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SINGLE CHOISE
The study of drugs and their effects is called:
a) physiology
b) anatomy
c) medicinology
d) pharmacology
e) pharmacy
Solid form of a drug is:
a) solution
b) ointment
c) suspension
d) tablet
e) ampoules
Whitch of the following is not a liquid form?
a) tinture
b) suspension
c) solution
d) powder
e) syrup
An example of a semisolid form would be:
a) tablet
b) capsules
c) suspension
d) powder
e) cream
Liquid form of a drug in which a partile of a drug are not completely dissolved:
a) suspension
b) ointment
c) capsule
d) tablet
e) gel
What is considered the brand name?
a) paracetamol
b) acamol
c) non opioid analgesic
d) "off label" use
e) inhibit cyclooxygenase
Xenobiotics are considered:
a) Endogenous
b) Exogenous
c) Inorganic poisons
d) Toxins
e) Ligands
Pharmacokinetics is:
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a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
e) The study of pharmacological effects of drugs
What does "pharmacokinetics" include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Biotransformatin of drugs
d) Interaction of substances
e) Side effects of drugs
Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the ____ and pharmacodynamics is the effect of
the_______:
a) Drug on the body; Body on the drug
b) Drug on a drug; Drug on a drug
c) Body on the drug; Drug on a drug
d) Body on the drug; Drug on the body
e) Drug on a drug; Body on the drug
How is called the pharmacokinetic index, that shows the fraction of an administered dose
of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation?
a) Bioavailability
b) Dosage
c) Bioinequivalence
d) Drug absorption
e) Bioequivalence
Which of the following statement is correct for bioavailability?
a) The ratio of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation and make an effect.
b) The time it takes for the amount or concentration of a drug to fall to 50 %
c) The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in plasma.
d) The fraction of the administrated dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic
circulation.
e) the ability of the administered drug metabolites to cause undesirable physiological effects.
For intravenous (IV) dosages, what is the bioavailability assumed to be?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 100%
Weak acids are excreted faster in _____urine and weak bases are excreted faster in
_____urine:
a) Acidic; Alkaline
b) Alkaline; Acidic
c) Acidic; Neutral
d) Neutral; Alkaline
e) Alkaline; Neutral
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The principle of drug manipulation for excretion of a drug out of the renal tubule can be
accomplished by:
a) Acidifying the urinary pH
b) Adjusting the urinary pH to protonate weakly acidic drugs
c) Adjusting the urinary pH to unprotonate weakly basic drugs
d) Adjusting the urinary pH to ionize the drug
e) By neutralizing the urinary pH
What organ is responsible for metabolism in the "first pass effect"?
a) Brain
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Liver
e) Spleen
What type of drug would be needed to enter the brain and CNS?
a) Hydrophilic
b) Hydrophobic
c) Lipophilic
d) Lipophobic
e) Large molecular weight
Which of the enteral administration routes has the largest first-pass effect?
a) SL (sublingual)
b) Buccal
c) Rectal
d) Oral
e) IV (intravenous)
All administration ways listed below are parenteral but one:
a) Intravenous
b) Subcutaneous
c) Peroral
d) intramuscular
e) subarachnoidal
More slowly effect appears after:
a) intravenous administration
b) per oral administration
c) subcutaneous administration
d) intramuscularly administration
e) inhaled administration
More rapid effect appears after:
a) subcutaneous administration
b) intramuscularly administration
c) intravenous administration
d) per oral administration
e) intrarectal administration
Which of the administration routes is not often used, is painful, and has a risk of infection
and adhesion?
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a) EPI (epidural)
b) IA (intraarterial)
c) IP (intraperitoneal)
d) IV (intravenous)
e) SL (sublingual)
Which organ or tissue would receive drug slowly?
a) Liver
b) Brain
c) Fat
d) Muscle
e) Kidney
What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a) Large and lipid-soluble
b) Large and lipid-insoluble
c) Small and lipid-soluble
d) Small and lipid-insoluble
e) Small and ionized
Name the simplest way of drugs penetration through membrane?
a) Filtration
b) Pinocytosis
c) Active transport
d) Facilitated-difuzion
e) Co-transport
Name the way of the penetration through the membrane that needs energy:
a) filtration
b) active transport
c) facilitated diffusion
d) simple diffusion
e) filtration& simple diffusion
Which location can accumulate lipid-soluble drugs, has little or no receptors, and can
hold distributed drugs like barbiturates?
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Brain
d) Fat
e) Fetus
Which location has high blood flow and is a site of excretion?
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Brain
d) Fat
e) Fetus
Elderly patients often have ____ muscle mass and thus a(n) ____ Vd (volume of
distribution):
a) More; Increased
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b) More; Decreased
c) Less; Increased
d) Less; Decreased
e) Less, Unchanged
Most drugs are active in their ____ form and inactive in their ____ form:
a) Non-polar; Polar
b) Polar; Non-polar
c) Water-soluble; Lipid-soluble
d) Lipid-insoluble; Water-insoluble
e) Neutral; Neutral
Which of the metabolically active tissues is the principle organ for drug metabolism?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver
e) GI Tract
What is the goal of the P450 system (microsomes pinched off from endoplasmic
reticulum)?
a) Only metabolism of substances
b) Only detoxification of substances
c) Metabolism of substances & Detoxification of substances
d) Decreasing pH of compartments containing substances
e) Increasing pH of compartments containing substances
Intrinsic activity is a drug's ability to elicit:
a) Strong receptor binding
b) Weak receptor binding
c) Response
d) Excretion
e) Distribution
What is the object of pharmacovigilance?
a) Evaluation of pharmacokinetic parameters for new drugs.
b) Determining the therapeutic index
c) Monitoring of drugs introduced into therapeutic, especially side effects.
d) Intensive therapeutic studies of the 3rd stage on clinical evaluation.
e) Drugs interactions.
The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
e) Exocytosis
What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments?
a) Partition constant
b) Degree of ionization
c) pH
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d) Size
e) All of the above
Which of these physical chemical properties from medicaments are essential for filtration
(crossing of channel membranes) as a means of crossing through cellular membranes?
a) Lipid solubility
b) Water solubility
c) Coefficienct of lipid/big water partition
d) small pKa
e) Affinity for a transportable system
Name the way of the penetration through the membrane that needs the energy:
a) Filtration
b) Pinocytosis
c) Facilitated difuzion
d) Simple diffusion
e) Facilitated difuzion& Simple difuzion
What is a pharmacodynamic process?
a) The drug is readily deposited in fat tissue
b) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulation
c) Drug metabolites are removed in the urine
d) The drug causes dilation of coronary vessels
e) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes
If a medication is intended to be administered per os, how is it typically administered?
a) Oraly
b) Inhaled
c) Rectally
d) Injected
e) Vaginaly
What is characteristic of the oral route?
a) Fast onset of effect
b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
e) Bypassing the hepatic barrier in the first - pass
What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected
c) No need in sterillity
d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration
e) Oily solutions can't be injected
Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
e) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion
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Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
e) Through gastric tube
Pick out the enteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a) rectal
b) intravenous
c) subcutanous
d) inhalation
e) transdermal
The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
c) An administrated dose to a body weight
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
e) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
The term "biotransformation" includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
e) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
If a drug is 80% bound to blood elements or plasma proteins, what part is considered the
free form?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 80%
e) 100%
Specify the aim of microsomal oxidation:
a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug
e) Microsomal oxidation takes pleace just in the kidney
Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:
a) Acetylation and methylation of substances
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma protein
e) Elimination through kidney
Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
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a) Acetylation
b) Oxidation,
c) Reduction
d) Hydrolysis
e) Elimination through kidney
Conjugation is:
a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d) Solubilization in lipids
e) Reduction and oxidation by special enzymes
Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term "receptor":
a) Free molecules that caries the drug to the CNS
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to
combine with in order to elicit its specific effect
d) All types of ion channels modulated by a drug
e) Second mesangers that participate in genes trasncription
What does "affinity" mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
e) A measure of plasmatic concentraton of a drug
Which of the drug permeation mechanisms uses the HendersonHasselbalch equation for
the ratio of solubility for the weak acid or weak base?
a) Pinocytosis
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Aqueous diffusioт
e) Carrier molecules
What is implied by «active transport»?
a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation
d) Transport against gradient of concentration
e) Filtration through the membrane pores
If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it's called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
e) Full antagonist
Which of the ion is increased in intracellular concentration due to second messengers
such as IP3?
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a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld) Na+
e) Mg++
Which of the following affirmations define an agonist action?
a) metabolic phenomena are being triggered by activating specific and on calcium- calmodulin
or calcium-phopholipid dependent phosphates.
b) a chemical that binds to a receptor and activates the receptor to produce a biological
response
c) interaction between the drug and body molecules.
d) interaction between a drug and plasmatic proteins.
e) intensity of an effect, expressed through a maximal effect.
Describe definition of an agonist?
a) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient
b) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity
c) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
d) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
e) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its
chemical action
The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an
antagonist is called:
a) Competitive antagonist
b) Irreversible antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Partial agonist
e) Chemical agonist
The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious
psychological and somatic disturbances is called?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy
e) Tolerance
Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response
e) Toxic reaction after drug administration
Tachyphylaxis refers to definition?
a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug
b) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drug (rapid tolerance)
c) Responsiveness increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitiv)
d) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitize)
e) Responsiveness decreased slowly after administration of a drug
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Which of effect refers to an increased intensity of response to a drug?
a) Idiosyncratic
b) Hyporeactive
c) Hyperreactive
d) Allergy
e) Tolerance
In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the
duration of action of some drugs is:
a) Decreased
b) Enlarged
c) Remained unchanged
d) Changed insignificantly
e) Decreased insignificantly
Which drugs inhibit hepatic enzymes?
a) nicotine
b) prednisone
c) erythromycin
d) penicillin
e) fenobarbital
Which is an example of a drug acting directly through receptors?
a) Mannitol for subarachnoid hemmorhage
b) Cancer chemotherapeutic agents
c) Epinephrine for increasing heart rate and blood pressure
d) Rezerpine to decreases high pressure
e) Protamine soulphate binds stoichiometrically to heparin anticoagulants
Half life (t½ ) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorbed a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
e) Total duration of treatment
Which is the median effective dose, or the dose at which 50% of the individuals exhibit
the specified quantal response?
a) LD50
b) ED50
c) EC50
d) TD50
e) T.I.
What is considered the therapeutic index in animal studies?
a) T.I. = TD50 / ED50
b) T.I. = LD50 / ED50
c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50
d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50
e) T.I. = TD50 / ED50 & T.I. = LD50 / ED50
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The therapeutic index for humans is:
a) the ratio of therapeutically doses to the minimum toxic doses.
b) dose which produce the therapeutically effect
c) is the ratio of the TD50 to the ED 50
d) the doses which makes more favorable effects
e) the most quantity of the drug that produces maximum effect without side effects.
What is the most relevant use of therapeutic index?
a) Guide for toxicity in therapeutic the setting
b) Multiple measures of effectiveness are possible
c) Measure of impunity with which an overdose may be tolerated
d) Toxicities may be idiosyncratic (e.g. propranolol in asthmatics)
e) Used just in bioequivalence study
Describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)?
a) The minimal drug plasma concentration to reach therapeutic levels
b) The minimal drug plasma concentration to interact with receptors
c) The minimal drug plasma concentration to enter tissues
d) The minimal drug plasma concentration to produce effect
e) The minimal drug plasma concentration that can be detected
If a patient misses three doses of their daily drug, which is the best solution?
a) Prescribe a higher dosage pill so missed doses will have less effect
b) Setup an appointment to have the patient evaluated
c) Do nothing and continue normal regimen
d) Wait 3 more days (week total) then return to normal regimen
e) Take a 4x dose at the next dose time
What type of study for an Investigational New Drug involves neither the investigators or
subjects knowing if the drug or placebo is being given?
a) Single-blind study
b) Double-blind study
c) Placebo
d) Positive-control
e) Crossover study
What clinical trial phase is conducted with several hundred to thousands of volunteer
patients suffering from the condition the investigational drug treats?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
e) bioequivalence study
What clinical trial phase is conducted with up to several hundred patients suffering from
the condition the investigational drug is designed to treat?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
e) bioequivalence study
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What clinical trial phase involves submitting a New Drug Application, monitoring, and
reporting by clinicians using the drug?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
e) bioequivalence study
What clinical trial phase is “first-in-man studies”, conducted in a small group of healthy
volunteer?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
e) bioequivalence study
Name clinical study used to assess the expected in vivo biological equivalence of two
proprietary preparations of a drug:
a) Phase 1 clinical study
b) Phase 2 clinical study
c) Phase 3 clinical study
d) Phase 4 clinical study
e) bioequivalence study
Name liquid volatile anesthetics:
a) Propanidid
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Thiopental
d) Ketamine
e) Halothane
How to prevent reflex bradycardia during anesthesia?
a) By atropine injection
b) By diazepam injection
c) By halothane injection
d) By decreasing dose of the anesthetic agent
e) By epinephine injection
Which is characteristic for surgical stage with diethyl ether anesthesia?
a) analgesia
b) combative behavior
c) medullary paralysis
d) eyes initially rolling, then becoming fixed
e) excitement
Which anesthetic cause "dissociative anesthesia":
a) Diethyl ether
b) Halothane
c) Ketamine
d) Sodium hydroxybutyrate
e) Nitrous oxide
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Which drug can be used for controlled hypotension during anesthesia:
a) Trimethafan
b) Diazepam
c) Atropine
d) Flumazenil
e) Sodium hydroxybutyrate
Name drug used for all type of local anesthesia:
a) Cocaine
b) Tetracaine
c) Procaine
d) Lidocaine
e) Bumecaine
Which local anesthetic has ability to constrict vessels?
a) Cocaine
b) Tetracaine
c) Procaine
d) Lidocaine
e) Bumecaine
Which local anesthetic can be used for ventricular arrythmias?
a) Cocaine
b) Tetracaine
c) Procaine
d) Lidocaine
e) Bumecaine
Name organic astringent:
a) Zinc oxide
b) Silver nitrate
c) Lead acetate
d) Tannin
e) Cooper sulphate
Choose astringent drug:
a) menthol
b) tanninum
c) carbosem
d) mucilago amyli
e) medicas E
All the preparations listed below are sedatives but one:
a) natrium bromide
b) preparations made of valerian
c) amphetamine
d) diphenhydramine
e) barbital
Name indication of disulfiram:
a) Alcoholic coma
b) Acute alcohol poisoning
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c) Withdrawal syndrome
d) Delirium tremens
e) Used to support the treatment of chronic alcoholism
Name flumazenil mechanism of action:
a) Blocks competitivly benzodiazepins receptors
b) Blocks GABAB receptors
c) Increases benzodiazepins metabolism
d) Decreases benzodiazepins metabolism
e) Has GABA-mimetic action
Name diazepam mechanism of action:
a) Blocks benzodiazepins receptors
b) Blocks GABAB receptors
c) Blocks GABAA receptors
d) GABAA receptors activation and hyperpolarization
e) GABAA receptors activation and depolarization
What drug does manifest the minimal action on the rapid faze of sleeping:
a) phenobarbital
b) pentobarbital
c) nitrazepam
d) barbital
e) cyclobarbita
Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:
a) psychoses
b) sleep disoders
c) narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
e) acute mania
What explains the anxiolytic action caused by diazepam?
a) interaction with adrenoreceptors
b) interaction with cholinoreceptors
c) interaction with benzodiazepinic receptors
d) interaction with opioid receptors
e) interaction with serotonine receptors
Mechanism of barbiturates tolerance:
a) Induction of microsomal enzymes
b) Inhibition of microsomal enzymes
c) Decreased absorption in GI tract
d) Increased elimination through kidney
e) Receptors desensitization
The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is:
a) Activation of GABA receptors
b) Antagonism of glycine receptors in the spinal cord
c) Blockade of the action of glutamic acid
d) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase
e) Activation of M cholynoreceptors
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GABA A receptors (ligand-gate ) involve the movement of what ion across the
membrane?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld) Na+
e) Mg++
Name antagonist of benzodiazepines:
a) unitiol
b) naloxone
c) tramadol
d) protamine sulphate
e) flumazenil
Which of the below listed drugs manifest a minimum action upon fast sleep phase?
a) fenobarbital
b) pentobarbital
c) chloral hydrate
d) barbital
e) oxazepam
Choose opioid receptor antagonist:
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Omnopon
d) Naltrexone
e) Talamonal
Morphine has each the effects listed EXCEPT:
a) myosis
b) constipation
c) bradycardia
d) hypothermia
e) hyperthermia
Name agonist-antagonist of opiod receptors:
a) Metamisol
b) Naltrexone
c) Tramadol
d) Pentazocine
e) Omnopon
Signs of opioid poisoning are, EXCEPT:
a) Miosis
b) Falling in body temperature
c) Increased body temperature
d) Respiratory depression
e) Hypotension
Name antagonist of opiod analgesics:
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a) Metamisol
b) Naloxone
c) Tramadol
d) Pentazocine
e) Omnopon
Choose GABA-receptor agonist with analgesic properties:
a) Diphenhydramine
b) Carbamazepine
c) Ketamine
d) Baclofen
e) Paracetamol
Choose α2-agonist with analgesic properties:
a) Diphenhydramine
b) Carbamazepine
c) Ketamine
d) Clonidine
e) Paracetamol
Choose drug with analgesic properties administered by inhalation:
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Carbamazepine
d) Ketamine
e) Halothane
The main effects of non-opioid analgesics are, EXCEPT:
a) anti-inflammatory
b) antiagregant
c) antipyretic
d) somnolence
e) analgesic
Morphine causes following effects, EXCEPT:
a) Analgesic
b) Euphoria
c) Stimulation of the vagal center
d) Stimulation of the cough center
e) Segmentation of the intestine
The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:
a) Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
b) Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
c) Miosis, tremor and hypertermia
d) Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps
e) Mydriasis, tremor and vomiting
Which of the following agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid overdose?
a) Pentazocine
b) Methadone
c) Naloxone
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d) Remifentanyl
e) Buprenorphine
All of the following are opium derivatives EXCEPT:
a) codeine
b) thebaine
c) morphine
d) paracetamol
e) papaverine
Each of the findings listed is characteristic of opioid poisoning EXCEPT:
a) Coma
b) Miosis of the pupils
c) Bradycardia
d) Low body temperature
e) Mydriasis
Each of the findings listed is characteristic of opioid poisoning EXCEPT:
a) Coma
b) Myosis
c) Depressed respiration
d) Flaccidity of skeletal muscles
e) Elevated body temperature
Indicate the pure opioid antagonist:
a) Morphine
b) Naltrexone
c) Tramadol
d) Pentazocine
e) Tramadol
Which of the following drugs has weak µ agonist effects and inhibitory action on
norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in the CNS?
a) Loperamide
b) Tramadol
c) Fluoxetine
d) Butorphanol
e) Nalbuphine
What is the difference of trimeperidine from morphine?
a) Analgesic activity is inferior by up to 2-4 times
b) Causes nausea more frequent than morphine
c) Inhibits respiratory center to higher degree
d) Duration of analgesic effect is longer
e) Is administered in lower dose
Alkaloid from Papaver somniferum is:
a) nalbuphine
b) thalamonal
c) pentazocine
d) morphine
e) sufentanyl
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Which antiepileptic drug causes hyperplastic gingivitis?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Phenytoin
c) Carbamazepine
d) Ethosuximide
e) Sodium valproate
Which one of the following drugs exerts its anticonvulsant effects by blocking sodium
chanels in neuronal membranes?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Valproic acid
c) Diazepam
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Magnesium sulphate
Which one of the following drugs exerts its anticonvulsant effects by blocking sodium
chanels in neuronal membranes?
a) Acetazolamide
b) Carbamazepine
c) Diazepam
d) Gabapentin
e) Vigabatrin
Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of Parkinson′s disease?
a) Pilocarpine
b) Trihexyphenidyl
c) Edrophonium
d) Succinylcholine
e) Hexamethonium
Antiparkinsonic drugs are:
a) Primidone + Phenytoin + Ethsuximide
b) Phenibut + Baclofen + Mefedol
c) Lorazepam + Flurazepam + Zopiclon
d) Madopar + Selegeline + Trihexyphenidyl
e) Diazepam + Lamotridgine + Valproic acid
Effective in treating of extrapyramidal disorders caused by antipsychotic drugs:
a) carbidopa
b) trihexyphenidyl
c) haloperidol
d) amantidine
e) levodopa
Name catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitor:
a) Carbidopa
b) Benserazide
c) Sinemet
d) Entacapone
e) Selegiline
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Choose antagonist of glutamate NMDA-receptors:
a) Carbidopa
b) Benserazide
c) Sinemet
d) Amantadine
e) Selegeline
Name trihexyphenidyl side effects:
a) Intestinal spasm
b) Bradycardia
c) Tachycardia
d) Miosis
e) Hypersalivation
Select antipsychotic drugs:
a) Diazepam, Ethosuximide, Carbamasepine
b) Phenobarbital, Barbital, Chloralhidrate
c) Levodopa, Trihexyphenidyl, Amantadine
d) Levomepromazine, Chlorpromasine, Droperidol
e) Omnopon, Morphine, Fentanyl
The phenothiazines have a variety of actions at different receptors types. However, they do
NOT appear to interact with receptors:
a) Dopamine
b) Histamine
c) Nicotine
d) Adrenoreceptors
e) Muscarine
A 50-yer-old patient has periodically a period of depression follow by psychosis. Choose
the drug to prevent this disorder:
a) Amitriptyline
b) Lithium carbonate
c) Levomepromasine
d) Nootropil
e) Vallerian
Effective in treating acute dystonia caused by antipsychotic drugs:
a) carbidopa
b) trihexyphenidyl
c) haloperidol
d) madopar
e) levodopa
Chlorpromazine would not be appropriate drug management of:
a) Acute mania
b) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome
c) CNS stimulants intoxication
d) Schizoaffective disorders
e) Bipolar disorders
If one patient is taking amitriptyline and another patient is taking chlorpromazine, they
19
are both likely to experience:
a) Excessive salivation
b) Extrapyramidal dysfunction
c) Gynecomastia
d) Increased gastrointestinal motility
e) Postural hypotension
The following neuroleptic drug has sympatholytic activity:
a) Reserpine
b) Sulpiride
c) Risperidone
d) Chlorprothixene
e) Haloperidol
The main effect of neuroleptics is:
a) antiagregant
b) antidopaminic
c) cholinomimetic
d) adrenomimetic
e) GABA-ergic.
The following neuroleptic drug blocks both D2 and 5-HT2A receptors:
a) Risperidone
b) Sulpiride
c) Droperidol
d) Chlorprothixene
e) Haloperidol
Name atypical antipsychotic drug:
a) Droperidol
b) Pimozid
c) Clozapine
d) Chlorprothixene
e) Haloperidol
Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine in:
a) The nigrostriatal system
b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
d) The tubero-infundibular system
e) The scheletal muscle
Select antiparkinsonic drugs:
a) Diazepam, Ethosuximide, Carbamasepine
b) Phenobarbital, Barbital, Chloralhidrate
c) Levodopa, Trihexyphenidyl, Amantadine
d) Levomepromazine, Chlorpromasine, Droperidol
e) Phenobarbital, Diazepam, Nitrazepam
Many therapeutically useful drugs act via brain dopaminergic systems. Which one of the
following mechanism exacerbates Parkinson's disease?
a) Inhibition of dopamine reuptake
20
b) Increase in dopamine synthesis
c) Activation of dopamine receptors
d) Inhibition of dopamine metabolism
e) Blockade of dopamine receptors
The drug that increase amount of dopamine in Parkinson's disease:
a) bromocriptine
b) levodopa
c) selegeline
d) amantadine
e) trihexyphenidyl
Select peripheral DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor:
a) Amantadine.
b) Trihexyphenidyl
c) Carbidopa.
d) Selegiline.
e) Bromocriptine.
