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SI Final Exam Review
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Chapters Covering Exam 1
Umair
Biology 212 (3)
Mayfield
04/28/11
1.
In an isotonic solution, there is:
a. less water outside than inside
b. equal water concentrations inside and out
c. more water outside than inside
2.
In plant cells, the cell membrane can shrink while the cell wall remains in place, this is called:
a. plasmolysis
b. isotonic solution
c. hypotonic solution
3.
A solute can be pumped from a lower concentration gradient to a higher one in:
a. active transport
b. passive transport
c. facilitated diffusion
4.
Cotransport is an example of:
a. active transport
b. passive transport
c. facilitated diffusion
5.
Centrifuges break up the components of cells due to the increase in:
a. molarity
b. volume
c. gravity
d. density
6.
Which answer is not a function of proteins?
a. send messages through the blood
b. engulf other cells
c. carry molecules from place to place
d. change the rate of a chemical reaction
7.
Which type of nucleic acid is the energy currency of life?
a. adenosine diphosphate
b. deoxyribonucleic acid
c. adenosine triphosphate
d. ribonucleic acid
8.
Which of the following is defined as having the same pH with small additions of acids or bases?
a. acids
b. polymers
c. bases
d. buffers
9.
Which unit molecule belongs to proteins?
a. cellulose
b. nucleotides
c. sugars
d. amino acids
a.
proteins
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1.
Which structure is described by the order of the amino acids?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary
2.
. Which 3 out of the 4 macromolecules can be polymers?
a. carbohydrates
b. proteins
c. nucleic acids
d. lipids
3.
The ________ of water gives rise to _______ bonds which allow for it to have many unique characteristics.
a. non-polarity, ionic
b. polarity, ionic
c. polarity, hydrogen
d. non-polarity, hydrogen
4.
Which one of the following does not make up most of biological molecules?
a. carbon
b. phosphorous
c. nitrogen
d. helium
5.
Calcium, magnesium, chloride, and potassium exist mostly as/in
a. dissolved salts
b. elemental form
c. gases
d. solids
6.
What is a disaccharide?
a. many sugar monomers bonded together
b. 2 sugar monomers bonded together
c. the exoskeleton of arthropods
d. the protein responsible for making sugars
7.
. Starch and cellulose are types of
a. polysaccharides
b. proteins
c. lipids
d. alcohols
8.
Triglycerides consist of:
a. 2 fatty acids and 1 glycerol
b. 3 fatty acids and 2 glycerols
c. 3 fatty acids and 3 glycerols
d. 3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol
9.
. What is used to store long term energy?
a. phospholipids
b. sterols
c. triglycerides
d. cholesterols
10. Globular proteins:
a. always have a quaternary structure
b. are linear
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c.
d.
are shaped like an irregular mass
have more than one polypeptide chain
11. an acid has a pH level
a. less than 7
b. less than 5
c. greater than 7
d. greater than 5
12. 24. The normal pH level of human blood is
a. 3.6
b. 7.4
c. 8.2
d. 2.8
13. Hydrolysis
a. breaks molecules apart
b. adds nitrogen to the molecule
c. has no effect on molecules
d. puts molecules back together
14. . Polymers are ________ linked in a long chain.
a. amino acids
b. monomers
c. phospholipids
d. anomers
15. . The cytoplasm is located
a. between cells
b. only in mitochondria
c. inside the plasma membrane, not including the nucleus
16. Smooth E and rough ER are different because
a. smooth ER has ribosomes attached and rough ER does not
b. smooth ER has no ribosomes attached and rough ER does
c. smoother ER has mitochondria attached and rough ER does not
d. smooth ER has no mitochondria attached and rough ER does
17. . Active transport uses ________ to move molecules.
