen, which signals the corpus
luteum to decrease progesterone
c. the corpus luteum in the ovary produces estrodiol, which
signals implantation in the uterus
d. the completion of meiosis II triggers estrogen and
progesterone, which signal the uterus
e. mechanosensors in the uterine wall are are depolarized by
implantation, triggering an action potential
Females produce eggs. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
meiosis in most female germlines?
a. Chromosome number is reduced from 4 to 1.
b. Unequal cytokinesis results in a single larger cell with most
of the cytoplasm.
c. The diploid oocyte is the final product.
d. Polar bodies contribute to reduction of chromosome number.
e. None. All of the above statements are true.
Which of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the following is NOT a form of asexual reproduction?
Mitosis
Budding
Gender switching in fish
Regeneration
Parthenogenesis
Which of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
the following is NOT an advantage of asexual reproduction?
Able to reproduce even if isolated
Able to reproduce rapidly
Can generate large numbers of offspring
Greater genetic variation
All of the above
None of the above
The table above is derived from the Komodo dragon parthenogenesis article. What
aspects of this data set support the hypothesis that Sungai’s offspring are the result
of sexual reproduction?
a. All of the offspring are homozygous at each of the microsatellite loci
analyzed.
b. The absence of the 133 microsatellite marker in the offspring at the K06
locus.
c. All of the microsatellite markers of the offspring are found in Sungai’s
DNA.
d. None. All of the above statements support the hypothesis that Sungai’s
offspring are the result of parthenogenesis.
Sex determination in Komodo dragons is based on a system where females
are WZ (dissimilar chromosomes) and males are ZZ (similar
chromosomes). Based on the observations about parthenogenesis in
Komodo dragons, what sex were the offspring produced by
parthenogenesis?
a. Female
b. Male
c. The offspring could be either male or female.
d. The offspring would be of indeterminate sex.
The figure above is from the “Mice without a Father” article. Based on what is shown
above and what we discussed in class, which of the following is NOT
true?
a. Epigenetics does not affect gene expression.
b. The maternally contributed genes are necessary for normal development
of the embryo.
c. Gene expression from the paternal genome is necessary for
extraembryonic tissue development.
The figure above is from the “Mice without a Father” article. The differentially
methylated domain (DMD-Illustrated by the green bar if it is methylated (CH3).) is
key to this epigenetic gene regulation. Which of the following is the result if this
region is NOT methylated (A nonmethlyated DMD is illustrated by the presence
of the blue bar.)?
a. The enhancers activate the expression of Igf2.
b. The enhancers activate the expression of H19.
c. The enhancers fail to activate the expression of either Igf2 or H19.
Based on what we discussed about mammalian imprinting, which of the
following is a characteristic of epigenetic gene regulation?
a. Epigenetic DNA methylation
b.
is the same between homologous chromosomes in early mammalian
embryos.
b. Epigenetic imprinting results in the removal of genes from the
chromosomes.
c. Epigenetic DNA methylation can result in genes not being
transcribed.
Which of the following is a characteristic of sexual reproduction?
a. The embryo is usually the result of the fusion of gametes from
different genetic backgrounds.
b. The embryo is usually the result of the fusion of diploid
gametes from two different parents.
c. The species is less able to adapt to changes in the
environment due to less genetic diversity within the population.
d. The genome is less likely to retain deleterious mutations in
critical genes.
Recombination occurs…
a. as gametes are in the final stages of maturation.
b. during the separation of homologous chromosomes in mitosis.
c. during the separation of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I.
d. as the sister chromatids separate during mitosis.
Which of
a.
b.
c.
d.
the following is a characteristic of asexual reproduction?
It is limited to invertebrates.
It allows for the maintenance of greater genetic diversity.
It allows for the maintenance of successful genotypes.
It requires meiotic cell division.
In plants, …..
a. 1n individuals
b. 2n individuals
c. 1n individuals
d. 2n individuals
produce
produce
produce
produce
gametes
gametes
gametes
gametes
via
via
via
via
meiosis.
mitosis.
mitosis.
meiosis.
Double fertilization in flowering plants…
a. results in the formation of a 3n endosperm.
b. allows for plants to self fertilize.
c. is a form of parthenogenesis.
d. is a system that improves fertility since only one of the
sperm needs to successfully fertilize the egg.
In the alternation of generations in flowering plant lifecycles,
a. the haploid phase is often free living.
b. the diploid phase is dominant.
c. the diploid phase produces the gametes.
d. the endosperm is haploid.
Parthenogenic offspring have been noted in all of the following except:
a. lizards
b. sharks
c. mammals
d. bees
The figure above is from the “Mice without a Father” article. Based on what is shown
above and what we discussed in class, which of the following is NOT true?
a. The expression of paternal genes is not required for normal development.
b. The maternally contributed genes are necessary for normal development
of the embryo.
c. Gene expression from the paternal genome is necessary for
extraembryonic tissue development.
