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Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
Test Chemistry
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(15)
(1) Most abundant molecular ions produced in mass spectrometer are
(a) negatively charged
(b) positively charged
(c) H+ ions
(d) Zwitter ion
(2) The no. of carbon atoms in 6 g of diamond is
(a) 3.01 x 1022
(b) 6.02 x 1023
22
(c) 6.02 x 10
(d) 3.01 x 1023
(3) During crystallization, insoluble impurities are removed by filtering
(a) cold saturated solution
(b) hot saturated solution
(c) super saturated solution
(d) unsaturated solution
(4) The value of general gas constant is
(a) 0.0821 atm K-1 mol-1
(b) 62.4 dm3 cm3 torr K-1 mol-1
3
-1
-1
(c) 62400 cm torr K mol
(d) 1.987JK-1 mol-1
(5) Hydrofluoric acid is weakest amongst halogen acids due to
(a) London forces
(b) Vander wall, s forces
(c) Hydrogen bonding
(d) both a & b
(6)Paschen, Brackette and Pfund series fall which region
(a) ultraviolet region
(b) I.R region
(c) visible region
(d) X-rays region
(7) The volume of 1 mole of a gas at STP
(a) 22.414 dm3
(b) 22414 dm3
3
(c) 22.414 cm
(d) 0.22414 cm3
(8) In exothermic reactions, ∆H is taken as
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
(9) When no. of moles of reactants and that of products are equal , then Kc has units
(a) moles/dm3
(b) moles2/dm-6
(c) moles-2/dm+6
(d) no units
(10) The process of surrounding of ions by solvent molecules is called
(a) Solvation
(b) Hydration
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Solvolysis
(11) A type of cell in which electrical energy derive non-spontaneous redox reaction is called
(a) Electrochemical cell
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Electrolytic cell
(d) Voltaic cell
(12) ) For a reaction that occurs in series of steps
(a) Slowest step determines the rate (b) Fastest step determines the rate
(c) Any step can determine the rate (d) The sum of rates of all the steps determines the rate
(13) During combustion analysis, CO2 is absorbed in
(a) Mg (ClO4) 2
(b) Conc. H2SO4
(c) 50% KOH
(d) lime stone
(14) Deep-sea divers take oxygen mixed with
(a) hydrogen
(b) methane
(c) chlorine
(d) an inert gas
(15) The liquid crystals are always
(a) isomorphic
(b) polymorphic
(c) isotropic
(d) anisotropic
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
(10)
1: Why formation of a cation is an endothermic process.
2: The term formula unit is used for ionic compounds instead of molecule. Why?
3: 1 mole of different gasses with different sized particles occupy same volume of
at STP?
4: 180g of glucose and 342g of sucrose have same no. of molecules but different
no. of atoms present in them.
5: Define limiting reactant? How it is identified
Subjective
Q No. 3: Define Empirical formula. How empirical formula of an organic compound can be
determined by combustion analysis.
CHAPTER # 1
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(1) Which formula shows highest percentage of nitrogen by mass
(a) NH3
(b) H2H4
(c) NO
(d) NH4OH
(2) During combustion analysis, CO2 is absorbed in
(a) Mg (ClO4) 2
(b) Conc. H2SO4
(c) 50% KOH
(d) lime stone
(3) The sum of atomic masses of all the elements in an ion
(a) molecular mass
(b) ionic mass
(c) formula mass
(d) gram molecular mass
(4) The atomic mass of one of the following is whole no.
(a) Isotope
(b) element
(c) compound
(d) molecule
(5) 1 cm3 of N2 gas has mass
(a) 28g
(b) 2.8g
(c) 0.0012g
(d) 0.0025g
(6) The no. of carbon atoms in 6 g of diamond is
(a) 3.01 x 1022
(b) 6.02 x 1023
22
(c) 6.02 x 10
(d) 3.01 x 1023
(7) The ratio of volume between 4 g of H2 and 32g of CH4
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:1
(c) 1:8
(d) 2:1
(8) The mass of water formed when 18g of H2 and 64g of oxygen react
(a) 68g
(b) 72g
(c) 66g
(d) 36g
(9) The no. of electrons lost by 19.5g of K to form K+ ions
(a) 6.02 x 1022
(b) 6.02 x 1023
24
(c) 6.02 x 10
(d) 3.01 x 1023
(10) No. of molecules in 1cm3 of water vapours
(a) 3 x 1023
(b) 1.5 x 1023
(c) 2.7 x 1019
(d) 2.7 x 1023
(5)
Test-II
(10)
Test : Chemistry
Time Allowed : 20 min
F.Sc : Part I
Max. Marks : 15
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Why formation of anion is usually exothermic process.
2: The term formula mass is used for ionic compounds instead of molecular mass.
Why?
3: In industry, costly reagent is always taken as limiting reactant. Why?
4: Why experimental yield is mostly less than the theoretical yield.
5: N2 and CO have the same number of electrons, protons and neutrons.
Subjective
Q. No.3: (a) Define the following terms and give example of each.
(i) Avogadro’s number
(ii) Gram molecule
(b) Calculate mass in grams of 2.74 moles of KMnO4.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 1
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
(10)
(1) Which one of the following compounds has highest % of ‘O’?
(a) CH3—O—CH3
(b) CH3COOH
(c) HCOOH
(d) H2C2O4
(2) The formula, which gives actual no. of atoms in a compound
(a) formula mass
(b) formula unit
(c) molecular formula
(d) empirical formula
(3) The empirical formula of a compound with 58% sulphur and 50 % oxygen
(a) SO
(b) SO3
(c) S2O3
(d) SO2
-1
(4) The no. of ions in 15 g of CO3 ions is
(a) 1.5 x 1022
(b) 3.01 x 1023
23
(c) 1.5 x 10
(d) 6.02 x 1023
(5) The largest mass of CO2 is formed when 1 mole of each of the following is
completely burned
(a) Diamond
(b) C2H6
(c) Methane
(d) CO
(6) 4.6g of C2H5OH & 3g of C2H6 have
(a) different no. of molecules
(b) equal no. of molecules H-atoms
(c) different mass of carbon
(d) 0.2 moles of oxygen
(7) The complete ionization of 32.6g of H3PO4 produces H+ ions
(a) 6.02 x 1023
(b) 6.02 x 1022
(c) 0.6 x 1024
(d) 3.01 x 1023
(8) No. of hydrogen atoms in 45g of glucose
(a) 6.02 x 1023
(b) 1.8 x 1024
24
(c) 18 x 10
(d) 1.8 x 1022
(9) Which one of the following pairs occupies same volume at STP
(a) 2.8 N2 & 3g NO
(b) 4.4 g of N2O & 4.4 g NO2
(c) 3.8 N2 & 3g NO
(d) 4.9 g of N2O & 4.4 g NO2
(10) The no. of Cl- ions produced by 1 mole of AlCl3
(a) 1000 x 1023
(b) 3.01 x 1023
(c) 3.01 x 1024
(d) 1.8 x 1024
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: The vapour pressure in mass spectrometer is maintained b/w 10-6 to 10-7 torr. Why?
2: Ionic compounds have same formula unit as well as empirical formula.
3: A limiting reactants controls the amount of product formed in a chemical reaction. Why?
4: The physical properties of isotopes are different. Discuss.
5: Calculate the mass of 10-3 moles of MgSO4 .
Subjective
Q. No.3: What is limiting reactant? How does it control the quantity of product formed?
Explain with three examples.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 1
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
(10)
(1) A limiting reactant gives
(a) stable product
(b) least no. of moles of product
(c) highest no. of moles of product
(d) unstable product
(2) The formula, which gives simplest ratio b/w atoms in a compound
(a) formula unit
(b) structural formula
(c) molecular formula
(d) empirical formula
(3) In combustion analysis water is absorbed by
(a) Al2O3
(b) SiO2
(c) 50 % KOH
(d) Mg (ClO4) 2
(4) Empirical formula determination do not involve determination of
(a) percentage of each element
(b) gram atoms of each element
(c) isotopes of each element
(d) atomic ratio of elements
(5) The total no. of oxygen atoms in 44g of CO2
(a) 6.02 x 1023
(b) 1.204 x 1023
(c) 12.04 x 1024
(d) 18.06 x 1023
(6) The volume occupied by one gram of oxygen gas
(a) 22.414 dm3
(b) 22414 cm3
3
(c) 0.70 dm
(d) 0.22414 m3
3
(7) The 1 cm of N2 gas has no. of atoms
(a) 5.3 x 1019 atoms
(b) 1 x 1020 atoms
23
(c) 602 x 10
(d) 1.67 x 1020 atoms
(8) The ratio of the volumes between equal masses of O2, H2 and CH4 is
(a) 1:1:1
(b) 2:16:2
(c) 1:16:2
(d) 2:16:1
(9) Combustion analysis help to determine
(a) structural formula
(b) empirical formula
(c) isotope of element
(d) Number of ions
(10) The compound with least mass
(a) 1 mole of S
(b) 7g of Ag
(c) 2g atoms of N2
(d) 3 x 1023 atoms of C
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Why atomic masses of elements are fractional usually.
2: The chemical properties of isotopes of an element are same. Comment.
3: Why the concept of limiting reactants is not applicable to reversible reactions?
4: Define isotopes. Give examples.
5: 23g of Sodium and 238g of Uranium have equal number of atoms in them.
Subjective
Q. No.3: (a) Define the following terms and give examples of each.
(i) Molar mass
(ii) Empirical formula
(b) Calculate mass in grams of 2.78 x 1021 molecules of CrO2Cl2.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 2
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-I
(10)
(1) A complete chemical characterization of a compound include
(a) quantitative analysis
(b) qualitative analysis
(c) analytical chemistry
(d) both a & b
(2) Insoluble particles in a liquid are removed by
(a) sublimation
(b) solvent extraction
(c) crystallization
(d) filtration
(3) To obtain medium sized crystals hot saturated solution is cooled
(a) slowly
(b) immediately
(c) moderately
(d) suddenly
(4) The substance, which is directly converted into gas phase without passing through
liquid phase, is called
(a) filtrate
(b) sublimate
(c) mother liquor
(d) chromate
(5) The solvent extraction is carried out in
(a) conical funnel
(b) thistle funnel
(c) separating funnel
(d) glass crucible
(6) The colour of the crystals is removed by boiling the crystals in solvent with
(a) charcoal
(b) animal charcoal
(c) coke
(d) graphite
(7) The stationary phase may be liquid or solid supported as a thin film on the surface of
(a) wood
(b) beaker
(c) inert solid
(d) iron sheet
(8) The substances in chromatography are separated on basis of
(a) relative affinities
(b) solubility in solvent only
(c) adhesion to the stationary phase
(d) both a&b
(9) Paper chromatography is a type of which of the followings
(a) adsorption chromatography
(b) partition chromatography
(c) column chromatography
(d) thin layer chromatography
(10) A point on chromatography where mixture to be separated is placed is called
(a) base-line
(b) solvent front
(c) chromatogram
(d) eluent
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
1:
2:
3:
4:
5:
(10)
The stem of the funnel should be long and should touch the side of beaker. Why?
What is Gooch crucible?
What is the basic principle of crystallization.
Why some solids show sublimation?
Iodine is insoluble in water but when some KI is added to it, it becomes soluble, Why?
Subjective
Q. No.3: Name different steps involved in crystallization for purification of a substance.
Also,Write down the main characteristics of a solvent selected for crystallization of a
compound.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 2
Test-II
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) The science of chemical characterization of compounds is called
(a) analytical chemistry
(b) biochemistry
(c) applied chemistry
(d) geochemistry
(2) No preparation is required for the filtration through
(a) simple filter paper
(b) flutted filter paper
(c) gooch crucible
(d) sintered glass crucible
(3) During crystallization, insoluble impurities are removed by filtering
(a) cold saturated solution
(b) hot saturated solution
(c) super saturated solution
(d) unsaturated solution
(4) The desiccating agent used in desiccators
(a) ammonium chloride
(b) calcium chloride
(c) acetone
(d) sulphuric acid
(5) Which one of the following obeys distribution law?
(a) filtration
(b) sublimation
(c) crystallization
(d) solvent extraction
(6) Which one of the following mixture can be separated by sublimation?
(a) sand and naphthalene
(b) naphthalene and benzoic acid
(c) naphthalene and NH4Cl
(d) ammonium chloride
(7) The mobile phase may be
(a) gas
(b) liquid
(c) solid
(d) both a&b
(8) A type of chromatography in which stationary phase is solid is called
(a) adsorption chromatography
(b) partition chromatography
(c) paper chromatography
(d) column chromatography
(9) Paper chromatography may be
(a) ascending
(b) descending
(c) radial
(d) all the above
(10) Paper chromatography in which mobile phase moves downward is called
(a) ascending
(b) descending
(c) radial
(d) both a & b
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Nature of the precipitates decides the filter medium to be used. Comment.
2: What is sintered glass crucible. Why it is convenient to use?
3: During crystallization, hot saturated solution is filtered to remove the insoluble
impurities. Comment.
4: How crystals are dried.
5: Differentiate between adsorption chromatography and partition chromatography.