a. diffusion
b. energy
c. osmosis
18. An oxidation reaction involves losing a/an
a. proton
b. ion
c. electron
d. atom
19. Bacterial cells have
a. chloroplasts
b. mitochondria
c. no nucleus
d. all of the above
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20. The following are all enzyme characteristics except for
a. temperature sensitive
b. globular proteins
c. non-specific for substrate and product
d. destroyed by heat
21. Allosteric inhibition
a. uses a site other than the active site for enzyme inhibition
b. uses an inhibitor directly in the active site
c. destroys the enzyme to prevent it’s function permanently
22. Bioenergetics is:
a. the study of the management of energy in an organism
b. how fast a cell can move
c. what an organism eats
d. the study of the luminosity in an organism
23. During chemiosmosis, oxygen is the
a. ATP acceptor
b. water acceptor
c. final electron acceptor
d. carbon dioxide acceptor
24. In cellular respiration, glucose is converted to which of the following during glycolysis?
a. hydrogen
b. ATP
c. pyruvates
d. proteins
25. The entire region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane is called the
a. nucleoid
b. intracellular matrix
c. plasma membrane
d. cytoplasm
26. . In a prokaryotic cell:
a. there is no nuclear membrane
b. there is no genetic material
c. there is no cytoplasm
d. both a and c
27. . What cell process engulfs tiny droplets of extracellular fluid in vesicles?
a. phagocytosis
b. cell vacuoles
c. pinocytosis
d. endocytosis
28. The intracellular substance that turns on/off enzymes in a cell is called:
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a.
b.
c.
d.
signal-transduction (hormones)
peptidoglycan
phagocytosis
receptor particles
29. The theory that membrane bound organelles were incorporated into cells forming symbiotic relationships is
known as:
a. endosymbiosis
b. exosymbiosis
c. cellular interjection
d. symbiotic fusing
30. A non competitive inhibitor may attach itself to the ________ site on an enzyme
a. key hole
b. Allosteric
c. anosteric
d. active
Chapters Covering Exam 2
1. The DNA that codes for proteins that regulate the activity of structural genes is contained in a(n):
a. operon
b. regulatory gene
c. inducer
d. intron
3. Introns
a. are non coding sequences of DNA
c. must be removed before protein synthesis
b. can be repetitive sequences
d. all of the above
5. If you wanted to separate DNA pieces by size you would
a. use electrophoresis
b. need a plasmid
c. need a vector
d. run a polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
6. Restriction enzymes
a. cut DNA at the same specific sequence every time b. can have sticky ends or blunt ends
c. are used for cloning
d. all of the above
8. Plants are green because chlorophyll
a. absorb green light
c. reflect green light
b. absorb red, orange, and blue light
d. b and c
9. Chloroplast components include
a. double membrane, matrix, thylakoid
c. double membrane, stroma, grana
b. single membrane, thylaokoid, grana
d. none of the above
10. Light reactions occur in the ______ and dark reactions occur in the ______.
a. thylakoid membrane, stroma
b. matrix, thylakoid membrane
c. stroma, intermembranse space
d. thylakoid membrane, grana
12. Unlike non cyclic photophosphorylation, cyclic photophosphorylation makes only
a. NADPH
b. ATP
c. FADH2
d. ADP
15. Rubisco
a. is responsible for carbon fixation in most plants
b. transfers its CO2 to PEPCO in C4 plants
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c. is the first enzyme used on the light reactions
d. all of the above
16. In the Calvin Cycle ______ are recycled and ________ are used each time
a. 6 G3P, 3 CO2 b. 3 RuBP, 3 G3P
c. 3 Rubisco, 3FADH2
d. 3 RuBP, 3 CO2
19. A good example of a C4 plant is
a. corn
b. soybeans
c. cactus d. an oak tree
22. Photorespiration
a. helps plants by capturing O2
c. hurts plants by capturing CO2
b. helps plants by capturing CO2
d. hurts plants by capturing O2
27. All of the following are characteristics of monocots except
a. parallel venation
b. tap root system
c. vascular bundles complexly arranged
multiples of 3
28. Root systems serve to
a. provide anchorage
c. absorb water and minerals
d. floral parts in
b. can be used for food storage
d. all of the above
33. A horizontal stem that grows underground is called a
a. rhizome
b. tuber c. bulb
d. all of the above
34. All of the following are parts of a leaf except
a. blade b. petiole
c. sepal d. all of the above are parts of a leaf
35. A compound leaf
a. has more than one function
b. consists of divided leaflets
c. is in an atypical spot on the plant
d. consists of leaflets
36. Root hairs are an extension of
a. dermal tissue cells
b. vascular tissue cells
c. ground tissue cells
d. root hairs are not extensions of a cell; they are cells
37. Tracheids and vessel elements are both cells found in
a. xylem tissue b. phloem tissue c. ground tissue d. protoplast tissue
39. Sieve-tube member cells have no_______ and therefore need companion cells
a. mitochondria b. chloroplasts c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. nucleus