Select nootropics (smart drugs) from the combinations:
a) Carbamazepine + Chlorpromazine +Haloperidol
b) Pyracetam + Meclofenoxat + Picamilone
c) Caffeine + Mesocarb + Methamphetamine
d) Nialamide + Maprotiline + Amitriptyline
e) Amphetamine + Sibutramine + Mezocarb
Which of the following can cause ""serotonin syndrome":
a) Fluoxetine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Pipofezin
d) Imipramine
e) Maprotiline
Mechanism of action of tricycle antidepressants::
a) Stimulation of GABA system
b) Increasing of beta adrenoreceptors activity
c) M-cholinoreceptors block
d) Inhibition of mediators reuptake on the presynaptic membrane level
e) MAO inhibition
The following drug blocks selectively neuronal uptake of norepinephrine:
a) Fluoxetine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Pipofezin
d) Imipramine
e) Maprotiline
The following drug blocks selectively MAO-A:
a) Fluoxetine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Moclobemide
d) Imipramine
21
e) Maprotiline
What is the principal mechanism of action of Tricyclic antidepressants?
a) exit receptors
b) diminishes monoaminoxidase activation
c) inhibits neuronal reuptake of monoamines
d) activates monoaminoxidase
e) stimulates neuronal reuptake of monoamines
Which kind of substance is psychostimulants?
a) piracetam
b) baclofen
c) amphetamine
d) valproaic acid
e) prometazine
Following groups are psychoanaleptics:
a) neuroleptics, sedatives, tranquilisators
b) adaptogenes, neuroleptics, nootropes
c) psychostimulants, antidepressants, adaptogenes
d) psychosomimetics, antidepressants
e) analgesic, neuroleptics, sedatives
Name the nootropic agent:
a) Caffeine
b) Fluoxetine
c) Eleuterococci extract
d) Piracetam
e) Sydnocarb
What amino acids is converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?
a) Valine
b) Lysine
c) Proline
d) Tyrosine
e) Alanine
Which location contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?
a) Milk
b) Liver
c) Eggs
d) Peanuts
e) Blood plasma
Which of the mediator is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidasmore than the
others?
a) Serotonin
b) Norepinepherine
c) Dopamine
d) Histamine
e) Achetylcholine
22
Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?
a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) α2 (Gi/Go)
c) β1 (Gs)
d) β2 (Gs)
e) β3 (Gs)
Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction
and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?
a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) α2 (Gi/Go)
c) β1 (Gs)
d) β2 (Gs)
e) β3 (Gs)
Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (ratand
inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin
secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?
a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) α2 (Gi/Go)
c) β1 (Gs)
d) β2 (Gs)
e) β3 (Gs)
Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic βcells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?
a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
b) α2 (Gi/Go)
c) β1 (Gs)
d) β2 (Gs)
e) β3 (Gs)
Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine,
amphetamine, and tyramine?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
e) Stimulation of monoaminoxydase
Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO
inhibitors?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
e) Activation of COMT
Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic
antidepressants?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
23
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
e) Activation of COMT
At the adrenergic presynapse, what does α2 do?
a) Stimulates NE release
b) Inhibits NE release
c) Stimulates ACh release
d) Vasoconstrcition
e) No effect
β2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease
in plasma concentration of that ion?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld) Na+
e) Mg++
Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses
(treatment for shock), which of the adrenergic receptors is activated?
a) α1
b) α2
c) β1
d) β2
e) β3
Supraselective beta1 adrenergic receptor antagonist:
a) esmolol
b) metoprolol
c) nebivolol
d) propranolol
e) timolol
Primary therapeutic use for central alpha2 selective adrenergic agonists:
a) management of arrhythmias
b) management of renal insufficiency
c) management of intraoperative hypotensive states
d) management of hypertension
e) management of Raynaud's phenomenon
Receptors that mediate most of epinephrine's cardiac effects:
a) beta1 adrenergic
b) beta2 adrenergic
c) dopaminergic
d) alpha1-adrenergic
e) alpha2-adrenergic
Concerning low-dose dopamine: interaction with this receptor causes renal, mesenteric,
and coronary vasodilation:
a) beta1 adrenergic receptors
24
b) beta2 adrenergic receptors
c) dopamine D1 receptors
d) alpha-adrenergic
e) prostaglandin receptors
Beta adrenergic receptor blockers:effects on the heart:
a) increase heart rate
b) increase contractility
c) reduce contractility
d) increase automatism
e) no change
Primary mechanism by which norepinephrine acutely increases BP:
a) increases intravascular volume
b) increases heart rate
c) vasoconstriction at precapillary resistance muscles and veins
d) increases angiotensin II plasma levels
e) increases renine levels
Muscarinic ACh receptors and adrenergic receptors are associated with which of the
receptors?
a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands
b) Transmembrane receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domains
c) G-protein coupled receptors
d) Ligand-gated ion channels
e) Non of the above
Nicotinic N2 receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____
subtype:
a) Neuronal; Muscular
b) Muscular; Neuronal
c) Nodal; Neuronal
d) Neuronal; Nodal
e) Sympathetic; Parasympathetic
Name beta 2 adrebomimetic drug:
a) Phenylephrine
b) Epinepherine
c) Oxymetazoline
d) Isoprenaline
e) xSalbutamol
Name the α1 drug of choice for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of
iris)?
a) Ephedrine
b) Epinepherine
c) Oymetazoline
d) Isoproterenol
e) Phenylephrine
Name drug used in hypotension:
a) Clonidine
25
b) Methyldopa
c) Guanabenz
d) Guanfacine
e) Epinephrine
Name group of drugs that is used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor?
a) α2-agonist
b) α1-agonist
c) β3-agonist
d) β2-agonist
e) β1-agonist
Which of the agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or
heart failure?
a) α1-agonist
b) α2-agonist
c) β1-agonist
d) β2-agonist
e) β3-agonist
Name β-antagonist?
a) Terbutaline
b) Ritodrine
c) Salmeterol
d) Metoprolol
e) Phenylepherine
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the
medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the group should be given to the patient?
a) α-agonist
b) α-blocker
c) β-agonist
d) β-blocker
e) α, β -agonist
Name contraindication for β-blocker therapy?
a) Hypotension
b) Angina pectoris
c) Arrhythmias
d) Myocardial infarction
e) Glaucoma
Which of the β-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary
body?
a) Propranolol
b) Nadolol
c) Carvedilol
d) Timolol
e) Metoprolol
Blocking α2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the changing in the mediator release?
a) Stimulate NE release
26
b) Inhibit NE release
c) Stimulate DA release
d) Inhibit DA release
e) No effect
Which of the effect is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a α1agonist drug?
a) Hypotension
b) Hypertension
c) Tissue necrosis
d) Vasodilation
e) Lipolysis
Which of the adrenergic agonist can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug
is withdrawn to quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
a) α1-agonist
b) α2-agonist
c) β1-agonist
d) β2-agonist
e) β3-agonist
Which of the adrenergic agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50%
of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nauseas, dizziness, and sleep
disturbances?
a) α1-agonist
b) α2-agonist
c) β1-agonist
d) β2-agonist
e) β3-agonist
Which of the adrenergic agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics?
a) α2-agonist
b) α1-agonist
c) β3-agonist
d) β2-agonist
e) β1-agonist
Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of
the adrenergic agonists?
a) α2-agonist
b) α1-agonist
c) β3-agonist
d) β2-agonist
e) β1-agonist
If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which
of the acute responses is most likely?
a) Stimulation of NE release
b) Inhibition of NE release
c) Stimulation of ACh release
d) Inhibition of ACh release
e) No response due to MAO inhibitor
27
Major adverse affects of the α1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the
other?
a) Orthostatic tachycardia
b) Orthostatic bradycardia
c) Orthostatic hypertension
d) Orthostatic hypotension
e) Increased cardiac output
Which of the effect would be intensified with the α2 blockade?
a) Reflex tachycardia
b) Reflex bradycardia
c) Orthostatic hypertension
d) No effect
e) Platelet clotting
Name the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with β1-blockers:
a) Atrial fibrillation
b) Reflex tachycardia
c) Hypertention
d) Angina pectory
e) AV block
Which of the groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in β2-blockers?
a) Asthmatics
b) Congestive heart failure patients
c) Trauma patients
d) Myocardial infarction
e) Patients with deep vein thromboses (DVTs)
Administration of which drug can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to
masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?
a) α1-blocker
b) α2-blocker
c) β1-blocker
d) β2-blocker
e) β3-blocker
Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being
terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
a) K+
b) Ca++
c) Cld) Na+
e) H+
Best description of the drug nicotine is:
a) Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist
b) Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist
c) Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
d) Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist
e) Non of above
28
With receptors are acting by Pilocarpine?
a) α1 adrenoreceptrs
b) α2 adrenoreceptrs
c) N Cholynoreceptors
d) β2 adrenoreceptrs
e) M cholynoreceptors
What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?
a) For decreasing heart rate
b) To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
c) For urinary retention
d) Decreasing intraocular pressure
e) For erectile dysfunction
What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?
a) Acetylcholine agonists
b) Acetylcholine antagonists
c) Muscarinic agonists
d) Muscarinic antagonists
e) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade)?
a) Bethanechol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Scopolamine
e) Atropine
What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
a) Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation
b) Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)
c) Miosis and increased lacrimation
d) Mydriasis and cycloplegia
e) Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and miosis
Name an adverse affect of atropine?
a) Increased salivation
b) Blurred vision
c) Bradycardia
d) Diaphoresis (sweating)
e) Decreased intraocular pressure
Which drug is used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch):
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Tropicamide
e) Pirenzepine
Name correct drugs: mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6
hours (shor):
29
a) Atropine; Scopolamine
b) Scopolamine; Homatropine
c) Homatropine; Tropicamide
d) Tropicamide; Atropine
e) Atropine; Tropicamide
Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is mostly used for atropine intoxication?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Donepezil
e) Pyridostigmine
Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Donepezil
e) Pyridostigmine
Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Donepezil
e) Pyridostigmine
Which drug is used for dyagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
a) Atropine
b) Endrophonium
c) Homatropine
d) Tropicamide
e) Physostigmine
In smooth muscle and glandular tissue, ACh binds to what muscarinic receptor, leading
to the DAG cascade?
a) M1
b) M2
c) M3
d) M4
e) M5
In the heart and inines, what muscarinic receptor inhibits adenylyl cyclase activity?
a) M1
b) M2
c) M3
d) M4
e) M5
Which of the following is a common effect of muscarinic stimulant drugs?
a) Decreased peristalsis
b) Decreased secretion by salivary glands
30
c) Hypertension
d) Relaxation of ciliary muscle
e) Bradycardia
Name drug which causes hypersecretion of exocrine drugs:
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Pilocarpine
d) Ephedrine
e) Tropicamide
Name drug used in intoxication with Sorin:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Neostigmine
c) Atropine
d) Aceclidine
e) Galantamine
The main symptoms in intoxication with Amanita Palidum and organophosphates are:
a) bronchospasm + bradycardia + miosis
b) myasthenia + olyguria + hyposalivation
c) sphincters constriction + bronchodilation
d) hypomotility + tachycardia + cycloplegia
e) mydriasis + olyguria + hyposalivation
Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of action?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Methacholine
c) Carbachol
d) Bethanechol
e) Atropine
Name the M-cholinimimetic agent:
a) Carbachol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Bethanechol
e) Atropine
Neostigmine acts through blocking:
a) cholinetransferase
b) acetyl-CoA
c) adenylatecyclase
d) acetylcholinesterase
e) phosphodiesterase
Which of the following cholinomimetics is a plant derivative with lower potency than
nicotine but with a similar spectrum of action?
a) Lobeline
b) Pilocarpine
c) Carbachol
d) Acetylcholine
31
e) Atropine
Which one of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes intaoculary
hypotension:
a) Atropine
b) Echothiophate
c) Pilocarpine
d) Ephedrine
e) Tropicamide
The mechanism of action of indirect-acting cholinomimetic agents is:
a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
c) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase
d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites
e) Decrease releasing of acetylcholine from storage sites
Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:
a) Dipiroxime
b) Carbachol
c) Galantamine
d) Pilocarpine
e) Aceclidine
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible?
a) Physostigmine
b) Galantamine
c) Neostigmine
d) Armine
e) Pilocarpine
By using cholinomimetics following effects might be established:
a) rise of cardiac contraction frequency
b) vasoconstriction
c) bronchospasm
d) decrease of renal secretion
e) relaxation of smooth muscle in gastrointestinal tract
Which of the following is a common effect of cholinomimetic drugs?
a) Decreased peristalsis
b) Decreased secretion by salivary glands
c) Hypertention
d) Inhibitoon of sweat glands
e) Spasm of accommodation
Indications of cholinomimetics include following states EXCEPT:
a) intoxication with Atropine
b) glaucoma
c) myasthenia
d) stimulation of the respiration
e) bronchial asthma
32
Cholinomimetics have follow effects EXCEPT:
a) bradyckardia
b) bronchospasm
c) xerosthomia
d) lacrimation
e) miosis
Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:
a) Heart
b) Glands
c) Smooth muscle
d) Endothelium
e) Eye smooth muscle
The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting
b) Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia, hallucination
c) Headache, abdominal colic
d) Bradycardia, hypotension and shock
e) Nausea, vomiting, bradycardia
Select the drug that you will administrate in intoxication with mushrooms and
organophosphates:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Neostigmine
c) Atropine
d) Cizaprid
e) Tubocurarine
Which of the following cholinomimetic activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?
a) Lobeline
b) Pilocarpine
c) Nicotine
d) Acetylcholine
e) Aceclidine
Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:
a) Edrophonium
b) Physostigmine
c) Carbachol
d) Dipiroxime
e) Atropine
Which of the following is a common effect of muscarinic stimulant drugs?
a) Decreased peristalsis
b) Decreased secretion by salivary glands
c) Hypertention
d) Inhibitoon of sweat glands
e) Miosis
Choose the broncholitic mechanism of atropine:
a) Excitement of M-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi
33
b) β2 adrenoreceptors stimulation in the smooth muscle of bronchi
c) Stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi
d) Inhibition of adenosine-receptors
e) Blocking of M-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi
Patients complain of dry or "sandy" eyes when receiving large doses of:
a) Atropine
b) Hexamethonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Carbachol
e) Lobeline
Choose drug used in motion sickness:
a) Tropicamide
b) Ipratropium
c) Scopolamine
d) Homatropine
e) Oxitropium
The pharmacologic actions of scopolamine most closely resemble those of:
a) Hexamethonium
b) Atropine
c) Succinylcholine
d) Pilocarpine
e) Aceclidine
Compared with atropine, scopolamine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) More marked central effect
b) Less potent in decreasing bronchial, salivary and sweat gland secretion
c) More potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia
d) Lower effects on the heart
e) Lower effect on the bronchial muscle and intestines
Indicate the drug, which is rapidly distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than
most other antimuscarinic agents?
a) Pilocarpine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Ipratropium
e) Oxitropium
The mechanism of atropine action is:
a) Competitive ganglion blockade
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade
c) Competitive neuromuscular blockade
d) Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockade
e) Inhibition of cholinesterase
Indicate following preparation, which provokes the longest term effect of mydriasis:
a) Scopolamine
b) Ephedrine
c) Platyphylline
34
d) Epinephrine
e) Atropine
Which of the following drugs is used for acute toxic effects of mushrooms poisoning?
a) Atropine
b) Pilocarpine
c) Pralidoxime
d) Aceclidine
e) Edrophonium
The main symptoms in intoxication with mushrooms and organophosphates are:
a) sphincters constriction + mydriasis + bronchodilation
b) myasthenia + olyguria + hyposalivation
c) bradycardia + bronchospasm + miosis
d) hypomotility + tachycardia + cycloplegia
e) olyguria + cycloplegia+ tachycardia
M3 receptor subtype is located:
a) In the myocardium
b) In sympathetic postganglionic neurons
c) On effector cell membranes of glandular and smooth muscle cells
d) On the motor end plates
e) In parasympathetic ganglia
The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be carried out with:
a) Neostigmine
b) Hexametonium
c) Homatropine
d) Scopolamine
e) Acetylcholine
What phenomena of atropine is being used to establish a diagnose in ophthalmology?
a) miosis
b) mydriasis
c) spasm of acommodation
d) circular iris muscle contraction
e) intraocular pressure growth
The remedy used in intoxication with organophosphates:
a) cizaprid
b) armine
c) phenytoin
d) pylocarpine
e) atropine
Which of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes mydriasis and
cycloplegia lasting more than 24 hours?
a) Atropine
b) Echothiophate
c) Edrophonium
d) Ephedrine
e) Tropicamide
35
Which one of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes mydriasis and
cycloplegia lasting more than 24 hourrs?
a) Plathyphylline
b) Atropine
c) Scopolamine
d) Izoprenaline
e) Echothiophate
Atropine has the effects EXCEPT:
a) dry moth
b) mydriasis
c) hypersalivation
d) tachycardia
e) atony of smooth muscle
Choose the broncholitic mechanism of atropine::
a) Blockage of M- cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi
b) Excitement of beta2 adrenoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi
c) Stimulation of adenilatcyclase
d) Direct action on the smooth muscle of bronchi
e) Excitement of M cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi
Which one of the following statements about scopolamine is false?
a) It has depressant actions on CNS
b) It may cause hallucinations
c) It is poorly distributed across the placenta to the fetus and across blood-brain barrier
d) It may prevent motion sickness and vertigo when applied as a patch to the skin
e) It is from the same group with atropine.
Choose the drug belonging to selective beta2-adrenomimics:
a) x Salbutamol
b) Isoprenaline
c) Salmeterol
d) Terbutaline
e) Hexoprenaline
Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta-adrenomimics:
a) Depression of the breathing centre
b) Tachycardia
c) Peripheral vasoconstriction
d) Dry mouth
e) Miosis
Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used especially as an anti-asthmatic?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Platiphylline
d) Metacin
e) Pirenzepine
Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used mostly as intestinal
36
spasmolytic?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Platiphylline
d) Metacin
e) Pirenzepine
The main effects of ganglion-blocking drugs are, EXCEPT:
a) vasodilatation and hypotension
b) hyposecretion
c) increase of intraoculary pression
d) bronchospasm
e) relaxation of the smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters
Tubocurarine blocks the action of acethylcholine and similar agonists at:
a) Muscarinic receptor site
b) Neuromuscular junction
c) Parasimpathetic ganglia
d) Axonal transmission
e) Simpathetic ganglia
Which of the following agents is a short-acting ganglion blocker?
a) Homatropine
b) Trimethaphane
c) Hexamethonium
d) Pancuronium
e) Atropine
Ganglion blocking drugs are used for the following states EXCEPT:
a) Hypertensive crises
b) Controlled hypotension
c) Cardiovascular collapse
d) Pulmonary edema
e) Malignant hypertension
The shortest duration hypotensive activity is characteristic for:
a) Reserpine
b) Guanethidine
c) Treperium iodide
d) Tropaphen
e) Propranolol
Agents that produce neuromuscular blockade act by inhibiting:
a) Interaction of acetylcholine with cholinergic receptors
b) Release of acetylcholine from prejunctional membrane
c) Packaging of acetylcholine into synaptic vesicles
d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into the nerve ending
e) Metabolism of acetylcholine
Which of the following drugs has "double-acetylcholine" structure?
a) Tubocurarine
b) Carbachol
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c) Atropine
d) Atracurium
e) Suxamethonium
Indicate the depolarizing agent:
a) Suxamethonium
b) Tubocurarine
c) Vecuronium
d) Atracurium
e) Pancuronium
Neuromuscular blockade by suxamethonium may be prolonged in patients with:
a) Renal failure
b) An abnormal variant of plasma cholinesterase
c) Cardiac failure
d) Acute hypotension
e) Gastric ulcer
Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?
a) Pancuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Scopolamine
e) Atropine
Which of the following neuromuscular blockers causes transient muscle fasciculations?
a) Atracurium
b) Pancuronium
c) Suxamethonium
d) Tubocurarine
e) Atropine
Depolarizing agents include all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to compete with acetylcholine without receptor activation
b) React with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarisation of the end
plate
c) Cause desensitization, noncompetive block manifested by flaccid paralysis
d) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have the ability to reverse the blockade
e) Can caused transient muscle fasciculations
Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the potential to cause the greatest release of
histamine?
a) Suxamethonium
b) Tubocurarine
c) Pancuronium
d) Vecuronium
e) Atracurium
Which of the following muscular relaxants causes hypotension and bronchospasm?
a) Vecuronium
b) Suxamethonium
c) Tubocurarine
38
d) Pancuronium
e) Atracurium
Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, which causes tachycardia:
a) Tubocurarine
b) Atracurium
c) Pancuronium
d) Suxamethonium
e) Vecuronium
Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?
a) Tubocurarine
b) Suxamethonium
c) Pancuronium
d) Vecuronium
e) Atracurium
Indicate the agent, which effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade caused by
nondepolarizing drugs:
a) Atropine
b) Neostigmine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Pralidoxime
e) Scopolamine
Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents cause cardiac arrhythmias?
a) Vecuronium
b) Atracurium
c) Tubocurarine
d) Pipecuronium
e) Suxamethonium
Witch substance can be mostly used in acute rhinitis?
a) clonidine
b) nafasoline
c) salbutamol
d) izoprenaline
e) phenylefrine
Which of the following effects is associated with beta3-receptor stimulation?
a) Lipolysis
b) Decrease in platelet aggregation
c) Bronchodilation
d) Tachycardia
e) Hyperglicemia
Indicate the beta1-selective agonist:
a) Isoproterenol
b) Dobutamine
c) Metoprolol
d) Epinephrine
e) Ephedrine
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Mechanism of action of Clonidine:
a) Inhibition of rennin-angiotensine system
b) Activation of β-adrenoreceptors
c) Activation of alfa2-presynaptic adrenoreceptors
d) Blockage of alfa2 adrenoreceptors
e) Inhibition of cholinergyc system
Select the drug that acts on the bronchi selectively:
a) Epinephrine
b) Ephedrine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Salbutamol
e) Izoprenaline
Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Fenilephrine
c) Ritodrine
d) Ephedrine
e) Epinephrine
By what mechanism does clonidine lower blood pressure?
a) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A node
b) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomiting
c) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatation
d) Stimulation of α2-adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline release
e) None of the above
Location of beta 2 adrenoreceptors includes following places EXCEPTS:
a) Vessels
b) Presynaptic membrane
c) Liver
d) Bronchi
e) Juxtaglomerular cells
Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by:
a) Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminals
b) Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sites
c) Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
d) N-cholinoreceptors stimulation in sympathetic ganglia
e) All of the above
Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Naphasoline
e) Fenilephrine
What is the mechanism of action of ephedrine?
a) inhibit eliberation of acetylcholine
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b) stimulate eliberation of acetylcholine
c) stimulate eliberation of norepinephrine
d) inhibit eliberation of norepinephrine
e) doesn't have an effect on eliberation of neurotransmitters
Phenylephrine causes:
a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa
b) Increased gastric secretion and motility
c) Increased skin temperature
d) Miosis
e) All of the above
Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by:
a) Alfa1 receptor
b) Alfa 2 receptor
c) Beta1 receptor
d) Beta 2 receptor
e) Beta 3 receptor
What kind of drug is contraindicated in the pregnancy because of stimulation of the delivery?
a) alcohol
b) salbutamol
c) indomethacine
d) furosemide
e) ergometrine
In which of the following tissues both alfa and beta adrenergic stimulation produces the
same effect?
a) Blood vessels
b) Intestine
c) Uterus
d) Bronchial muscles
e) Platelets
The effects of sympathomimetics on blood pressure are associated with their effects on:
a) The heart
b) The peripheral resistance
c) The venous return
d) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
e) All of the above
Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT:
a) Bronchial muscles
b) Heart
c) Pupillary dilator muscle
d) Fat cells
e) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Which of the following drugs is a nonselective beta-blocker without intrinsic
sympathomimetic or local anesthetic activity and used for the treatment of lifethreatening ventricular arrhythmias?
41
a) Propranolol
b) Oxprenolol
c) Nadolol
d) Sotalol
e) Atenolol
Which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist?
a) Labetalol
b) Phentolamine
c) Metoprolol
d) Propranolol
e) Prasosine
Select the mechanism of action of propranolol:
a) stimulation of beta1-adenoreceptors
b) blockage of beta2 adrenoreceptors
c) blockage of alpha, beta adrenoreceptors
d) blockage of beta1, beta2 adrenoreceptors
e) stimulation of M, N cholynoreceptors
Which of the following beta receptor antagonists is preferable in patients with asthma,
diabetes or peripheral vascular diseases?
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Nadolol
d) Sotalol
e) Timolol
Indicate the indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug:
a) Tolazoline
b) Reserpine
c) Carvedilol
d) Prazosin
e) Propranolol
Name property of salbutamol:
a) neselective Beta-adrenomimetic
b) selective action on Beta2-adrenergic recetors
c) marked cardiac effects
d) positive marked inotropic, batmotropic, chronotropic and dromotropic
e) rise of bronchial and uteral tonus.
Location of beta2 adrenoreceptors includes following places EXCEPT::
a) vessels
b) ciliary muscle
c) liver
d) bronchi
e) juxtaglomerular cells
Select the mechanism of action of propranolol:
a) stimulation of β1- adrenoreceptors
b) blockage of β 2 adrenoreceptors
42
c) stimulation of α1- adrenoreceptors
d) blockage of α,β adrenoreceptors
e) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptors
Select the mechanism of action of metoprolol:
a) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptors
b) blockage of αβ adrenoreceptors
c) blockage of β 1 adrenoreceptors
d) stimulation of β2 adrenoreceptors
e) stimulation of β1 adrenoreceptors
Name beta adrenoblocker drug:
a) neostigmine
b) hydralazine
c) propranolol
d) atropine
e) clonidine
What type of drug is propranolol?
a) Anticonvulsive
b) Antihypertensive
c) Antihistamine
d) Antinauseant
e) Antipyretic
What would be contraindicated for propranolol?
a) Hypertension
b) Essential tremoк
c) Angina
d) Tachycardia
e) Asthma
Select the mechanism of action of metoprolol:
a) stimulation of β2 adrenoreceptors
b) blockage of β1 adrenoreceptors
c) blockage of α,β adrenoreceptors
d) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptors
e) stimulation of α1- adrenoreceptors
Indirect action includes all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) Displacement of stored catecholamines from the adrenergic nerve ending
b) Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released
c) Interaction with adrenoreceptors
d) Inhibition of the release of endogenous catecholamines from peripheral adrenergic neurons
e) MAO inhibition
From witch group is phentolamine?
a) non-selective α-blocker
b) selective α1-blockers
c) selective 1-blockers
d) selective 2-blockers
43
e) Non-selective -blocker
Mechanism of action of prazosin :
a) Alpha-1 receptor blocker
b) Beta-1 receptor blocker
c) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha-2 receptor blocker
Indicate the reversible nonselective alfa-receptor antagonist, which is an ergot derivative:
a) Ergotamine
b) Prazosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Fenilephrine
e) Carvedilol
Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonists are most useful in the treatment of:
a) Asthma
b) Cardiac arrhythmias
c) Urinary retention
d) Pheochromocytoma
e) Chronic hypertension
Indicate the adrenoreceptor antagonist drug, which is a rauwolfia alkaloid:
a) Prazosin
b) Propranolol
c) Sotalol
d) Reserpine
e) Phentolamine
Which one of the following statements about sympatholytics is fals?
a) Affect noradrenaline synthesis
b) Affect noradrenaline release
c) Affect noradrenalne reuptake
d) Bind covalently to the alfa- receptor an produce an irreversible effect
e) Inhibit influx of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators
release
What is the drug of choice for an anaphylactic reaction?
a) Adenosine
b) Atropine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dobutamine
e) Midazolam
Name the sympatholythic drug:
a) Labetalol
b) Prazosin
c) Guanethidine
d) Clonidine
e) Propranolol
44
With one of the following statements about sympatholytics is fals?:
a) block alfa, beta adrenoreceptors
b) affect noradrenaline release
c) affect noradrenalne uptake.
d) affect noradrenaline synthesis
e) inhibit the flux of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators
release
Specify the level of action of sympatholitics:
a) blockage of alfa adrenoreceptors
b) stimulation of adrenoreceptors
c) act on the presynaptic level.
d) adrenaline destruction
e) blockage of beta adrenoreceptors
The agent is from sympatholitics group:
a) prazosine
b) hydralazine
c) diazoxide
d) propranolol
e) reserpine
Dopamine-mediated renal vasodilation is caused by which receptor(s) system(s):
a) Beta2 adrenergic receptors
b) Beta1 adrenergic receptors
c) Dopamine D1 and D2 postsynaptic receptors
d) Muscarinic receptors
e) Leukotriene receptors
Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called:
a) Bronchospastics
b) Bronchodilators
c) Broncoconstrictors
d) Anticonvulsants
e) Muscle relaxants
What is the mechanism of action of trypsin?
a) Direct action on the bronchial glands.
b) fluidification of sputum, depolymerization of proteins.
c) Stimulates bronchial muscles and ciliated epithelium.
d) Rising secretion and fluidification of sputum.
e) Intensive secretion of reflexive bronchial glands.