Which of the following outcomes would result if parthenogenesis were the result of
either failure of cytokinesis in meiosis II or fusion of the oocyte and the second polar
body?
a. XX and XX
b. XX
c. XX
d. XX and XX
e. XX
f.
XX
Disease
Which of the following is the best definition of disease?
a. Any condition that leads to cell death.
b. Any condition caused by infection with pathogens, such as
bacteria or viruses.
c. Any condition caused by genetic mutations or inheritance of
defective genes.
d. Any condition that impairs normal function.
e. None of the above.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cancer
a. Cancer cells divide uncontrollably.
b. Cancer is a malignant disease, meaning that it progressively
becomes worse.
c. Cancer is caused by one single mutation that results in
increased cell division.
d. Cancer is relatively rare at the cellular level, but common
among organisms.
e. Cancer can metastasize, spreading to other tissues.
Activated p53 halts the cell cycle and promotes DNA repair, while inactivated p53 is
quickly broken down. p53 is activated in the presence of DNA damage. In the
scenario depicted, the p53 gene is mutated and therefore the p53 protein can never
be activated. Will this cell divide?
a. Yes, because the mutated p53 will induce the expression of genes that
promote cell division.
b. Yes, because the mutated p53 cannot induce expression of genes that
halt the cell cycle.
c. No, because the mutated p53 will inhibit proteins that promote cell
division.
d. No, because the mutated p53 will be detected by the cell, and the cell will
not survive.
Radiation therapy for cancer induces severe DNA damage. Which of the
following cancer cells is this therapy LEAST likely to work on?
a. Cancer cells that already have many mutations.
b. Cancer cells that have gain-of-function mutations in a growth
factor receptor, such that the receptor is always activated.
c. Cancer cells that have loss-of-function mutations in p53, such
that p53 cannot be activated.
d. Cancer cells that still retain “self” signals and can evade
the immune system.
Consider a genetic mutation in a gene for a death signal receptor, “Y”.
In this mutation, a stop codon has been inserted in the middle of the
coding region of the gene. What is the most likely outcome?
a. Only part of protein “Y” will be translated, and the resulting
protein will probably not be functional.
b. RNA polymerase will detect the mutation and the gene will not
be transcribed.
c. The ribosomes will detect the mutation in the mRNA and
translation will not occur.
d. The ribosomes will recognize the base pair mismatch in the
mRNA and correct the mutation.
What is genomic instability?
a. A mutation in a gene for a protein that detects DNA damage.
b. Any mutation that deletes or copies a large chunk of a
chromosome.
c. When chromosomes break up into many smaller chromosomes.
d. The rapid accumulation of mutations over time.
Which of
directly
a.
b.
c.
d.
the following cellular processes in cancer cells do NOT
promote metastasis?
Migration
Maintaining survival signals
Cell division
Apoptosis
Consider a gene encoding for a protein important for growth factor
signaling. When mutated, this protein becomes constantly active. This
gene is most likely a:
a. Tumor suppressor
b. Tumor promoter
c. Proto-oncogene
d. Carcinogen
Imagine a mutated form of the epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptor. This receptor
now signals even when there is no EGF bound to it. What is the result?
a. The signal cascade will always be active, so the cell will always behave as
if it is receiving growth signals and will divide.
b. Since the cell cannot bind to EGF, it cannot receive growth signals and
will not divide.
c. The signal transduction cascade will always be active, but because there
is no EGF the cell will not divide.
d. The cell will die because the signal transduction cascade produces toxic
byproducts.
Which of the following is most likely to be tumor suppressor?
a. a gene that increases cell proliferation.
b. a gene which codes a fluorescent protein.
c. a gene important for repairing DNA damage.
d. a gene that enables adaptation to hypoxia (low oxygen).
e. a gene that stimulates angiogenesis (formation of new blood
vessels).
The acquired immune system is very effective. Why?
a. The cells of the acquired immune system recognize very
specific antigens, so only particular pathogens or abnormal cells
are targeted.
b. The cells of the acquired immune system can recognize very
general “non-self” signals, so each cell can target a wide
variety of pathogens.
c. The acquired immune system can mount an effective response
within a few hours of infection.
What function does the innate immune system serve?
a. The innate immune system takes time to ramp up in response to
a specific antigen.
b. Innate immune cells are important early in an infection, but
after antibodies are produced they no longer contribute to
eliminating the pathogens.
c. Innate immune cells recognize general “non-self” signals, so
they can target pathogens or abnormal cells very early and
quickly.
d. All of the above.
What does “immunological memory” mean?
a. The cells of the immune system store antigens from previous
infections.
b. Acquired immune cells such as B and T cells are primed during
the first infection. During the second infection, these cells can
respond much more quickly.
c. Once antibodies are generated, they never ever break down.
The function of B cells is to:
a. Produce antibodies, which bind to antigens.
b. Activate cytotoxic T cells, which kill abnormal or infected
cells.
c. Attack antigen-bearing bodies marked with antibodies.
d. Help T cells by providing growth signals.