41. In ________ the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and the _________ is on the inside of the ring.
a. dicots, pith
b. dicots, cortex c. monocots, pith
d. monocots, cortex
42. Collenchyma are
a. typical plant cells
b. specialized for support c. are found in growing tissues
45. Meristematic tissue
a. is at the tips of shoots and roots
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
b. . has cells that are undifferentiated
d. all of the above
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48. Which of the following are root zones dedicated to growth
a. zone of elongation
b. zone of maturation
above
50. The casparian strip
a. produces new vascular tissue
c. produces epidermal tissue
c. zone of cell division
d. all of the
b. keeps unwanted molecules out of the vascular tissue
d. forms a waxy coating on the leaves to keep water in
51. Mycorrhizae have a symbiotic relationship with the ______ of plants to help _________
a. roots, water and mineral absorbtion
b. leaves, capture energy from sunlight
b. phloem tissue, transport sugars
c. root meristems, grow stronger roots
52. Vascular bundles in the stems of dicots form a ring around the perimeter with the xylem towards the
a. pith
b. cortex
c. roots d. leaves
53. Every year of growth in a plant documented by rings of _____ tissue with the oldest ring on the ____.
a. phloem, outside
b. phloem, inside c. xylem, outside d. xylem, inside
55. The cells in the leaf that contain chlorophyll are
a. mesophyll cells
b. epidermal cells
56. Phloem tissue transports
a. sugar up
b. sugar down
c. guard cells
c. sugar up and down
57. Water tension in plant cells gives them a
a. flaccid appearance
b. turgid appearance
above
d. all of the above
d. water and mineral up and down
c. evolutionary advantage d. none of the
58. ___________ flow allows water and minerals flow directly into the xylem vessels
a. symplastic and apoplastic
b. a symplastic c. apoplastic
d. casparian
59. Transpiration is caused by
a. pumping of water and minerals into roots
c. mycorrhizae taking water from the plant
b. water evaporating out of stomata
d. guttation
60. Phloem transport is driven by
a. root pressure b. osmotic pressure flow c. all of the above
61. Megaspores
a. make pollen grains
b. make microspores
d. none of the above
c. are produced by the ovule
d. are diploid cells
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Chapters Covering Exam 3
1. Organs are characterized by
a. specialized cells b. at least 2 types of cells and functions
c. being the basic unit of living organisms d. cells with a common functions
2. Tissues that serves to form glands and gametes as well as covering and lining structures is
a. muscular tissue
b. nervous tissue
c. connective tissue d. epithelial tissue
3. The structural organization of animals include
a. tissues
b. organs
c. systems
d. all of the above
4. Heterotrophs
a. include all animals
b. make their own food
c. must ingest other organisms for food
d. a and c
5. Metabolic rate measures ___________ in ____________.
a. energy used by an animal, kilocalories b. energy ingested by an animal, kilocalories
c. energy used by an animal, calories
d. energy ingested by an animal, calories
7. Homeostasis is used to
a. maintain the body’s temperature
c. maintain composition of body fluids
b. maintain optimal volume in cells, organ, etc.