What is the indication for chymotrypsin?
a) pregnancy
b) purulent and necrotic processes
c) enterobiosis
d) duodenal ulcer
e) angina pectoris
Indicate the drug belonging to antitussive of narcotic type of action:
a) Glaucine hydrochloride
45
b) Aethylmorphine hydrochloride
c) Noscapine
d) Oxeladine
e) Pentoxiverine
Which of the following drugs are being used as expectorants?
a) potassium chloride
b) magnesium sulfate
c) sodium sulfate
d) potassium iodide
e) calcium carbonate
Mechanism of action of bromhexine?
a) breaks off S-S groups and bind with them. In this way decrease viscosity of the bronchi
mucus.
b) irritates gastric mycousa membrane and increase bronchi secretions
c) inhibits cough center in the bulb
d) breaks off mucopolysaharide and mucoproteic groups. Also it stimulates secretion of
surfactant.
e) stimulates CNS in subcortical lever and bulb.
Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism:
a) Sodium benzoate
b) Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis
c) Trypsin
d) Ambroxol
e) Acetylcistein
Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme?
a) Potassium iodide
b) Desoxiribonuclease
c) Carbocysteine
d) Acetylcysteine
e) Sodium benzoate
Mechanism of broncholytic action of isoprenaline:
a) blocking of M-cholinoreceptors from smooth muscles of the bronchi
b) direct influence on the smooth muscles of the bronchi
c) excitment of beta-adrenoreceptors of smooth muscles of the bronchi.
d) depression of phosphodiesterase activity
e) non f the above
Choose the drug that block leucotriene receptors:
a) Budesonide
b) Sodium cromoglycate
c) Zileuton
d) Beclometazone
e) Zafirlucast
Drug used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include:
a) beclomethasone
b) cromoglycate sodium
46
c) ipratropium
d) isoprenaline
e) all of the above
Which of the following drugs is a 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOX) inhibitor?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Zileuton
c) Methamizole
d) Diclofenac
e) Zafirlukast
Name the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents:
a) Zileutin
b) Sodium cromoglycate
c) Zafirlucast
d) Montelucast
e) Aminophylline
Choose pharmacodynamic particularity of aminophylline:
a) inhibits respiratory center in bulb
b) biliary motility depression
c) bronchial relaxation
d) decreasing cardiac activity
e) increased mast cell degranulation
Name drug contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma:
a) Propranolol
b) Clonidine
c) Enalapril
d) Nifedipine
e) Salmeterol
Which drug is a leukotriene receptor antagonist D4 (LTD4)?
a) ibuprofen
b) zileuton
c) zafirleukast
d) diclofenac
e) aspirin
Which drug is an inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOG)?
a) zafirlukast
b) zileuton
c) beclomethasone
d) montelukast
e) terbutaline
Mechanism of action of aminophylline consists in::
a) stimulates phosphodiesterase
b) decreasing of intracellular сAMP
c) rising of mast cells degranulation
d) xblock of adenozinic receptors
e) inhibition of hyaluronidase
47
Mechanism of action of aminophylline:
a) phosphodiesterase stimulation
b) phosphodiesterase inhibition
c) increasing of mast. degranulation
d) modification of membrane permeability for Ca+
e) inhibition of hyaluronidase
Name the main therapeutic effect of methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline:
a) Vasoconstriction in many vessels
b) Decrease in the amount of camp in mast cells
c) Bronchodilation
d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase
e) Sedation
A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronckodilator effect is:
a) Sodium Cromoglycate
b) Ephedrine
c) Isoprenaline
d) Metoprolol
e) Salbutamol
Select the drug that acts selectively on the Beta 2 receptors of the bronchi:
a) epinephrine
b) ephedrine
c) norepinephrine
d) salbutamol
e) izoprenaline
What is therapeutic effect of ethanol in pulmonary edema?
a) dehydration
b) analgesia
c) antispume effects
d) decreasing of the arterial tension in the small circulation
e) stimulation of the respiratory center
What kind of action have morphine in pulmonary edema?
a) Dehydration
b) Diuretic
c) Antispume
d) Decreasing of the arterial pressure in the small circulation
e) Sedative action.
Witch kind of action will be in ganglioblockers administration in pulmonary edema?
a) dehydration
b) diuretic action
c) anti-spume action
d) antihypertension action
e) sedative action
The main effect of ganglion blocking drugs in pulmonary edema is:
a) dehydration
b) hypotensive
48
c) bronchodilation
d) antiallergic
e) anti-foaming
With one of the following statements about ethanol is false?
a) xdoesn’t cross the biological barrier
b) the drug is distributed to most body tissues
c) its volume of distribution is equivalent to that of total body water.
d) is rapidly and completely absorbed
e) causes withdrawn syndrome
What kind of the remedies is used in bronchial asthma?
a) Propranolol
b) Naphasoline
c) Dobutamine
d) Salmeterol
e) Norepinephrine
Pharmacodynamics of disodium chromoglycate:
a) Bronchospasmolitic
b) Stabilization of the mast cell membrane.
c) Antihistaminic
d) Antispastic
e) Anntiinflamatory
Mechanism of action of sodium cromoglycate:
a) produce a lymphopenia, particularly of T lymphocytes by destribution of cell into the
lymphoid tissue
b) produces mast cell stabilization (depression of release of histamine, neuropeptides,
antagonism of tachykinin receptors, inhibition of PAF interaction with platelets and
eosinophils)
c) blocks H1 histaminoreceptors
d) alteration of lymphocyte function
e) stimulate beta2 adrenoreceptors of bronchi
What kind of drug is used in bronchial asthma?
a) propranolol
b) nafasoline
c) doputamine
d) ozagrel
e) norepinephrine
A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator effect is:
a) Salbutamol
b) Fenoterol
c) Nedocromil
d) Ephedrine
e) Isoprenaline
Drug used in asthma often causing tachycardia and tremor is:
a) Beclomethasone
b) Cromolyn sodium
49
c) Ipratropium
d) Orciprenaline
e) All of the above
What is therapeutic effect of ethanol in pulmonary edema?
a) Dehydration
b) Analgesia
c) Anti-foaming effects
d) Decreasing of the arterial tension in the small circulation
e) Stimulation of the respiratory center
Which of the following anti-asthmatic drugs may worsen gastric ulcer?
a) epinephrine
b) prednisolone
c) salbutamol
d) isoprenaline
e) disodium cromoglycate
This drug acts by inhibiting nucleotide phosphodiesterase type III:
a) Amiodarone
b) Milrinone
c) Propanolol
d) Enalapril
e) Valsartan
This drug should probably not be administered to a patient with congestive heart failure
because the drug may further reduce contractility; the drug should probably also not be
prescribed to an asmatic since the drug may increase bronchiolar smooth muscle tone:
a) Digoxin
b) Terbutaline
c) Propranolol
d) Atropine
e) Doxazosine
Initial drug(s) for management of mild to moderate heart failure:
a) Parenteral inotropic drugs, e.g. dobutamine
b) Hydralazine
c) Furosemide
d) Captopril
e) Torasemide
Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases
cardiac contractility?
a) Digoxin
b) Lidocaine
c) Propranolol
d) Quinidine
e) Verapamil
A positive cardiac inotropic agent?
a) Amrinone
b) Amiodarone
50
c) Atenolol
d) Salbutamol
e) Mannitol
Longest acting from digitals:
a) Digoxin
b) Digitoxin
c) Both
d) Neither
Name positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure:
a) Dopamine
b) Digoxin
c) Dobutamine
d) Adrenalin
e) Methyldopa
Diuretic most likely to cause hypokalemia:
a) Triamterene
b) Amiloride
c) Spironolactone
d) Furosemide
e) Acetazolamide
Choose the drug with longest duration of action?
a) strophantine
b) celanide
c) corglicon
d) digoxine
e) digitoxine
An elderly male patient has essential hypertension, congestive heart failure, and type I
insulin-dependent diabetes. His congestive failure developed secondary to coronary
vascular disease associated with hyperlipidemia. What antihypertensive drug(s) may be
most appropriate for this patient?
a) Chlorothiazide
b) Captopril
c) Propranolol
d) Metoprolol
e) Hexamethonium
A drug devoid of negative inotropic effects and is effective in the treatment of cardiac
insufficiency:
a) amantadine
b) papaverine
c) digoxine
d) clonidine
e) metoprolol
The primary cause of digitalis toxicity is:
a) Intracellular calcium overload
b) Intracellular potassium overload
51
c) Increased parasympathetic activity
d) Increased adrenocorticosteroid levels
e) All of the above
In the therapy of congestive heart failure, the most important pharmacologic action of
digitalis is its ability to:
a) produce diuresis in edematous patients
b) reduce venous pressure
c) increase myocardial contractile force
d) increase heart rate
e) decrease pacemaker automaticity in cells of the bundle of His
A positive cardiac inotropic agent:
a) Amrinone
b) Furosemide
c) Propranolol
d) Salbutamol
e) Neostigmine
Glycosides are indicated in:
a) Cardiac right blockade
b) Ventricular tachyarrhythmias
c) Atrio-ventricular blocks
d) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
e) W.P.W. syndrome.
Potentiate hypokalemia associated with digoxin therapy:
a) insulin
b) spironolactone
c) furosemide
d) indomethacine
e) imipramine
Antihypertensive: action based on inhibition of norepinephrine release from adrenergic
nerve endings:
a) Propranolol
b) Guanethidine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Phentolamine
e) Prazosine
A severe hypertensive crisis is treated with:
a) epinephrine
b) salbutamol
c) trimetaphan
d) diazepam
e) tubocurarine
The drug with the most useful effects in the treatment of inoperable metastatic
pheochromocytoma secreting mostly norepinephrine is:
a) clonidine
b) minoxidil
c) phentolamine
52
d) propranolol
e) reserpine
Which of these following antihypertensives are an alpha 1- adrenoblocker?
a) Hydralazine
b) Propranolol
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Nifedipine
e) Prazosin
Name the hypotensive remedy from beta- adrenoblokers?:
a) Hydrochlorthyazide
b) Methyldopa
c) Clonidine
d) Hydralazine
e) Metoprolol
Vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, and renin release suppression occur upon
activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. How would captopril affect these
responses?
a) Blocks all three
b) Blocks only vasoconstriction
c) Blocks all except vasoconstriction
d) Blocks only renin release
e) No effect
Side effects of this antihypertensive agent includes tachycardia, angina, reversible lupuslike syndrome:
a) Propranolol
b) Hexamethonium
c) Hydralazine
d) Diazoxide
e) Metoprolol
Following preparation groups belong to antihypertensive drugs but one exception:
a) alpha- adrenoblockers
b) alpha- adrenomimetics
c) beta- adrenoblockers
d) alpha-2-central adrenomimetics
e) sympatholytics
Principal mechanisms by which beta adrenergic receptor blockade decreases BP:
a) Vasodilation-- arteriolar
b) Vasodilation -- venular
c) Reduced heart rate and reduced myocardial contractility
d) Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
e) Decreased central sympathetic outflow
Antihypertensive drugs belonging to the same class:
a) Doxazosin, prazosin, metoprolol
b) Nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem
c) Clonidine, guanabenz, terazosin
d) Lisinopril, fosinopril, guanadrel
53
e) Propranolol, labetalol, dinoprostol
Select Ca channel-blocking drugs:
a) nifedipine + diltiazem + verapamil
b) trinitrolong + nitrong + isosorbide dinitrat
c) minoxidil + pinacidil + nicorandil
d) aminophylline + xantinol nicotinates + carbocromen
e) dipyridamol + lidoflazine
Name hypotensive remedy, which act on the renin-angiogenesis system:
a) propranolol
b) spironolactone
c) bendazole
d) captopril
e) hydrochlorothiazide
Place of action of clonidine:
a) Inhibition of rennin-angiotensine system
b) Activation of beta adrenoreceptors
c) Activation of alpha2 presynaptic adrenoreceptors
d) Blockage of alpha2 adrenoreceptors
e) Inhibition of cholinergyc system
By what mechanism does clonidine lower the blood pressure?:
a) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A node
b) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomiting
c) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatation
d) Stimulation of alfa2 adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline realizing
e) None of the above
This antihypertensive compound will inhibit both α-and β-receptor functions:
a) Atenolol
b) Labetalol
c) Both
d) Neither
Choose the drug which increases cardiac output:
a) Norepinephrine
b) Methyldopa
c) Phenylephrine
d) Angiotensinamide
e) Diazoxide
Indicate the vasoconstrictor of endogenous origin:
a) Ephedrine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Xylomethazoline
d) Angiotensinamide
e) Profetur
Choose the synthetic vasoconstrictor having an adrenomimic effect:
a) Norepinephrine
54
b) Epinephrine
c) Phenylephrine
d) Angiotensinamide
e) Atropine
General unwanted effects of vasoconstrictors are:
a) Increase of arterial pressure
b) Increase of cardiac output
c) Decrease of peripheral blood flow
d) Increase of blood volume
e) Dispnoe
Which statement describes the pathway of nitric oxide (NO)?
a) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation
b) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasodilation
c) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction
d) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation
e) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction
By what mechanism does nitroglycerine lower the blood pressure?
a) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomiting
b) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatation
c) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A node
d) Stimulation of α 2 adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline realizing
e) None of the above
Which type of receptors can be activated by angiotensinamide:
a) Adrenergic alpha-1 receptors
b) Cholinergic receptors
c) Dopaminergic receptors
d) Angiotensin's receptors
e) Adrenergic beta-1 receptors
For increasing blood pressure in case of low cardiac output the following agents must be
used:
a) Ganglioblockers
b) Vasoconstrictors
c) Positive inotropic drugs
d) Diuretics
e) M-cholinomimetics
Name the unwanted effects of clonidine:
a) Parkinson's syndrome
b) Sedation, dry mouth, and hypotension
c) Gray baby syndrom
d) Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia
e) Psychostimulant effect
A severe hypertensive crisis is treated with:
a) atropine
b) levodopa
c) benzohexonium
d) diazepam
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e) amphetamine
The longest anti-hypotensive action can be observed by administrating of:
a) epinephrine
b) phenylephrine
c) dopamine
d) norepinephrine
e) isoturon
Indicate hypotensive beta-adreno blocker remedy:
a) hydrochlorothiazide
b) methyldopa
c) clonidine
d) hydralazine
e) metoprolol
Antiarrhythmic drug with antimalarial and antipyretic effects:
a) Tocainide
b) Procainamide
c) Metoprolol
d) Quinidine gluconate
e) Lidocaine
Choose the drugs from Group IB antiarrhythmic drugs:
a) quinidine, ajmaline, procainamide
b) flecainide, encainide, propafenone
c) phenytoine, lidocaine, mexiletine
d) verapamil, galapamil, diltiazem
e) amiodarone, adenosine
Preferred in the treatment of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome:
a) Morphine
b) Carbamazepine
c) Amantadine
d) Verapamil
e) Nifedipine
Antiarrhythmic drug: long-term use associated with a lupus-related side effect:
a) Quinidine gluconate
b) Propranolol
c) Procainamide
d) Verapamil
e) Adenosine
Preferred for acute management of angina:
a) Nitroprusside sodium
b) Hydralazine
c) Sublingual nitroglycerin
d) Propranolol
e) Minoxidil
Name antianginous mechanism ov validol:
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a) musculotropic coronarodilatory action
b) reflectory coronarodilatory action
c) inotropic negativ effect
d) peripheral vessels dilation
e) stimulation of cardiac contractility
Which of the following antianginal agents is a myotropic coronary dilator:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Alinidine
e) Nitroglycerine
Which of the following antianginal agents refers to reflex coronary dilators:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Alinidine
e) Nitroglycerine
Mechanism of action of diltiazem :
a) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
b) Blockade of calcium channels
c) Alpha-1 receptor antagonists
d) Beta-1 receptor antagonist
e) Beta-2 receptor agonist
Witch antiarrhythmic is for the first choice in ventricular arrhythmias in myocardial
infarction?
a) Quinudine
b) Amiodarone
c) Lidocaine
d) Propranolol
e) Niphedipine
Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of obesity?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Cimetidine
c) Ergotamine
d) Ondansetron
e) Sibutramine
Indicate the serotonin antagonists preventing vomiting?
a) scopolamine
b) ondansetron
c) diphenhydramine
d) atropine
e) droperidol
Which of the following drugs may cause reversible gynecomastia?
a) Omeprazole
b) Pirenzepine
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c) Cimetidine
d) Sucralfate
e) Pirenzepine
What vitamine belongs to cytoprotective gastric mucosa?
a) Choline
b) Orotic acid
c) Pangamic acid
d) 5- methyl methionine (sulfonium chloride)
e) Polyphenol
All of the following agents intensify the secretion of gastric glands except:
a) Pepsin
b) Gastrin
c) Histamine
d) Somatostatin
e) Prostaglandin E
Name the drug that causes metabolic alkalosis:
a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Cimetidine
c) Pepto-Bismol
d) Carbenoxolone
e) Famotidine
Which drug is an analog of prostaglandin E1?
a) Misoprostole
b) De-nol
c) Sucralfate
d) Omeprazole
e) Lansoprasole
Name antacid that causes constipation:
a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Aluminium hydroxide
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Magnesium oxide
e) Almagel
The effect of omeprazole on a parietal cellular level manifests itself through:
a) competitive inhibition of gastrinic effect
b) competitive inhibition of histamines on a H2-receptor level
c) irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATPase
d) irreversible inhibition of adenylate cyclase
e) blocking of prostaglandin receptors
Name the drug forming a physical barrier to HCL and Pepsin:
a) Ranitidine
b) Sucralfate
c) Omeprazole
d) Pirenzepine
e) Sodium bicarbonate
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Name drug used in gastric ulcer complex treatment:
a) chloroquine phosphate
b) metronidazole
c) chiniophone
d) pyrimethamine
e) solusurmine
Alkaloid of opium with potent smooth muscle relaxant properties:
a) phenytoin
b) papaverine
c) digitalis
d) reserpine
e) propranolol
Name the drug, which inhibits peristalsis:
a) Castor oil
b) Bisacodyl
c) Loperamide
d) Sorbitol
e) Metoclopramide
Namer an emetic drug of central action:
a) Ipecacuanha derivatives
b) Promethazine
c) Metoclopramide
d) Apomorphine hydrochloride
e) Zinc sulphate
Name the metoclopramide’s mechanism of antiemetic action:
a) H1and H2-receptor blocking effect
b) M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect
c) D2 -dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect
d) M-cholinoblocking effect
e) stimulation of D2 -dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor
Name the emetic agent having a reflex action:
a) Ipecacuanha derivatives
b) Apomorphine hydroclorid
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Metoclopramide
e) Cytostatics
Name an antiemetic agent which is related to neuroleptics:
a) Apomorphine hydroclorid
b) Nabilone
c) Domperidone
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Metoclopramide
Name the laxative drug belonging to osmotic laxatives:
a) Docusate sodium
b) Bisacodyl
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c) Phenolphthalein
d) Sodium phosphate
e) Bulk laxatives
Which of the laxative and purgative preparation listed below acts exclusively on the small
intestine level?
a) purgative antrachinone
b) castor oil
c) phenolphthalein
d) magnesium sulfate
e) paraffin oil
Laxatives and purgatives can act through whichever mechanism listed below but one:
a) stimulates motility through an irrigative mechanism.
b) stimulates direct cholinergic receptors
c) difussion growth plus active water and electrolytes secretion
d) water retention in the intestines through hydrophilic and osmotic force.
e) direct softening of defecation
The mechanism of stimulant purgatives is:
a) Increasing the volume of non-absorbable solid residue
b) Increasing motility and secretion
c) Altering the consistency of the feces
d) Increasing the water content
e) Makes feces softer and more easily passed
Arginine is part of a substance group listed below:
a) Cholecystokinetic
b) Choleretic
c) Astringent
d) Hepatoprotective
e) Antiflatulent
Choose hepatoprotective preparations:
a) papaverine
b) olive oil
c) silymarin
d) calcium salt
e) apomorphine
Name a hepatoprotector:
a) papaverine
b) essentiale
c) apomorphine
d) lipase
e) atropine
Name the drug used in chronic pancreatitis:
a) apomorphine
b) bisacodyl
c) pancreatine
d) cimetidine
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e) All of the above
Select the medication that ameliorate digestion.
a) tripsine, chimotripsine, chimopsine
b) fibrinolizine, alteplase, streptokinase
c) pepsine, digestal, abomine
d) hialuronidase, ronidase, lecozim
e) cholinesterase, monoaminoxidase
Phenylbutazone belongs to following derivatives:
a) pyrazolone
b) salicylates
c) oxicam
d) anthranilic acid
e) indoleacetic acid
Anti-Inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:
a) inhibition of phospholipase A2 with reduced synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotriene
b) reducing the migration of macrophages in the inflammatory foci
c) reduce capillary permeability
d) the influence of macrophages by blocking the formation of free radicals
e) all of the listed
Name specific effects for NSAIDs:
a) antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic
b) immunosuppressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
c) antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory
d) anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, antihistaminic
e) analgesic, antihistamine, immunosuppressive
Name drug from indole acetic derivatives?
a) ibuprofen
b) indomethacin
c) mefenamic acid
d) diclofenac
e) piroxicam
The selective non steroid anti-inflammatory drug is:
a) ibuprofen
b) naproxen
c) nimesulid
d) paracetamol
e) diclofenac
Name drug from oxicam:
a) piroxicam
b) indomethacin
c) mefenamic acid
d) diclofenac
e) paracetamol
Which NSAIDs is a COX-2 selective NSAIDs?
a) piroxicam
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b) indomethacin
c) celecoxib
d) diclofenac
e) ibuprofen
Which NSAIDs is a non-selective NSAIDs?
a) piroxicam
b) rofecoxib
c) celecoxib
d) meloxicam
e) parecoxib
What is the contraindication for NSAIDs?
a) rheumatism, inclusive and nonarticulary
b) the development of gastric ulcer
c) deforming osteoarthrosis
d) lumbago
e) osteoarthritis
Which of the following NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?
a) Piroxicam
b) Indomethacin
c) Celecoxib
d) Diclofenac
e) Acetylsalicylic acid
Choose a steroidal anti-inflammatory drug:
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Ketoprofen
c) Ketorolac
d) Triamcinolone
e) Hydroxychloroquine
Corticoids are indicated in:
a) colagenoses
b) viral diseases
c) AIDS
d) immunodeficiency
e) herpetic diseases
The primary objective for designing drugs that selectively inhibit COX-2 is to
a) Decrease the risk of nephrotoxicity
b) Improve anti-inlammatory effectiveness
c) Lower the risk of gastrointestinal toxicity
d) Reduce the cost of treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
e) Selectively decrease thromboxane A2 without effects on other eicosanoids.
Mechanism of action of non steroid anti-inflammatory preparations:
a) Antiemetic effect
b) Increasing prostaglandin's synthesis
c) Cyclooxigenase inhibition
d) Activation of lysosomic enzymes
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e) Decreasing of neutrophils migration
Antiinflammatory steroids often induce:
a) hypoglycemia
b) hypotension
c) hyponatriemia
d) buffalo hump
e) abdominal colics
Name indication for Diclofenac sodium:
a) Extraarticular rheumatism
b) Gastroduodenal ulcer
c) Hemmorrhagic diathesis
d) nonspecific ulcerous colitis
e) Bronchial asthma
Mechanism of action of anti inflammatory steroids consists of:
a) Stimulation of Phospholipase A2
b) Inhibition of Phospholipase A2
c) Producing of prostaglandins rises
d) Stimulates phosphodiesterase
e) blocks beta- adrenergic receptors
Mechanism of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory consists in:
a) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
b) Stimulation of adenylate cyclise
c) Inhibition of phospholipase A2, which is necessary for arachidonic acid.
d) Rising in mast cells degranulation.
e) Depressing heart activity
Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins:
a) Sodium salicylate
b) Bromhexine
c) Colchicine
d) Aminophylline
e) Carsil
The analgesic action of salicylates is the result of:
a) the irritability of the reticular pathways
b) hypothalamic effect
c) cortical effect
d) peripheral effect
e) opioid receptors stimulation
The toxicity spectrum of acetylsalicylic acid does not include:
a) Respiratory alkalosis
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Hyperprothrombinemia
d) Increased risk of peptic ulcer
e) Increased risk of encephalopathy in children with viral infection
Select nonselective non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug:
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a) phenytion
b) ascorbic acid
c) indomethacin
d) morphine
e) phenobarbital
Oral doses may cause gastric irritation and may even cause gastrointestinal bleeding:
a) Levomepromazine
b) Ampicillin
c) Acetylsalicylic acid
d) Diphenhydramine
d) Loratadine
Which of the following statements concerning the anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs
are TRUE?
a) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of cyclooxygenase
b) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of phospholipase A2
c) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from induction of cyclooxygenase II
d) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of leucotriens
e) All of the answers
Which group of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the alpha-adrenoreceptor-blocking
effect?
a) Alkylamines
b) Ethanolamines
c) Ethylenediamines
d) Phenothiazines
e) Piperidines
Effects of antihistamines are, EXCEPT:
a) Euphoria and /or disphorya
b) Anticholinergic peripheral effect
c) Low blood pressure
d) Antiemetic
e) Sedation
Name H1 antihistamine from II generation:
a) loratadine
b) diphenhydramine
c) suprastine
d) promethazine
e) chlorpheniramine
Antihistamines H1 aren’t used in:
a) the vertigo and Meniere's disease
b) psychotic disorders
c) allergic symptoms (rhinitis, urticaria)
d) nausea and vomiting in pregnancy
e) sleep disorders
These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for the anticholinergic effect,
EXCEPT:
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a) Alkylamines (propylamines)
b) Piperazines
c) Ethylenediamines
d) Phenothiazines
e) Imidasols
These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects, EXCEPT:
a) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine
b) Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); i.e. Diphenhydramine
c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramine
d) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine
e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline
Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the best antiemetic action?
a) Alkylamines
b) Ethanolamines
c) Piperazines;
d) Ethylenediamines;
e) Imidasols: i.e.
Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the highest local anesthetic
effect?
a) Alkylamines (propylamines); i.e. Brompheniramine
b) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine
c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramine
d) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine
e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline
Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is:
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing
c) Sedation
d) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding
e) Ventricular arrhtythmias
Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is recognized for as second-generation
antihistamines?
a) Alkylamines ; i.e. Chlorphenamine
b) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine
c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramine
d) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine
e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline
Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the serotonin-blocking effect?
a) Diphenhydramine
b) Cyproheptadine
c) Chlorophiramine
d) Antasoline
e) Promethasine
Many antihistamines have additional nonhistamine-related: these are likely to include all of
the following EXCEP:
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a) Antimuscarinic reduction in bladder tone
b) Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injected
c) Anti-motion sickness effects
d) Increase in total peripheral resistance
e) Sedation
Which of the below listed preparation doesn’t inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins?
a) Indomethacin
b) Diclofenac
c) Piroxicam
d) Dyphenhydramine
e) Ibuprofen
Mechanism of action of diphenhydramin:
a) inhibit α- adrenoreceptors
b) inhibit dopaminoreceptors
c) inhibit H1- receptors
d) inhibit Purinergic receptors
e) inhibit Serotoninergic receptors.
Which receptors block diphenhydramine chloride to cause anti-allergic action?
a) H1-histaminoreceptors
b) H2-histaminoreceptors
c) alpha1-adrenoreceptors
d) alpha2-adrenoreceptors
e) alpha, beta-adrenoreceptors
Gold-salts drugs are:
a) methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporine
b) auranofin, gold sodium thiomalate, aurothioprol
c) hydrocortisone, prednesolone, dexamethasone
d) nimesulid, meloxicam, celecoxib
e) diclofenac, ibuprofen, naproxen
Class of cyclosporine A is:
a) Interferons
b) Immunosuppressive agents
c) Monoclonal antibodies
d) Immunoglobulins
e) H1 antihistamines
The most important side effect of interferon gamma is:
a) Hypertension
b) Pulmonary edema
c) Nephrotoxicity
d) Fatigue
e) Hepatotoixicity
Immunomodulating agent is:
a) Sirolimus
b) Levamisole
c) Tacrolimus
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d) Promethasine
e) Cyproheptadine
Indication for interferon alpha administration is:
a) Autoimmune diseases
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Organ transplantation
d) Hepatitis C virus infection
e) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding
Name immunomodulatory preparations from cytokines:recombined interleukins:
a) Chipferon, Reaferon
b) Amyxin, Arbidol
c) Timogen, Imunofan
d) Pyrogenic, Prodighiozan
e) Roncoleuchin, Betaleuchin.
Which one of the following compounds enhances immune function in vitro and in clinical
trials decreases the symptoms of the common cold?
a) Echinacea
b) Feverfew
c) Garlic
d) Milk Thistle
e) Melatonin
Name the main indication for administration of interferon alpha:
a) autoimmune diseases
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) organ transplantation
d) hepatitis C
e) atopic asthma
Name minor immunosuppressive preparations:
a) cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil
b) chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine
c) mercaptopurine, azathioprine
d) cyclosporine, tacrolimus
e) tacrolimus, actinomycin
Glycosidic anthracyclene antibiotoc effective in treatment of acute leukemias, malignant
lymphomas, and a number of solid tumors:
a) Doxorubicin
b) Vinblastine
c) Penicillin
d) Emetine
e) Vincristine
Choose a slow-acting anti-inflammatory drug:
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Ketoprofen
c) Ketorolac
d) Triamcinolone
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e) Hydroxychloroquine
Which one of the following drugs reduces the activity of phospholipase A2:
a) Aspirin
b) Ibuprofen
c) Misoprostol
d) Prednisolone
e) Zafirlukast
Choose a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug from pyrazolone derivatives:
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Ketoprofen
c) Ketorolac
d) Triamcinolone
e) Hydroxychloroquine
Name an endocrine drug, which is an amino acid derivative:
a) Insulin
b) Hydrocortisone
c) Calcitonin
d) Thyroxin
e) Prednesolone
Name an endocrine drug, which is a peptide derivative:
a) Insulin
b) Prednisolone
c) Nandrolone
d) Progesterone
e) Thyroxin
Which one of the following compounds is not a hormone?
a) Thyroxine
b) Somatotropin
c) Vasopressin
d) Bromocriptine
e) Oxytocin
Indicate the use of parathyroid hormone:
a) spasmophilia
b) pregnancy
c) acute renal insufficiency
d) hyperglycemia
e) Addison disease
Indications of vasopressin is following:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Hypertension
c) Pituitary diabetes insipidus
d) Incompleted abortion
e) Acromegaly
Which of the following organs is a target for prolactin?
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a) Liver
b) Adrenal cortex
c) Thyroid
d) Mammary gland
e) Pancreas
What kind of drug is contraindicated in pregnancy because of high uterine stimulation?
a) oxytocin
b) salbutamol
c) fenoterol
d) drotaverine
e) acetylsalicylic acid
Which of the following hormones is produced by the thyroid gland?
a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
b) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
c) Triiodothyronine
d) Adrenaline
e) Parathormone
Corticosteroids are contraindicated in:
a) crisis of bronchial asthma
b) status asthmaticus
c) allergic rhinitis
d) colagenosis
e) hypertention
Which of the following compounds is not a hormone?
a) Tamoxifen
b) Somatomedin
c) Somatotropin
d) Thyroxine
e) Vasopressin
Name the estrogen inhibitor:
a) Leuprolide
b) Tamoxifen
c) Flutamide
d) Anastrozole
e) Testosterone
Name the antiandrogen drug:
a) Flutamide
b) Aminoglutethimide
c) Tamoxifen
d) Testosterone
e) Carbapenem
Toxic effects of the corticosteroids do not include:
a) Growth inhibition
b) Hypertention
c) Hypoglicemia
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d) Psychosis
e) Salt retention.
Potentiates the hypokalemia associated with cortisol therapy:
a) Glucagon
b) Calcium
c) Furosemide
d) Pyridoxine
e) Imipramine
Name an antiestrogen drug:
a) Aldosterone
b) Bromocriptine
c) Carbimazole
d) Tamoxifen
e) Hydrocortisone
Triphasic contraceptive is:
a) nonoxynol
b) tricvilar
c) regulon
d) divina
e) marvelone
Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactemia?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Cimetidine
c) Ergotamine
d) Ondansetron
e) Sumatriptan
A hormone that acts to stimulate absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestine:
a) Calcium
b) Calcitonin
c) Sodium etidronate
d) Vitamin D
e) Fluoride
Name the drug that has the strongest action in water retention in the body:
a) aldosteron
b) progesterone
c) estradyol
d) cortocosteron
e) testosteron
Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in:
a) Bronchial asthma
b) Status astmaticus
c) Allergic rhinitis
d) Collagenoses
e) Diabetus mellitus
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Prednisone is contraindicated in:
a) crisis of the bronchial asthma
b) status asthmaticus
c) allergic rhinitis
d) collagenosis
e) duodenal ulcer
Name the indication for estrogens in oncological practice:
a) Leukemia
b) Cancer of prostate
c) Endometrial cancer
d) Brain tumors
e) Cancer of thyroid gland
Hormone androgen preparations have following indications but one:
a) Insufficient renal anemia treatment
b) inoperable breast cancer in woman during postmenopause
c) hypogonadism
d) lactic suppression
e) breast cancer in men
The rate of secretion of thyrotropin is controlled by:
a) The amount of iodine in the thyroid gland
b) The amount of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland
c) The concentration of thyroid hormones in blood
d) The concentration of catecholamines in blood
e) The concentration of cortisol in blood
Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?
a) Ergometrine
b) Oxytocin
c) Vasopressin
d) Methylergometrine
e) Quinine
What drug might be useful for triggering and obtaining labor term?
a) Ergometrine
b) Oxytocine
c) Dinoprost
d) Methylergometrine
e) Quinine
Indicate the mechanism of contraception being based on preparations, which contains
estrogen and gestagen:
a) Spermatocidal action
b) Annihilation of spermatozoic activities.
c) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary.
d) Cervical liquefaction
e) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa
Hormones are:
a) Products of endocrine gland secretion
b) Mediators of inflammatory process
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c) By-products of tissue metabolism
d) Products of exocrine gland secretion
e) Products of arachydonic acid cascade
Give the definition of hormone analogues:
a) Naturally occurring substances but slightly different from hormones
b) Naturally occurring substances but less efficacious than hormones
c) Naturally occurring substances having the same structure but different pharmacological
properties than hormones
d) Synthetic compounds, which resemble the naturally occurring hormones
e) Naturally occurring substances
Name hormones produced by the hypothalamic gland:
a) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c) Aldosterone
d) Estradiol
e) Prednesolone
Name the hormonal preparation of hypothalamus:
a) Thyreotoxin
b) Somatostatine
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Glucagon
e) Insulin
Which of the following hormone is not synthesized in the hypothalamus?
a) Vasopressin
b) Thyrotropin-realizing hormone
c) Oxytocin
d) Luteinizing hormone
e) Corticotropin- releasing hormone
Name hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland:
a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH)
d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
e) Aldosterone
How does oxytocin change the sensitivity of the myometrium during the period of
pregnancy?
a) decreasing
b) nonessential decreasing
c) no changes
d) nonessential increasing
e) increasing
Choose the indication for anabolic steroids:
a) Obesity
b) Formation of bony callus
c) Myxedema
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d) Arterial hypertension
e) Hyperglycemia
Vasopressin possesses the following:
a) Antidiuretic property
b) Vasodilatation property
c) Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma
d) Diuretic property
e) Release of a adrenal hormone into the plasma
Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?
a) Ergometrine
b) Oxytocin
c) Vasopressin
d) Methylergometrine
e) quinine
Excessive doses of thyroid hormone may cause each of the following EXCEPT:
a) angina pectoris
b) cardiac decompensation
c) adrenal insufficiency
d) psychotic behavior
e) constipation
Concerning testosterone, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
a) it is a major male hormone
b) it is highly effective by the oral route
c) it is reduced to dihydrotestosterone in the body
d) it is produced by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal cortices
e) about 99% of testosterone in plasma is bound to protein
Thyrotropin stimulates the following processes:
a) Concentration of iodine by thyroid follicles
b) Iodination of thyroglobulin
c) Release of thyroxine and triidothyronine
d) De-iodination of thyroid hormones
e) Release of calcitonine
Thyroid hormones produce various pharmacological effects. Indicate the wrong
statement:
a) Decrease of the basal metabolic rate in the body
b) Increase in the rate and force of contraction of the heart
c) Increase in the blood level of cholestrol
d) Increase in the heat production
e) Decrease body mass
Insulin is a polypeptide hence:
a) It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice
b) It is destroyed by gastric juice
c) It is not a polypeptide
d) It is metabolized immediately by cellular enzymes
e) It is used in diabetes mellitus
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Witch drug is indicated in diabetes insipitus?
a) oxytocin
b) vasopresin
c) angiotensin
d) ephedrine
e) prazosin
Which drug is preferentially indicated in diabetes mellitus, type II?
a) tolbutamine
b) vasopresin
c) glucagon
d) insulin
e) gonadotropine
Which of the following is true for glucagon?
a) Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
b) Stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta cells
c) Inhibits glucose utilization by skeletal muscle
d) Inhibits uptake of aminoacids by cells
e) Stimulates the secretion of calcitonine by beta cells
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by:
a) Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and
adipose tissues
b) Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-glucosidases and modulating the postprandial
digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides
c) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
d) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
e) Replacement therapy
Insulin cannot be administered by:
a) Oral route
b) Intravenous route
c) Subcutaneous route
d) Intramuscular route
e) Artificially pancreas
Choose the pair of hormones that have agonistic effects on blood sugar levels:
a) Calcitonin and PTH
b) Adrenalin and Glucagon
c) Glucagon and Glucose
d) ADH and Aldosterone
e) Insulin and Glucagon
Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?
a) herpetic keratitis
b) status asthmaticus
c) lymphoma maligna
d) rheumatoid arthritis
e) chronic hepatitis
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Effects of the glucocorticoids do not include:
a) Reduction in circulating lymphocytes
b) Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis
c) Increased skin protein synthesis
d) Increased blood glucose
e) Altered fat deposition
Choose following indications for antithyroid preparations:
a) cretinism
b) diabetes mellitus
c) impotence
d) thyrotoxicosis
e) myxedema
Mineralocorticoid drug cause:
a) Increased catabolism
b) Increased Na+ retension and К+ excretion
c) Increased gluconeogenesis
d) Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomen
e) Increased К+retension and Na+ excretion
Prednisone can determine every side effect listed below but one:
a) Arterial Hypertension
b) Gastroduodenal ulcer
c) Retention of sodium and water
d) Hyperpotassemia
e) Central nervous excitation
Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:
a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells)
b) Suppression of cyclooxygenase II expression
c) Activation of phospholipase A2
d) Activation of cyclooxygenase II expression
e) All of the answers
Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug?
a) Prednisolon
b) Dexamethasone
c) Triamcinolone
d) Cortisone
e) All of the answers
Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT:
a) Acute peptic ulcers
b) Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition, moon faces)
c) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)
d) Hypomania or acute psychosis
e) High arterial pressure
Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:
a) Adrenal suppression
b) Insomnia, behavioral changes (primarily hypomania)
c) Rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face - moon
75
faces
d) Diabetus mellitus type II
e) All of the answers
Indicate the mechanism of contraception based on preparations, which contains estrogen
and gestagen:
a) Spermicide action
b) Annihilation of spermatozoic activities
c) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary.
d) Cervical liquefaction
e) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa
Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Status asthmaticus
c) Lymphoma maligna
d) Herpetic keratits
e) Chronic hepatits
Glucocorticoids are hormonal steroids:
a) Having an important effect on intermediary metabolism, cardiovascular function, growth,
and immunity
b) Having principally salt-retaining activity
c) Having androgenic or estrogenic activity
d) Having thyroid stimulating activity
e) All of the answers
Which of the following glucocorticoids is an intermediate-acting drug?
a) Cortisone
b) Triamcinolone
c) Betamethasone
d) Dexamethasone
e) All of the answers
Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short- to medium-acting drug?
a) Prednisolon
b) Dexamethasone
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Cortisone
e) All of the answers
Which of the following substances has the most intense salt and water retention?
a) estradiol
b) progesterone
c) aldosterone
d) corticosterone
e) testosterone
Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid:
a) inhibs irreversibly platelet cyclooxygenase
b) stimulates platelet biosynthesis of TxA2
c) inhibits prostacycline PgI2 biosynthesis
d) inhibits PgI1 biosynthesis
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e) inhibits PgE2 biosynthesis
Indicate the effect of protamine sulphate:
a) antifybrinolytic
b) antidot of heparine
c) thrombolytic
d) local hemostatic
e) nonspecific hemostatic
Note the mechanism of action of cumarins:
a) are active in vivo and in vitro
b) blocks synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X by inhibition of epoxi-reductase
c) are vitamine C antimetabolits
d) often cause thromboses
e) administered only intramusculary
Which stage of arterial thrombosis is inhibited by acetylsalicylic acid:
a) adderation of platelets to colagen
b) arahydonic acid release
c) formation of thromboxan A2
d) activation of thromboxan A2 receptors
e) inhibition of adenilatcyclase-AMPc system
Indicate the antithrombotic drug with fibrinolytic action:
a) alteplaze
b) sulphinpirazon
c) warfarin
d) heparin
e) dypiridamole
Which antitrombotic drug activates AT III:
a) streptokinaze
b) sulphinpirazone
c) warfarin
d) heparin
e) acetylsalicylic acid
Indicate the antidote of oral anticoagulants:
a) etamsilat
b) carbazocrome
c) aprotinine
d) vitamine K iv and blood transfuzion
e) fibrinogen
Name the reason of acetylsalicylic acid long duration:
a) high half-life
b) concentration in thombocytes
c) inactivates ireversibilly platelet cyclooxigenase
d) lysis of fibrin
e) slow absorption
Which drug is better for long-term prophylaxis of venous thrombosis?
77
a) acenocumarol
b) heparin intravenuosly
c) streptokinase
d) acetylsalycilic acid
e) dypiridamole
Which drug is from Coumarin derivates?
a) sulphinpirazone
b) acenocumarol
c) acetylsalycilic acid in low dose
d) carbazocrom
e) dypiridamole
Name the drug which can't be used as local hemostatic:
a) epinephrine
b) tromboplastin
c) trombin
d) fibrin
e) fitomenadione
Indicate heparine antagonist:
a) trombin
b) acenocumarol
c) menadion
d) protamine sulphate
e) fibrinogen
All preparations listed below might be used for local homeostasis but one exception:
a) fibrin
b) phytomenadion
c) thrombin
d) epinephrine
e) thromboplastin
Indicate the mechanism of action of indirect anticoagulants:
a) inhibits thromboplastine activity
b) fixes calcium ions in blood
c) inhibts gama-carboxilation of protrombin and proconvertin in liver
d) activates antithrombin III
e) activates factors IX,X,XI,XII and calicrein
What is specific for iron drugs, prescribed intravenously:
a) can increase sideremia les then oral drugs
b) iron from this drugs is fixt initially by reticulo-endotelial system
c) restore landfills weaker than oral preparations
d) they require an acid medium
e) side effects more rare and less pronounced then oral drugs
Indicate the topical drug used to stop hemorrhage from little vessels:
a) fitomenadion
b) calcium chloride
c) acetylsalycilic acid
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d) trombin
e) fibrinogen
Indicate the pharmacologic feature of iron drugs:
a) it is absorbed mostly in the stomach
b) daily recquest in healthy - 1 mg and 1,4 mg in women
c) food and stomach antacids increase bioavailability for absorption
d) absorption is not higher in patients with iron deficiency anemia than in healthy people,
because it's transported stably by specific proteins
e) after iron absorption is carried by the plasma erythrocytes
Indicate the antagonist of indirect anticoagulants:
a) fitomenadion
b) calcium chloride
c) protamine sulphate
d) aprotinin
e) epinephrine
Tick the mechanism of action of sodium citrate:
a) fixes calcium ions
b) inhibits trombin activation
c) decreases tromboplastine synthesis
d) inhibs protrombine and proconvertin synthesis in liver
e) increases platelet aggregation
Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:
a) Acute myocardial infarction
b) Bleeding after fibrinolytic therapy
c) Heart failure
d) Multiple pulmonary emboli
e) Myocardial infarction
Indicate the pharmacologic feature of heparin:
a) heparin is obtained from human tissue
b) heparin is badlly absorbed from digestive tub
c) speed of elimination of heparin is not dose-dependent
d) effect of heparin can be antagonized by nadroparin
e) heparin does not pass into the breast milk
Indicate heparin antagonist:
a) naloxone
b) naltrexon
c) flumazenil
d) protamine sulphate
e) disulfiram
Choose the mechanism of action of heparin:
a) activates prothrombin and other factors of coagulation.
b) binds to and activates endogenous antithrombin III. (ATIII).
c) activates physiologic fibrinolytic system,that degradate fibrin into fragments
d) inhibits COX and decreases synthesis of tromboxan, that has aggregant effect.
e) interferes with the normal posttranslational modification of clotting factors in the liver, a
79
process that depends on vitamin K.
Which of the following antiaggregans inhibits prostaglandin synthesis?
a) dextran 40
b) dypiridamole
c) prostacyclin
d) acetylsalycilic acid
e) ticlopidin
Indicate low-molecular-weight heparin:
a) acenocumarol
b) heparin
c) sodium citrate
d) nadroparine
e) warfarin
Indicate the drug that stop bleeding by vassoconstrictive action:
a) epinephrine
b) menadion
c) menadiol
d) fibrinogen
e) fitomenadion
Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid:
a) inhibits the activity of tromboplastine and impairs the passage of prothrombin in thrombin
b) fixes calcium ions in blood
c) inhibits thromboxan synthesis
d) activates antithrombin III
e) activates factors IX, X, XI, XII and calicrein
A 26-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a complain of rapid heart rate
and easy fatigability. Laboratory work up reveals low hemoglobin and microcytic red cell
size. The most suitable therapy will be:
a) ferrous sulfate
b) folic acid
c) iron
d) pyridoxine
e) cyanocobalamin
What is the onset of furosemide at intravenous administration:
a) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4 ore
b) after 3-4 minutes and lasts for 1-2 ore
c) after 10 minutes and lasts for 6 ore
d) after 60 minutes and lasts for 24 ore
e) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4-8 ore
Which kind of action will be in furosemide administration in pulmonary edema?
a) dehydration
b) antidiuretic action
c) anti-foam action
d) antihypertensive action
e) sedative action
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Name diuretic drug with antiepileptic properties:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Etacrinic acid
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
The drug inhibits the carbonic anhydrase enzyme:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Amiloride
Which one of the following statements about spironolactone is TRUE?
a) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronism
b) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist and as such is used in the treatment of
hirsutism in women
c) Spironolactone is useful as a diuretic
d) All the answers
e) No one answer
All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true, EXCEPT:
a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3
b) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site
on the Na+/K+/2Clcotransporter
c) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubule
d) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretion
e) Diuretics decrease edema in the body
The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamteren
The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Ethacrinic acid
The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting
tubules:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
e) Indapamid
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The drug inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase:
a) Sulthiame
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamteren
Name carboanhydrase inhibitor diuretics:
a) hydrochlorothiazide
b) spironolactone
c) furosemide
d) triamterene
e) acetazolamine
Which kind of diuretic is more active in treatment of glaucoma?
a) acetazolamide
b) hydrochlorthiazide
c) ethacrinic acid
d) furosemide
e) triamteren
Sustained use of this drug results in increased plasma urate concentrations:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
e) Their associated administration
Chronic use of this drug can lead to metabolic acidosis:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
e) Triamteren
The drug acts at the proximal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamteren
The drug can be used to treat glaucoma:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
e) Their association
The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect:
a) Amiloride
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b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Indapamid
The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Acetazolamide
e) Manitol
The drug can cause ototoxicity:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
e) just their associated administration
Which of the following diuretics may cause deafness (ototoxicity) in case of an overdose?
a) hydrochlorothiazide
b) furosemide
c) acetazolamide
d) spironolactone
e) triamterene
Diuretics with action in thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle (TAL):
a) chlortalidon + clopamide
b) mannitol, urea
c) spironolactone + amiloride + triamterene
d) furosemide + ethacrine acid + bumetamide
e) cyclopentazide + polythiazide
The drug is sometimes part of fixed-dose combinations used to treat essential
hypertension:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amiloride
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
e) Their associated administration
Choose short-acting drug:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Spironolactone
d) Acetazolamide
e) Polythiaside
The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amiloride
c) Both of the above
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d) Neither of the above
e) Their associated administration
The drug acts only in loop Henle, ascending part:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
e) Their associated administration
Which of the following diuretic groups act above the collecting tube?
a) thiazides
b) loop diuretics
c) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
d) antialdosteronics
e) osmotic diuretics
The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Spironolactone
d) Mannitol
e) Amilorid
The drug should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amilorid
c) Furosemide (Lasix)
d) Neither of the above
e) Their associated administration
The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Osmotic diuretics
The drug acts at the proximal tubule:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Osmotic diuretics
The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Osmotic diuretics
84
The drug is the most potent diuretic:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Cardiac glycosides
Which kind of diuretic is more active in acute renal failure ?
a) triamteren
b) furosemide
c) indapamide
d) hydrochlorthiazide
e) acetazolamide
Name agent - aldosterone antagonist:
a) Furosemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Dichlothiazide
d) Captopril
e) Bumetamide
The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Osmotic diuretics
The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Indapamid
The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Manitol
The drug acts in the collecting tubules:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Osmotic diuretics
The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop
of Henle:
85
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Manitol
Choose antagonist of aldosterone:
a) aminoglutethimide
b) mitotan
c) spironolactone
d) ketoconazole
e) miphepristone
The drug can cause ototoxicity:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Manitol
Drug used in night enuresis:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given
orally:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
e) Thiazide like diuretics
Amiloride acts at this nephron site:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) All nephron
These drug may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis:
a) Mannitol
b) Ethacrinic acid
c) Hydrochlorthiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Acetazolamide
Furosemide acts at this nephron site:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
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b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerules
The drug is the least (less) potent diuretic:
a) Mannitol
b) Furosemide
c) Indapamid
d) Spironolactone
e) Hydrochorthiazide
Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) All nephron
Amiloride acts at this nephron site:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) All nephron
The drug inhibiting the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloride in Loop Henle:
a) Torasemid
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Manitol
e) Indapamid
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Manitol
e) Indapamid
Mechanism of action of osmotic diuretics includes:
a) They inhibit sodium chloride transport in the early segment of the distal convoluted tubule
b) This drugs inhibit the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloride
c) They increase osmotic pressure of plasma, increase minute-volume of blood and increase
also the renal circulation and filtration
d) Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the brush border and intracellular carbonic anhydrase in
the PCT cell
e) They are antagonist (competitive or noncompetitive) of aldosterone in the collecting tubules
The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:
a) Ethacrinic acid
87
b) Furosemide
c) Polythiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
Choose non-competitive antagonist of spironolactone:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
e) Spironolactone
The drug that inhibit carbonic anhydrase:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Mannitol
The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect:
a) Amiloride
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amiloride
c) Furosemide
d) Acetazolamide
e) Spironolactone
The drug can promote sodium loss in patients with low (e.g., 40 ml/min) glomerular
filtration rates:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Amiloride
The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
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d) Spironolactone
e) Amiloride
The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amiloride
c) Acetazolamide
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
e) Spironolactone
The drug is the most potent diuretic:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Aldosteron's antagonists
The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Aldosteron's antagonists
The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Ethacrinic acid
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Spironolactone
The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Spironolactone
The drug acts in the collecting tubules:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Osmotic diuretics
The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop
of Henle:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Spironolactone
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The drug is usually given in combination with a thiazide diuretic:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Bumetanide
What diuretic is contraindicated in cardiac insufficiency?
a) furosemide
b) hydroclorothiazide
c) acetazolamide
d) spironolactone
e) mannitol
Diuretic that acts in loop Henle is:
a) Indapamide
b) Furosemide
c) Mannitol
d) Spironolactone
e) Acetazolamide
An important therapeutic effect of loop diuretics is:
a) Decreased blood volume
b) Decreased heart rate
c) Increased serum sodium
d) Increased total body potassium
e) Metabolic acidosis
Spironolactone acts at this nephron site:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerulus
These drugs may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
e) Furosemide
Furosemide acts at this nephron site:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerulus
The drug is the least potent diuretic:
a) Osmotic diuretics
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b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
e) Thiazide-like diuretics
Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site:
a) Collecting duct
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Proximal convoluted tubule
e) Glomerulus
Amiloride acts at this nephron site:
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle
c) Distal convoluted tubule
d) Collecting duct
e) Glomerulus
The drug competitively blocks chloride channels and prevents movement of sodium,
potassium, and chloride into the renal tubular cells:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Mannitol
e) Spironolactone
Choose anti gout drug:
a) salbutamol
b) propranolol
c) allopurinol
d) carvedilol
e) atenolol
Has been used in the treatment of gout:
a) Loperamide
b) Probenecid
c) Both
d) Neither
Effective in the treatment of gout by inhibition of the movement of leukocytes into the
inflamed joint:
a) Sodium salicylate
b) Acetylcysteine
c) Colchicine
d) Acetaminophen
e) Sulfinpyrazone
Electrolytes are responsible for:
a) Acid-base balance
b) Blood sugar levels
c) Hemoglobin levels
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d) Hormone levels
e) Enzymes level
What vitamin is inactivated by pyrazinamide?
a) Vitamin B6
b) Vitamin B1
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin C
e) Vitaimin K
List typical characteristics of acid folic:
a) Inhibits central nervous system
b) acts on coagulation of blood.
c) occurs as a formation of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides.
d) Stimulates central nervous system.
e) act directly on plasminogen.