Subjective
Q. No.3: Explain the process of solvent extraction.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 2
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1) Determination of relative amounts of each element in a compound is called
(a) quantitative analysis
(b) qualitative analysis
(c) analytical chemistry
(d) both a & b
(2) The filtration through filter paper is increased by using
(a) sintered glass crucible
(b) funnel of small stem
(b) flutted filter paper
(d) filter paper of greater porosity
(3) A solvent chosen for crystallization should
(a) not react chemically
(b) react chemically
(c) be expensive
(d) dissolve small amount of solute at its boiling point
(4) The liquid left behind after the filtration is called
(a) filtrate
(b) sublimate
(c) mother liquor
(d) chromate
(5) The sublimation is better proceeded in
(a) inverted funnel
(b) china dish
(c) cold finger
(d) separating funnel
(6) Slow cooling of hot saturated solution form
(a) large crystals
(b) small crystals
(c) moderate
(d) premature crystals
(7) None of the components of a can have Rf value more than
(a) one
(b) four
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.8
(8) A type of chromatography in which stationary phase is liquid is called
(a) adsorption chromatography
(b) partition chromatography
(c) paper chromatography
(d) column chromatography
(9) A type of chromatography in which paper act as a support for liquid stationary phase is
called
(a) adsorption chromatography
(b) partition chromatography
(c) paper chromatography
(d) column chromatography
(10) Paper chromatography in which mobile phase moves upward is called
(a) ascending
(b) descending
(c) radial
(d) both a & b
1: The flutted filter paper increases the rate of filtration considerably. why?
2: What are the advantages of Gooch crucible over the filter paper and
funnel assembly?
3: The hot filtered solution cooled at moderate rate. Why?
4: How crystals are obtained from mother liquor?
5: Give statement of distribution law or partition law.
Subjective
Q. No.3: Define partition chromatography and explain the process of paper
Chromatography.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 2
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
(10)
(1) Identification of elements in a compound is called
(a) quantitative analysis
(b) qualitative analysis
(c) analytical chemistry
(d) Both a & b
(2) Filtration through funnel and filter paper is
(a) slow
(b) fast
(c) moderate
(d) efficient
(3) Rectified spirit is
(a) absolute alcohol
(b) 95% ethanol
(c) acetone
(d) chloroform
(4) The liquid left behind after the crystallization is called
(a) filtrate
(b) sublimate
(c) mother liquor
(d) chromate
(5) A safe and reliable method for drying crystals is
(a) heating in oven
(b) drying in folds of filter paper
(c) in hot air
(d) vacuum desicator
(6) The use of flutted filter paper increases the rate of filtration due to greater
(a) surface area
(b) pore size
(c) thickness of paper
(d) no. of pores
(7) The two substances giving same Rf value in same solvent separately are
(a) same
(b) different
(c) isomers
(d) monomers
(8) Chromatography is derived from a Greek word chromatos meaning
(a) colour writing
(b) coloring
(c) colour printing
(d) both a&b
(9) Paper chromatography in which mobile phase moves downward is called
(a) ascending
(b) descending
(c) radial
(d) both a & b
(10) The point where solvent rises to the maximum on the paper is called
(a) base-line
(b) solvent front
(c) chromatogram
(d) eluent
Q. No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Filtration through simple filter paper could be very time consuming without
gentle suction. Comment.
2: Concentrated HCl and KMnO4 cannot be filtered through Gooch
Crucible. Discuss.
3: How colored crystals are decolorized?
4: Differentiate between mobile and stationary phases.
5: Is partition chromatography in modified form of solvent extraction.
Subjective
Q. No.3: Discuss briefly the different filter medium used for filtration.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 3
Test-I
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) Gases bubble through the liquid and tend to rise up due to low
(a) densities
(b) vapour pressure
(c) melting point
(d) boiling point
(2) The relationship between volume of given amount of gas and external conditions are called
(a) Gas laws
(b) Boyle’s laws
(c) Charles’s law
(d) Graham’s law
(3) The curve obtained by plotting a graph between volume and pressure at constant temperature
(a) solubility curve
(b) mesotherm
(c) Isotherm
(d) Both a & b
(4) The value of general gas constant is
(a) 0.0821 atm K-1 mol-1
(b) 62.4 dm3 cm3 torr K-1 mol-1
3
-1
-1
(c) 62400 cm torr K mol
(d) 1.987JK-1 mol-1
(5) The pressure exerted by a gas in a mixture of gasses is called
(a) individual pressure
(b) Partial pressure
(c) aqueous tension
(d) Vapour pressure
(6) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) has a color
(a) Color less
(b) Yellow color
(c) Brown color
(d) Blue color
(7) The movement of gas molecules through a pinhole is called as
(a) diffusion
(b) effusion
(c) transport
(d) translocation
(8) The order of rate of diffusion and effusion of following gases is
(a) H2 > O2 NH3 > HCl
(b) H2 > NH3 > O2 > HCl
(c) H2 > O2 > HCl > NH3
(d) O2 > H2 > HCl > NH3
(9) The critical temperature for CO2 is
(a) 13.1 oC
(b) 1.31 oC
o
(c) 12.6 C
(d) 29.6 oC
(10) The excluded volume is
(a) Vm
(b) Vfree
(c) V vessel
(d) b
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Define Charles’s Law quantitatively?
2: What is the Joule Thomson effect?
3: Write two main assumptions of kinetic molecular theory?
4: How partial pressure facilitates respiration.
5: What is the fourth state of matter? How it can be obtained.
Subjective
Q.No.3: Define Graham’s law and give its experimental verification
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 3
Test-II
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) Which of the following show Joule Thomson effect
(a) gases
(b) plasma
(c) solids
(d) liquids
(2) A device used to determine the pressure of a gas is called
(a) Manometer
(b) Photometer
(c) Electrometer
(d) Both a & b
(3) Charles’s law is only obeyed at which temperature scale
(a) Celsius
(b) Kelvin
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) both (a) & (b)
(4) The relationship between density and molar mass of a gas is
(a) directly proportional
(b) inversely proportional
(c) straight line
(d) stoichiometric
(5) One dm3 of H2 and O2 has different masses but no. of particles are
(a) same
(b) different
(c) H2 has greater
(d) O2 has greater
(6) The partial pressure of oxygen in air is
(a) 116g/cm3
(b) 159g/cm3
3
(c) 112g/cm
(d) 120g/cm3
(7) The scientist that deduced kinetic gas equation and gas laws is
(a) Bernoulli
(b) Clausius
(c) Maxwell
(d) Boltzman
(8) The pressure exerted by gas molecules is due to their
(a) collisions
(b) densities
(c) masses
(d) kinetic energy
(9) The critical temperature for O2 is
(a) –118.75 oC
(b) 132.44 oC
(c) 31.1 oC
(d) 100 oC
(10) The actual volume of one mole of gas is
(a) Vm
(b) Vfree
(c) Vvessel
(d) b
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
1:
2:
3:
4:
5:
(10)
Why real gas behaves non-ideally under high pressure and low temperature.
What is the excluded volume?
Define critical temperature?
What is partial pressure? Write down equation for it.
Lighter gases can diffuse more rapidly than heavier gases.Why?
Subjective
Q.No.3: Derive general gas equation. Calculate values of ‘R’ in different units.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 3
Test-III
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) A straight line parallel to the x-axis is obtained when graph is plotted between
(a) P and V
(b) P and 1/V
(c) PV and V
(d) V and I
(2) The critical temperature for NH3 is
(a) 118.75 oC
(b) –118.75 oC
(c)132.44 oC
(d)13.1 oC
(3) Theoretically, the temperature at which volume of gas become equal to zero is called
(a) Boiling point of water
(b) Zero Kelvin
(c) Zero absolute
(d) both (b) & (c)
3
(4) The no. of molecules in 22.414 dm at STP is
(a) 2.68 x 1022
(b) 6.02 x 1023
23
(c) 3.01 x 10
(d) 1.204 x 1024
(5) The partial pressure of water vapours in a mixture of water vapours and a gas is called
(a) vapour pressure
(b) individual pressure
(c) partial pressure
(d) aqueous tension
(6) The motion imparted to the gas molecules by gravity is
(a) very small
(b) very large
(c) negligible
(d) appreciable
(7) The temperature of a gas is directly proportional to its
(a) average translational kinetic energy
(b) internal energy
(c) enthalpy
(d) heat supplied
(8) The critical temperature for NH3 is
(a) 118.75 oC
(b) –118.75 oC
(c) 132.44 oC
(d)13.1 oC
(9) The gases that can’t be liquefied by Lind’s method are
(a) H2 & O2
(b) O2 & N2
(c) He & Ne
(d) H2 & He
(10) The value for ratio between PV and RT under all conditions for an ideal gas is
(a) ten
(b) five
(c) four
(d) unity
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: What was the base of Vander wall’s pressure correction.
2: What is the order of deviation for CO2, N2, H2 and He. What is the base of this deviation?
3: What is critical pressure and critical volume?
4: Define Dalton’s law of partial pressure?
5: State Avogadro’s law of gases.
Subjective
Q.No.3: Derive vander wall’s equation for real gases.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 3
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
(10)
(1) When pressure on a gas doubled, the volume becomes
(a) half
(b) doubled
(c) four times
(d) one fourth
(2) Deep-sea divers take oxygen mixed with
(a) hydrogen
(b) methane
(c) chlorine
(d) an inert gas
(3) Which one of the following gases have greater rate of diffusion and effusion
(a) NH3
(b) HCl
(c) CH4
(d) O2
(4) The scientist that put forward kinetic molecular theory is
(a) Bernoulli
(b) Clausius
(c) Maxwell
(d) Boltzman
(5) The value of root mean square velocity is
(a) 3RT/M
(b) 3RT/M
(c) 3RT
(d) 3RT/P
(6) In case of solids, temperature is the measure of
(a) translational kinetic energy
(b) vibrational kinetic energy
(c) internal energy
(d) enthalpy
(7) The lowest temperature attained by current attempts is
(a) 10-5 K
(b) 10-5 oC
(c) –1 oC
(d) –100 oC
(8) In Lind’s method for liquefaction of gases, gases are compressed to
(a) 150 atm
(b) 200 atm
(c) 100 atm
(d) 50 atm
(9) The ratio between PV and RT is called as
(a) critical factor
(b) compressibility constant
(c) density of gas
(d) compressibility factor
(10) Under which conditions gases deviate from ideal behavior
(a) low pressure and low temperature
(b) high pressure and low temperature
(c) high pressure and high temperature
(d) low pressure and high temperature
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: What is the compressibility factor? How it acts as stander for ideality.
2: What is aqueous tension?
3: Charles’s law is only obeyed at Kelvin scale. Prove it.
4: At higher altitudes pilots feel uncomfortable breathing, why?
5: Water vapours do not behave ideally at 273 oC.
Subjective
Q.No.3: Describe fundamental postulates of kinetic molecular theory of gases.
Also, explain Boyle’s law from kinetic gas equation.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 4
Test-I
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) All types of intermolecular forces are collectively called
(a) Vander wall’s forces
(b) London forces
(c) cohesive forces
(d) adhesive forces
(2) The melting points and boiling points of non-polar species increase with increasing
(a) polarizabilty
(b) permanent polarity
(c) atomic mass
(d) dipole-dipole
(3) How much times the strength of hydrogen bonding is less than covalent bond
(a) two times
(b) ten times
(c) twenty times
(d) thirty times
(4) Each turn of helix contains which no. of amino acids on the average
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 27
(5) The ice on the surface of water acts as
(a) conductor
(b) thermo-pole sheet
(c) insulator
(d) semiconductor
(6) The vapour pressure of water in comparison to ether is
(a) greater
(b) lesser
(c) equal
(d) not comparable
(7) The liquid crystals are always
(a) isomorphic
(b) polymorphic
(c) isotropic
(d) anisotropic
(8) The isomorphism depends upon
(a) ratio between the atoms
(b) way of combination of atoms
(c) types of atoms
(d) both a & b
(9) The transition temperature of sulpher is
(a) 95 oC
(b) 95.5 oC
o
(c) 13 C
(d) 13.2 oC
(10) Which one of the following bond is non-directional?
(a) ionic
(b) covalent
(c) coordinate covalent
(d) chemical
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: What are crystallographic elements?
2: Boiling point of a liquid changes with change in external pressure. Comment.
3: The hydrides of Nitrogen, Oxygen and fluorine show exceptionally high boiling points in their groups.
Explain.
4: Ice floats on the surface of water. Comment.
5: Evaporation causes cooling.
Subjective
Q.NO.3:
Define and explain the following with examples.
(i) Isomorphism
(ii) Polymorphism
(iii) Transition temperature
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 4
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-II
(10)
(1) The comparison of intermolecular and intramolecular forces tells us that
(a) intermolecular forces are greater than intramolecular forces
(b) intermolecular forces are weaker than intramolecular forces
(c) inter and intramolecular forces are equal
(d) both are not comparable
(2)The Vander wall’s forces effect which property of compounds
(a) thermodynamic
(b) chemical
(c) anisotropy
(d) isotropic
(3) An important factor that affect the strength of London forces amongst nonpolar molecules
(a) no. of atoms in a molecule
(b) no. of molecule in the sample
(c) increasing Avogadro’s no.
(d) increasing density
(4) The boiling point of water is more than hydrogen fluoride because can exhibit
(a) two hydrogen bonds
(b) one hydrogen bond
(c) greater polarizability
(d) larger size
(5) The diameter of two spirally coiled chains of deoxyribonucleic acid is
(a) 15-18 A0
(b) 18-20 A0
(c) 20-22 A0
(d) 10-15 A0
(6) Ice floats on the surface of water due to its
(a) greater density
(b) lesser density
(c) greater mass
(d) lesser mass
(7) The boiling point of water at murree hills is a
(a) 100 oC
(b) 98 oC
o
(c) 120 C
(d) 69 oC
(8) The physical properties that changes depending upon the direction of crystal are
(a) isomorphic
(b) polymorphic
(c) isotropic
(d) anisotropic
(9) The transition temperature of tin is
(a) 95 oC
(b) 95.5 oC
o
(c) 13 C
(d) 13.2 oC
(10) A unit cell in all the bond angles and bond lengths are different is called
(a) cubic
(b) hexagonal
(c) triclinic
(d) rhombohedral
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: What are bravis unit cells? Give their names.
2: Molar heat of sublimation is greater than molar heat of vaporization and it is greater than heat of
fusion. Why?
3: Why the compounds of metals are not conductor of electricity in solid state than pure solid metals?