d. all of the above
8. Food is used for
a. fuel
b. essential nutrients
above
c. carbon skeletons for molecules
10. Essential nutrients are
a. nutrients the animal needs to survive
c. nutrients from carbohydrates
b. nutrients the animal can’t make
d. nutrients that provide large amounts of ATP
d. all of the
11. Which of the following are not essential amino acids?
a. valine
b. histidine c. alanine
d. leucine
12. All of these are essential vitamins except
a. A b. P c. K d. B
14. Extracellular digestion is
a. carried out in the animals tissues
c. involves phagocytosis
b. carried out outside of the animals tissues
d. is carried out by sponges
16. Arteries
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a. carry blood back to the heart
b. carry blood away from the heart
c. allow gas, nutrient, or waste exchange
d. have valves
18. Coronary circulation pumps blood to
a. the heart
b. the brain c. the lungs
19. Which contracts first
a. the left side of the heart
atria
d. all of the above
b. the right side of the heart
c. the ventricles
20. The heart maintains it’s own rhythm starting at the
a. sinoatrial node
b. atrioventricular node
c. semilunar valve
valve
23. Erythrocytes
a. carry oxygen
b. fight pathogens
c. are mostly water
24. Blood clotting involves
a. just platelets
b. many clotting factors
e. b and c
27. At the alveoli
a. carbon dioxide enters the blood stream
c. carbon dioxide leaves the blood stream
e. a and d
f. c and b
d. atrioventricular
d. aid in clotting
c. exposure of collagen
d. a and c
b. oxygen enters the blood stream
d. oxygen leaves the blood stream
28. Oxygen is captured from the air by __________
a. hemolymph
b. chemoreceptors c. hemoglobin
d. the
d. mitochondria
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29. Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system
a. transport of fats from the GI tract to the blood b. drain tissue spaces of interstitial fluid