Which vitaminic preparation is being used in scurvy?
a) thiamine
b) cyanocobalamin
c) pyridoxine
d) ascorbic acid
e) biotin
Name the indications for Vitamin K preparations:
a) Keratits
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Angina Pectoris
d) Parenchymal hemorrhage
e) Muscle pain
Vitamins are:
a) Inorganic nutrients needed in small quantities in the body
b) Organic substances needed in very large quantities in the body
c) An organic compound and a vital nutrient that an organism requires in limited amounts.
d) Products of endocrine gland secretion
e) Any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and
functioning as specialized
Antienzymes are:
a) a substance that inhibits or counteracts the action of an enzyme
b) substances that prevent vitamins from exerting their typical metabolic effects
c) any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and
functioning as specialized atalysts for biochemical reactions
d) nonprotein organic substances that usually contain a vitamin or mineral
e) products of endocrine gland secretion
Select the fat-soluble vitamin:
a) Ascorbic acid
b) Tocopherol
c) Thiamine
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d) Riboflavin
e) Piridoxin
Beri-beri is caused by the deficiency of:
a) Riboflavin
b) Ascorbic acid
c) Nicotinic acid
d) Thiamine
e) Riboflavin
Select a water-soluble vitamin:
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin B1
e) Vitamin K
Which of the following vitamins is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of
calcium,:
a) Vitamin К
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin B1
Which of the following vitamins can be also synthesized from a dietary precursor?
a) Vitamin С
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B1
d) Vitamin B6
e) Vitamin P
Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:
a) Collagen
b) Hormone
c) Ascorbic Acid
d) Red Blood Cells
e) Vitamin P
Vitamin C deficiency is called:
a) Rickets
b) Scurvy
c) Cancer
d) Cold
e) Beri-beri
Which of the following statements concerning pyridoxine (vitamin B6) functions is true:
a) Active functional form is pyridoxal phosphate, which is an essential coenzyme for
transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids
b) Active group of the coenzymes nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and
nicotinamide-adenine phosphate (NADP)
c) Essential constituent of flavoproteins, flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and flavin adenine
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dinucleotide (FAD)
d) An extremely important antioxidant, which protects cell membrane lipids from peroxidation
by breaking the chain reaction of free radical formation to which polyunsaturated fatty acids
are particularly vulnerable
e) Active functional form is dihydroergocalciferol
Name the main function of Vitamin A in the body:
a) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
b) Vision,
c) Normal cell development and reproduction
d) Bone and body growth
e) All of the above
Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:
a) Rickets
b) Pernicious anemia
c) Scurvy
d) Poor circulation of the red blood cells
e) Beri-beri
The vitamin Folate works together with ______________to produce new red blood cells
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin B6
e) None of the above
Which of the following vitamins is also known as an antisterility factor?
a) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin B1
d) Vitamin C
e) Vitamin D
Characterictic of Vitamin B12:
a) Is present in large amounts in green, leafy vegetables
b) Prevents goiter
c) Prevents scurvy
d) Requires intrinsic factor secreted in the stomach to aid its absorption
e) Prevents Beri-beri disease
.Whch of the following is a function of Vitamin B12
a) Red blood cell formation
b) Normal cell development and reproduction
c) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
d) Just anti-oxidant action
e) Vision, bone and body growth
Indicate the influence of ergocalciferol upon metabolic processes:
a) stimulates nucleic acid synthesis
b) depresses nucleic acid synthesis
c) increases the permeability of the intestinal epithelium for calcium and phosphor.
d) stimulates alpha-keto acid decarboxylation
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e) inhibits alpha-keto acid decarboxylation
Which of the following vitamins is also known as an anti-sterility factor?
a) tocopherol
b) piridoxine
c) thiamine
d) fitomenadione
e) ascorbic acid
Which of the following vitamins is also known as a haemostatic agents?
a) tocopherol
b) piridoxine
c) thiamine
d) fitomenadione
e) ascorbic acid
Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are characteristics of:
a) Dry beri-beri
b) Pyridoxine deficiency
c) Scurvy
d) Pellagra
e) Cholesterol deficiency
Scurvy is:
a) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin C and characterized by spongy bleeding gums,
bleeding under the skin, and weakness
b) Extreme dryness of the conjunctiva resulting from a disease localized in the eye or from
systemic deficiency of vitamin A
c) A disease caused by deficiency of niacin in the diet
d) All of the answers
e) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin K
Pellagra is:
a) A disease caused by a deficiency of niacin (vit. PP) in the diet and characterized by skin
eruptions, digestive and nervous system disturbances, and eventual mental deterioration
b) Inflammation of several nerves at one time caused by a deficiency of thiamin, marked by
paralysis, pain, and muscle wasting.
c) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults caused by a failure of the
stomach to absorb vitamin B12
d) All of the answers
e) A severe form of anemia most often affecting children
Characterize vitamins:
a) are all synthesized in the body
b) provide energy
c) are necessary for proper growth and development
d) all are hormons
e) needed in large amounts
Which of the following vitamins is given along with isoniazide in treatment of
tuberculosis?
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a) Nicotinic acid
b) Riboflavin
c) Pyridoxine
d) Ascorbic acid
e) Vitamin A
Which of the following vitamins is used in megaloblast anemia?
a) Vitamin B12
b) Vitamin BC
c) Vitamin PP
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin A
Which of the following enzymes is used in cancer therapy?
a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
e) Aprotinine
Loosening of teeth, gingivitis and hemorrhage occur in the deficiency of:
a) Vitamin К
b) Vitamin В1
c) Vitamin B6
d) Vitamin C
e) Vitamin A
A 30-year-old woman who was suffering from untreatable gastric carcinoma underwent
a gastrectomy. A deficiency of which one of the following vitamins will develop as a
result of this procedure and must be treated with?
a) Vitamin B6
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin E
Name vitamin obtained from sunlight:
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin C
Name vitamin synthesized from bacteria in the intestines:
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin C
Name easily destroyed vitamin:
a) Vitamin A
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b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin C
Clinical uses of vitamin D do not include:
a) Osteoporosis
b) Nutritional rickets
c) Intestinal osteodystrophy
d) Hyperparathyroidism
e) Chronic renal failure
Vitamin A deficiency causes:
a) Beri-beri
b) Night blindness
c) Scurvy
d) Megaloblastic anemia
e) Pellagra
Name ion that helps muscles to contract and relax, thereby helping to regulate heartbeat:
a) Iron
b) Calcium
c) Cobalt
d) Iodide
e) Sulfur
Along with potassium, plays a role in fluid balance:
a) Iron
b) Sodium
c) Cobalt
d) Iodide
e) Sulfur
Charactericitc of fat-soluble vitamins:
a) Are more stable than water-soluble vitamins
b) Are found in all foods
c) Must be supplied daily
d)Cannot be stored in the body
e) Non of the above
If a person has vitamin K deficiency, which of the following is likely to occur?
a) Acne
b) Formation of blood clots A
c) Excessive bleeding
d) Acidosis
e) Non of the above
Which of the following antienzymes is a trypsin inhibitor?
a) Aprotinine
b) Sulbactam
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram
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e) Cylastatine
Which of the following antienzymes is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor:
a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Acetazolamide
e) Disulfiram
Which of the following antienzymes is a fibrinolysis inhibitor?
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Sulbactam
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram
e) Selegiline
Which of the following antienzymes is a cholinesterase inhibitor?
a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram
e) Sulbactam
Which of the following enzymes improves GIT functions (replacement therapy):
a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
e) 5-LOX
Which of the following antienzymes is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor:
a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
c) Acetazolamide
d) Disulfiram
e) Sulbactam
Which of the following antienzymes is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor?
a) Tazobactam
b) Sulbactam
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram
e) Physostigmine
Which of the following antienzymes is a xantine oxidase inhibitor?
a) Physostigmine
b) Allopurinol
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Acetazolamide
e) Disulfiram
Which of the following enzymes has fibrinolytic activity?
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a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze
e) COX-1
Which of the following antienzymes is an aromatase inhibitor used in cancer therapy?
a) Physostigmine
b) Allopurinol
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Aminoglutethimide
e) Acetazolamide
Name enzymes with antimicrobial properties:
a) hyaluronidase
b) asparaginase
c) bactisubtil
d) panzynorm
e) urokinase
What's the definition of "antibiotics"?
a) non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively inhibit growth of other microorganisms
b) substance produced by some microorganisms or their synthetic analogs that selectively kills
or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms
c) substances produced by certain microorganisms or their synthetic analogs inhibit the growth
of body cells
d) synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes
e) non of the above
What is the minimum duration of antibacterial treatment?:
a) not less than one day
b) not less than 5 days
c) not less than 10-14 days
d) not less than three weeks
e) not less than 1 month
The mechanism of bacterial resistance to penicilins can be described as:
a) Inactivation of drug by beta-lactamases
b) Overproduction of PBPs
c) Overproduction of peptidoglycans
d) Breakdown of penicillins by the immune system
e) Rapid biotransformation
Antibiotics are chemicals produced by?
a) Cancer cells
b) Viruses
c) Bacteria
d) Protozoa
e) Microorganisms
What antibiotic should be used for the treatment of fever with unknown origin?
a) Antibiotics should not be used
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b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Aminoglycosides
e) Penicillins
Bactericidal effect is:
a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b) Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth
c) Destroying of bacterial cells
d) Formation of bacterial L-form
e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division
Bacteristatic effect is:
a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b) Bacteria killing
c) Destroying of bacterial cells
d) Formation of bacterial L-form
e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division
Name bactericidal drug?
a) Cephalosporins
b) Trimethoprim
c) Macrolides
d) Lincosamides
e) Choramphenicol
A(n) ____ drug will halt bacterial growth but not deplete it, while a(n) ____ drug will kill
bacteria:
a) Bactericidal; Antibiotic
b) Antibiotic; Bacteriostatic
c) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
d) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
e) Antibiotic; Bactericidal
When treating meningitis, one of the steps to achieve the MIC (minimum inhibitory
concentration) is by injecting antibiotic where?
a) Epidural space
b) Subdural space
c) Subarachnoid space
d) Subpial space
e) Corneal space
Penicillin is a ____ drug and tetracycline is a ____ drug:
a) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
b) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
c) Bactericidal; Bactericidal
d) Bacteriostatic; Bacteriostatic
e) Fungicidal; Bactericidal
Penicillin was first discovered when colonies of staphylococci lysed when contaminated
with what?
a) Penicillium bacteria
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b) Penicillium virus
c) Penicillium fungi
d) Penicillium parasite
e) Penicillium protozoa
Penicillin G is ____ to penicillinase and methicillin is ____ to penicillinase. Both are
considered ____ spectrum antibiotics:
a) Resistant; Sensitive; Narrow
b) Resistant; Sensitive; Broad
c) Sensitive; Resistant; Narrow
d) Sensitive; Resistant; Broad
e) Resistant; Resistant; Broad
What enzyme is the main target for penicillin?
a) Transglucosylases
b) Transpeptidases
c) D-alanine carboxykinases
d) Glucoronuyltransferase
e) Dihidropteroat synthetase
Which antibiotic is considered extended-spectrum as it can fight pseudomonal
aeroginosa, enterobacter species, proteus, bacteroids fragilis, and many klebsiella?
a) Oxacillin
b) Ampicillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Penicillin G
e) Carbencillin
Which next antibiotic would be used to treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae if the patient was
allergic to penicillins?
a) Ticarcillin
b) Carbencillin
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
e) Penicillin V
Clavulanate is added to amoxicillin (Augmentin) to protect the drug molecule. This
results in a ____ bioavailability and a change from dosage three times a day to ____ times
a day. However, this produces a high incidence of diarrhea:
a) Increase; Four
b) Increase; Two
c) Decrease; Four
d) Decrease; Two
Clavulanic acid and sulbactam ____ antibiotics, and are added to give better ____
properties and effects:
a) Are; Antibacterial
b) Are; Pharmacokinetic
c) Are not; Antibacterial
d) Are not; Pharmacokinetic
Name antibiotic considered the least toxic?
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a) Ticarcillin
b) Oxacillin
c) Ampicillin
d) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
e) Chloramphenicol
Imipenem/Cilastatin is an example of a:
a) Antibiotic + inhibitor of penicillinase
b) Combination from 2 antibiotics to increase spectrum of action
c) Antibiotic + inhibitor of renal enzyme dehydropeptidase
d) Antibiotic + inhibitor of beta lactamase
e) 2 antibiotics to decrease side effects
Several families of drugs such as penicillins and cephalosporins act to ____ the bacterial
____ and thereby promoting lysis. The mechanism is through prevention of murein
(peptidoglycan) synthesis:
a) Weaken; Cell membrane
b) Weaken; Cell wall
c) Strengthen; Cell membrane
d) Strengthen; Cell wall
a) Inhibit protein synthesis
What is the most frequent side effect, which occurs after administrating of benzyl
penicillin?
a) Agranulocytosis
b) Anemia
c) Renal insufficiency
d) Allergy
e) Dysbacteriosis
Severe allergic reactions are more common with what family of drugs?
a) Tetracyclines
b) Macrolides
c) Cephalosporins
d) Penicillins
e) Sulfonamides
Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams:
a) Ampicillin
b) Bicillin-5
c) Aztreonam
d) Imipinem
e) Tienam
Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is:
a) Erythromycin
b) Rifampicine
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Imipinem
e) Cycloserine
Which antimicrobial remedy is excreted in bile in active concentrations?:
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a) ampicillin
b) kanamycin
c) griseofulvin
d) sulfizoxazolul
e) nalidixic acid
Mechanism of penicillins' antibacterial effect is:
a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall
b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell
c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that destroy bacterial cell wall
d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of cell membrane
permeability
e) Activation of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell
Name the main indication for benzylpenicillin:
a) salmonelosis
b) typhoid fever
c) subacute endocarditis
d) syphilis
e) tuberculosis
Which from penicillins is an aminopenicillin?
a) Methicillin
b) Ampicillin
c) Penicillin G
d) Penicillin V
e) Carbencillin
Which of the penicillins produces a higher incidence of diarrhea?
a) Cloxacillin
b) Ampicillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Augmentin
e) Penicilin G
IV rd Generation Cephalosporins have a ____ spectrum of antimicrobial activity and are
considered ____:
a) Broad; Bactericidal
b) Broad; Bacteristatic
c) Narrow; Bactericidal
d) Narrow; Bacteristatic
e) Narrow; Fungistatic
Cephalosporin from I-st generation for parenteral administration is:
a) cefazolin
b) cefamandole
c) cephachlor
d) cefipime
e) cefadroxil
Which of the bacteria would not be affected by a second-generation cephalosporin, but
would be affected by ceftazidime?
a) Staphylococcus
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b) Streptococcus
c) Listeria
d) Enterococcus
e) Pseudomonas
Which of cephalosporin generation should be given for gram-negative bacterial
meningitis?
a) First-generation cephalosporin
b) Second-generation cephalosporin
c) Third-generation cephalosporin
d) First-generation cephalosporin, just parenteral drug
e) Cephalosporin should not be given
Describes ceftazidime and cefepime:
a) First-generation cephalosporins
b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity
c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity
d) Third-generation cephalosporins
e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
Describes cefazolin and cephalexin:
a) First-generation cephalosporins
b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity
c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity
d) Third-generation cephalosporins
e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
Describes cefmetazole, cefotetan, and cefoxitin:
a) First-generation cephalosporins
b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity
c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity
d) Third-generation cephalosporins
e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
Describes cefaclor and cefuroxime:
a) First-generation cephalosporins
b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity
c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity
d) Third-generation cephalosporins
e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
Describes cefoperazone and ceftriaxon:
a) First-generation cephalosporins
b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity
c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity
d) Third-generation cephalosporins
e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
Which of the microorganisms would be treated with a first-generation cephalosporin?
a) E. Coli
b) Klebsiella
c) Proteus
d) Staphylococcus
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e) Enterobacter
A 2-mo-old male neonate presents with a thick eye discharge. The mother admits to
having sexual partners and complains of a vaginal discharge. Exams of both eyes of
infant reveals a thick purulent discharge and conjunctival congestion and edema.
Corneal ulcerations was also noted. Conjunctival swabs on gram staining revealed
presence of gram-negative diplococci and many polymorphonuclear cells. What
organism, which can be treated with penicillin G or a third-generation cephalosporin, is
the most likely cause?
a) C. trachomatis
b) T. pallidum
c) N. gonorrhea
d) H. ducreyi
e) H. influenza
Macrolids are ____ ribosomal subunit inhibitors that are ____ at low concentrations and
____ at high concentrations:
a) 30s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
b) 30s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
c) 50s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic
d) 50s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal
Although erythromycin is not normally effective with gram-negative bacteria, cell wall
deficient forms of E. coli and Proteus mirabilis (L-forms) are exceptions. These are seen
in recurrent:
a) Pneumonia
b) Upper respiratory tract infections
c) Urinary tract infections
d) Gastroenteritis
e) Endocarditis
Name bactericidal antibiotic - the drug of choice for pneumonia caused by H. influenzae?
a) Erythromycin
b) Clarithromycin
c) Azithromycin
d) Dirithromycin
e) Telithromycin
A patient presents with mild symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and coughing.
However, they show little sign of bacterial infection. Lab blood results show infection is
present and the physician chooses to use a macrolide antibiotic. What agent was most
likely the cause of the patient's symptoms?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Listeria monocytogenes
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which of the organs is the main organ for biotransformation of macrolides such as
erythromycin (90%) and clarithromycin?
a) Spleen
b) Kidneys
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c) Brain
d) GI tract
e) Liver
An 8-yr-old child presents with pharyngitis and fever of 3 days duration. Microbiology
lab confirms translucent beta-hemolytic colonies. Past history includes a severe allergic
reaction to amoxicillin when used for ear infection. Which one of the аntimicrobial agents
as an oral drug is most likely appropriate in terms of both effectiveness and safety?
a) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
b) Cefaclor
c) Doxycycline
d) Vancomycin
e) Azithromycin
Aminoglycosides are effective only against which of the microbs and are a good choice for
septicemia (a serious toxicity)?
a) Gram-positive aerobic bacteria
b) Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria
c) Gram-negative aerobic bacteria
d) Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria
e) Just Streptococcus pneumoniae
Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis through binding to ____ bacterial
ribosome subunits. They cause leakage of intracellular contents and thus are ____:
a) 30s; Bactericidal
b) 30s; Bacteriostatic
c) 50s; Bactericidal
d) 50s; Bacteriostatic
Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at low dosages:
a) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly
b) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins
c) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins containing incorrect
amino acids.
d) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon
e) No effect on protein synthesis
Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at high dosages:
a) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins
containing incorrect amino acids.
b) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon
c) Complete inhibition of protein causing ribosomes to become trapped at the
AUG strand condons of mRNA
d) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly
e) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins
Following administration of aminoglycosides, where would concentrations be the lowest?
a) Prostate
b) Brain
c) Vitreous fluid
d) CSF
e) Intracellular
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Accumulation of aminoglycosides is most common in what location?
a) Liver capsule
b) Renal medulla
c) Nephrons
d) Renal cortex
e) Spleen
Which of the following drugs can be mixed with aminoglycosides, such as for use against
Staphylococcus aureus?
a) Diuretics
b) NSAIDs
c) Cisplatin
d) Amphotericin B
e) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)
Which of the antimicrobial drugs is combined with isoniazid to treat tuberculosis?
a) Neomycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Amikacin
d) Kanamycin
e) Gentamicin
AE is a 75-yr-old man with sepsis resulting from a urinary tract infection. He has
allergies to beta-lactam antibiotics and erythromycim. The result of blood cultures are
positive for P. aeroginosa; the urine culture is positive for P. aeroginosa and E. coli. From
aminoglycoside class, which one would you choose?
a) Neomycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Netilmicin
d) Kanamycin
e) Gentamicin
The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
a) Kanamycin
b) Tobramycin
c) Streptomycin
d) Amikacin
e) Neomycin
Cephalosporines are drugs of choice for treatment of:
a) Gram-negative microorganism infections
b) Gram-positive microorganism infections
c) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no effect
d) Only bacteroide infections
e) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if vancomicin have no effect
Carbapenems are effective against:
a) Only Gram-positive microorganisms
b) Only Gram-negative microorganisms
c) Only bacteroide infections
d) Broad-spectum
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e) Very Narrow spectrum
Benzylpenicillin acts on the level of:
a) cytoplasmatic membrane
b) Bacterial wall
c) Cytoplasm of a bacterial cell
d) Proteine synthesis
e) Ribosome of a bacterial cel
Which of the antimicrobial drugs would be used to treat methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
a) Nafcillin
b) Vancomycin
c) Gentamycin
d) Erythromycin
e) Clindamycin
Penicillin is used in combination with what drug to enhance antibacterial action in the
treatment of enterococcal endocarditis?
a) Sulfonamides
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Aminoglycosides
e) Fluoroquinolones
Prophylactic penicillin is indicated in patients with rheumatic carditis. If the patient is
allergic to penicillin, which drug should be used?
a) Sulfonamides
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Aminoglycosides
e) Fluoroquinolones
At what level penicillin work?
a) cytoplasmic membrane
b) cellular wall
c) cell bacterial ribosome
d) bacterial cell nucleus
e) bacterial cell cytoplasm
Specify the antibacterial mechanism of action of benzyl penicillin:
a) disturbance of synthesis of the components of microbial walls
b) change of the permeability of cytoplasmatic membranes of microorganisms
c) Competitive antagonism with folic acid in bacterial cell
d) inhibits coenzyme A activity
e) membrane permeability distarbances
Specify the action spectrum for biosynthetic penicillins:
a) Gram-positive and Gram-negative cocci, Corynebacterium diphtheria, spirokets,
Clostridium
b) Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteria
c) Gram positive cocci, viruses
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d) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungal
e) mycobacteria, viruses, Corynebacterium diphtheria
Antibacterial mechanism of penicillin is:
a) inhibiting the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls.
b) inhibition of bacterial beta-lactamases
c) activation of endogenous protease that destroys the cell wall
d) phospholypase endogenous activation, with subsequent alteration of membrane permeability
e) inhibition of nucleic acids
Cephalosporins are the first choice in treatment:
a) Gram-positive
b) Gram-negative
c) Gram-negative and gram-positive, if penicillins are not effective
d) only infections with bacteroides
e) only for infections caused by protozoa
Classified generally as a ˝third generation˝ cephalosporin:
a) Cefazolin
b) Cefachlor
c) Cephalexin
d) Cefotaxime sodium
e) Cefamandol
Available as tables for oral administration:
a) thienam
b) cephalexin
c) benzatin-benzylpenicillin
d) procaine benzyl penicillin
e) cefazolin
Action spectrum for carbapenems is:
a) just gram-positive
b) just gram-negative
c) only infections with bacteroides
d) broad-spectrum
e) only for infections caused by mycobacteria.
