* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Download Worksheet 5.7 (Practice Exam 5)
Survey
Document related concepts
Transcript
Leader: Hannah Course: BIOL 211 (2) Instructor: Dr. Waldman Supplemental Instruction Iowa State University Date: 04/16/15 1.) How did the theory of special creation differ from Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection? a. The theory of special creation proposed that structural homologies result from changes that occur in species. Darwin observed that structural homologies are widespread and argued that they result from descent without modification. b. The theory of special creation proposed that species are unrelated. Darwin observed that species are related. c. The theory of special creation proposed that vestigial traits do not change over time. Darwin observed that they change over time. d. The theory of special creation proposed that species are independently created and immutable over time. Darwin observed that species are related and change over time. Exam 4 Review (Practice Exam 5) Worksheet 5.7 2.) Which of the following is a correct restatement of Darwin’s phrase “descent with modification?” a. “Descent with modification” means that humans descended from a preexisting species that lived in trees and that humans are different from that ancestral species b. “Descent with modification” means that the species that exist today descended from other, preexisting species and that species change over time c. “Descent with modification” means that ancestral species of species that are alive today are more primitive and lower down on the phylogenetic tree. d. “Descent with modification” means that natural selection changes species over time. 3.) Which of the following statements describes the law of succession? a. Species in the fossil record were succeeded in the same region by larger and more complex species b. Species in the fossil record were succeeded in the same region by species more closely adapted to the current environment c. Species in the fossil record were succeeded in the same region by species that were more successful d. Species in the fossil record were succeeded in the same region by similar species 4.) Why did Darwin document and describe vestigial traits? a. Vestigial traits result from convergent evolution. This is an important pattern component of the theory of evolution and is inconsistent with the theory of special creation. b. Vestigial traits indicate that species do not change over time. This opposes the theory of evolution but is consistent with the theory of special creation. c. Vestigial traits result from evolutionary mistakes. This is an important pattern component of the theory of evolution and is inconsistent with the theory of special creation. d. Vestigial traits indicate that species change over time. This is an important pattern component of the theory of evolution and is inconsistent with the theory of special creation. 1060 Hixson-Lied Student Success Center 515-294-6624 [email protected] http://www.si.iastate.edu 5.) Why is Aristotle’s great chain of beings an incorrect theory? a. It is wrong because it did not recognize that species do not change b. It is wrong because it reflects his belief that some species have evolved from other species c. It is wrong because he believed some species are “better” or “higher” than other species d. It is wrong because he did not place humans at the top of the chain 6.) How do the theories of Lamarck and Darwin differ? a. Darwin understood the importance of the environment and adaptation; Lamarck did not b. Lamarck believed species stay the same; Darwin believed species change c. Darwin believed genes can be mutated; Lamarck didn’t know about mutations d. Darwin proposed that populations change; Lamarck proposed that individuals change 7.) The best definition of biological fitness is ______________. a. The ability of a population of organisms to persist b. The ability of an individual to successfully reproduce relative to other individuals in the population c. The ability of an individual to stay healthy by eating well-balanced meals and exercising d. The ability of a population to survive 8.) During the drought of 1977, 84% of the medium ground finch population on Daphne Major disappeared. The individuals that survived had deeper beaks and were larger. Given that natural selection favored large individuals with deeper beaks, how can the presence of individuals with small, pointier beaks in 1983 be explained? a. Researchers were not measuring juvenile birds in 1977 but did measure juvenile birds in 1983. It is a well-known fact that juvenile birds are small and have small beaks b. These islands must have received immigrants from a neighboring island c. These islands were colonized from the mainland. These small-beaked individuals must have flown over from Ecuador d. Even though the majority of birds after 1977 had deeper beaks, there was still variation in beak size in the population. As seed type and seed availability changed, birds with beaks suited to exploit abundant seeds had higher reproductive success 9.) Arctic tooth-fishes live in very cold water year-round. These fishes have genes that code for anti-freeze proteins. The production of anti-freeze proteins in these fish is an example of _____________. a. Genetic correlation b. An adaptation c. An acquired characteristic d. Acclimation 10.) Where did Darwin draw his inspiration from for natural selection? 11.) Evolution by natural selection occurs when ____________________ variation leads to differential ____________________ success. 12.) True or False: Wild species are perfectly adapted for their environments. 13.) What are 4 types of constraints on natural selection? 14.) Selection acts on _____________________ while evolution acts on ___________________. 15.) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle? a. No random mating b. No natural selection c. No genetic drift or gene flow d. No mutation 16.) Which of the following is a result of stabilizing selection? a. Individuals with extreme phenotypes have a higher fitness b. No change in the mean Hardy-Weinberg value of a trait c. A change in the mean value of a trait d. Decreased variation in a population 17.) Which of the following examples of natural selection in action would tend to increase the genetic variation in the population? a. Alpine skypilots evolve large flowers above the timberline and small flowers below the timberline b. Natural selection simultaneously selects against heavy field mice (they starve during the winter) and light field mice (they freeze during the winter) c. Natural selection causes dragonflies to evolve longer tails d. Natural selection acts on beak size in finches such that those individuals able to eat small, soft seeds survive through the winter 18.) Describe the asymmetry of sex. 19.) Which populations would be affected most by random genetic drift? a. Large populations b. Small populations c. Migrating populations d. Fixed populations 20.) Which population would be affected by a founder effect? a. A flock of migratory birds blown off course to a new island during a storm b. Finches that have higher survival if they have small beaks, because females prefer small beaks c. Survivors of a typhoon in the Pingelap Atoll d. Green iguanas developing the ability to become brown 21.) An important consequence of gene flow in natural populations is that it ____________. a. Increases the mutation rate among sedentary organisms b. Moves individuals from one habitat to another on a seasonal basis c. Tends to separate allele frequencies among populations d. Tends to reduce genetic differences among populations 22.) Which of the following scenarios involving mutation may cause evolutionary change? a. A population that experiences no mutation b. A mutation that confers antibiotic resistance in bacteria c. A mutation occurs in areas where there is high UV radiation and causes thymine dimers, resulting in sterilization d. A woman develops a mutation after menopause 23.) Where did humans originate? How long ago did we reach North America? 24.) True or False: The DNA sequence of humans and chimps is 99% identical. 25.) True or False: Many transitional, extinct species have been found as fossils that are intermediate in their characteristics between humans and apes. 26.) Which of the following would be a good example of postzygotic reproductive isolation? a. Two bird species live in the same area and, though similar in plumage, engage in dramatically different courtship dances b. Two species differ in the time of year that they breed c. Two frog species meet and can mate with each other, but the hybrid offspring are infertile d. The gametes of the male and female are not compatible 27.) Which event would result in allopatric speciation? a. An earthquake that isolates a population of rodents on a mountain from other populations of rodents b. Migration of birds back and forth between the mainland and an island c. A flood that separates a population of frogs on opposite sides of a large lake for a few months 28.) Which of the following is NOT true about sympatric speciation? a. New species form in the same geographic area b. Reproductive isolation occurs c. Can be due to a change in the environment d. Species cannot take place in sympatry, only in allopatry, where geography poses a barrier to gene flow 29.) Fill in the following table. Criteria used (2 species differ or are…) Advantages Disadvantages/Limitations Biological Species Concept Morphospecies Concept Phylogenetic Species Concept 30.) Which of the following statements describes a situation that would be studied by a researcher interested in population ecology? a. Mutations in gill rakers affect the ability of individual salmon to absorb oxygen b. Only a few salmon offspring will return to the stream of their birth to breed c. Sea lions and humans hunt salmon in streams d. Decomposing salmon release nutrients that are used by other organisms in the stream 31.) Which action changes the abiotic components of an organism’s environment? a. Predators becoming extinct b. Interactions with offspring c. Water sedimentation changes d. Introducing exotic species 32.) Biologists identify and characterize climate in an area primarily by analyzing ________. a. The area’s species composition and average annual temperature and precipitation b. The area’s global longitude and altitude c. The area’s altitude and average annual temperature and precipitation throughout the year d. The area’s average annual temperature and precipitation and annual variation in temperature and precipitation 33.) One reason areas near the equator get more rainfall than areas about 30 degrees north or south do is that ____________. a. Air near the equator rises, warming as it rises and increasing its ability to hold water vapor b. Air near the equator is more likely to be above warm water, so it is easy to pick up water vapor c. Air near the equator sinks, causing rain to fall d. Air near the equator rises, cooling as it rises and losing its ability to hold water vapor 34.) Climate is ___________-term conditions in an area where weather is ___________-term atmospheric conditions. 35.) Which of the following statements best describes why there is seasonality in climate? a. Earth is tilted on its axis, thus changing the amount of sunlight energy received by a specific place on the plant during the year b. Mountains cause seasonality by blocking winds at certain times of the year c. The sun is tilted on its axis, thus changing the amount of sunlight energy that reaches a specific place on the planet d. Seasonality is driven by changes in average monthly temperature 36.) You are studying tree species diversity at 2 different sites. At site one you find 202 tree species, and in a same-sized plot at site two you find 12 tree species. Which is most likely true? a. Site one is a tropical rainforest, and site two is a temperate deciduous forest b. Both sites are in a tropical rain forest c. Site one is in a temperate deciduous forest, and site two is in a tropical rain forest d. Both sites are in a boreal forest 37.) An area with moderate annual overall temperature with moderate variation in temperature, and moderate annual variation in rainfall and moderate overall rainfall, would be ___________. a. Tropical wet forest b. Temperate grassland c. Desert d. Temperate forest 38.) An area with high overall temperature with moderate variation in temperature, and low annual precipitation and very low variation in rainfall would be ______________. a. Tropical wet forest b. Temperature grassland c. Desert d. Temperate forest 39.) Aquatic biomes are distinguished by… a. Depth of water and rate of water movement b. The number and type of animal species that occur there c. Precipitation and availability of light d. Rate of water movement and availability of light 40.) Why are the spring and fall lake turnovers important for aquatic ecosystems? a. Lake turnovers bring oxygen-rich water from the lake bottom up to the lake surface b. The turnovers bring nutrient-rich water from the bottom of the lake up to the top of the lake c. It forces normally bottom-dwelling species to the surface for twice-yearly production of vitamin D d. The lake turnovers allow the melting of winter ice 41.) Which zone is found only in freshwater environments? a. Neritic zone b. Benthic zone c. Aphotic zone d. Littoral zone