c. defense
d. all of the above are functions of the lymphatic system
30. Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ
a. thymus
b. erythrocytes
c. bone marrow
d. spleen
33. The leukocyte that promotes inflammation is the
a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. basophils
d. monocytes
34. A function of the immune system is
a. recognize antigen b. recognizes self antigens
c. recognizes foreign antigens
d. all of the above are functions of the immune system
35. The following are involved in inflammatory response, put them in the order of which they
occur. cfebda
a. bacteria are gone and tissue is repaired or go back to step 2
b. vasodialation
c. bacteria enter tissue
d. bacteria are contained, destroyed, and phagocytized
e. mediators of the immune system are released
f. tissue is damaged
36. Antigens binding to foreign proteins and serving to mark them for phagocytes describes
a. humoral immunity b. clonal selection theory c. inflammatory response
d. none of the
above
37. Random antibodies produced by somatic mutations and replicated if they bind to antigens
describes
a. humoral immunity b. clonal selection theory c. inflammatory response
d. none of the
above
38. What happens to the antibody titer after someone is infected with a virus they already had
a. it goes higher faster than it did the first time they were sick
b. it goes higher slower than
it did the first time they were sick
c. it’s the same as it was the first time
d. it’s zero the
second time
39. What is the disadvantage of passive immunity?
a. it requires breast feeding
b. allergies are frequent
c. no immune memory is developed
d. the person makes the antibodies
40. What evidence do we have that invertebrates have immunological memory?
a. vaccines help them
b. their lymphocytes are very active
c. they recover from
viruses faster the second time they are exposed
d. they reject a transplant faster the
second time
Matching
41. Conduction a
42. Convection b
43. Radiation d
a. direct transfer of heat
b. transfer of heat from air or water moving past
c. loss of heat as water evaporates
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44. Evaporation c
d. emission of electromagnetic waves
45. Vasodilation serves to
a. increase heat loss to the environment
c. regulate ectotherm heat loss
environment
b. decrease heat loss to the environment
d. can increase or decrease heat loss to the
46. Osmoregulation serves to
a. control body water and solute concentrations
c. all of the above
b. conserve water when eliminating wastes
d. none of the above
47. Which nitrogenous waste product is most concentrated?
a. uric acid b. urea
c. urea acid d. urica
49. During the production of urine, which of the following steps comes first?
a. Filtration of the blood, coelomic fluid, or hemolymph
b. Selective reabsorption of valuables from the filtrate
c. Secretion of additional substances into the filtrate
d. transfer of toxins from the liver to the kidneys
54. The functional unit of the kidney is the
a. renal pyramids
b. loop of Henle
c. nephrons
d. glomerulus
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Chapters Covering Exam 4
2. Vertebrate signaling includes
a. secretion of hormones
b. absorption of a hormone by capillaries
c. a change occurring on a target cell
d. all of the above
6. Fission and budding differ because
a. one produces a totally new offspring and the other produces a clone of the parent
b. one produces a new offspring, the other regenerates broken body parts
c. one produces two offspring of the same size and one produces an offspring that grows out of
the parent
d. fission and budding are really two words for the same process, they differ from fragmentation
7. External fertilization
a. is the only type of fertilization that produces eggs
b. first releases eggs into the
environment
c. first releases sperm into the environment
d. is common in vertebrates
8. All of the following are hormones that regulate reproduction except a. Growth hormone
b. Follicle Stimulating hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Testosterone
9. All of the following are apart of oogenesis
a. vesicular follicles b. Graafian follicle c. corpus luteum
d. seminiferous tubules
11. Fertilization occurs in the
a. uterus
b. fallopian tubes
c. placenta d. ovary
12. During the menstrual cycle
a. the ovary releases the secondary oocyte b. the endometrium of the uterus thickens
endometrium is shed d. all of the above
c. the
14. The first stage of labor is
a. increase in number of oxytocin receptors
b. thinning of the cervix mucus plug
c. onset of regular contractions
d. baby is delivered
15. Lactation is controlled by a. prolactin
b. oxytocin
c. prolactin and oxytocin
d. prolactin, oxytocin, and follicle stimulating
hormone
16. During blastulation
a. the vitelline layer is formed
b. mitotic divisions occur without cell growth
c. a morula forms
d. a ball of cells reforms to become hollow
17. After the first 8 weeks of fetal development
a. the primary germ layers have just formed
b. most major organs have developed
c. the fetus looks human
d. none of the above
18. The peripheral nervous system is
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a. sensory and motor neurons
c. contains oligodendrocytes
b. the brain and spinal cord
d. is composed of astrocytes
19. The autonomic nervous system affects
a. skeletal muscles b. controls smooth muscles
c. includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems d. a and c
e. b and c
20. Schwann cells
a. send and receive stimuli in the PNS
b. from the myelin sheath in the PNS
c. form the blood-brain barrier
d. send and receive stimuli throughout the whole nervous
system
21. The axon
a. receives stimuli
b. send impulses
c. regulates cell processes d. all of the above
22. Myelination serves to
a. speed up signal transduction
b. stimulate the autonomic nervous system
c. protect the neurons
d. regulate the membrane potential
23. Interneurons
a. connect sensory neurons to motor neurons
b. make up most of the neurons in the
human body
c. are mostly in the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, and spinal cord d. all of the above
24. At rest the neuron membrane potential is characterized by having
a. more K+ outside the cell b. more Na+ outside the cell
c. more Ca++ inside the cell d. more protein outside the cell
25. The opening of Na+ channels causes depolarization, if the threshold is met the next step is
a. more Na+ channels open b. K+ channels open
c. K+ channels close d. neurotransmitters are released
26. Order the processes of synaptic transmission\bacd
a. diffusion of neurotransmitter across synaptic cleft
b. neurotransmitter secreted by
presynaptic cell
c. neurotransmitter binds to postsynaptic cell
d. depolarization or hyperpolarization
occurs in postsynaptic cell
30. Learning is caused by
a. a neuron refractory period
c. permanent changes in the axons
b. permanent changes on the postsynaptic neuron
d. the creation of more action potentials
32. The cerebellum is important for
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a. reflexes b. sensory input
coordination
c. consciousness and awakening
d. motor control and
33. During sensory reception exteroreceptors
a. amplify signal strength
b. sense external stimuli
c. sense internal stimuli
d. integrate sensory stimuli
34. Mechanoreceptors respond to
a. physical stimulus (touch, stretch etc.)
c. loss or gain of heat
b. chemicals released by damaged cells
d. electromagnetic stimuli
36. The part of the eye called the choroids
a. contains ciliary muxcles that change shape the shape of the lens for focus
b. provides nutrients to the retina
c. has circular and radial muscles to open and close the
pupil
d. is full of photoreceptors for light detection
37. During signal transduction when light hits the protein rhodopsin on the rods and cones
a. the cell becomes hyperpolarized b. the cell becomes depolarized
c. Na+ channels close
d. Na+ channels open
e. a and c
f. b and d
38. The role of the pinna in hearing is
a. collecting sound waves b. vibrating and causing the malleus, incus, and stapes to move
c. to contain fluid that makes waves to transmit sound waves
d. to cause the neurons in your ear to depolarize
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