Name aminoglycoside antibiotic:
a) erythromycin
b) gentamicin
c) vancomycin
d) polymyxin
e) lincomycin
Drug from imipenems:
a) methicillin
b) isoniazid
c) tazocine
d) atropine
e) tienam
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Name side effect characteristic for aminoglycosides:
a) hepatotoxicity
b) SNC toxicity
c) ototoxicity
d) cardiotoxicity
e) mielotoxicity
The main side efects of aminoglycosides are EXCEPT:
a) Ototoxicity
b) Nephrotoxicity
c) Extrapyramidal disorders
d) Neuromuscular blockade
e) Nause and vomiting
Aminoglycosides have the following spectrum of action:
a) gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic, spirochete
b) The broad spectrum, exception - Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) gram-negative microorganisms, anaerobic
d) The broad spectrum, exception - anaerobes and viruses
e) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungal
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause loss of equilibrium and ototoxicity?
a) Canamycin
b) Ethambutol
c) Isoniazid
d) Para-aminosalicylic acid
e) Rifabutin
Has the capacity to cause ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade:
a) vancomycine
b) augmenthine
c) cefachlor
d) erythromycin
e) gentamicin
Named one of the major indications of aminoglycosides:
a) typhus
b) streptococcal angina
c) meningitis
d) typhoid
e) coli bacillary pyelonephritis
Name the adverse effects of aminoglycosides:
a) pancytopenia
b) hepatotoxicity
c) ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
d) mucosal gastroinitestinale irritation
e) agranulocytosis
Macrolides include of from the following drugs EXCEPT:
a) clarithromycin
b) olethetrin
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c) kanamycin
d) roxythromycin
e) oleandomycin
What are the characteristics for lincosamides?
a) broad-spectrum; bactericidal effect.
b) influence predominantly anaerobes, gram negative cocci.
c) broad-spectru; bacteriostatic effect
d) influence predominantly anaerobes, gram positive cocci
e) gram-negative cocci, gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli.
What is the adverse reaction for lincosamides?
a) nephrotoxicity
b) carcinogenic effect
c) pseudomembranous colitis
d) respiratory irritation
e) ototoxicity and neurotoxicitae.
Chloramphenicol mechanism of action is:
a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly
b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond
c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA
d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon
e) Inhibits folic acid metabolism
Which antibiotic most easily penetrate into the CNS:
a) benzylpenicillin
b) streptomycin
c) chloramphenicol
d) tetracycline
e) erythromycin
A bacteremic patient is being treated with an antibiotic. Following one week of therapy,
this patients develops severe bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia. Which
antibiotic is the most likely cause of this patient's toxic reaction?
a) Doxycycline
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Azithromycin
d) Gentamycin
e) Ciprofloxacin
A one-yr-old baby who has been diagnosed with brain abscess is undergoing an antibiotic
treatment. The baby develops abdominal distention, emesis, and irregular respiration.
Name antibiotic that is the most likely cause of this baby's toxic reaction?
a) Oxytetracycline
b) Amikacin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Sparfloxacin
e) Chloramphenicol
Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are effective against rare infections. Which of the
epidemic infections that can be treated with doxycycline is associated with voluminous
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rice-water diarrhea and may be seen as an epidemic in third world countries?
a) Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)
b) Rabid fever (Francisella tularensis)
c) Black plague (Yersinia pestis)
d) Brucellosis (Brucella species)
e) Cholera (Vibrio choler)
Among the side effects of tetracycline that may be seen in children taking the drug for
long or short periods is:
a) depression of bone growth
b) ototoxicity
c) nefrotoxicity
d) gastrointestinal irritation
e) allergy
Which drug from tetracyclines should be used for spirochetes Borellia burgdorferi.?
a) Demeclocycline
b) Doxycycline
c) Tetracycline
d) Oxytetracycline
e) Minocycline
What kind of side effect is more frequent in tetracycline administration?
a) Agranulocytoses
b) Anemia
c) Renal disturbances
d) Allergic reaction
e) Bones destruction and teeth coloration
Which of the types of drugs binds to teeth and can cause discoloration?
a) Tetracyclines
b) Macrolides
c) Cephalosporins
d) Penicillins
e) Sulfonamides
What is the most common adverse reaction for tetracyclines?
a) Prolonged bleeding
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Bloody diarrhea
d) Seizures
e) Tooth enamel dysplasia
Patients on tetracycline should due which of the following to prevent toxicity?
a) Brush their teeth
b) Exercise regularly
c) Limit exposure to sunlight
d) Rest at least six hours each night
e) Eat a complete diet including meat and dairy
A patient presents with pain in their right side. After physical exam and testing, a fatty
liver is found. History is negative for excessive alcohol use. Name classe of antibiotics that
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could have caused this:
a) Tetracyclines
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Cephalosporins
d) Fluoroquinolones
e) Sulfonamides
Name drug associated with gray baby syndrome?
a) Demeclocycline
b) Doxycycline
c) Tetracycline
d) Oxytetracycline
e) Chloramphenicol
Which drug would be given to a patient with rickettsia who is allergic to doxycycline?
a) Demeclocycline
b) Tetracycline
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Minocycline
e) Oxytetracycline
What antibiotic has strong bactericidal effect?
a) tetracycline
b) macrolide
c) penicillins
d) chloramphenicol
e) aminoglycoside
What remedy is from macrolides group?
a) neomycin
b) doxycycline
c) erythromycin
d) cefotaxime
e) imipenem
What kind of side effect is more frequent in penicillin's administration?
a) agranulocytoses
b) anemia
c) renal disturbances
d) allergic reaction
e) disbacteriosis
Erythromycin works by which of the mechanisms?
a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes
b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
d) Inhibition of fungal membrane
e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
What are the specific adverse effects of erythromycin:
a) agranulocytosis
b) acoustic-vestibular disorders
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c) nausea , vomiting and gastrointestinal irritation
d) apnea with neuromuscular
e) polyneuritis
What remedy is from carbapenem group?
a) aztreonam
b) amoxicillin
c) imipinem
d) clarithromycin
e) doxycycline
What remedy-is from tetracycline group?
a) doxycycline
b) streptomycin
c) clarithromycin
d) amoxicillin
e) penicillin
Name antibiotic from lincosamides:
a) gentamicin
b) streptomycin
c) clindamycin
d) neomycin
e) kanamycin
Name antibiotic that inhibits RNA synthesis:
a) erythromycin
b) rifampicin
c) chloramphenicol
d) imipinem
e) azithromycin
Aminoglycosides are effective against:
a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes
b) Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms
d) Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses
e) Only anaerobic microorganisms
Which of the antimicrobial drug would affect gram-negative aerobes (versus grampositive cocci/bacilli)?
a) Nafcillin
b) Vancomycin
c) Gentamycin
d) Erythromycin
e) Clindamycin
Choose the characteristics of chloramphenicol:
a) Broad-spectum. not active against chlamydia.
b) Influences only the Gram-positive microorganisms.
c) Influences only the Gram-negative microorganisms.
d) Broad-spectum. Active also against chlamydia.
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e) Narrow-spectrum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
May be fatal to neonates owing to an inability to conjugate the drug with glucuronic acid:
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Polymyxin B
c) Erythromycin
d) Kanamycin
e) Neomycin
Which of the following antibiotics penetrate the easiest in cephalorachidian liquid?
a) benzathine benzyl penicillin
b) streptomycin
c) chloramphenicol
d) tetracycline
e) erythromycin
The drug chloramphenicol is risky for which categories of patients?
a) Neonates
b) Congestive heart failure patients
c) Obese patients
d) Adult males
e) Geriatric patients
Name drug that can cause irreversible bone marrow depression, leading to aplastic
anemia:
a) Oxytetracyclinу
b) Minocycline
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Tetracycline
e) Demeclocycline
Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects:
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Pancytopenia
c) Hepatotoxicity
d) Ototoxicity
e) Hypertension
Erythromycin may produce following side effects:
a) Agranulocytosis
b) Vestibular disorders
c) Hepatoxic effects
d) Apnea caused by neuromuscular blocker
e) Polineuritis
Name following antibiotic, which is used for abdominal typhus treatment:
a) benzathine benzylpenicillin
b) benzylpenicillin potassium
c) tetracycline
d) cloramphenicol
e) kanamycin
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Pick out substance that inhibits the human enzyme dehydropeptidase:
a) Cilastatin
b) Sulbactam
c) Sultiam
d) Aztreonam
e) Tazobactam
Cilastatin can therefore be combined intravenously with ______________ in order to
protect it from renal dehydropeptidase:
a) imipenem
b) meropenem
c) carbepenem
d) aztreonam
e) Tazobactam
Choose the characteristics of lincozamides:
a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
b) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram negative cocci.
c) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect.
d) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci
e) Influence mainly the aerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci
What kind of remedy will color tears in red-orange color?
a) cloramphenicol
b) rifampicine
c) metronidazol
d) carbenicilline
e) neomycine
Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect:
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Cancerogenity
c) Pseudomembranous collitis
d) Irritation of respiratory organs
e) Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment:
a) Co-trimoxazol
b) Griseofulvin
c) Amphotericin B
d) Nitrofungin
e) Vancomicin
Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability
e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
Witch drug is from quinolones?
a) nitroxoline
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b) nalidixic acid
c) furazolidon
d) co-trimoxazole
e) furasolidone
Mechanism of sulfonamides' antibacterial effect is:
a) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase
b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
c) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
d) Activation of DNA gyrase
e) Inhibition of dihydropteroate oxydase
Mechanism of action of sulphonamides is:
a) To inhibit alaninaminotransferase.
b) To inhibit dihydropteroatsynthetase
c) To inhibit H K ATPase
d) To inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase
e) To inhibit monoaminoxidase
Name sulfonamides, which act only in the intestinal area:
a) Sulfocarbamides
b) Ftalilsulfatiazol
c) Sulfacetamide
d) Sulfa Ethiodol
e) Sulfadimidine
Sulphonamides with gastrointestinal action:
a) streptocide, sulphacarbamide, sulphadimidine
b) lidaprim, sulphaton, co-trimoxazole
c) sulphacethamide, sulphadiazine
d) sulphaguanide, sulphasalazine, salazodine.
What kind of side effects may Sulfonamides produce?
a) Colestasis
b) Chrystalluria
c) Pseudomembranous Colitis
d) Neuromuscular Block
e) Balance Disturbances
Sulfonamides and nalidixic acid can cause hemolysis in patients that are deficient in what
enzyme?
a) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
c) Glucose 6-phosphate
d) Glucokinase
e) Fructokinase
The enzyme that sulfonamides inhibit (para-aminobenzoic acid, PABis needed for
bacterial production of which of the substrat which is required for synthesis of DNA,
RNA, and protein?
a) Murein
b) Niacin
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c) Folic acid
d) Arachidonic acid
e) Phosphodiesterase
Bactrim is an effective and cheap medication containing a sulphonamide and
trimethoprim. Which enzyme is targeted by trimethoprim?
a) Monohydropteroate synthase
b) Monohydrofolate reductase
c) Dihydropteroate synthase
d) Dihydrofolate reductase
e) Phosphodiesterase
Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim:
a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides
b) Increases the antimicrobial activity
c) Decreases the antimicrobial activity
d) Increases the elimination ofsulfonamides
e) Decreases the elimination ofsulfonamides
Name sulphonamide drug:
a) streptomycin
b) penicillin
c) co-trimoxazole
d) chloramphenicol
e) clarithromycin
e
Mechanism of action of sulfonamides?
a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly
b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond
c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA
d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon
e) Inhibits folic acid metabolism
Show mechanism of action of sulphonamides:
a) Inhibition of RNA-polymerase
b) Have the competitive antagonism with paraaminobenzoic acid
c) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
d) Activation of dihydropholatreductase
e) Inhibition of cell wall
Sulfonamides have been considered the agents of choice in the treatment of :
a) pneumonia
b) allergy
c) cellulites
d) inflammation
e) acute pain
Which enzyme is targeted by sulfonamide?
a) Monohydropteroate synthase
b) Monohydrofolate reductase
c) Dihydropteroate synthase
d) Dihydrofolate reductase
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e) Tetrahydrofolate reductase
Name sulfonamide would be used to treat ulcerative colitis?
a) Sulfacetamide
b) Trimethoprim
c) Co-trimazole
d) Sulfamethoxazole
e) Sulfasalazine
Co-trimazole is used in patient who develop P. carinii pneumonia. This type of
pneumonia is seen in what type of patient?
a) Neonates
b) Elderly
c) Immune compromised
d) Patients taking warfarin
e) Patients with glucose-6-phosphate deficiency
Name sulfonamide used topically for ocular infections?
a) Sulfacetamide
b) Trimethoprim
c) Co-trimazole
d) Sulfamethoxazole
e) Sulfasalazine
Which drug is used in bacterial infections of the eyes?
a) sulphaguanide
b) sulphadimethoxine
c) sulfacetamide
d) sulphadiazine
e) sulphaton
Mechanism of Trimethoprim' action is:
a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
b) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
c) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
e) Inhibition of aldoreductase
Which of the effetcs was accomplished with second-generation fluoroquinolones?
a) Decreased potency (toxicity)
b) Increased potency (effectiveness)
c) Decreased protein binding (less drug-drug interaction)
d) Added activity against anaerobes
e) Improved gram-positive antibiotic activity
Fluoroquinolones inhibit which topoisomerase in gram-positive bacteria?
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) non of the above
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Which group of drugs can cause CNS symptoms and have a tendancy to damage
cartiledge, thus should never be given to children under the age of 18?
a) Penicillins
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides
d) Aminoglycosides
e) Fluoroquinolones
Name the antibacterial drug - a nitrofurane derivative:
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Trimethoprim
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Nystatin
e) Metronidazole
Name the antibacterial drug - a nitroimidazole derivative:
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Metronidazole
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Doxycycline
e) Nystatin
Witch drug is from 8-oxyquinolinics?
a) nitroxoline
b) nalidixic acid
c) furazolidon
d) co-trimoxazole
e) tetracycline
Name the antibacterial drug - a quinolone derivative:
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Nalidixic acid
c) Streptomycin
d) Metronidazole
e) Nystatin
Name the antibacterial drug - a fluoroquinolone derivative:
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Nalidixic acid
d) Ciprofloxacin
e) Metronidazole
Name the main indications for nitrofuranes:
a) Infections of respiratory tract
b) Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tracts
c) Syphilis
d) Tuberculosis
e) As a disinfectant
Name the indications for metronidazole:
a) Intra-abdominal infections, vaginitis, enterocolitis
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b) Pneumonia
c) As a disinfectant
d) Influenza
e) Tuberculosis
Mechanism of action of metronidazol:
a) Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking ribosomal movement along messenger RNA
b) The drug undergoes a reductive bioactivation of its nitro group by ferredoxin (prezent in
anacrobie parasites) to form reactive cytotoxic products
c) The drug blocks glucose uptakc, which leads to decreased formation of ATP
d) It may act by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation or by activating ATP-ases
e) Inhibits synthesis of cell wall of microbes
The mechanism of fluoroquinolones' action is:
a) Inhibition of phospholipase C
b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
c) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis
d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability
e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis
Fluoroquinolones are active against:
a) Gram negative microorganisms only
b) Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only
c) Gram positive microorganisms only
d) Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms, including Mycoplasma and
Chlamidiae
e) Only protozoa and anaerobes
Fluoroquinolones works by which mechanisms?
a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes
b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
d) Inhibition of fungal membrane
e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is:
a) Gentamycin
b) Penicillin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Doxycycline
e) Tetracycline
The main drugs used in lues?
a) tetracycline
b) benzylpenicillins
c) erythromycin
d) co-trimoxazole
e) Chloramphenicol
Mechanism of Cycloserine's action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
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c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis
e) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability
e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
Which chemotherapies may produce reactions from the disulfiram type?
a) cloramfenicol
b) gentamicin
c) metronidazol
d) clotrimazol
e) ofloxacin
Antifungal polyene macrolide that preferentially binds to fungal ergosterol which alters
cellular permeability:
a) ketoconazole
b) amphotericin B
c) flucytosine
d) grisefulvin
e) clotrimazole
Amphotericin and nystatin are what type of antifungal drugs?
a) Polyenes
b) Azoles
c) Pyrimidines
d) Imidasole’s
e) Bis- quaternary ammoniac salts
An azole most commonly used for topical treatment of candidiasis:
a) amphotericin B
b) clotrimazole
c) griseofulvin
d) flucytosine
e) none of the answers
Antifungal agent useful in treatment of candidiasis:
a) Amphotericin B
b) Nystatin
c) Both
d) Neither
Polyene used topically; active against most Candida species--most commonly used for
suppression of local candidal infection:
a) miconazole
b) terbinafine
c) nystatin
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d) fluconazole
e) flucytosine
Inhibition of fungal squalene epoxidase is this antifungal drug's mechanism of action:
a) ketoconazole
b) fluconazole
c) terbinafine
d) nystatin
e) flucytosine
Given by i.v. administration, the drug of choice for nearly all life-threatening mycotic
infections--usually used as the initial induction regiment:
a) ketoconazole
b) itraconazole
c) flucytosine
d) amphotericin B
e) nystatin
First available reverse transcriptase drug for treatment of HIV-1; a deoxythymidine
analogue:
a) foscarnet
b) zidovudine
c) amantidine
d) indinavir
e) remantadine
Saquinavir and ritonavir are what type of drugs?
a) Fusion inhibitors
b) Ion channel blockers
c) Polymerase inhibitors
d) Protease inhibitors
e) Neuraminidase inhibitors
Amantadine and rimantadine are what type of drugs?
a) Fusion inhibitors
b) Ion channel blockers
c) Polymerase inhibitors
d) Protease inhibitors
e) Neuraminidase inhibitors
Zanamivir and oseltamivir are what type of drugs?
a) Fusion inhibitors
b) Ion channel blockers
c) Polymerase inhibitors
d) Protease inhibitors
e) Neuraminidase inhibitors
HIV protease inhibitor:
a) rimantadine
b) ribavirin
c) saquinavir
d) stavudine
e) remantadine
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These drug is prophylactic against influenza A virus infection with 80% efficacy:
a) zidovudine
b) saquinavir
c) ribavarine
d) acyclovir
e) amantadine
Effective antiviral agent, which is also approved for use in the treatment of Parkinson
disease:
a) Idoxuridine
b) Amantadine
c) Vidarabine
d) Cytarabine
e) Trifluridine
Name standard therapy for CMV infections?
a) Idoxuridine
b) Cytarabine
c) Ganciclovir
d) Vidarabine
e) Zidovudine
Therapy for viral infections is aimed at which of the following?
a) Enhancing CD4 counts
b) Enveloping viral infected cells
c) Lysing viral infected cells
d) Destroying viruses directly
e) Preventing or delaying viral replication
Protease inhibitors (PIs) block which of the following steps in the viral life cycle?
a) Binding
b) Reverse transcription
c) Integration
d) Transcription
e) Assembly
AZT (Retrovir), also called zidovudine, is used in the treatment of HIV by inhibiting
which step in the viral life cycle?
a) Binding
b) Reverse transcription
c) Integration
d) Transcription
e) Translation
Acyclovir is phosphorylated by viral kinsases at which step?
a) First (mono-phosphate)
b) Second (di-phosphate)
c) Third (tri-phosphate)
d) Transcription
e) Translation
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AZT (Zidovudinhas) what mechanism of action?
a) Blocks viral absorption
b) Blocks uncoating stage
c) Blocks early protein synthesis
d) Blocks reverse transcriptase
e) Blocks packaging and assembly
Mechanism of action of zidovudine:
a) It induce the formation of enzymes, that phosphorylates a factor witch blocks peptide chain
initiation, a phosphodiesterase that degrades terminal nucleotides of t RNA and enzymes that
activate kinase
b) They inhibit the first steps in replication of the influenza A and rubella viruses
c) inhibits reverse transcriptase of HIV-1 and HIV-2 and causes chain termination in viral
DNA
d) it is active against herpes simplex virus and varicella- zoster virus, by inhibition of DNApolymerase
e) inhibit protein formation in viruses
Name the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative of nucleosides:
a) Acyclovir
b) Zidovudine
c) Gancyclovir
d) Trifluridine
e) Amantadine
Name the drug from antivirale group with wide spectrum of action:
a) Saquinavir
b) Interferon alfa
c) Didanozine
d) Acyclovir
e) 3 Zidovudine
Most likely to cause additive myelosuppresion in an HIV patient also receiving
ganciclovir for CMV retinitis:
a) didanosine
b) zidovudine
c) zalcitabine
d) saquinavir
e) amantadine
Used to treat HSV (herpes):
a) zidovudine
b) acyclovir
c) interferon
d) ribavirin
e) amantadine
Monophosphorylation of this antiviral drug is catalyzed by virus-specified protein kinase
phosphotransferase in CMV-infected cells and by viral thymidine kinase in HSV-infected
(herpes) cells:
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a) ganciclovir
b) foscarnet
c) cidofovir
d) valacyclovir
e) amantadine
Mechanism of paraaminosalicylic acid action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of folate synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Indication for isoniazid:
a) Meningococcal meningitis
b) Typhoid fever
c) Subacute endocarditis
d) Lues
e) Tuberculosis
Which of the following pairs of substances is matched?
a) Ceruloplasmin - copper
b) Deferoxamine - iron
c) Isoniazid - pyridoxine
d) Vitamin B12 - zinc.