4: Why fish and plants continue to survive under frozen water?
5: The boiling point of water is different at Murree hills and at Mount Everest.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Define Hydrogen bonding and discuss its three application.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 4
Test-III
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1)The hydrogen bonding is force
(a)intermolecular
(b) intramolecular
(c)London
(d) both a & b
(2) The strength of London forces among non-polar species depends upon their
(a) polarizability
(b) sizes
(c) atomic mass
(d) both a&b
(3) The molecule of hydrofluoric acid joins with each other in a zigzag manner due to
(a) hydrogen bonding
(b) three lone pairs of fluorine
(c) smaller size of fluorine
(d) polarity of hydrofluoric acid
(4) The structure of water molecule in ice is
(a) tetrahedral
(b) trigonal
(c) hexagonal
(d) pyramidal
(5) The molar heat of vaporization of water is
(a) 100 kJ/ mole
(b) 50 kJ/mole
(c) 30 kJ/mole
(d) 40.6 kJ/mole
(6) The glycerin decomposes as well as boils at
(a) 100 oC
(b) 290 oC
o
(c) 280 C
(d) 250 oC
(7) The decreasing order amongst the heat of fusion, vaporization and sublimation is
(a) ∆Hs  ∆Hf  ∆Hv
(b) ∆Hv  ∆Hf  ∆Hs
(c) ∆Hf  ∆Hv  ∆Hs
(d) ∆Hs  ∆Hv  ∆Hf
(8) The liquid water exist in equilibrium with its solid water at temperature
(a) 100 oC
(b) 0 oC
o
(c) 4 C
(d) 273 oC
(9) The repetition of faces, angles or edges on rotation of crystal at 360 º is called
(a) habit of crystal
(b) symmetry
(c) isomorphism
(d) polymorphism
(10) The smallest part of crystal that shows its properties is called
(a) crystal lattice
(b) crystal unit
(c) unit cell
(d) cell dimensions
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Define transition temperature with an example.
2: Dynamic equilibrium is the fate of all the reversible processes.Comment.
3: Why lattice energy of NaCl is greater than NaBr?
4: Why a lake does not freeze completely down to the bottom?
5: Why ionic crystals are brittle.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: State the difference in the properties of Ionic and Covalent compounds.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 4
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(1)The percent effectiveness of dipole-dipole force in comparison to the covalent bond
(a) ten percent
(b) one percent
(c) twenty percent
(d) five percent
(2)The dissolution of an ionic compound in water is due to which force
(a) London
(b) dipole-dipole
(c) ion dipole
(d) Vander wall’s
(3) The primary reason for London forces is that
(a) interaction between electrons
(b) interaction between nuclei
(c) interaction between two poles
(d) both a&b
(4) Hydrofluoric acid is weakest amongst halogen acids due to
(a) London forces
(b) Vander wall, s forces
(c) Hydrogen bonding
(d) both a&b
(5) A molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid is
(a) helix
(b) single polynucleotide chain
(c) double helix
(d) both a& b
(6) Hydrogen bonding is for which property of paints
(a) adhesive action
(b) shiny surface
(c) protective nature
(d) beautiful colors
(7) The temperature of water under the layer of ice is
(a) 0 oC
(b) 4 oC
o
(c) – 4 C
(d) 100 oC
(8) The life of fish and plants under frozen water exists due to which property of water
(a) hydrogen bonding
(b) cohesion of water molecules
(c) feezing point
(d) melting point
(9) The parameters that describe angles and length of a unit cell are called
(a) crystallographic elements
(b) cell dimensions
(c) cell parameter
(d) unit cell dimensions
(10) A unit cell in which all the angles and lengths are equal is called
(a) cubic
(b) hexagonal
(c) triclinic
(d) rhombohedral
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
Test-IV
(10)
(10)
1. The boiling point of water is more effected by hydrogen bonding than that of hydrogen fluoride.
Why?
2:Comment on anisotropy with the example of graphite.
3; What helps the helix formation of proteins and double helix of DNA to exist in the form?
4: Conductivity of metal decreases by increasing temperature.
5: Sodium chloride and caesium chloride have different structures.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Write down the properties of metallic solids.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 5
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-I
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1)The scientist who predicted properties of cathode rays in magnetic field is
(a) Goldstein
(b) J.J Thomson
(c) J. Perin
(d) W.Croocks
(2) When cathode rays fall on Alumina , it glows
(a) red
(b) yellow
(c) brown
(d) bright yellow
(3) The α-particles and Be nuclei rearrange to form a third nuclei which is
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen
(4) The charge on an electron is
(a) –1.602 x 10-19Coul.
(b) +1.602 x 10-19Coul.
-11
(c) 1.7588 x 10 Coul.
(d) 1.7588 x 1011 Coul
(5) Millikan determined which of the following property of electron
(a) e/m value
(b) charge
(c) mass
(d) magnetic properties
(6) The radius of first orbit of Hydrogen is
(a) 0.529Aº
(b) 2.11Aº
(c) 5.29Aº
(d) 0.211Aº
(7) Paschen, Brackette and Pfund series fall which region
(a) ultraviolet region
(b) I.R region
(c) visible region
(d) X-rays region
(8) The splitting of spectral line in the presence of magnetic field is called
(a) stark effect
(b) zeeman effect
(c) shielding effect
(d) screening effect
(9) When the cathode rays converge on metal target, which rays are produced
(a) x-rays
(b) α-rays
(c) β-rays
(d) γ-rays
(10) A set of numerical values that completely describes the behaviour of electron in shell is
(a) quantum no.
(b) principal quantum no.
(c) azimuthal quantum no.
(d) magnetic quantum no.
1: Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles. Why?
2: How atom depicted by Rutherford’s atomic model was considered unstable?
3: Define atomic emission spectrum with an example.
4: What is Zeeman effect?
5: Write down the electronic configuration of 24Cr and 57La
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Derive the equation of radius of revolving electron in nth orbit.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 5
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-II
(10)
(1)The gas inside the discharge tube conduct electricity under low pressure and at voltage.
(a) 3000V
(b) 4000V
(c) 5000-10000V
(d) 1000V
(2) The scientist who determined the properties of cathode rays in electrical field is
(a) Goldstein
(b) J.J Thomson
(c) J. Perin
(d) W.Croocks
(3) Because positive rays pass through the perforations of cathode , they are also called
(a) canal rays
(b) anode rays
(c) proton rays
(d) x-rays
(4) Fast moving neutrons eject which particle when fall on Nitrogen atom
(a) α-particles
(b)He nuclei
(c) β-particles
(d) γ-particles.
(5) The charge to mass value of an electron is
(a) 1.602 x 10-19 C/kg
(b) 1.7588 x 1011 C/kg
(c) 9.1095 x 10-31 C/kg
(d) 1.67 x 10-27C/kg
(6) Which of the following model of atom is based on Plank’s quantum theory
(a) Bohr’smodel
(b) Dalton’s law
(c) Rutherford’s model
(d) Both a&b
(7) The ionization energy for Hydrogen atom is
(a) 1313.31 kJ/mole
(b) 328.32 kJ/mole
(c) 145.92 kJ/mole
(d) 82.08K kJ/mole
(8) The Lyman series fall in which region
(a) ultraviolet region
(b) I.R region
(c) visible region
(d) x-rays region
(9) The spectrum of sodium consist of how many lines
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 3
(10) A numerical value that describes the size and energy of a shell is
(a) quantum no.
(b) principal quantum no.
(c) azimuthal quantum no.
(d) magnetic quantum no.
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: The nature of anode rays varies with the nature of gas used in discharge tube. Why?
2: Differentiate between slow and fast neutrons.
3: What is a spectrum give wavelength range of visible region?
4: What is Sommerfeld modification?
5: What is (n + l) rule? When 6d orbital is complete, the entering electrons goes into 7p or 7d orbital.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: What are Cathode rays? How are they produced? Give five characteristics properties of
cathode rays.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 5
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
(10)
(1) The scientist who discovered the protons
(a) Goldstein
(b) J.J Thomson
(c) J. Perin
(d) W.Croocks
(2)Which one of the following gas has maximum e/m ratio
(a) hydrogen
(b) nitrogen
(c) oxygen
(d) helium
(3) The scientist who discovered neutrons and got the Nobel prize in 1935
(a) Goldstein
(b) Heisenberg
(c) Chadwick
(d) De-Broglie
(4) Which rays are produced when slow moving neutrons hit Cu metal
(a) α-rays
(b) β-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) cathode rays
(5) The value of Planks constant is
(a) 6.625 X10-34joul.sec
(b) 6.625 X10-34joul.sec-1
(c) 6.625 X10-31joul.sec
(d) 6.625 X10-27joul.sec
(6) The wavelength of visible radiations ranges between
(a) 400-700nm
(b) 400-750nm
(c) 400-600nm
(d) 400-800nm
(7) The Blamer series fall in which region
(a) ultraviolet region
(b) I.R region
(c) visible region
(d) x-rays region
(8) The splitting of spectral line in the presence of magnetic field is called
(a) stark effect
(b) zeeman effect
(c) shielding effect
(d) screening effect
(9) Who suggested the elliptical orbits of electron around the nucleus?
(a) Mosley
(b) Sommerfeld
(c) Rutherford
(d) Shcrodinger
(10) A numerical value that describes the shape and energy of a sub-shell in a shell is called
(a) quantum no
(b) principal quantum no.
(c) azimuthal quantum no
(d) magnetic quantum no.
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: The charge to mass ratio of anode rays depends upon the nature of gas. Why?
2: Differentiate between line and continuous spectrum.
3: Give two main defects of Bohr’s model.
4: What is stark effect?
5: Define Hund’s rule.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Describe Milliken’s oil drop method to discover the charge of an electron.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 5
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(1) The original glow inside the discharge tube disappeared when pressure was reduced to
(a) 0.1 torr
(b) 0.01 torr
(c) 1 torr
(d) 0.5 torr.
(2) The scientist who suggested the name proton for the constituent particles of canal rays
(a) Goldstein
(b) Rutherford
(c) W.Croocks
(d) J.J Thomson
(3) When slow moving neutron hit Cu metal, it is converted into
(a) nickel
(b) zinc
(c) carbon
(d) nitrogen
(4) Who discovered the e/m ratio of electron?
(a) Chadwick
(b) Rutherford
(c) J.J Thomson
(d) De-Broglie
(5) The mass of an electron is
(a) 9.1095 x 10-31 kg
(b) 9.1095 x 10-31 g
(c) 9.1095 x 10-28 kg
(d) 9.1095 x 10-25kg
(6) The relationship between the energy and square of the velocity is
(a) direct
(b) inverse
(c) linear
(d) both a&b
(7)The bending of radiation through a refracting material depends upon its
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) wave no.
(d)velocity
(8) The wavelength of X-rays emitted when cathode rays converge on metal target ranges
(a) 0.4-8Aº
(b) 0.04-0.08Aº
(c) 0.04-8Aº
(d) 4-8Aº
(9) The wave particle dual nature of matter was explained by
(a) Sommerfeld
(b) Mosley
(c) De-Broglie
(d) Heisenberg
(10) A numerical value that describes about the no. of orientation in a sub-shell is
(a) quantum no.
(b) principal quantum no.
(c) azimuthal quantum no.
(d) magnetic quantum no.
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
Test-IV
(10)
(10)
1: The properties of anode rays are the properties of proton when Hydrogen gas is used in the discharge
tube. Explain.
2: Differentiate between Lyman and Balmer series.
3: How will you establish a relationship between x-rays emitted by metal and its atomic no.?
4: What is the relationship between
(i) energy and wavelength
(ii) frequency and wavelength
5: What is Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Explain Principle and Azimuthal quantum number in detail.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 6
Test-I
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1)The chemical force that holds the two atoms together in a molecule is called
(a) vander Wall’s force
(b) chemical bond
(c) hydrogen bond
(d) dipole-dipole force
(2) Which one of the following pairs of molecule do not obey octet rule
(a) N2 and O2
(b) O2 and PF5
(c) BCl3 and PF5
(d) SO2 and H2S
(3)The atomic radius increases from top to bottom due to
(a) Shielding effect
(b) Compton’s effect
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) both a&b
(4) The elements having intermediate ionization energy are mostly
(a) metals
(b) non-metals
(c) metalloids
(d) solids
(5) The electron affinity of Halogens at the end of periodic is
(a) lowest
(b) highest
(c) moderate
(d) very high
(6) The elements having electronegativity difference more than 1.7 usually forms
(a) ionic bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) non-polar covalent bond
(d) co-ordinate covalent bond
(7) The orbital in which electron experiences maximum nuclear force
(a) s-orbital
(b) p-orbital
(c) d-orbital
(d) f-orbital
(8) Which one of the following species have maximum no. of unpaired electrons .
(a) Li
(b) Be
(c) B
(d) C
(9) Which one of the following pairs of orbitals show maximum extent of overlapping.
(a) s-s orbitals
(b) S-Px orbitals
(c) Px-Px orbitals
(d)Py-Py orbitals
(10) Which one of the following has maximum no. of unpaired electrons
(a) O2
(b) O2+
(c) O2
(d) O2-2
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Ionic bonds are non-directional. Comment.
2: Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic. Give reasons.
3: The bond angle in NH3 is 107º while that of NF3 is102º .Explain the reason.
4: Ionization is an index to the metallic character. Comment.