The most important drug for treatment of all types of tuberculosis is:
a) Augmentine
b) Isoniazid
c) Aminosalicylic acid
d) Ampicylline
e) Clarithromycin
Which one of the following side effects is more characteristic for ethambutol:
a) proteinuria
b) decreased visual acuity
c) nongouty polyarthralgia
d) hemolysis
e) methemoglobinemia
The important drugs for treatment of tuberculosis are:
a) penicillin, cloramphenicol, gentamicin
b) isoniazid, riphampicin, ethambutol
c) aminosalicylic acid, nitroxoline, furazidine
d) norepinephrine, ephedrine, epineprine
e) atropine, neostigmine, aceclidine
The most common reaction to isoniazid therapy, if pyridoxine is not given concurrently, is:
a) peripheral neuritis
b) hypersensitivity
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c) optic neuritis
d) dryness of mouth
e) convulsions
Name drug used specifically only in M. leprae:
a) Dapsone
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
Name drug that can cause reversible optic neuritis:
a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
A 34-year-old man under treatment for pulmonary TB has acute-onset right big toe
pains, swelling, and low-grade fever. His physical exam is consistent with gouty arthritis,
and he is found to have high serum uric acid levels. Name anti-TB drug that is the most
likely cause of this patient's UA levels?
a) Isoniazid
b) Pyrazinamide
c) Cycloserine
d) Rifampin
e) Ethionamide
Isoniazid inhibits mycolid acid synthesis, disrupting bacterial walls and is associated with
hepatotoxicity, peripheral and central neuropathy, and optic neuritis. What vitamin
should be given as a supplement with isoniazid to help prevents these effects?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin K
c) Vitamin B6
d) Vitamin B12
e) Vitamin E
Name aminoglycoside only used for tuberculosis:
a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
A patient returns complaining of a reddish-orange color in their urine, saliva, sweat, and
tears. Which drug from anti TBC drugs was the patient likely taking?
a) Dapsone
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampicin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
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Name a pro-drug that is activated by tuberculosis and can cause hyperuricemia?
a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
Which of the following is considered a second-line antitubercular agent?
a) Para-aminosalicyclic acid
b) Isoniazid
c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin
Name the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line (I group) agents:
a) para-aminosalicylic acid
b) Isoniazid
c) Kanamycin
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Prothyonamide
Name the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to antibiotics:
a) Isoniazid
b) PAS
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampin
e) Pyrazinamide
Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:
a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis
e) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Mechanism of Rifampin action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II
d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
e) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability
e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis
Name unwanted effect of ethambutol:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Immunotoxicity
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c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
d) Hepatotoxicity
e) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
Name unwanted effect of streptomycin:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
d) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular blockage
e) Immunotoxicity
Name the antimalarial drug having a gametocidal effect:
a) Mefloquine
b) Primaquine
c) Doxycycline
d) Sulfonamides
e) Quinidine
Name the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment:
a) Chloroquine
b) Quinidine
c) Quinine
d) Sulfonamides
e) Metronidazole
Name the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Tetracyclins
c) Sulfonamides
d) Penicillins
e) Carbapenems
What antimalarial preparation has an anti inflammmatory action?
a) Chloroquine
b) Quinine
c) Primetamin
d) Primaquine
e) Emetine
Name the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment:
a) Metronidazole
b) Suramin
c) Pyrimethamine
d) Tetracycline
e) Quinidine
Name the drug used for balantidiasis treatment:
a) Azitromycin
b) Tetracycline
c) Quinine
d) Trimethoprim
e) Quinidine
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Name the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of
helminthes:
a) Levamisole
b) Mebendazole
c) Piperazine
d) Niclosamide
e) Suramin
Describe niclosamide mechanism of action:
a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, and death of
helminthes
b) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
c) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose
uptake
d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
e) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes
Describe praziquantel mechanism of action:
a) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
b) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose
uptake
c) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and
death of helminthes
d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
e) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium
Describe piperazine mechanism of action:
a) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose
uptake
b) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
c) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
d) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and
death of helminthes
e) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes
Describe mebendazole mechanism of action:
a) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
b) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and
death of helminthes
c) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose
uptake
d) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
e) Increasing cell membrane permeability for sodium
Name the drug, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes:
a) Niclosamide
b) Piperazine
c) Praziquantel
d) Metronidazole
e) Mebendazole
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Name the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment:
a) Niclosamide
b) Praziquantel
c) Pyrantel
d) Metronidazole
e) Bithionol
Name the drug for cestodosis (tapeworm invasion) treatment:
a) Piperazine
b) Praziquantel
c) Pyrantel
d) Ivermectin
e) Metronidazole
Name the drug for echinococcosis treatment:
a) Suramin
b) Mebendazole or Albendazole
c) Piperazine
d) Iodoquinol
e) Metronidazole
Adverse drug interactions may occur due to alteration of:
a) pharmacodynamics
b) distribution
c) excretion
d) absorption
e) all of them
Universal antagonist is:
a) unitiol
b) protamine sulfate
c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
Antagonist of heparin:
a) unitiol
b) protamine sulfate
c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
Antagonis of pilocarpine:
a) unitiol
b) protamine sulfate
c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
Antagonis of diazepam:
a) unitiol
b) protamine sulfate
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c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
Antagonis of opioids:
a) unitiol
b) protamine sulfate
c) naloxone
d) atropine
e) flumazenil
MUTLIPLE CHOICE
Specify the areas of study of pharmacokinetics?
a) absorption of medicinal substances
b) types of action of drugs
c) distribution of drug substances in the body
d) drug biotransformation
e) pharmacological effects of drug substances
What is an action of the body on a drug?
a) Absorption
b) Distribution
c) Mechanism of action
d) Excretion
e) Side effects
Specify the correct statements about the definition of pharmacology:
a) studying methods of preparing, standardization and quality assessment of medicines
b) studying methods of storage and distribution of drugs in the pharmaceutical market
c) study drug substances interaction with cells of living organisms
d) study the effectiveness and safety aspects of drug substances
e) studying methods of medical treatment of pathologies of living organisms
Specify the correct statements about the definition of the drugs:
a) any substance or mixture of substances used for prophylaxis
b) any substance or mixture of substances intended for diagnosis
c) any substance or mixture of substances used with curative purpose
d) any substance or mixture of substances intended for deratization
e) any substance or mixture of substances intended for use as an insecticide
Describe etymology of the word pharmacology?
a) tissue
b) drug
c) herb
d) poison
e) science
List solid drugs pharmaceutical formulation:
a) dragées
b) pomade
c) plaster
d) species
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e) film
List semisolid (soft) pharmaceutical formulation:
a) suppositories
b) pomade
c) plaster
d) species
e) film
List the liquid pharmaceutical formulation:
a) decoction
b) pomade
c) balsam
d) species
e) emulsion
What kinds of reactions occurring in stage II of drugs biotransformation:
a) hydrolysis
b) sulfo conjugation
c) oxidation
d) glucuroconjugation
e) acetylation
What kinds of reactions occurring in stage I of drugs biotransformation:
a) oxidation
b) glucuroconjugation
c) reduction
d) hydrolysis
e) sulfation
Name parts of a phase II substrate?
a) Glucuronic acid
b) Sulfuric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Amino acids
e) Cytochrome P450
Name parts of a phase I:
a) Oxidations
b) Reductions
c) Conjugations
d) Excretion
e) Hydrolyses
Drug biotransformation:
a) biotransformation products can be toxic
b) takes place just for orally administered drugs
c) mainly, but not exclusively in the liver
d) biotransformation is not influenced by the drugs
e) biotransformation products are never toxic
Major receptor role(s):
a) mediates agonist effects of drugs
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b) mediates antagonist effects of drugs
c) mediates volume of distribution
d) mediates clearance
e) important for drug action selectivity
List properties that can favor absorption by passive diffusion:
a) the macromolecular structure
b) high proportion of unionized form in case of electrolytes
c) peptidic structure in oral administration
d) high lipophilicity
e) low lipophilicity
Which statements are correct for the filtration as one of the ways of penetration of
membranes?
a) occurs only for small water-soluble molecules
b) energy needs
c) requires the presence of specialized carrier system
d) occurs only for electrolytes
e) involves a flow of water
Passive diffusion is dependent on:
a) small degree of ionization
b) pKa of the substance
c) pH of the medium
d) the presence of a specialized carrier system
e) the use of energy
Specialized transport systems:
a) passive diffusion
b) filtration
c) pinocytosis
d) active transport
e) facilitated diffusion
Choose right statements for active transport as one of the ways of penetration of
membranes:
a) energy needs
b) is done against the concentration gradient
c) requires a specialized carrier system
d) occurs only for small molecules and water soluble
e) occurs only soluble molecules
List routes of administration avoiding the liver:
a) peroral
b) duodenal
c) sublingual
d) rectal
e) by intragastric sonde
Concerning oral administration -- disadvantages:
a) least economical
b) drug taken orally may cause emesis
c) drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity
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d) drug taken orally may be metabolized by gastrointestinal flora
e) drug taken orally may be in consistently absorbed due to the presence of food
What drugs can cause rebound phenomenon at the suddenly stopping of a long
treatment?
a) clonidine
b) captopril
c) furosemide
d) prazosin
e) xpropranolol
Characteristic of Cytochrome P450:
a) is found in the endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes
b) is involved in phase II metabolism
c) is induced by phenytoin
d) is inhibited by cimetidine
e) induction of P450 reduces the effect of warfarin
Name parameters of pharmacokinetics:
a) bioavailability
b) half life
c) volume of distribution
d) the therapeutic window
e) clearance
Concerning oral administration advantages:
a) convenient - portable, no pain, easy to take.
b) drug taken orally may cause emesis
c) drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity
d) no need to sterilize drug
e) drug taken orally may be inconsistently absorbed due to the presence of food
Roots of administration that avoid "first-pass" hepatic effects:
a) sublingual
b) oral
c) transdermal
d) lower rectal suppositories
e) inhalation
Concerning renal drug excretion:
a) almost all drugs are filtered by the glomerulus
b) a lipid-soluble, filtered drug will likely be reabsorbed by passive diffusion
c) water soluble drugs are less excreted than lipid soluble drugs
d) weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urinary pH
e) weak acids are excreted slowly in alkaline urinary pH
What is required for drug bioequivalence?
a) Same active ingredients
b) Same strength or concentration
c) Same dosage form
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d) Same route of administration
e) Same side effects
Which is an advantage of prolonged release medications?
a) Less frequent administration
b) Therapeutic effect overnight
c) Sustained blood levels
d) Patient compliance
e) More fluctuation in plasma concentration
Concerning influence of age on drug responses: variation in response usually due to:
a) reduced cardiac output
b) reduced hepatic perfusion
c) decreased body fat
d) increased protein binding
e) decreased renal function
These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given
orally:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Penicillins
d) Macrolides
e) Aminoglycosydes antibiotics
Name contraindications to morphine:
a) bronchial asthma
b) acute abdomen
c) intense postoperative pain
d) respiratory depression
e) children under 2 years
Specify the adverse effects of metamizol:
a) leukopenia and agranulocytosis
b) gastric cancer
c) allergic reactions
d) methemoglobinemia
e) cardiotoxicity
Indicate how morphine affects the CNS:
a) inhibits the cough center
b) excites the vagus nerve center
c) stimulating the respiratory center
d) stimulates the thermoregulatory center
e) causes light sleep
What is the mechanism of constipation caused by morphine?
a) excitation of opioid receptors in the gut
b) direct excitation of neurons from vomiting center
c) chemoreceptors excitement of the "trigger zone" of vomiting center
d) increase sphincter tone
e) increasing the secretion
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What is the mechanism of action of morphine:
a) opioid receptor blockade
b) inhibits nociceptors
c) stimulate opioid receptors
d) stimulates the release of mediators
e) blocking the release of mediators
Effects of morphine on the digestive system:
a) increasing of the bile elimination
b) diarrhea
c) intestine segmentation
d) relaxation of the sphincters
e) contraction of the sphincters
The blood brain barrier is highly permeable to:
a) diclofenac
b) paracetamol
c) indometacine
d) morphine
e) acetylsalicylic acid
List CNS centers that are stimulated by morphine:
a) cough
b) respiratory
c) vagus nerve
d) thermoregulation
e) optic nerve
Choose neuroendocrine effects of morphine:
a) increase in cortisol levels
b) decrease in cortisol levels
c) decrease in gonadotropin-releasing factor
d) decrease in corticotropin releasing factor
e) increase in gonadotropin-releasing factor
Name characteristics of the opioid analgesics:
a) depression of the respiratory center
b) adequate absorption when given orally
c) miosis
d) depression of the cough center
e) bronchospasm
Choose physiological effects of morphine:
a) constipation
b) miosis
c) respiratory depression
d) mydriasis
e) chronic diahrrea
Choose physiological effect typically associated with opioids:
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a) mydriasis
b) miosis
c) bradycardia
d) tachycardia
e) constipation
Name mechanism of action of opioid analgesics:
a) Bind to opioid receptors on inhibitory fibers, stimulating them
b) Inhibit neurotransmitter release
c) Inhibit opioid receptors
d) Prevent pain impulse transmission to the brain
e) Do not work centrally
Contraindications/caution for opioid use are:
a) patients with lungs oedema
b) patients with bones fractures
c) patients with cerebral edema
d) abdominally unclear pain
e) children under 3 years
Name effects of morphine:
a) myosis
b) constipation
c) bradycardia
d) hypothermia
e) hyperthermia
Name antagonist of opioids?
a) naltrexone
b) naloxone
c) flumazenil
d) pentazocine
e) tramadol
Name mechanism concerning the nausea resulting from morphine administration:
a) results from stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone for emesis
b) results from stimulation of H1 histaminoreceptors from vestibular apparatus
c) is overcome by morphine antagonist
d) is due because of tachycardia and hypertention
e) results from stimulation of cough center
Name characteristic of opioid poisoning:
a) Coma
b) Myosis
c) Depressed respiration
d) Mydriases
e) Elevated body temperature
Name the main effects of non-opioid analgesics:
a) antimicrobial
b) antiagregant
c) antipyretic
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d) somnolence
e) analgesic
Choose the effects of paracetamol:
a) Anti-diuretic
b) Analgesic
c) Antipyretic
d) Antiaggregant
e) Anticoagulant
With regard to salicylate:
a) it is rapidly exreted by the kidney if the urine is rendered acidic
b) the same group as aspirin
c) it causes hypeglycemia
d) it potentiates the activity of warfarin
e) it has powerful antipyretic properties
Choose correct affirmations concerning antiaggregant effect of acetylsalicylic acid:
a) Low doses (81-325 mg/day) are sufficient for antiagregant effect
b) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase
c) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits Phospholipase A2
d) Acetylsalicylic acid has also analgesic, and anti-inflammatory effects
e) Acetylsalicylic acid stimulates lipocortin 1
Specify the correct pharmacological characteristics on phenobarbital:
a) cause somnolence upon awakening and marked residual sedation
b) cause seizures at higher doses
c) does not generate interactions with other drugs
d) is indicated in epilepsy
e) powerful enzyme inducer
Anticonvulsant drugs are:
a) selegiline
b) pimozide
c) carbamazepine
d) valproic acid
e) phenytoin
What drugs are anticholinergic antiparkinsonian drugs:
a) trihexyphenidyl
b) amantadine
c) levodopa
d) selegiline
e) benactyzine
Benzodiazepines indications:
a) epilepsy
b) parkinsonism
c) neurosis
d) depression
e) seizure by unknown genesis
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What is characteristic of zolpidem?
a) It is a benzodiazepine derivative.
b) Stimulates benzodiazepine receptors.
c) Enhances GABAergic processes in the CNS.
d) Less influence on sleep structure compared to barbiturates.
e) Much less addictive than benzodiazepines and barbiturates
Choose drugs with anxiolytic effects:
a) flumazenil
b) propranolol
c) amphepramon
d) alprazolam
e) diazepam
Choose zolpidem characteristics:
a) short duration of action
b) long duration of action
c) from barbiturates group
d) used for the treatment of obesity
e) used for the treatment of insomnia
Side effects of benzodiazepines are:
a) reducing symptoms of anxiety
b) psychologic dependencies
c) insomnia
d) Rebound effect
e) decrease mental concentration
What substances belonging to the group of benzodiazepines?
a) nitrazepam
b) barbital
c) diazepam
d) chlorpromazine
e) meprobamate
Name sedative preparations:
a) natrium bromide
b) valerian drugs
c) amphetamine
d) caffeine
e) barbital
What effects are caused by phenytoin?
a) antianginal
b) antihypertensive
c) antiarrhythmic
d) antiepileptic
e) antipsychotic
Which drugs can be used as antiepileptic?
a) paracetamol
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b) chlorpromazine
c) morphine
d) carbamazepine
e) phenytoin
Name the possible side effects in therapy with tranquilizers:
a) increased skeletal muscle tone
b) disturbance of coordination of movements
c) somnolence
d) drug addiction
e) extrapyramidal disorders
Tranquilizers indications:
a) psychotic disorders accompanied by hallucinations
b) neurotic states
c) psychotic disorders accompanied by delirium
d) insomnia
e) depression, somnolence
Mention effects characteristic for benzodiazepines tranquilizers group:
a) anxiolytic
b) hypnotic
c) anticonvulsant
d) antipsychotic
e) antagonizes the action of anesthetics, hypnotics and narcotic analgesics
Name benzodiazepines:
a) fenazepam
b) haloperidol
c) diazepam
d) chlorpromazine
e) droperidol
Name drugs without major influence on paradoxical sleep:
a) Zolpidem
b) Pentobarbital
c) Barbital
d) Pentobarbital
e) Zopiclon
Name the pharmacological properties of nitrazepam?
a) Inhibits GABA ergic processes in the CNS
b) Enhances GABA ergic processes in the CNS.
c) It possesses anxiolytic properties.
d) Causes sedative effect.
e) Enhances the central effects of alcohol.
Mechanism of action for benzodiazepines:
a) benzodiazepines interact with benzodiazepinic receptors on the GABA receptor
b) block sodium channels in neuronal membranes
c) the frequency of chloride ion channel opening is increased
d) inhibits Ca 2+ currents, especially in thalamic neurons
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e) enhancing K+ channel permeability
Choose correct statement about buspirone:
a) causes sedative effect
b) causes strong excitement effect
c) causes muscle-relaxing action
d) causes muscle contracted action
e) has a low tendency to induce drug dependence
Anxiolytics are mainly used in the treatment of:
a) Neuroses
b) Psychosis
c) Insomnia
d) Status epilepticus
e) Acute hypotension
Bromism is manifested by:
a) Apathy
b) Memory disorder
c) Acne bromica
d) Rhinitis
e) Extrapyramidal disorders
What are the advantages of benzodiazepine hypnotics compared with barbiturates?
a) Possesse greater therapeutic range.
b) Don’t cause tolerance and Rebound
c) Less influence on sleep structure.
d) Don’t have essential influence on hepatic microsomal enzymes
e) Don’’t potentiate other substances influencing the CNS.
Flumazenil is used as an antidote in:
a) Zopiclone overdose
b) Zolpidem overdose
c) Pentobarbital overdose
d) Chloral hydrate overdose
e) Nitrazepam overdose
Name the pharmacological properties of flumazenil:
a) Benzodiazepine receptor agonist.
b) Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.
c) Used as an antagonist of benzodiazepine receptor stimulated by hypnotics.
d) Opioid receptor agonist.
e) Antagonist of the opioid receptor.
List symptoms of barbiturates poisoning:
a) Inhibition of the CNS
b) Inhibition of reflex activity
c) Hypertensive crisis
d) Tahypnoe
e) Extreme sleepiness or even coma
Determine the main signs of acute intoxication with barbiturates:
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a) excitation.
b) comatose state.
c) inhibition of respiration.
d) decrease of reflex excitability.
e) decrease in blood pressure.
Name the phenomena that may occur in prolonged use of barbiturates:
a) Tolerance
b) Dependence
c) Extrapyramidal disorders
d) The induction of liver enzymes
e) Inhibition of hepatic enzymes
The main task of the treatment of acute barbiturate poisoning:
a) To establish adequate breathing
b) Analeptics in mild forms of poisoning
c) Benzodiazepins as antagonist
d) Flumazenil injection
e) Hemodialysis in renal failure
Name psychostimulants:
a) Phenylethylamine
b) Paraaminophenol's derivates
c) Piperidines
d) Sydnonimines
e) Methylxanthines
Neuroleptics indications:
a) psychosis
b) parkinsonism
c) neuroleptanalgesia
d) central origin vomiting
e) epilepsy
Name characteristic effects of antipsychotics:
a) antipsychotic
b) xanti-vomiting
c) sedative
d) motor hyperactivity
e) antagonizes the action of anesthetics, hypnotics and narcotic analgesics
Indicate the adverse effects of neuroleptics:
a) extrapyramidal disorder
b) euphoria
c) potentiating the action of alcoholic drinks
d) sexual disorders
e) dependence
Name neuroleptic preparations:
a) chlorpromazine
b) phenelzine
c) haloperidol
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d) trifluoperazine
e) imipramine
Choose phenothiazine derivatives:
a) Chlorprothixene
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Haloperidol
d) Trifluoperazine
e) Sulpiride
Choose "atypical" antipsychotic drugs:
a) Sulpiride
b) Clozapine
c) Chlorprothixene
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Haloperidol
List side effects of chlorpromazine:
a) Extrapiramidal disorders
b) Decreased blood pressure with dizziness
c) The patient salivates excessively
d) May deposit in ocular tissues with visual disturbances
e) Hypertension
How to manage extrapyramidal toxicity of neuroleptics?
a) By decreasing the dose
b) By increasing the dose
c) By concomitant use of cholinoblockers
d) By concomitant use of cholinomimetics
e) By concomitant use of adrenomimetics
List adverse neurologic effects of lithium:
a) Tremor
b) Sedation
c) Weight gain
d) Excitability
e) Psychosis
Choose antimanic drugs:
a) Lithium carbonate
b) Carbamazepine
c) Sodium valproate
d) Phenazepam
e) Diazepam
Which one of the following statements concerning the treatment of bipolar affective
disorders is accurate?
a) Excessive intake of sodium chloride enhances the toxicity of lithium
b) Lithium does not cross the placental barrier
c) Lithium will alleviate the manic symptoms within 24 hours
d) Above 1,5 mmol/l lithium produces a variety of toxic effects
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e) Drug therapy with neuroleptics may be required at the initiation of lithium therapy
Sedation is more likely with:
a) Sulpiride
b) Risperidone
c) Chlorprothixene
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Clozapine
Choose advantages of clozapine compared with haloperidol:
a) It causes less extrapyramidal disorders
b) It does not affect prolactin production
c) It affects prolactin production
d) It does not cause agranulocytosis
e) It does not cause seizures
List indication of phenothiazine derivatives:
a) Schizoaffective disorder
b) Vomiting
c) Psychosis
d) Extrapyramidal disorders
e) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome
Haloperidol is used in:
a) Schizoaffective disorder
b) Vomiting
c) Psychosis
d) Extrapyramidal disorders
e) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome
Indicate the adverse effects of chlorpromazine:
a) sexual disorders
b) hyperthermia
c) extrapyramidal disorder
d) hypotension
e) psychostimulant
Site(s) of chlorpromazine receptor blockade:
a) serotonin - 5-HT2 receptor
b) beta adrenergic receptor
c) H1 histaminic receptor
d) muscarinic cholinergic receptor
e) alpha adrenergic receptor
Antipsychotic endocrine effect(s) are:
a) amenorrhea-galactorrhea
b) decreased libido in men
c) hypoprolactinemia
d) increased testosteron
e) hyperprolactinemia
Indicate pharmacodynamic effects of tranquilizing drugs:
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a) anxiolytic
b) myorelaxant
c) anticonvulsant
d) psychostimulants
e) antipsychotic
Name benzodiazepines indications:
a) neurotic syndrome
b) psychotic episode
c) striated muscle contracture states
d) status epilepticus
e) induction of general anesthesia
Name levomepromazine indications:
a) acute psychosis with psychomotor agitation
b) schizophrenia
c) manic phases of bipolar disorder
d) acute depression
e) hypotension
Name cortical psychostimulant drugs :
a) caffeine
b) amphetamine
c) amfepramone
d) trifluoperazine
e) lobeline
Name the bulb stimulants:
a) camphor
b) bemegrid
c) niketamide
d) droperidol
e) mezocarb
Named antidepressants:
a) imipramine
b) amitriptyline
c) phenelzine
d) haloperidol
e) chlorprothixene
Choose antidepresants -nerve terminal reuptake inhibitor:
a) fluoxetine
b) desipramine
c) timolol
d) reserpine
e) methoxamine
How to start antidepressants?
a) Start with low doses
b) Start with the big doses to achieve the best effect
c) Increase dosage rapidly as tolerated
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d) Maintain typical dose for at least 7 months
e) Maintain typical dose for at least 4 to 8 weeks
Choose antidepressant with psychostimulant effect:
a) Amitriptyline
b) Pipofezine
c) Nialamide
d) Fluoxetine
e) Moclobemide
Choose correct statement about imipramine:
a) The therapeutic effect sets in after 2-3 weeks
b) The therapeutic effect sets in after 2-3 years
c) Is contraindicated in glaucoma
d) It is not indicated to be combined with non-selective MAO inhibitors
e) is used in the treatment of Schizoaffective disorder
Choose correct statement about fluoxetine:
a) is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class
b) blocks intensively M-cholinoreceptors
c) is frequently used to treat major depressive disorder
d) is a phenothiazine with actions similar to chlorpromazine
e) The therapeutic antidepressant effect develops rapidly in 2-3 days
Indicate the pharmacological effects of nootropics:
a) antipsychotic
b) antidepressant
c) enhance metabolic processes
d) acts on the specific receptors
e) improves associative CNS functions
The following are true about the drugs used in general anaesthetic:
a) ether is a volatile liquid
b) ciclopropan is a gas
c) ketamine is used intravenously
d) propofol is from opioid derivatives
e) enflurane is used intravenously
Name intravenous anesthetics:
a) Propanidid
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Thiopental
d) Ketamine
e) Halothane
List requirements for general anesthetics:
a) Must start quickly
b) Must be without excitatory stage
c) To have good control over the depth of anesthesia
d) Recovery should be long
e) Must start slowly
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What is characteristic for neuroleptanalgezia?
a) development of a general analgesic effect
b) combination of fentanyl and droperidol as talamonal
c) psychic indifference
d) loss of consciousness in therapeutic dose
e) without total loss of consciousness.
What is Neuroleptanalgesia?
a) It is characterized by general quiescence, psychic indifference and intense analgesia without
total loss of consciousness
b) a state of unconsciousness, analgesia and amnesia, with skeletal muscle relaxation and loss
of reflexes
c) Combination of Fentanyl and Droperidol as Talamonal
d) Is the condition that results when sensory transmission from local area of the body to the
CNS is blocked
e) Used for endoscopies, angiography and minor operations
For neuroleptanalgesia are used:
a) fentanyl
b) morphine
c) ketamine
d) droperidol
e) propofol
Choose rationale for adding epinephrine to local anesthetic solutions:
a) cardiovascular stimulation
b) increased systemic absorption
c) higher anesthetic concentration near nerve fibers
d) prolongation of conduction blockade
e) reduced systemic absorption
Ethanol properties:
a) causes protein coagulation in high concentration
b) of 70% concentration can be used as an antiseptic
c) can be used to disinfect the skin before injections are given,
d) used as anti-foaming in pulmonary edema
e) used to treat gastrointestinal erosions
Name disulfiram mechanism of action:
a) Inhibits ethyl alcohol absorption in stomach
b) Inhibits ethyl alcohol absorption in small intestine
c) Inhibits ethyl alcohol elimination through kidney
d) Delay alcohol oxidation
e) Leads to acetaldehyde accumulation
Describe characteristics of ethanol:
a) after ingestion, ethanol is rapidly and completely absorbed
b) it is distributed to the most body tissues
c) it is not distributed into the body
d) mechanism of action: is not fully understood
e) bind with ethanol receptors
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Name drugs used in treatment for alchololism:
a) disulfiram
b) protamine sulphate
c) naltrexone
d) fluoxetine
e) flumazenil
Which drugs are used to build up negative reaction to ethyl alcohol:
a) Disulfiram
b) Apomorphine
c) Morphine
d) Diazepam
e) Clonidine
Antiepileptic drugs decrease pathologically enhanced excitability of brain neurons by:
a) Inhibition of GABAergic processes
b) Intensifying GABAergic processes.
c) Inhibition of neuronal sodium channels.
d) Inhibition of neuronal calcium channels.
e) The antagonism with M cholinoreceptors effects .
What is characteristic of sodium valproate?
a) Inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain
b) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain.
c) It is used to prevent various manifestations of epilepsy (grand mal, petit mal, focal epilepsy
(partial seizures)).
d) It is used only to prevent petit mal.
e) It is used only to prevent grand mal.
What is characteristic of carbamazepine:
a) Inhibits membrane sodium channels in neurons.
b) It is effective only for petit mal prevention.
c) It is effective in all types of epilepsy.
d) It inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain.
e) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain.
What is characteristics of phenobarbital?
a) Inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain.
b) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain
c) Sedative effect.
d) It is used to prevent grand mal.
e) It is used to prevent petit mal.
What is characteristic of diazepam?
a) Is a benzodiazepine derivative.
b) Is a benzodiazepine receptor agonist.
c) EnhanceGABAergic processes in the CNS.
d) It inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain.
e) In the status epilepticus is administered intravenously.