5: The dipole moment of CO2 is Zero whereas that of CO is .0112D.Although both have linear
geometry.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Describe “VSEPR Theory” in detail. How does it explain shapes of BF3 and H2O. (5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 6
Test-II
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) The noble gases are most stable due to
(a) complete octet
(b) last p-orbital
(c) monoatomic form
(d) gaseous state
(2) The minimum distance between two Hydrogen atoms in Hydrogen molecule is
(a) 754Aº
(b) 0.0754Aº
(c) 0.0754nm
(d) 0.754nm
(3) The radius of neutral Sodium atom is
(a) 186pm
( b) 95pm
(c) 181pm
(d) 99pm
(4) The elements with low ionization energy are mostly
(a) metals
(b) non-metals
(c) metalloids
(d) solids
(5) The electron affinity of fluorine (most electronegative) in comparison to Chlorine is
(a) smaller
(b) larger
(c) equal
(d) very small
(6) A bond between specie having lone pair and electron deficient specie
(a) ionic
(b) polar covalent
(c) non-polar covalent
(d) co-ordinate covalent
(7) The elements with same electronegativity or negligible electronegative difference
usually forms
(a) ionic
(b) polar covalent
(c) non-polar covalent
(d) co-ordinate covalent
(8) Which one of the following species have maximum no. of δ-bonds
(a) C2H6
(b) C2H4
(c) C2H2
(d) SF6
(9) The bond angle in CH4 molecule is
(a) 107º
(b) 104.5º
(c) 109.5º
(d) 120º
(10) According to MOT He2 molecule does not exist because
(a) electrons reside in the ABMO
(b) electrons reside in BMO
(c) electrons do not interact
(d) bond order is zero
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Amongst the Hydrogen Halides, Hydrogen Fluoride has strongest bond. Give reason.
2: What is the order of repulsion between electron pairs. Also justify the order.
3: What is the trend of ionization energy in the periodic table?
4: Nitrogen molecule is diamagnetic. Give reason.
5: Solid NaCl does not conduct electricity, but when electric current is passed through
molten sodium chloride or its aqueous solution, electrolysis takes place.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Define and explain dipole moment. How is it measured? Give its units.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 6
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
(10)
(1) The most reactive gas amongst the noble gases is
(a) neon
(b) argon
(c) radon
(d) xenon
(2) Which one of the following involve the gain of electrons by Hydrogen atom
(a) H2O
(b) HF
(c) H2S
(d) NaH
(3) The radius of neutral Chorine atom is
(a) 186pm
(b) 95pm
(c) 181pm
(d) 99pm
(4) Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment
(a) CHCl3
(b) CH2Cl2
(c) CH3Cl
(d) CCl4
(5) The ionization energy of Potassium is
(a) 424 kJ/mole
(b) 508 kJ/mole
(c) 415 kJ/mole
(d) 325 kJ/mole
(6) Which of the following solids does not contain covalent bond
(a) Ice
(b) Copper
(c) Diamond
(d) Graphite
(7) The no. of bonds formed by an atom is equal to which no. in its valence shell
(a) no. of paired electrons
(b) no. of unpaired electrons
(c) no. of lone pairs
(d) total no. of electrons
(8) Which one of the following bonds is unstable?
(a) δ-bond
(b) π-bond
(c) ionic bond
(d) metallic bond
(9) Which one of the following pairs show maximum repulsion
(a) lone pair-bond pair
(b) lone pair- lone pair
(c) bond pair-bond pair
(d) lone pair-unpaired electron
(10) The extent of ionic character of Halogen Hydrides is in the following order
(a) HCl  HF HI HBr
(b) HI HBr HCl HF
(d) HF HCl HBr HI
(d) HBr HF HCl HI
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: The bond energy for polar molecule is always greater than the expected value. Explain.
2: He2 molecule does not exist. Comment.
3: The radius of cation is always smaller than its neutral atom .Why?
4: Define octet rule. How PF5 and SF6 deviate it?
5: What type of bonds are present in NH4Cl.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Describe Valence Bond theory (VBT) and give values of bond angles in the following
molecules.
(i) CO2
(ii) CH4
(iii) H2O
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 6
Test-IV
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) The name noble gases was given to 8th-A group because they are
(a) least reactive
(b) inert
(c) rare
(d) most reactive
(2)The distance between the centers of two adjacent atoms can be determined by
(a) x-rays
(b) spectroscopy
(c) ultrasound
(d) both a&b
(3) The covalent radius of Hydrogen is
(a) 76pm
(b) 38pm
(c) 99pm
(d) 95pm
(4) The electron affinity of alkali metals at the start of periodic
(a) lowest
(b) highest
(c) moderate
(d) very high
(5) The lattice energy for Potassium Chloride is
(a) 690 kJ/mole
(b) 424 kJ/mole
(c) 508 kJ/mole
(d) 415 kJ/mole
(6) The bond between NH3 and BF3 is
(a) ionic
(b) polar covalent
(c) non-polar covalent
(d) co-ordinate covalent
(7) Which one of the following species have maximum no. of lone pairs
(a) NH3
(b) H2O
(c) HF
(d) F(8) Which one of the following forms bonding in excited state only?
(a) oxygen
(b) tin
(c) sulpher
(d) carbon
(9) The geometry of water molecule is
(a) tetrahedral
(b) pyramidal
(c) triangular
(d) angular
(10)The maximum electrons possessed by
(a) Px-orbital
(b) Py-orbital
(c) s-orbital
(d) d-orbital
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Differentiate between sigma and pi bond.
2: The radius of anion is greater than that of its neutral atom. Comment.
3 The 2nd –A and 8th-A elements show zero value of electron affinity. Why?
4: Fluorine has smaller value of electron affinity than that of Chlorine. Why?
5: The bond angle of H2O and NH3 are not 109.5 like that of CH4.Although O and N are also sp3
hybridized.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Discuss the formation of O2 molecule on the basis of MOT. What factors are
responsible for the paramagnetism of oxygen.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 7
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-I
(10)
(1) The comparison of potential energy of reactants and products tells that there are
(a) same
(b) different
(c) not comparable
(d) both a& b
(2) The heat of formation of CO2 is
(a)-393.71 kJ/mole
(b) +285.58 kJ/mole
(c) +393.71 kJ/mole
(d) +180.51 kJ/mole
(3) During
C2H5OH +O2 → CO2 + H2O heat change is called
(a) heat of formation
(b) heat of solution
(c) heat of neutralization
(d) heat of combustion
(4) One Calorie is equal to
(a) 0.418J
(b) 41.48J
(c) 4.18J
(d) 418.4J
(5) As a result of exothermic reaction, the energy of reactants in comparison to the products is
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) not comparable
(6) When work is on the system, then it is taken with sign
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) no sign
(d) both a & b
(7) The comparison of heat changes at constant pressure tells us that
(a) qp  qv
(b) qv  qp
(c) qp= qv
(d) 2qp = qv
(8) The enthalpy of neutralization for HCl and NaOH is
(a) –393 kJ/mole
(b) –57.4 kJ/mole
(c) –110 kJ/mole
(d) zero
(9) According to its statement Hess’s law is also called as
(a) Law of conservation of momentum (b) Born-Haber cycle
(c) Law of conservation of energy
(d)Law of conservation of mass
(10) For which of the following ∆H = ∆E
(a) gases
(b) solids
(c) liquids
(d) both a& b
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Define thermochemistry?
2: What is spontaneous process?
3: Define specific heat and calorimeter?
4: The enthalpy of neutralization for a strong base and weak acid is lesser
than that of strong acid and strong base .Why?
5: Write down the two application of Hess’s law.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Define the Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
By applying, Hess’s law calculate the enthalpy change for the formation NaCl (5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 7
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-II
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1) In which of the following processes energy is always absorbed
(a) bond breaking
(b) bond formation
(c) neutralization reaction
(d) double displacement reaction
(2) A process that proceeds from non equilibrium to an equilibrium state at its own is called
(a) spontaneous
(b) non-spontaneous
(c) uphill
(d) endothermic
(3) The units of heat changes expressed in SI-units are
(a) J
(b) kJ
(c) kgs-2
(d) all of the above
(4) When one mole of water is produced from Hydrogen and Oxygen at 25 ºC and one atm. it is called
(a) enthalpy of reaction
(b) enthalpy of formation
(c) enthalpy of combustion
(d) enthalpy of neutralization
(5) The energy possessed by the molecule due to its motion in straight line is
(a) translational kinetic energy
(b) irrational kinetic energy
(c) rotational kinetic energy
(d) internal energy
(6) When heat flows out of the system, then it is taken with the sign
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) no sign
(d) both a & b
(7) In exothermic reactions, ∆H is taken as
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
(8) Which one of the followings can not be formed by the direct combination of elements
(a) CO2
(b) NaCl
(c) water
(d) CCl4
(9) First law of thermodynamics is mathematically represented as
(a) ∆E = q + W
(b) ∆E = q + P∆V
(c) ∆E= qp
(d) both a& b
(10) The work done in chemistry is the product of pressure and change of
(a) Displacement
(b) area
(c) unit area
(d) volume
1: A chemical reaction usually involves both endothermic exothermic processes. Comment.
2: Is burning of coal, that requires a spark to start, a spontaneous process? If yes, Justify.
3:What are the conventions for pressure volume work and heat?
4: Define specific heat. What are units of specific heat?
5: Define enthalpy of atomization.
Subjective
Q.NO.3:
What is lattice energy? How does Born-Haber cycle help to calculate the lattice energy
of NaCl?
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 7
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1) During an exothermic process, the temperature of the system
(a) rises
(b) falls
(c) remains same
(d) indeterminable
+
(2) During a reaction NH4Cl(l) H2O → NH4 (aq) + Cl-(aq) heat change is called
(a) heat of formation
(b) heat of solution
(c) heat of neutralization
(d) heat of combustion
(3) The units of specific heat are
(a) JK-1
(b) kJ K-1
(c) Jg-1K-1
(d) kgs-2
(4) When an endothermic reaction takes place, the temperature of the surrounding
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) may change
(5) Which one of the following accounts for the potential energy of the molecules?
(a) Vander Wall’s forces
(b) motion in straight line
(c) to and fro motion
(d) motion around a point
(6) Which one of the followings depends upon the initial and final state of the system?
(a) kinetic energy
(b) potential energy
(c) internal energy
(d) phase of the system
(7) In an endothermic reaction, ∆H is taken as
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above
(8) Due to incomplete reaction between elements , enthalpy of which one of the following can not be
measured accurately
(a) Al2O3
(b) B2O3
(c) CCl4
(d) both a&b
(9) The standard enthalpy is measured under what conditions
(a) 760 mm Hg and 273K
(b) 1atm and 0 oC
(c) 1atm and 298K
(d) 1atm and 30 oC
(10) When ∆E =qv , then
(a) ∆P = 0
(b) ∆H = 0
(c) ∆V = 0
(d) ∆T = 0
1: When exothermic reaction takes place, how temperature changes?
2: Spontaneous processes leads to decrease in energy.
3: What is macroscopic property of a system. How it is related to state function?
4: Differentiate between heat and temperature.
5: Define standard heat of formation also give example.
Subjective
Q.NO.3:
What is the first law of thermodynamics. How does it explain that
qp = ΔH
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 7
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1) The heat of formation water is
(a)-285.7 kJ/mole
(b) + 285.5 kJ/mole
(c) –393.7 kJ/mole
(d) +180.51 kJ/mole
(2) The glass calorimeter is usually used to measure the
(a) heat of formation
(b) heat of solution
(c) heat of neutralization
(d) heat of combustion
(3) Evaporation of water is a process
(a) exothermic
(b) spontaneous
(c) non-spontaneous
(d) both a& b
(4) As a result of an endothermic reaction, the energy of reactants in comparison to products is
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) not comparable
(5) In chemistry, by distance we mean
(a) pressure change
(b) volume change
(c) enthalpy change
(d) temperature
(6) Which one of the followings is not a property of the system?
(a) enthalpy
(b) internal energy
(c) volume
(d) heat
(7) The formation of one mole of ionic solid from gaseous ions involves
(a) ∆Hat
(b) ∆Hc
(c) ∆Hlatt
(d) ∆Hf
(8) Which one of the followings disclosed the calculations of lattice energy of ionic compounds?
(a) Hess’s law
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) Born-Haber cycle
(d) both a & b
(9) Hess’s law is actually
(a) first law of thermochemistry
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermochemistry
(d) second law of thermodynamics
(10) When ∆H = qp , then
(a) ∆P = 0
(b) ∆H = 0
(c) ∆V = 0
(d) ∆T = 0
1: When endothermic reactions takes place, how temperature changes?
2: Spontaneous processes are exothermic usually. Comment.
3: When ∆H is preferred over ∆E both have same values.
4: Heat changes at constant pressure (qp) has greater value than heat changes at constant volume (qv).
5: Define internal energy, enthalpy. What are two fundamental ways of transferring
energy to or from a system.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: What is the first law of thermodynamics. How does it explain that
qv = ΔE
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 8
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-I
(10)
(1) A chemical reaction in which product formed are stable at the temperature at which reaction is
taking place is called
(a) forward reaction
(b) backward reaction
(c) irreversible reaction
(d) reversible reaction
(2) The term active masses represents the concentration in mole.dm-3 of reactants and products
for a
(a) saturated solution
(b) dilute solution
(c) concentrated solution
(d) unsaturated solution
(3) When no. of moles of reactants and that of products are equal , then Kc has units
(a) moles/dm3
(b) moles2/dm-6
(c) moles-2/dm+6
(d) no units
(4) For CH3COOH + C2H5OH
→ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O , the equilibrium expression is
(a) x2/(a-x)(b-x)
(b) x2/v (a-x)
2
(c)4x /(a-x)v
(d)4x2v2/(a-x)(b-x)3
(5) The ratio between the concentrations of products to reactants at equilibrium point is called
(a) equilibrium constant
(b) equilibrium state
(c) dynamic equilibrium
(d) chemical equilibrium
(6) When the equilibrium constant is small, it indicates
(a) reaction is at the start
(b) reaction is at the end
(c) reaction is at equilibrium
(d) none of the above
(7) The addition of any of the reactants or any of the products favours
(a) forward reaction
(b) backward reaction
(c) equilibrium position
(d) none of the above
(8) In Haber’s process, the equilibrium mixture has which of following percentage of Ammonia
(a) 13%
(b) 35%
(c) 80%
(d) none of the above
(9) A strong acid after releasing a proton yields
(a) conjugate acid
(b) conjugate base
(c) a strong acid
(d) none of these
(10) The pH of the blood is maintained at
(a) 7.00
(b) 8.00
(c) 7.35
(d) 7.45
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Differentiate between reversible and irreversible chemical reactions.
2: How will you say that chemical equilibrium is a dynamic equilibrium.
3: How pressure changes affect the gaseous system in which no. of moles of reactants and products are
different.
4: Haber’s synthesis of Ammonia is an exothermic process but still proceed at high temperature 400Cº.
Why?
5: pH of a buffer is equal to pKw when molar concentration of acid and salts are equal. How.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: State and explain the law of mass action and derive the expression for the equilibrium
constant.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 8
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-II
(10)
(1) A chemical reaction in which products formed are not stable at the temperature at which
reaction is taking place is called
(a) forward reaction
(b) backward reaction
(c) irreversible reaction
(d) reversible reaction
(2) The presentation of concentration terms of reactants and products in square brackets show
(a) active masses
(b) equilibrium concentrations
(c) constant concentrations
(d) both a & c
(3) When total no. of moles of reactants are four and that of products are two , Kc has units
(a) moles/dm3
(b) moles2/dm-6
-2
+6
(c) moles /dm
(d) no units
(4) The relationship between Kp and Kc is
(a) Kp = Kc(RT) Δn
(b) Kp = Kc(RT) Δn
Δn
(c) Kp = Kc(R/T)
(d) none of the above
(5) When ratio of products to reactants is less than Kc , then
(a) forward reaction proceeds faster (b) backward reaction proceeds faster
(c) forward reaction proceeds slower (d) forward and backward reaction proceed at equal rate
(6) When the equilibrium constant is very large, it indicates
(a) reaction is at the start
(b) reaction is at the end
(c) reaction is at equilibrium
(d) none of the above
(7) The equilibrium for the formation of SO3 from SO2 and O2 is 4x2V/(a-2x)(b-x) the increase in
pressure favours
(a) forward reaction
(b) backward reaction
(c) equilibrium position
(d) none of the above
(8) The percentage of nitrogen fixation that is accompanied by Haber’s process
(a) 13%
(b) 35%
(c) 80%
(d) none of the above
(9) A strong base when accepts a proton, produce
(a) conjugate acid
(b) conjugate base
(c) strong conjugate acid
(d) weak conjugate
(10) Ionization constant Ka for CH3COOH at 25 oC is
(a) 1.85 x 10-5
(b) 1.85 x 10-10
(c) 1.85 x 10-15
(d) 1.85 x 10-20
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Define the law of mass action of reaction rates.
2: Give relationship between four types of equilibrium constants when
(1) np and nr are different (2) np and nr are same.
3: For exothermic reversible reaction, the decrease in temperature favours the forward reaction.
Comment.
4: A strong acid always have weak conjugate base. Comment.
5: What are buffers? What is the composition of buffer?
Subjective
Q.NO.3: What is the solubility product? Derive the solubility product expression for sparingly
soluble compounds. AgCl, Ag2CrO4 and PbCl2.Calculate Ksp of PbF2. where the solubility
of PbF2 at 25 oC is 0.64gdm-3.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 8
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
(10)
(1) A chemical reaction in which concentration of reactants and products becomes constant after
sometimes
(a) forward reaction
(b) backward reaction
(c) irreversible reaction
(d) reversible reaction
(2) The term Kr is called
(a) rate constant for forward reaction
(b) rate constant for backward reaction
(c) rate constant for the reaction
(d)equilibrium constant
(3) When total no. of moles of reactants are two and that of products are four , Kc has units
(a) moles/dm3
(b) moles2/dm-6
-2
+6
(c) moles /dm
(d) no units
(4) For N2 + 3H2
2NH3
(a) Kc = Kp
(b) Kp = Kc RT
(c) Kp = Kc(RT) -2
(d) Kp = Kc(RT) -1
(5) When ratio of the products and reactants is greater than Kc , then
(a) forward reaction proceeds faster
(b) forward reaction proceeds slower
(c) backward reaction proceeds faster
(d) reaction is at equilibrium
(6) The value of Kc for the decomposition of HF at 2000 oC is 10-13. It indicates that
(a) reaction is complete
(b) reaction is at equilibrium
(c) very little forward reaction
(d) none of the above
(7) The change in pressure only effects the reaction in which phase
(a) solid phase
(b) liquid phase
(c) gas phase
(d) gas phase having np ≠ nr
-7
(8) 10 moles of water ionizes from which no. of moles in 1dm3
(a) 22.5moles
(b) 50.4moles
(c) 55.5moles
(d) 35.5moles
(9) A buffer solution, which is formed by mixing weak acid and its salt with strong base, is called
(a) acidic buffer
(b) basic buffer
(c) neutral buffer
(d) none of the above
(10) The mathematical relationship between buffer and its pH is given by
(a) Haber
(b) Le-chatelier
(c) Henderson
(d) Born-Haber
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Differentiate between active mass and equilibrium concentration.
2: How value Kc helps to determine the extent reaction.
3: What are optimum conditions for the synthesis of Ammonia.
4: Define pH scale. Derive ionization constant expression for an acid.
5: How can you relate Ka with Kc
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Describe the effect of common ion on solubility giving example and Also
Calculate the pH of a buffer solution in which 0.11 molar CH3COONa
and 0.09 molar acetic acid solutions are present. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 x 10-5. (5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 8
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
(10)
(1) A point during reversible reaction at which two opposing reactions proceeds at equal rate is called
(a) chemical equilibrium
(b) static equilibrium
(c) dynamic equilibrium
(d) both a & b
(2) The term Kc represents
(a)rate constant for forward reaction (b) rate constant for backward reaction
(c) rate constant for the reaction
(d) equilibrium constant
(3) Which one of the followings represents the no? of moles products at equilibrium
(a) a moles
(b) x moles
(c) b moles
(d) (a-x)
(4) For those reactions which proceed with decrease in no. of moles
(a) Kp is greater than Kc
(b) Kp is smaller than Kc
(c) Kp = Kc
(d) both are not comparable
(5) When ratio of products to reactants is less than Kc , then
(a) forward reaction proceeds faster (b) backward reaction proceeds slower
(c) forward reaction proceeds slower (d) reaction is at equilibrium
(6) On the addition of small amount of HCl to the aqueous solution of BiCl3,colour changes form
(a) milky to colorless
(b) colourless to milky
(c) no change in colour
(d) both a& b
(7) For an exothermic reversible chemical reaction, the increase in temperature favours
(a) forward reaction
(b) backward reaction
(c) overall reaction
(d) formation of products
(8) The acids having difference in pKa value one, the acid with lower pKa in comparison to the other is
(a) ten times stronger
(b) ten times weaker
(c) strong conjugate acid
(d) weak conjugate
(9) A buffer solution, which is formed by mixing the weak base and its salt with strong acid, is called
(a) acidic buffer
(b) basic buffer
(c) neutral buffer
(d) none of the above
(10) The salts, which are slightly soluble in water, are called
(a) strong electrolyte
(b) partially soluble salt
(c) sparingly soluble
(d) none of the above
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Define pH and pOH. How are they related with pKw.
2: What is effect of addition of HCl on the aqueous solution of BiCl3 at equilibrium.
3: Discuss the effect of catalyst on the position of equilibrium.
4: Differentiate between conjugate acid and conjugate base.
5: What is percentage ionization of an acid?
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Calculate the equilibrium constant expression for a reaction between an organic acid and
alcohol. What are the units of equilibrium constant.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 9
Test-I
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) A concentration unit that gives no. of parts of solute per 100 parts of solution is called
(a) Molarity
(b) Molality
(c) Percentage composition
(d) parts per million
(2) The comparison of concentration of molar and molal solution shows that
(a) Molal solution is more dilute
(b) Molar solution is more is more dilute
(c) Both have concentration
(d) none of the above
(3) The concentration units used to express impurities in water is
(a) Molarity
(b) Molality
(c) Parts per million
(d) mole fraction
(4) Which one of the following shows solution of solids in solids
(a) Air
(b) Hydrogen adsorbed on Palladium
(c) Alloy
(d) Hg in silver
(5) The temperature at which two partially miscible liquids form homogeneous mixture is called
(a) Critical solution temperature
(b) critical temperature
(c) Absolute temperature
(d) consulate temperature
(6) For the formation of solution between methyl alcohol and water
(a) ∆V = 0
(b) ∆H = 0
(c) Raoult’s law
(d) All of the above
(7) Which one of the following liquids show decrease solubility with rise in temperature
(a) NaNO3
(b) NaCl
(c) Ce2(SO4)3
(d) CaCl.6H2O
(8) The vapour pressure of solution is lowered because
(a) Solute particles are present on the surface
(b) Solute particles interact with solvent particles
(c) Solute particles are larger than solvent particles
(d) None of the above
(9) The freezing point of a substance at which
(a) Liquid and solid phases of a substance co- exist
(b) Liquid and vapor phases have same vapor pressure
(c) Solid phase starts dominating
(d) Both a & b
(10) The process of surrounding of ions by solvent molecules is called
(a) Solvation
(b) Hydration
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Solvolysis
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: How will you differentiate between binary and conjugated solution?
2: How forces of attractions and volume changes help to distinguish between ideal and non-ideal
solution.
3: When a solution reaches dynamic equilibrium, it is called saturated solution. Explain
4: The boiling elevation of a solution is directly proportional to the molality of solution. Explain.
5: Define critical solution temperature.
Subjective
Q.No.3: State and explain Raoult’s law in three different forms.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 9
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-II
(10)
(1) The no. of parts of solute by weight per 100 parts of solution by weight is called
(a) W/W percentage
(b) W/V percentage
(c) V/V percentage
(d) V/W percentage
(2) In which of the following concentration units, mass of the solvent is considered
(a) Molarity
(b) Molality
(c) Percentage composition
(d) parts per million
(3) The concentration units used to express the concentration of very dilute solution
(a) Molarity
(b) Molality
(c) parts per million
(d) mole fraction
(4) Which one of the following pairs shows complete miscibility
(a) Alcohol and water
(b) alcohol and ether
(c) Both a & b
(d) phenol and water
(5) When ∆V= 0 for the formation of a solution then it is called as
(a) Ideal solution
(b) non-ideal solution
(c) Real solution
(d) saturated solution
(6) Ideal solution usually forms
(a) Azeotropic mixture
(b) heterogeneous mixture
(c) Both a and b
(d) zeotropic mixture
(7) Which one of the following compounds shows negligible change in solubility with change in
temperature between 0 ºC-100 ºC
(a) NaNO3
(b) NaCl
(c) Ce2(SO4)3
(d) CaCl.6H2O
(8) For the study of colligative properties, solute should be
(a) Non-volatile
(b) Non-electrolyte
(c) Volatile
(d) Both a& b
(9) Which one of the following is not a colligative property?
(a) Boiling point elevation
(b) boiling point of solution
(c) Freezing point depression
(d) all of the above
(10) A solution in which further addition of solvent produces no heat is called
(a) Dilute solution
(b) Concentrated solution
(c) Infinitely dilute solution
(d) Saturated solution
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: One molar solution of a substance formed at different temperatures gives different concentrations.
Comment.
2: Zeotropic mixture can be separated by fractional distillation. Comment.
3: Why some solids give discontinuous solubility curve?
4: The pipes of radiator of an automobile avoids burst in summer due to ethylene glycol. How?
5: CuSO4, AlCl3 and NH4Cl give acidic solution but Na2CO3 gives basic solution. Why?
Subjective
Q.No.3: What do you understand by concentration of solution? Explain five different types
of concentration units of solution.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 9
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
(10)
(1) The no. of parts of solute by volume per 100 parts of solution by weight is called
(a) W/W percentage
(b) W/V percentage
(c) V/V percentage
(d) V/W percentage
(2) The concentration unit which is used for the solution of gas in gas , liquid in liquid or
solid in liquid
(a) Molarity
(b) Molality
(c) Percentage composition
(d) mole fraction
(3) When mole fraction of one component is multiplied by 100, it becomes
(a) Parts per million
(b) Molarity
(c) Mole percent
(d) none of the above
(4) Which one of the following pairs form homogeneous mixture at 65.9 oC only
(a) Alcohol and water
(b) Alcohol and ether
(c) Water and ether
(d) Phenol and water
(5) The relative lowering of vapor pressure
(a) Depends upon temperature
(b) independent of temperature
(c) Independent of solute concentration
(d) both a and b
(6) A mixture of two liquids which boils at constant temperature and do not distil with the change in
composition is called
(a) Azeotropic mixture
(b) heterogeneous mixture
(c) Both a and b
(d) zeotropic mixture
(7) The solution of HCl and water is an example of
(a) Ideal solution
(b) Non-ideal solution
(c) Azeotropic mixture
(d) both a& b
(8) For separation of impurities from a substance what is employed
(a) Fractional distillation
(b) Fractional crystallization
(c) Raoult’s law
(d) both a & b
(9) The colligative properties are those depends upon
(a) No. of solute particles only
(b) No. of solvent particles only
(c) No. of solute and solvent particles
(d) Nature of solute only
(10) The antifreezing agent used in the radiator of an automobile is
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) ethylene glycol
(c) Mixture of KNO3
(d) None of the above
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: How will you differentiate between molal and molar solution?
2: Compare zeotropic mixture with that of azeotropic mixture.
3: Some properties are called colligative properties. Why?
4: Define Hydrates. Give examples.
5: What is Hydration and what are hydrated ions?
Subjective
Q.No.3: Explain “fractional distillation”. The solution showing positive and negative
deviation cannot be distilled at specific composition. Explain it.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 9
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
(10)
(1) Which one of the following concentration units show change in concentration with change in
temperature
(a) Molarity
(b) Molality
(c) Normality
(d) Parts per million
(2) The sum of mole fraction of all the components of solution is always equal to
(a) One
(b) two
(c) ten
(d) five
(3) The percentage of Hydrochloric acid used in laboratory is
(a) 30%
(b) 36%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%
(4) Which one of the following liquids form conjugated solution?
(a) Completely miscible
(b) partially miscible
(c) Completely immiscible
(d) none of the above
(5) A mixture of two liquids, which do not boil at constant temperature and distil with change in
composition, is called
(a) Azeotropic mixture
(b) heterogeneous mixture
(c) Both a and b
(d) zeotropic mixture
(6) Non-ideal solution usually forms
(a) Azeotropic mixture
(b) heterogeneous mixture
(c) Both a and b
(d) zeotropic mixture
(7) For the formation of solution between ethyl alcohol and water
(a) ∆V = 0
(b) ∆H = 0
(c) Raoult’s law not obeyed
(d) All of the above
(8) Which one of the following compounds show discontinuous solubility curve
(a) NaNO3
(b) NaCl
(c) Ce2(SO4)3
(d) CaCl.6H2O
(9) The value for the elevation in boiling point is called
(a) Molal freezing point constant
(b) ebullioscopic constant
(c) Molal boiling point constant
(d) both a& b
(10) Which one of the followings is used as freezing mixture
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) ethylene glycol
(c) Mixture of KNO3
(d) None of the above
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: mixture of Equal volumes of Phenol and water contain34% Phenol and 66% water. Why?
2: Why azeotropic mixture even having constant boiling point cannot be considered a
true chemical compound?
3: What are conditions necessary to study the colligative properties?
4: Relative lowering of vapour pressure of solution is independent of temperature, but
depends upon concentration of solute.
5: Aqueous solutions of Ammonium acetate is neutral while Sodium acetate is alkaline
Why?
Subjective
Q.No.3: Discuss Roult’s law for the solution when both components are volatile.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 10
Test-I
(1) Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question. (10)
(1). A device in which interconversion electrical and chemical energy takes place is generally called as
(a) Electrochemical cell
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Electrolytic cell
(d) Voltaic cell
(2) The products of which of the followings are known
(a) Fused electrolyte
(b) Aqueous solution of electrolyte
(c) Solid electrolyte
(d) Solid metal
(3) During the electrolysis of Fused NaCl, the products are
(a) Na(s) and H2(g)
(b) Na(s) and Cl2(g)
(c) Na(s) and O2(g)
(d) H2(g) and Cl2(g)
(4) The electrochemical reations occurring at both the electrodes along with the electrolytic
conduction constitute
(a) Oxidation
(b) reduction
(c) Redox reaction
(d) Electrolysis
(5) The purpose of salt bridge is to
(a) Produce electrical energy
(b) Produce chemical energy
(c) Attain electrical neutrality
(d) mix the two solutions
o
(6) The potential difference set up at 25 C when electrode is dipped in its one molar ionic solution is
called
(a) Single electrode potential
(b) electrode potential
(c) Standard electrode potential
(d) Standard hydrogen electrode
(7) On ascending the electrochemical series strength as reducing agent
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) not determinable
(8) Electrode potential of a cell consisting of Zn (anode) and Cu (cathode) is
(a) + 1.10V
(b)-1.10 V
(c) 0.76V
(d) 0.34V
(9) A cell that can be charged is called
(a) Electrolytic cell
(b) Primary cell
(c) Secondary cell
(d) Fuel cell
(10) In which one of the following compounds the oxidation state of Oxygen is exceptional
(a) Na2O
(b) Na2O2
(c) K2O
(d)OF2
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: How will you differentiate between electrolytic and voltaic cell?
2: Metals are good conductors in solid state and electrolytes are in fused and aqueous form but not in
solid state. Why?
3: How standard reduction potentials help to determine the feasibility of a reaction.
4: How blistered Copper can be purified by electrolysis?
5: What is the oxidation state of chlorine in the given compounds.
KCl, HClO, HClO2, HClO4
Subjective
Q.No.3: Define electrolytic cell and explain the process with examples of fused NaCl and aqueous
NaCl.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 10
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-II
(10)
(1) A type of cell in which electrical energy derive non-spontaneous redox reaction is called
(a) Electrochemical cell
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Electrolytic cell
(d) Voltaic cell
(2) The conduction of which of the followings is related to free electrons
(a) Fused electrolyte
(b) Aqueous solution of electrolyte
(c) Solid electrolyte
(d) Solid metal
(3) During the electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl, the products are
(a) Na(s) and H2(g)
(b) Na(s) and Cl2(g)
(c) Na(s) and O2(g)
(d) H2(g) and Cl2(g)
(4) The electrons flow in external circuit
(a) From cathode to anode
(b) From anode to cathode
(c) From battery to anode
(d) from cathode to battery
(5) When a metal rod is dipped in its one molar ionic solution
(a) Electricity is produced
(b) electricity is consumed
(c) Redox reaction occurs
(d) Potential difference is set up
(6) The standard reduction potential of Zinc is
(a) 0.76V
(b) 0.34V
(c) –0.34V
(d) –0.76V
(7) Which one of the following metals can replace the Copper from aqueous solution of its salt more
easily?
(a) Cd
(b) Fe
(c) Zn
(d) Na
(8) Electrode potential of a cell consisting of Zn(cathode) and Cu(anode) is
(a) + 1.10V
(b)-1.10 V
(c) 0.76V
(d) 0.34V
(9) Lead accumulator battery produces electricity
(a) 2 volts
(b) 6volts
(c) 10 volts
(d) 12 volts
(10) In which one of the following compounds Manganese show +6 oxidation state
(a) KMnO4
(b)K2MnO4
(c) MnO2
(d) MnCl2
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: How will you distinguish between metallic and electronic conduction
2: Discuss the importance of salt bridge in voltaic cell.
3: What is electromotive force? How it is calculated for a cell?
4: What are standard conditions for a voltaic cell.
5: During the discharging of lead accumulator battery, density of H2SO4
decreases from 1.25gcm-3 to 1.15gcm-3 . Comment.
Subjective
Q.No.3: Balance the following equation by Ion electron method.
Cr2O7-2 + Cl-
→
2Cr+3 + 3Cl2
(acidic medium)
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 10
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(1) A type of cell in which spontaneous redox reaction produces electricity is called
(a) Electrochemical cell
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Electrolytic cell
(d) Voltaic cell
(2) The conduction of which of the followings is related to ions
(a) Fused electrolyte
(b) Aqueous solution of electrolyte
(c) Solid electrolyte
(d) Both a & b
(3) During electrolysis of fused NaCl, Na+1 ion are discharged at
(a) Cathode
(b) anode
(c) Negative electrode
(d) Both a & b
(4) From anode
(a) Electrons enters the cell
(b) electrons leave the cell
(c) Electrons go to battery
(d) both a& b
(5) The purpose of salt bridge is to
(a) Mix the two solutions
(b) prevent the net charge accumulation
(c) Stop the reactions at will
(d) start the reaction at will
(6) In electrochemical series, elements are arranged in order of their
(a) Electrode potential
(b) single electrode potential
(c) Oxidation potential
(d) Standard reduction potentials
(7) An element with high negative reduction potential can act as
(a) Strong oxidizing agent
(b) strong reducing agent
(c) Moderate oxidizing agent
(d) Moderate reducing agent
(8) Voltaic cell is feasible, if the sum of electrode potentials of two electrodes is
(a) Positive
(b) negative
(c) Zero
(d) none of the above
(9) Which one of the followings produces 1.5 volts of electricity?
(a) Lead accumulator
(b) Ni-Cd battery
(c) Siver oxide battery
(d) fuel cell
(10) What is the oxidation state of Chromium in Cr2O3
(a) +6
(b) +3
(c) +5
(d) +1
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
Test-III
(10)
(10)
1: Compare the process of electrolysis and Hydrolysis?
2: Is single electrode potential and standard electrode potential same thing? Explain.
3: How standard reduction potential guides to the relative tendency of metal to act as an oxidizing
agent?
4: Zinc acts as anode when connected to copper but as cathode when connected to aluminium.
5: Calculate the cell voltage of voltaic cell.
Subjective
Q.No.3: Define electrochemical series. Give its three applications.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 10
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1) Which one of the followings does not conduct electricity
(a) Fused electrolyte
(b) Aqueous solution of electrolyte
(c) Solid electrolyte
(d) Solid metal
(2) The cell used to prepare Na metal is called
(a) Voltaic cell
(b) Nelson’s cell
(c) Down’s cell
(d) Daniel cell
(3) The electrochemical reactions occurring at both the electrodes are collectively known as
(a) Oxidation
(b) reduction
(c) Redox reaction
(d) Electrolysis
(4) Which one of the following ion is most easy to discharge?
(a) NO3-1
(b) OH(c) Cl
(d) not determinable
(5) The salt bridge performs which job
(a) Assist the cause of cell
(b) prevent net charge accumulation
(c) Only allows the –ve ions to diffuse through it (d) all the above
(6) On descending the electrochemical series strength as oxidizing agent
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) not determinable
(7) The standard reduction potentials are measured under conditions
(a) 0oC and one atm
(b) 273K and 760 mm Hg
(c) 298K and 2 atm
(d) 298K and 760 mm Hg
(8) Only those metals can replace Hydrogen from dilute acids, which have
(a) High negative reduction potential
(b) High positive reduction potential
(c) Low negative reduction potential
(d) low positive reduction potential
(9) The oxidation state of Chlorine in HClO4 is
(a) +7
(b) +5
(c) +6
(d)-2
(10) While balancing oxygen atoms in redox equations (in basic medium) by ion electron method,
what is introduced on opposite side of equation?
(a) OH- ion
(b) O- atoms
(c) O-2 ions
(d) H2O
1: What are the products of electrolysis of fused and aqueous NaCl?
2: What is electrochemical series? How elements are arranged on it.
3: The voltaic cell is reversible one. Comment.
4: What is the oxidation potential and reduction potential of standard hydrogen electrode (SHE).
5: How a voltaic cell or Daniell cell is represented?
Subjective
Q.No.3: What is “standard hydrogen electrode”? How it helps to measure the electrode potential of
other elements.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 11
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-I
(10)
(1) On addition of AgNO3 solution to NaCl solution , what is formed
(a) Yellow ppt
(b) Pale yellow ppt
(c) White ppt
(d) Black
(2) The slope of the graph is steepest at the beginning of reaction showing that
(a) Rapid decrease in concentration of reactants
(b) Rapid increase in the concentration of products
(c) Fast rate of reaction
(d) All of the above
(3) When average rate becomes
(a) At the start of reaction
(b) time interval is zero
(b) at the end of reaction
(d) time interval approaches to zero
(4) A reaction A→ B is independent of concentration of reactant A.The order of reaction will be
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) Zero order
(5) For a chemical reaction in which one of the reactant also act as solvent, the order will be
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) pseudo-first order
(6) The study of which one of the followings guides to the mechanism of the reaction
(a) Order of reaction
(b) Half life period of reaction
(c) Rate of reaction
(d) Rate determining step
(7) Substance which is formed as well as consumed during a chemical reaction and have temporary
existence
(a) Reactant
(b) product
(c) Catalyst
(d) Intermediate
(8) The collision which results in chemical reaction
(a) Effective collision
(b) Ineffective collision
(c) Useless collision
(d) All of the above
(9) Which one of the following group of elements show more swift reaction with water
(a) 1-A group elements
(b) 2-A group elements
(c) 3-A group elements
(d) 4-A group elements
(10) Increase in surface area increases the rate of reaction because
(a) No. of collisions are increased
(b) it increases the area of contact
(c) It gives exposure to greater no. of molecule
(d) All the above
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Give two characteristics of enzymes to show their sensitivity.
2: If two catalysts catalyze one reaction, products are different. Comment.
3: Increase in temperature increases the fraction of molecules with energy more than Ea and rate as
well.Comment.
4: What are intermediates?
5: Rate of reaction of marble pieces with HCl is less as compared to the powdered CaCO3. Why?
Subjective
Q.No.3: How does the Arrhenius equation help us to calculate energy of activation of a
reaction.Derive the equation.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 11
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-II
(10)
(1) The study of rates of chemical reactions is called
(a) Rate constant
(b) rate of reaction
(c) Velocity constant
(d) reaction kinetics
(2) The units of rate of reaction are
(a) moles. dm-3.s-1
(b) dm3.moles-1 . s-1
(c) moles-2. dm-6. s-1
(d) moles-2. dm+6. s-1
(3) The negative sign in the rate expression rate= -d [A]/dt shows that
(a) Decrease in the concentration of reactants
(b) Increase in the concentration of products
(c) Decrease in the concentration of products
(d) Increase in the concentration of products
(4) The radioactive disintegration of 23892U is
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) Zero order
(5) All the Hydrolytic reactions are of the order
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) pseudo-first order
(6) The half life period of which of the following order reactions is inversely proportional to the initial
concentration of reactants.
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) zero order
(7) For a reaction in which any one of the reactant or product is active to light , rate can be monitored
by
(a) Refractometric method
(b) Optical rotation method
(c) Dilatometric method
(d) Spectrometric method
(8) The necessary condition for a reaction between two reactants to take place is
(a) Effective collision
(b) Proper orientation
(c) Energy of activation
(d) All of the above
(9) The increase in pressure on the reaction system increases the rate of which of the following
reaction more effectively
(a) CH3COOH + C2H5OH
→
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(b)
C + 2H2
→
CH4
(c)
H2 + Cl2
→
2HCl
(d)
Na + H2O
→
NaOH + H2
(10) The increase of temperature increases the rate because it increases the
(a)Area of contact
(b) No. of molecules having energy equal to Ea
(c)Surface area
(d) both a & b
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: How lock and key theory explains the enzyme action?
2: Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis.
3: How Arrhenius equation expresses the relation of rate of reaction with temperature.
4: How will you say that energy of activation is a barrier between reactants and products?
5: How will you say that slowest step is rate determining step.
Subjective
Q.No.3: Define Order of reaction. Explain different orders of reaction.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 11
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-III
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1) The slowest reaction amongst the following is
(a) Hydrolysis of ester
(b) rusting of iron
(c) Reaction AgNO3(aq) and NaCl(aq) (d) photosynthesis
(2) The units of rate constant
(a) moles. dm-3.s-1
(b) dm3.moles-1 . s-1
(c) moles2. dm-6. s-1
(d) moles-2. dm+6. s-1
(3) The order of reaction is strictly decided by
(a) Law of mass action
(b) Experiments
(c) Rate law
(d) Stoichiometry of equation
(4) The photochemical reactions are
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) zero order
(5) A chemical reaction
2A + B → C A is in large excess, then order of reaction will be
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) zero order
(6) The decomposition of Ozone 2O3 →
3O2 is of the order
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) zero order
(7) For a reaction in which any one of the reactant or product can absorbs I.R or U.V light , the rate
reaction can be monitored by
(a) Refractometric method
(b) Optical rotation method
(c) Dilatometric method
(d) Spectrometric method
(8) The reaction between two reactants depends upon their
(a) Temperature
(b) Proper orientation
(c) Energy of activation
(d) Both a& c
(9) The redox reactions are usually slow because they involve
(a) Shuffling of bonds
(b) displacement of radicals
(c) Transfer of electrons
(d) oxidizing in nature
(10) The mechanism of the reaction 2NO + 2H2 → 2H2O + N2 shows that it is
(a) First order with respect to NO
(b) Second order with respect to H2
(c) Third order overall
(d) none of the above
1: How will you differentiate between poison and catalyst?
2: Define catalyst. Show the changes that catalyst undergo physically during the progress of reaction.
3: Draw a graph to show that final expression of Arrhenius equation is a straight line equation.
4: How will you say that increase in concentration of reactant increases the rate?
5: What is zero order reaction?
Subjective
Q.No.3: Define energy of activation. How the potential energy of the exothermic and
endothermic reactions can be explained on its basis.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 11
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-IV
(10)
(1) For a reaction that occurs in series of steps
(a) Slowest step determines the rate (b) Fastest step determines the rate
(c) Any step can determine the rate (d) The sum of rates of all the steps determines the rate
(2) The comparison of instantaneous and average rate of reaction tells that
(a) Average rate is faster
(b) instantaneous rate is slower
(c) Both have same rates
(d) Both have different rates
(3) which statement is not true for order of reaction?
(a) Order may be whole no. or fractional
(b) Strictly decided by stoichiometry of balanced chemical equation
(c) Strictly decided by experiments
(d) It may be of pseudo order
(4) The reaction H2O + CH3COOC2H5 → CH3COOH + C2H5OH is
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) pseudo-first order
(5) The half-life period for which of the following reaction is independent of initial concentration of
reactant
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) zero order
(6) for a reaction occurring in a series of steps
(a) No. of molecules participating fastest step appear in rate expression
(b) No. of molecules participating slowest step appear in rate expression
(c) All the molecules participating whole reaction appear in rate expression
(d) None of the above
(7) The progress of Hydrolysis of ester is monitored by
(a) Refractometric method
(b) Chemical method
(c) Physical method
(d) Spectrometric method
(8) For reversible exothermic reactions energy of activation is
(a) Greater for forward reaction
(b) Greater for backward reaction
(c) Smaller for backward reaction
(d) Both have same Ea
(9) Increase in concentration of reactants increases the rate because
(a) Increases kinetic energy
(b) Lowers the activation energy
(c) increases the temperature
(d) Collision frequency
(10) Which one of the following is not true for catalyst?
(a) alter the rate
(b) chemically remains constant
(c) Physically may be changed
(d) may be changed chemically
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Compare the characteristics of enzyme and catalyst?
2: Define enzyme. How will you say that enzymes are specific in their action?
3: Define the activated complex? Is it also called transition state?
4: What is rate equation.
5: What is promoter or activator.
Subjective
Q.No.3: What are different types of catalysis? Give examples.Also write down four characteristics of
catalyst.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 1
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1). The N2 and CO have no. of electrons
(a) 16
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 7
23
(2)What will be the mass of 1.5 x 10 molecules of CO?
(a) 16.0g
(b) 28.01g
(c) 7.00g
(d) 56.02g
(3)How many molecules are present in 6g of H2 gas.
(a) 12.04 x 1023
(b) 12.04 x 1022
(c) 18.06 x 1024
(d) 1.8 x 1024
(4) Mass of 1 mole of chlorine atoms.
(a) 35.5g
(b) 32g
(c) 71g
(d) 46g
(5)Which one of the following contains no. of atoms as in 6g of Mg.
(a)10g of Ca
(b) 20g of K
(c) 12 of Li
(d) 12g of B
(6).A compound was found to contain Nitrogen and Oxygen in 28 g: 80 g. The formula of the
compound is
(a) NO
(b) N2O3
(c) N2O4
(d) N2O5
(7).Which of the following compounds does not show empirical formula CH2O
(a) HCHO
(b) C6H12O6
(c) CH3COOH
(d) both b and c
(8).Which of the following will give maximum no. of ions when 100% dissociated in water
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) FeCl3
(d) MgCl2
(9).The molar mass of a compound is six times greater than the mass indicated by its empirical formula
then the value of ‘n’ will be
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(10).Mass of oxygen atom in 2moles of KMnO4 is
(a) 8g
(b) 88g
(c) 96g
(d) 128g
Q. No. 2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: Define empirical formula and give steps to determinate.
2: The molecular formula is simple multiple of empirical formula. Comment.
3: 1 mole of water and hydrogen per oxide have same number of molecules but different number of
atoms.
Explain?
4: What are the conditions assumed to perform the stoichiometric calculations?
5: The efficiency of reactions is expressed in terms of %age yield.
Subjective
Q. No. 3: How percentage composition of a compound can be calculated by combustion analysis.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 2
Test-V
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
(10)
(1) The pattern of separated components of a mixture on paper is called
(a) Basal line
(b) eluent
(c) chromatogram
(d) solvent front
(2) Solvent extraction is particularly used when substance to be separated is
(a) Non- volatile and thermally unstable
(b) volatile and thermally unstable
(c) Volatile and thermally stable
(d) non-volatile and thermally unstable
(3) Repeated solvent extraction using small portions of solvent is
(a) Efficient
(b) slow
(c) fast
(d) both a& b
(4) The rates of solutes with which they move on paper in paper chromatography depends
(a) Size of paper
(b) temperature
(c) size of chromatographic tank
(d) Rf value
(5) Several types of filter media are used depending upon
(a) Nature of reactant
(b) nature of reaction
(c) nature of precipitates
(d) nature of filter paper
(6) In which type of chromatography, both the stationary and mobile phases are liquid
(a) Paper
(b) Adsorption
(c) Column
(d) None
(7) 95 % elthnol is called
(a) crystal
(b) petrol
(c) Absolute alcohol
(d) Rectified spirit
(8) If two compounds have same Rf value, it shows that
(a) Both compounds related
(b) Both are the samples of same compound
(c) Both are very different compounds.
(d) One is derivative of other
(9) When AgNO3 solution is added to NaCl solution, AgCl and NaNO 3 is formed. The technique
used to separate AgCl from the mixture is
(a) Filtration
(b) crystallization
(c) sublimation
(d) solvent extraction
(10). Which pair can be separated by sublimation
(a) NH4 Cl and AlCl3
(b) NH4 Cl and I2
(c) NH4 Cl and sand
(d) Napthalene and AlCl3
Q.No.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1;Define distribution law.
2;What is difference between adsorption and partition chromatography?
3;What is meant by stationary and mobile phase?
4;What is meant by Rf value?
5;What is difference between qualitative and quantitative analysis
Subjective
Q.No.3: Describe briefly process of solvent extraction.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 3
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1) The units for Vander Wall’s constant “a” are
(a)dm3 mol-1
(b) dm6mol-1
6
-1
(c) dm mol
(d) cm3mol-1
(2)The standard conditions of temperature and pressure are
(a) 1 atmp and 273 0C
(b) 76 mmHg and 2730C
(c) 1 atmp and 27K
(d) 760 mm Hg and 273 0C
(3) Vander Wall’s modified general gas equation.For this, he made which of the following correction
(a) volume correction
(b) pressure correction
(c) pressure and volume correction
(d) Both (b) & (c)
(4) The sudden expansion of gas from high pressure to low pressure causes
(a) increase in temperature
(b) Decrease in temperature
(c) increase in no. of collisions
(d) increase of pressure
(5) The nitrogen gas prepared in the laboratory has pressure 825mm Hg with 45mmHg aqueous
tension. The pressure of dry gas is
(a) 790 mmHg
(b) 750mm Hg
(c) 780 mmHg
(d) 760 mmHg
(6) Low temperature plasma reacts rapidly with any molecule it encounters. This aspect makes this
material.
(a) very useful
(b) hard to use
(c) useless
(d) both very useful and hard to use
(7) 760 torr pressure is equal to
(a) 101325 pounds inch-2
(b) 762 pounds inch-2
(c) 14.7 pounds inch-2
(d) 760 pounds inch-2
(8). A real gas must closely approaches to the behaviour of ideal gas at
(a) 1 atm, 298k
(b) 1 atm 273k
(c) 0.5 atm 500k
(d) 15 atm, 200k
(9). Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25 ◦C the fraction of
total pressure exerted by oxygen is
(a) 16/17
(b) 1/9
(c) 8/9
(d) 1/3
(10) The least value of ‘a’ for H 2 is due to its
(a) large size and polar character
(b) small size and polar character
(c) small size and non-polar character
(d) large size and non-polar character
Q.No. 2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1: How density of a gas is affected by changing temperature and pressure.
2: The rate of diffusion of O2 is four times less than H2 at given temperature and Pressure. Comments.
3: Gases deviate from ideal behaviors at low temperature more than at high temperature.
4: Lind’s Method is based on Joule Thomson effect justify it.
5: Ammonia gas has high critical temperature than H2. Why?
Subjective
Q.No.3: How will you deduce Boyle, s law and charle’s law from kinetic gas equation.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 4
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1)Which one of the following pairs of ionic solids have same radius ratio.
(a) NaCl and NaBr
(b) NaCl and NaI
(c) CsF and CsCl
(d) CsF and NaCl
(2) Each Chloride ion present at the corner of cube is shared by no. of cubes
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 8
(3) The no. of NaCl units per unit cell are
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 8
(4)Which one of the followings becomes good conductor due to layered structure
(a) Fused NaCl
(b) diamond
(c) Graphite
(d) copper
(5) The unit cell of diamond has geometry
(a) Tetrahedral
(b) cubical
(c) Pyramidal
(d) octahedral
(6) Rising of liquid in capillary tube is due to
(a) Surface tension
(b) Cohesive force
(c) Adhesive force
(d) Capillary action
(7) Due to Hydrogen Bonding, the Highest boiling point is shown by
(a) CH4
(b) NH3
(c) H2O
(d) HF
(8) Which of the followings will have highest value of lattice energy?
(a) Ice
(b) Sugar
(c) Iodine
(d) Phosphorous
(9) The force of attraction present between Xenone atoms and water molecules are
(a) London forces
(b) Dipole – dipole forces
(c) Dipole – induced dipole
(d) Hydrogen bonding
(10) The percentage of space left vacant even in closet packing of metal atoms.
(a) 26%
(b) 74%
(c) 70%
(d) 30%
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the following.
(10)
1; Evaporation reaches dynamic equilibrium state. Comment.
2; Vapour pressure of ether is far greater than water at 0 ºC.
3; Define liquid crystals and give their applications in diagnosis of breast cancer.
4; Freshly cut metal give shiny touch. Why?
5; what is tetragonal unit cell? Draw its diagram.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Define boiling point. Explain its variation with change of external pressure, briefly? (5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 5
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
(10)
(1) The numerical value that describe about the self rotation of electron is
(a) Quantum no
(b) Principal quantum no.
(c) Azimuthal quantum no
(d) Magnetic quantum no.
(2) Which one of the following explains the distribution of electron in the degenerate orbital
(a) Auf-bau principle
(b) Pauli’s Exclusion principle
(c) Hund’s rule
(d) Mosley’s law
(3) The (n+l) value for 5-f orbital is
(a) (4+4)=8
(b) (5+3)=8
(c) (5+4)=9
(d) (5+2)=7
(4) The order of filling of 3p, 3d and 4s orbital according to (n+l) rule
(a) 3p  4s  3d
(b) 3p  3d  4s
(c) 3d  3p  4s
(d) 3d  4s  3p
(5) The splitting of spectral lines into component in high power resolving spectrometer gives
(a) Multiple line structure
(b) Zeeman effect
(c) Stark effect
(d) Sheilding
(6) A radiation of wavelength 10-11 m or less than 10-11 m lies in the region
(a) Visible region
(b) Ultraviolet region
(c) Infrared region
(d) Gamma rays region
(7) He+1, Li+2, Be+3 are isoelectronic, these resembles with
(a) H
(b) H+
(c) H(d) None
(8) The set of orbitals having n+1=5 are
(a) 2p, 3d, 3s
(b) 3s, 4p, 4d
(c) 3p, 3d, 5s
(d) 5s, 4p, 3d
(9) The energy of ionization of an atom is the energy difference between orbital
(a) E2-E1
(b) E1-E2
(c) Eα-En
(d) Eα-E1
(10) The value of magnetic quantum of the last electron of Na is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
1; How Davission and German confirmed wave nature of material electrons?
2; What give you the information about the energy an d size of a shell.
3; The spinning of electron produces magnetic field.But net magnetic moment for a pair of electrons is
zero. Why?
4; How ionization energy of Hydrogen atom can be calculated according to Bohr.
5; The nature of cathode rays is independent of the gas and electrode used. Why?
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Differentiate between continuous and line spectrum,Also write down the defects of Bohr’s
model.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 6
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1) The no. of pi bonds in N2 molecule is
(a) One
(b) four
(c) two
(d) three
(2) The dipole moment for water molecule is
(a) 0.12D
(b) 1.85D
(c) 4.4D
(d) 4.8D
(3) Which one of the following compounds have zero dipole moment
(a) Water
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Chloroform
(d) Carbon monoxide
(4) Which one of the following pairs show isomerism
(a) CH3 O CH3 and CH3CH2OH
(b) CH3OH and CH3CH2OH
(c) H2O and H2O2
(d) NaCl and KCl
(5) Which one of the following compounds show maximum dipole moment
(a) Benzene
(b) Monochlorobenzene
(c) Para dichlorobenzene
(d) orthodi chlorobenzene
(6) Which of the following species has unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals
(a) O2-2
(b) N2 -2
(c) B2
(d) F2
(7) Which of the following is not isoelectronic with rest of the three
(a) K+
(b) Cl+
(c) Na
(d) S-2
(8) Total number of valence electrons of Nitrogen in +NH4 ion is
(a) 6
(b)10
(c) 16
(d) 8.
(9) The shape of CO2 molecule is similar to
(a) H2S
(b) SO2
(c) BeF2
(d) SnCl2
+
(10) The shape of H3O is
(a) Tetrahedral
(b) angular
(c) Trigonal planar
(d) pyramidal
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1; How electronegativity difference decides the nature of bond?
2; What is the magnetic behaviour and stability order of molecular orbitals in case of N2molecule.
3; How will you compare the rates of ionic reactions with that of reactions involving the covalent
compounds.
4;Ionic bonds are non-directional. Comment.
5; Why Para dichlorobenzene has zero dipole moment and orthodichlorobenzene has 2.5D.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Discuss the molecular orbital treatment of O2 and N2 molecules.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 7
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1) Bomb calorimeter is usually used to determine which of the followings
(a) Enthalpy of formation
(b) Enthalpy of solution
(c) Enthalpy of combustion
(d) Enthalpy of neutralization
(2) Which of the followings cannot be measured directly for ionic compounds
(a) Enthalpy of formation
(b) Enthalpy of lattice
(c) Enthalpy of combustion
(d) Enthalpy of solution
(3) The enthalpy change for Cl(g) + 1eCl-(g) is
(a) Enthalpy of electron affinity
(b) Enthalpy of ionization
(c) Enthalpy of combustion
(d) Enthalpy of dissociation
(4) The lattice energy for NaCl is
(a) –411Kj/mole
(b) –364KJ/mole
(c) –787KJ/mole
(d) 500KJ/mole
(5) The dissolution of which of the following compounds is an endothermic process
(a) NaOH
(b) CaCO3
(c) H2SO4
(d) NH4Cl
(6) Enthalpy of solution of Ammonium chloride and sodium carbonate is respectively
(a) Endothermic and endothermic
(b) Endothermic and exothermic
(c) Exothermic and endothermic
(d) Exothermic and exothermic
(7) When electric spark is passed through the mixture of N2 and O2, NO is formed and the reaction is
(a) Spontaneous
(b) Exothermic
(c) Endothermic
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(8) The bond energy is the kind of
(a) Internal kinetic energy
(b) Macroscopic Property
(c) Potential energy
(d) Internal energy
(9) In an exothermic reaction
(a) The temperature of system Increases
(b) The temperature of surroundings environment decreases
(c) The temperature of system decreases
(d) None of the above
(10) The enthalpy of solution of ammonium chloride is (in KJ mole)
(a) 15.1
(b) -15.1
(c) -25.0
(d) 25.0
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1; Define enthalpy of solution?
2; The calculation of enthalpy of formation ofAl2O3 andB2O3 creates problems. Why?
3; Define Hess’s law of constant heat summation
4; How first law thermodynamics helps to determine the change in internal energy of the system?
5; How exchange of energy takes place between system and surrounding?
Subjective
Q.NO.3: How Born-Haber cycle helps to determine the lattice energy of ionic compounds? Discuss
briefly.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 8
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1) A buffer solution formed by mixing equimolar quantities of acid and salt have pH equal to
(a) ka value of acid
(b) pKb value of base
(c) pKa value of acid
(d) none of the above
’
(2) A country s industrial progress is measured by the amount of which compound manufactured per
anum
(a)NH3
(b) SO3
(c) H2SO4
(d) none of the above
(3) The optimum conditions for the industrial preparation of ammonia are
(a) 200-300 atmp and 400-500Cº
(b) 200-300 atmp and 400Cº
(c) 1atmp and 400Cº
(d) 1atmp and 400-500C
(4) If CH3 COOH = 1 mole dm-3 and CH3COONa+ 0.1 mole dm3, then its pH is
(a) 5.76
(b) 4.76
(c)3.76
(d) 2.76
(5) 2NO2 (g)  N2O4 (g), if we increase presuure, on the above reaction the equilibrium will
(a) shifts to left
(b)
shifts to right
(c)
remains same
(d) Kp will change
(6) The optimum conditions of temperature and pressure for the manufacture of SO3 are
(a) 200-300 atmp and 400-500Cº
(b) 200-300 atmp and 400Cº
(c) 1atmp and 400Cº
(d) 1atmp and 400-500C
(7) If KI dissolves in water
(a)
heat will favour dissolution
(b).
coolling will give crystallzation
(c)
and temperature of system will decrease
(d).
all above
(8) The catalyst used for the synthesis of NH3 is
(a) Fe embedded in MgO, Al2O3 and SiO2
(b) V2O5
(c) V2O5 embedded in MgO, Al2O3 and SiO2
(d) Fe
(9) For which system Kc has units of (concentration) -1
(a)
H2 +I2  2HI
(b)
2 NO2  N2 O4
(c)
N22 + 3H2  2NH3
(d)
2HF  H2 + F2
2
4x
(10) The following equilibrium represents an question Kc =
V ( a  x)
(a)
N2O4  2NO2
(b)
PCI2  PCI3 + Cl2
(c)
2 SO2 + O2  2 SO3
(d)
N2 + O2  2NO
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1; What is Lowery-Bronsted acid base concept?
2; Define common ion effect.
3; What is meant by buffer capacity?
4; Derive an equilibrium expression for sparingly soluble salts.
5; What are acidic and basic buffers?
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Derive Henderson equation for the calculation of pH of a buffer solution.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 9
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1)The process of surrounding of ions by water molecules is called
(a) Solvation
(b) Hydration
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Solvolysis
(2).The molality of 2% w/w NaOH solution is
(a) 0.05m
(b) 0.5m
(c) 0.25m
(d) 2m
(3) The compounds which contains chemically combined water molecules to their crystals is called
(a) Hydrated
(b) Hydrates
(c) Crystalline
(d) Amorphous
(4) If 0.50 moles of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 moles of Na3PO4, the maximum no.of moles of
Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.7
(5) With increasing size of cation, the value of heat hydration energy
(a) Increases
(b) decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) none of the above value
(6) Which one of the following solution will produce maximum elevation in boiling point?
(a) 0.1M BaCl2
(b) 0.1 M KCl
(c) 0.1 M glucose
(d) 0.1 M sucrose
(7) The Hydrolysis of AlCl3 shows that it is
(a) Acidic salt
(b) Neutral salt
(c) Basic salt
(d) None of the above
(8) Which of the following solution will have highest freezing point?
(a) 2 M NaCl solution
(b) 1.5 M AlCl3 solution
(c) 1 M Al2(SO4)3 solution
(d) 3 M Urea solution
(9) The dissolution of KNO3 in water is
(a) Exothermic
(b) Endothermic
(c) Involves no heat
(d) Temperature remains same
(10) At the same temperature, which of the following pairs of solution would be isotonic (same
concentration of particles)
(a) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(b) 0.1 M Na2SO4 and 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2
(c) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Urea
(d) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1; In CuSO4.5H2O , Cu+2 ion attaches four water molecules and SO4-2 ion only one water molecule
with it. Why?
2; Only those ionic solids having low lattice energy than Hydration energy are soluble in water.
3; Define Hydrolysis. And classify salts on the basis of Hydrolysis.
4; How addition of solute lowers the vapour pressure?
5; How fractional crystallization helps to purify a solute?
Subjective
Q.NO.3: Explain negative deviation of non-ideal solution with the help of graph.
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 10
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1) When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed then
(a) Na(s) deposited at cathode
(b) Cl2(g) appears at anode
(c) Cl2(g) Appears at cathode
(d) O2(g) appears at anode
-6
(2) When 10 M solution of HCl is electrolyzed.
(a) H2 gas is produced at anode
(b) O2 gas is produced at anode
(c) Cl2 gas is produced at anode
(d) Cl2 and O2 are produced at anode.
(3) The electrolysis of which of the followings yields Hydrogen and Oxygen gas.
(a) NaNO3(aq)
(b) NaCl(aq)
(c) NaCl(l)
(d) NaNO3(l)
+
+
(4) H ions are discharged in preference to Na ions during electrolysis of
(a) Dil. NaCl
(b) Fused NaCl
(c) Molten NaCl
(d) Solid NaCl
+1
(5) Consider the following reaction 2Na + Pb
Pb+2 + 2Nao .The reduction potential of
+1
+2
Na is -2.714 and that of Pb is -0.126
(a) The reaction is feasible
(b) Overall electrode potential is negative
(c) Overall electrode potential is positive
(d) spontaneous reaction
+2
+2
(6)In Zn|Zn || Cu| cu cell, the positive electrode is
(a) Cu
(b) Cu+2
(c) Zn
(d) Zn+2
(7) Which one of the following reaction is spontaneous?
(a) Cu + Zn+2
Cu+2 + Zn (b) Fe + Zn+2
Fe+2 + Zn
(c) Cu + Fe+2
Cu+2 + Fe
(d) Zn + 2H+
Zn+2 + H2
(8) The standard reduction potential for following half reactions are given below.
Zn+2 +2eZn
Eº = -0.76 V
Mg+2 +2eMg
Eº = -2.37 V
When Zinc Dust is added to the solution of MgCl2
(a) ZnCl2 is formed
(b) Zn dissolves in the solution
(c) No reaction occurs
(d) Mg is precipitated
(9) Which one of the followings can be used as a source of electrical energy as well as water
(a) Ni-Cd cell
(b) Lead accumulator
(c) Siver oxide battery
(d) Fuel cell
(10) The Cu form CuSO4 solutions can be displaced by
(a) Zn
(b) K
(c) Na
(d) All of the above.
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
(10)
1; lithium can replace Sodium but copper , silver and Gold cannot.Explain the reason.
2. How the working of Voltaic cell may be effected in the absence of salt bridge?
3; What are the reactions involved in Fuel cell?
4; In voltaic cell consisting of Hydrogen electrode and electrode of other metal, electrode potential of
the cell gives electrode potential of the metal used. Why?
5; What are oxidation states of Mn in K2MnO4 , KmnO4 , MnO2 and MnCl2 . Explain?
Subjective
Q.NO.3: How standard Hydrogen electrode helps to determine the electrode potentials of other
elements. Discuss briefly?
(5)
Test : Chemistry
F.Sc : Part I
Time Allowed : 20 min
Max. Marks : 15
CHAPTER # 11
Q.No.1: Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best option followed by each question.
Test-V
(10)
(1)Which one is not a property of a catalyst?
(a) pH sensitive
(b) Macromolecule
(c) Alter the rate of biochemical processes (d) none of the above
(2) If the concentration are measured in moles per dm3 and time in seconds, what are the units of
specific rate constant K for R=k[A]2
(a) mole2 dm-3 sec-1
(b) mol-2 dm3 sec-1
-3
-1
(c) mole. dm sec
(d) sec-1
(3) Which one of the following is wrong for enzyme
(a) Always protein
(b) Have inorganic ions as activators usually
(c) pH resistant
(d) Organic molecules
(4) Arrhenins equation for straight line resembles
(a) x = - my + c
(b) y = - m + cx
(c) y = - mx + c
(d) x = m + cy
(5) When Al2O3 act as a catalyst for C2H5OH , then the reaction is called
(a) Dehydration
(b) dehydrogenation
(c) Oxidation
(d) Reduction
(6) The energy of the product is more than the energy of the reactants
(a) the reaction will took place
(b) the activated complex will give products
(c) the activated complex will change back to reactants
(d) the activated complex will not found
(7) The NO reacts with H2 to give
(a) N2 + H2 O2
(b) NO2 + H2O
(c) Cu+ ions
(d) N2 + H2O
(8) The radiations are used for rate determination of a chemical reaction, in which technique
(a) optical rotation
(b) Refactrometric
(c) Dilatrometric
(d) spectroscopy
(9) Which one of the followings act as an activator for Fe in synthesis of NH3
(a) Aluminium oxide
(b) Chromium oxide
(c) Copper
(d) both a & b
(10) Tetra ethyl lead is
(a) Poison
(b) Auto catalyst
(c) Negative catalyst
(d) activator
Q.NO.2: Give short answers to the followings.
10
1; How half-life period is related to initial concentration of reation and order of reaction?
2; order of reaction may be zero or fractional. Justify?
3; How will you compare the instantaneous and average rate.
4; Differentiate between rate of reaction and rate constant.
5; Give units of rate of reaction and rate constant of reaction.
Subjective
Q.NO.3: How will you correlate the relationship between rate of reaction and absolute temperature.
(5)