Name the remedies used to prevent major crises:
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a) Phenytoin.
b) Ethosuximide.
c) Carbamazepine
d) Phenobarbital.
e) Sodium valproate.
Name the remedies used for minor crisis prevention:
a) Phenytoin.
b) Ethosuximide.
c) Carbamazepine.
d) Phenobarbital.
e) Sodium valproate.
Name the remedies used to prevent partial seizures:
a) Ethosuximide.
b) Carbamazepine.
c) Lamotrigine.
d) Phenytoin.
e) Sodium valproate.
Name the remedies used to prevent myoclonic seizures:
a) Phenytoin.
b) Ethosuximide.
c) Phenobarbital.
d) Sodium valproate.
e) Clonazepam.
Name the remedies used for status epilepticus:
a) Ethosuximide.
b) Carbamazepine.
c) Diazepam.
d) Thiopental Sodiu.
e) Nitrous Oxide.
As antiparkinson remedies are used:
a) The dopamine receptor blockers
b) Dopaminomimetics
c) Non-selective MAO inhibitors.
d) MAO-B inhibitors.
e) Cholinoblockers
Name the adverse effects of levodopa:
a) Nausea.
b) Vomiting.
c) Excitation.
d) Drowsiness.
e) Hallucinations.
Name the adverse effects of levodopa:
a) Arrhythmias.
b) Orthostatic hypotension.
c) Dyskinesia.
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d) Dependence.
e) Skeletal muscles hypertonus
Name the measures that can be used to decrease cardiovascular and digestive side effects
of levodopa:
a) The inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
b) Inhibition of peripheral dopa-decarboxylase.
c) DOPA decarboxylase inhibition in the CNS.
d) To block peripheral dopamine receptors.
e) The administration of haloperidol.
Name the preparations that stimulate dopamine receptors in the CNS:
a) Selegiline.
b) Amantadine.
c) Trihexyphenidyl.
d) Bromocriptine.
e) Apomorphine.
What is characteristic of selegiline?
a) Inhibits MAO-A and MAO-B.
b) It selectively inhibits MAO-B.
c) More effective than levodopa.
d) It is used usually in combination with levodopa.
e) Typically administered in monotherapy.
What adverse effects of trihexyphenidyl are determined by the influence of peripheral
cholinoreceptors?
a) Dry mouth.
b) Increased intraocular pressure.
c) Tachycardia.
d) Motor excitation
e) Bradycardia.
Choose correct statement about trihexyphenidyl:
a) Should be administered with caution in glaucoma
b) Most effectively decreases tremor
c) Most effectively decreases rigidity
d) Most effectively decreases hypokinesia
e) Causes bradycardia
Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics:
a) NO-mediated vasodilatation
b) constipation
c) increased intraocular pressure
d) spasm of accommodation
e) tachycardia
Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics:
a) urinary retention
b) lowering intraocular pressure
c) miosis
d) increasing myocardial oxygen consumption
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e) increase in blood pressure
Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics:
a) diarrhea
b) hypersalivation
c) mydriasis
d) diaphoresis
e) bradycardia
The effects of direct-acting cholinergic agonists include:
a) mydriasis
b) myosis
c) spasm of accomodation
d) decrease intraoculary pressure
e) increased lacrimation
Name indications of M-cholinomimetics:
a) glaucoma
b) bronchial asthma
c) atony of the urinary bladder
d) cardiac arrest
e) intestinal atony
Name indications of M-cholinomimetics:
a) xerostomia
b) bronchoobstructive syndrome
c) intestinal colics
d) gastric ulcer
e) atony of the urinary bladder
Name M-cholinomimetics:
a) aceclidine
b) galanthamine
c) pilocarpine
d) atropine
e) suxamethonium
Name anticholinesterases remedies:
a) carbacholine
b) neostigmine
c) pilocarpine
d) physostigmine
e) acetylcholine
The following are true about physostigmine:
a) it is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor
b) it is a nonreversible cholinesterase inhibitor
c) it acts only on the muscarinic receptors
d) it acts only on the nicotinic receptors
e) it causes miosis
Pharmacologic characteristic of physostigmine:
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a) causes accommodative spasm
b) causes conjunctival vasoconstriction
c) increases the intraocular pressure
d) causes smooth muscle contraction
e) can be used in hypotonia of gastrointestinal system
Describe effects of pilocarpine:
a) is an alkaloid derived from plant
b) is a direct acting muscarinic agonist
c) causes contraction of the longitudinal muscles of the ciliary body
d) causes myriasis
e) causes miosis
Mydriasis occurs with:
a) atropine
b) scopolamine
c) carbachol
d) neostigmine
e) acetylcholine
Muscarinic agonists are:
a) pilocarpine
b) atropine
c) aceclidine
d) scopolamine
e) platyphylline
The effects of muscarinic agonists include:
a) reduced intraocular pressure
b) increased intraocular pressure
c) spasm of accomodation
d) increased lacrimation
e) contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscle
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors include:
a) physostigmine
b) atropine
c) edrophonium
d) pyridostigmine
e) scopolamine
The systemic side effects of pilocarpine include:
a) constipation
b) excessive sweating
c) spasm of accommodation
d) bronchial spasm
e) dry mouth
The side effects of pilocarpine include:
a) dry eye
b) increased sweating
c) bronchiolar spasm
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d) increased salivation
e) constipation
The following are true about pilocarpine:
a) used in bronchal asthma
b) used for glaucoma
c) causes mydriasis
d) causes miosis
e) stimulates the secretion of large amounts of saliva and sweat
Choose anticolynestarase drugs:
a) Clonidine
b) Guanethidine
c) Neostigmine
d) Atropine
e) Physostigmine
The following are cholinomimetics with irreversible action:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Tabex
c) Armine
d) Soman
e) Pirophos
Choose drugs that can produce miosis:
a) ipratropium bromide
b) tropicamide
c) armine
d) atropine
e) pilocarpine
What are the pharmacological characteristics related to neostigmine?
a) is an anticholinesterase drug
b) works by directly stimulating the cholinergic receptors
c) is indicated in postoperative hypotonia or atony of gastrointestinal and bladder
d) is contraindicated in bronchial asthma, Parkinson's disease, heart failure
e) has a good bioavailability after oral administration
Indicate anticholinesterases properties:
a) stimulates the synthesis of acetylcholine
b) directly stimulates cholinergic receptors
c) increases the tone of smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract
d) inhibits the hydrolysis of acetylcholine
e) inhibits the synthesis of acetylcholine
Name effects of anti-cholinesterase preparations:
a) miosis and lowering intraocular pressure
b) increased smooth muscle tone of internal organs
c) intensified secretion of bronchial and digestive glands
d) tachycardia, and increased blood pressure
e) mydriasis
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Characteristics of neostigmine:
a) inhibits the action of cholinesterase
b) inhibits M cholinoreceptors
c) causes miosis
d) is used in the X-ray diagnosis of intestine disease
e) causes bradycardia
Cholinomimetics used in glaucoma:
a) pilocarpine
b) atropine
c) scopolamine
d) aceclidine
e) scopolamine
The following eye drops causes cycloplegia:
a) tropicamide
b) phenylephrine
c) atropine
d) pilocarpine
e) aceclidine
Side effects of depolarizing muscle relaxants:
a) muscle pain
b) miosis
c) potassium release
d) diarrhea
e) muscle fasciculations
Indicate muscle relaxants
a) suxamethonium
b) isoprenaline
c) ephedrine
d) norepinephrine
e) tubocurarine
What are the effects M cholinoblockers on the digestive tract?
a) smooth muscle relaxation
b) smooth muscle spasm
c) the relaxation of the sphincter
d) sphincter spasm
e) gland hypersecretion
Named drugs used in organophosphate derivatives poisoning:
a) neostigmine
b) atropine
c) physostigmine
d) obidoxim
e) pilocarpine
Treatment of intoxication with organophosphates:
a) II phase 2-4ml Atropine i/m, or i/v after 1-2 ml every 10 min.
b) I phase -attack doze 1-2 ml Atropine s/c or i/m after, 0,5 ml s/c or i/m every 30 min.
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c) II phase 4-8 ml Atropine i/v or i/m after 2-3ml every 3-8 min.
d) I phase 2-4ml Atropine i/m, or i/v after 1-2 ml every 10 min.
e) III phase 4-8 ml Atropine i/v or i/m after 2-3ml every 3-8 min.
In organophosphate poisoning, this agent(s) may be capable of re-activating inhibited
acetylcholinesterase:
a) isonitrosyne
b) mecamylamine
c) pilocarpine
d) trimedoxim
e) atropine
Name M cholinoblockers indications:
a) bronchial asthma
b) gastrointestinal spasms and colics
c) tachycardia
d) hypertention
e) sinus bradycardia
Name M cholinoblockers effects in the eye:
a) mydriasis
b) increase intraocular pressure
c) cycloplegia
d) miosis
e) decrease intraocular pressure
Indicate adverse effects of atropine:
a) dry mouth and dysphagia
b) bronchospasm with dyspnea
c) atonic constipation
d) urinary retention
e) miosis
The pairing of the following drugs and their side-effects are correct:
a) atropine - dry mouth
b) scopolamine - pernicious anaemia
c) neostygmine - bone marrow suppression
d) cititon -hepatic fibrosis
e) aceclidine – miosis
Characteristis of atropine:
a) inhibits the sweat glands
b) mydriasis
c) causes hyperpyrexia in overdose
d) bronchospasm
e) is more sedative than scopolamine
Characteristic of atropine:
a) blocks nicotinic acethylcholine receptors
b) dries bronchial and salivary secretion
c) diminishes the risk of vagal cardiac arrest
d) is used to avoid unwanted side effects of neostigmine
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e) causes loss of accommodation
With regard to the effect of atropine:
a) mydriasis is the result of paralysis of the constrictor muscle of the pupil
b) causes cycloplegia
c) miosis
d) bronchospasm
e) diarrhea
Indicate adverse effects of M cholinomimetics:
a) dyspnoea and bronchial asthma attacks in asthmatics
b) constipation
c) urinary retention
d) bradycardia
e) colics
Name effects of cholinomimetics:
a) bradycardia
b) bronchospasm
c) xerosthomia
d) lacrimation
e) miosis
The effects of muscarinic agonists include:
a) spasm of accommodation
b) bradycardia
c) mydriasis
d) tachycardia
e) miosis
Name primary effects of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
a) Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation)
b) Iris contraction (miosis)
c) Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision)
d) Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
e) Hyposalivation
Name effects of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
a) Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
b) Increased GI tract tone and secretions
c) Vasoconstrcition
d) Penile erection
e) Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter
Indicate anticholinesterases:
a) neostigmine
b) edrophonium
c) physostigmine
d) pilocarpine
e) carbachol
Indicate the pharmacological effects of atropine in the digestive system:
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a) increase tone and peristalsis
b) salivary hyposecretion
c) antispasmodic effect
d) reduction of gastric secretion
e) diarrhea
Note nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs:
a) tubocurarine
b) atropine
c) pilocarpine
d) pancuronium
e) suxamethonium
Name drugs that cause non-depolarising blockade of the neuromuscular junction during
anaesthesia:
a) scopolamine
b) physostigmine
c) pancuronium
d) tubocurarine
e) suxamethonium
Cholinomimetics have following effects:
a) bronchospasm
b) tachycardia
c) bradycardia
d) midriasis
e) bronchodilation
Characteristics of pilocarpine are:
a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid
b) It causes miosis
c) Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity of gut
d) It is useful in the treatment of glaucoma
e) Causes increased intraocular pressure
Which of the following cholinomimetics are indirect-acting?
a) Lobeline
b) Neostigmine
c) Pilocarpine
d) Galantamine
e) Atropine
Indicate the location of N-cholinoreceptors:
a) Parasimpathetic autonomic ganglia
b) Simpathetic autonomic ganglia
c) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions
d) Autonomic effector cells
e) Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone
Indicate the location of M3 cholinoreceptor type:
a) Heart
b) Glands
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c) Smooth muscle
d) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions
e) Eye smooth muscle
Cholinoblocking drugs cause:
a) Bronchodilation
b) Mydriasis
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia
e) Xerostomia
The following are true about physostigmine:
a) it is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor
b) it causes bronchodilation
c) it causes intestinal spasm
d) it exites N cholinoreceeptors
e) it causes miosis
Characteristics of physostigmine:
a) causes accommodative spasm
b) causes conjunctival vasoconstriction
c) increases the intraocular pressure
d) causes smooth muscle contraction
e) can be used in hypotonia of gastrointestinal system
Characteristics of pilocarpine:
a) is an alkaloid derived from plant
b) is a direct acting muscarinic agonist
c) causes contraction of the cilliary muscles
d) causes mydriasis
e) has a greater effect on patients with blue iris than brown iris.
Name the results of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent
or organophosphate poisoning:
a) Diarrhea
b) Miosis
c) Mydriasis
d) Bronchodilation
e) Hypersalivation
The effects of direct-acting cholinergic agonists include:
a) mydriasis
b) miosis
c) spasm of accomodation
d) decrease intraocular pressure
e) xerostomia
Contraindications to the use of muscarinic agonists:
a) diarrhea
b) bronchial asthma
c) treatment of diminished salvation, secondary to radiation
d) peptic ulcer
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e) myasthenia gravis
Cardiovascular effects of cholinomimetics:
a) negative chronotropic
b) vasoconstriction
c) decreased AV nodal conduction velocity
d) negative inotropism
e) positive inotropism
Anticholinesterases used moslty to treat myasthenia gravis:
a) neostigmine
b) pyridostigmine
c) acetylcholine
d) pylocarine
e) armine
The effects of muscarinic agonists include:
a) reduced intraocular pressure
b) reduced aqueous production
c) accommodative myopia
d) increased lacrimation
e) contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscle
Associated with parasympathetic activation (direct effects):
a) increased GI motility
b) urinary retention
c) decrease cardiac contractility
d) decreased GI motility
e) increase heart rate
Localization of muscarinic cholinergic receptors:
a) sweating glands
b) heart
c) postsynaptic membrane of the vegetative ganglia
d) neuro-musular junction
e) eyes
Indirect-acting cholinomimetic:
a) neostigmine
b) acetylcholine
c) carbachol
d) edrophonium
e) atropine
Mechanism(s) of vasodilation mediated by the cholinergic system:
a) acetylcholine stimulates M3 cholinoreceptors on endothelial cells
b) acetylcholine stimulates beta-2-adrenoreceptors
c) acetylcholine inhibits alpha-1-adrenoreceptors
d) acetylcholine inhibit alpha-2- adrenoreceptors
e) cholinergic activation promotes nitric oxide release from endothelial cells
Associated with excessive vagal tone:
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a) total heart block
b) mydriasis
c) bradyarrhythmias
d) tachyarrhythmias
e) smouth muscle contraction
Effect(s) of muscarinic agonists on the gastrointestinal and urinary tracts:
a) increased glands secretion
b) decrease ureteral peristalsis
c) increased contraction amplitude
d) relax sphincters
e) decreased intestinal peristalsis
Clinical uses of neostigmine:
a) treatment of reduced salivation secondary to radiation therapy
b) stimulation of postoperative urinary bladder
c) in people with myasthenia gravis
d) treatment of gastric ulcer
e) intoxication with atropine
Opthalmological uses of cholinomimetics:
a) for the visualization of the retina
b) treatment of glaucoma
c) used along with mydriatic agent in breaking iris-lens adhesions
d) acetylcholine may be used as a miotic
e) acetylcholine may be used as a midriatic
Choose major contraindications for muscarinic agonists:
a) atony af the intestine
b) peptic ulcer
c) intestinal spasm
d) glaucoma
e) bronchial asthma
Anticholinesterases: used in treating glaucoma:
a) tropicamid
b) phyzostigmine
c) aceclidine
d) atropine
e) armine
General clinical uses of anticholinesterases:
a) treatment of paralytic ileus and urinary bladder atony
b) glaucoma treatment
c) myasthenia gravis management
d) antagonist-assisted reversal of neuromuscular blockade produced by depolarizing
neuromuscular-blocking drugs
e) antagonist-assisted reversal of neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing
neuromuscular-blocking drugs
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors include:
a) physostigmine
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b) atropine
c) edrophonium
d) pyridostigmine
e) scopolamine
Cholinomimetics used in glaucoma:
a) pilocarpine
b) atropine
c) scopolamine
d) aceclidine
e) tropicamide
The following muscarinic agonists work directly on both M, and N cholinoreceptors :
a) pilocarpine
b) carbachol
c) acetylcholine
d) atropine
e) aceclidine
The side effects of pilocarpine include:
a) dry eye
b) increased sweating
c) bronchospasm
d) increased salivation
e) constipation
The following are true about pilocarpine:
a) it increases the concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft
b) it decreases intraocular presure
c) it causes diarrhea
d) it increases intraocular presure
e) it causes constipation
Atropine causes:
a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular pressure and cyclospasm
b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia
c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia
d) Xerostomia, constipation
e) Tachycardia
Contraindications to the use of antimuscarinic drugs are all of the following:
a) Glaucoma
b) Gastric ulcer
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Paralytic ileus
e) Atony of the urinary bladder
Antimuscarinics are used in the treatment of:
a) Motion sickness
b) Glaucoma
c) Urinary retention
d) Bronchial asthma
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e) Gastric hypersecretion
The atropine poisoning includes all of the following symptoms:
a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia
b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin
c) Agitation and delirium
d) Bradicardia, orthostatic hypotension
e) Miosis
Choose the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Neostigmine
c) Homatropine
d) Ipratropium
e) Tropicamide
Which of the following agents is used by inhalation in asthma?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Lobeline
d) Homatropine
e) Oxitropium
Choose a M-cholinoreceptor-blocking drugs:
a) Scopolamine
b) Pipecuronium
c) Trimethaphan
d) Pilocarpine
e) Atropine
Mydriasis occurs with:
a) atropine
b) tropicamide
c) carbachol
d) neostigmine
e) pilocarpine
Characteristic of atropine:
a) blocks nicotinic acethylcholine receptors
b) inhibits bronchial and salivary secretion
c) causes bronchospasm
d) is used to avoid unwanted side effects of neostigmine
e) causes loss of accommodation
With regard to the effects of atropine:
a) mydriasis is the result of paralysis of the constrictor muscle of the pupil
b) miosis is the result of constriction of the constrictor muscle of the pupil
c) increases lacrimation
d) it causes cycloplegia
e) it causes spasm of accommodation
Name adverse effects (side-effects) commonly seen with cholinergic antagonists?
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a) Blurred vision
b) Confusion
c) Miosis
d) Diarrhea
e) Urinary retention
The following eye drops causes cycloplegia:
a) tropicamide
b) atropine
c) epinephrine
d) pilocarpine
e) aceclidine
Atropine causes:
a) Bradycardia, hypotension and bronchoconstriction
b) Tachycardia, no effect on blood pressure and bronchodilation
c) Decrease in contractile strength, conduction velocity through the AV node
d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and bronchodilation
e) Tachycardia and increasing of conduction velocity through the AV node
Atropine effects:
a) dry mouth
b) pupillary dilation
c) miosis
d) increased heart rate
e) decresed heart rate
Atropine block:
a) M1 receptor subtype
b) M2 receptor subtype
c) M3 receptor subtype
d) N receptor subtype
e) All of the above
Atropine is used for premedication to reduce or prevent:
a) Bradycardia
b) Hypersecretions
c) AV block
d) Hiposecretion
e) Tachycardia
Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is a selective M1 blocker?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Homatropine
e) Telenzepine
Atropine causes:
a) Spasmolitic activity
b) Intestinal hypermotility
c) Stimulation of contraction in the gut
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d) Stimulation of secretory activity
e) Tachycardia
Name effects of atropine:
a) dry moth
b) mydriasis
c) hypersalivation
d) tachycardia
e) bradycardia
Name characteristics about scopolamine?
a) It causes psychostimulant effect
b) The same group as atropine is
c) Doesn’t across blood-brain barrier
d) It may prevent motion sickness and vertigo
e) Used in brochal asthma by inhalation
Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?
a) Suxamethonium
b) Hexamethonium
c) Pancuronium
d) Trepirium iodide
e) Azamethonium
Which of the following agents is a neuro-muscular blocking drug?
a) Suxamethonium
b) Hexamethonium
c) Pancuronium
d) Trepirium iodide
e) Azamethonium
Adverse effect(s) associated with autonomic ganglionic blockade:
a) Bladder dysfunction
b) Xerostromia
c) Blurred vision
d) Paralytic ileus
e) Diarrhea
Name the main effects of ganglion-blocking drugs:
a) vasodilatation and hypotension
b) hyposecretion
c) increase of intraoculary pression
d) bronchospasm
e) bradycardia
Name effects of autonomic ganglion blocking:
a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia
b) Mydriasis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hypertension
e) Cycloplegia
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Name the nicotinic receptor-blockers:
a) Azamethonium
b) Atropine
c) Tubocurarine
d) Neostigmine
e) Scopolamine
Ganglion-blocking drug is used for:
a) Pulmonary edema
b) Hypertensive crisis
c) Controlled hypotension during surgery
d) Acute hypotension
e) Xerostomia
Choose ganglionic blockers:
a) trimetaphan
b) nicardipine
c) azamethonium
d) hydralazine
e) prazosin
Adverse effect(s) associated with autonomic ganglionic blockade:
a) paralytic ileus
b) blurred vision
c) xerostomia
d) bradycardia
e) bladder dysfunction
Ganglionic blockers:
a) Prazosin
b) Hydralazine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Nicardipine
e) Azamethonium
List therapeutic use of cytisine:
a) To stimulate respiration
b) To decrease blood pressure
c) To aid „quitting" smoking
d) In pulmonary edema
e) For xerostomia
The following cause non-depolarising blockade of the neuromuscular junction during
anaesthesia:
a) succinylcholine
b) physostigmine
c) pancuronium
d) tubocurarine
e) atropine
Side effects of depolarizing muscle relaxants:
a) miosis
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b) potassium release
c) muscle pain
d) muscle fibrilation
e) diarrhea
The systemic effects of hexamethonium include all of the following:
a) Reduction of both peripheral vascular resistance and venous return
b) Partial mydriasis and loss of accommodation
c) Constipation
d) Stimulation of sweating
e) urinary retention
Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur from interruption of functions at
several sites, including all of the following:
a) Nicotinic receptors
b) Muscarinic receptors
c) The motor end plate
d) Nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia
e) Muscarinic receptors in smooth muscle
Indicate the long-acting neuromuscular blocking agent:
a) Pipecuronium
b) Atracurium
c) Tubocurarine
d) Pancuronium
e) Suxamethonium
Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs is an intermediate-duration muscle
relaxant?
a) Vecuronium
b) Tubocurarine
c) Pancuronium
d) Suxamethonium
e) Atracurium
Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include all of the following:
a) Hyperpotassemia
b) Decrease in intraocular pressure
c) Bronchospasm
d) Muscle pain
e) Cardiac arithmias
Describe endogenous adrenoreceptor agonists:
a) are catecholamines and are rapidly metabolized by COMT and MAO.
b) are ofen used enteral
c) are inactive when given by the oral route
d) work ultra long into the body
e) have a short duration of action
Which of the adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?
a) α1
b) α2
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c) β1
d) β2
e) β3
Location for beta1-postsynaptic receptors:
a) Heart
b) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
c) Pancreas
d) CNS
e) Vessels
Name location of beta2 adrenoreceptors:
a) vessels
b) ciliary muscle
c) liver
d) bronchi
e) juxtaglomerular cells
Location for beta3 receptors:
a) adipose tissue
b) CNS
c) vessels
d) skeletal muscle
e) salivary glands
Clinical use(s) of alpha-1-receptor agonists:
a) nasal decongestant
b) management hypotensive states
c) hypertensive states
d) angina pectoris
e) bronchial asthma
Activates alpha receptors:
a) metharaminol
b) terbutaline
c) phenylephrine
d) propranolol
e) isoproterenol
Phenylephrine causes:
a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa
b) Increased gastric secretion and motility
c) Increased skin temperature
d) Mydriasis
e) Increased blood pressure
Which substance can be used in acute rhinitis?
a) clonidine
b) naphasoline
c) salbutamol
d) izoprenaline
e) xylometazoline
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Catecholamine includes following:
a) Ephedrine
b) xEpinephrine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Fenilephrine
Epinephrine increases level of:
a) blood lactic acid
b) blood insulin
c) skeletal muscle glycogen
d) blood glucose
e) blood free fatty acids
Direct cardiac responses to epinephrine:
a) increase contractility
b) increased rate of isometric muscle tension development
c) increased heart rate
d) decreased automaticity
e) decreased heart rate
Epinephrine: therapeutic uses:
a) rapid relief of respiratory distress due to bronchospasm
b) topical hemostasis
c) supraventricular tachycardia
d) reversal of hypersensitivity reactions
e) to decrease blod pressure
Principal receptors activated by norepinephrine:
a) alpha-adrenergic
b) beta1 adrenergic
c) beta2 adrenergic
d) H1 histamine reseptors
e) M cholynoreceptors
Distribution of alfa adrenoreceptor subtypes is associated with all of the following tissues:
a) Mast cell
b) Blood vessels
c) Prostate
d) Pupillary dilator muscle
e) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Epinephrine characteristics:
a) stimulates both α and β receptors
b) causes miosis
c) used in anaphylactic shock
d) can be used to prolong the action of local anaesthetic
e) used in hypertension
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A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of the following effects:
a) Increase cardiac output
b) uterus contraction
c) uterus relaxation
d) Causes bronchoconstriction
e) Causes bronchodilation
Name indirect mechanism of action of adrenomimetics:
a) these drugs inhibit reuptake of catecholamines by nerve terminals
b) directly activate their adrenoreceptors
c) blockade of metabolism (block of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine
oxidase (MAO) and increase the quantity of catecholamines
d) activate the effects of endogenous catecholamines
e) activate directly the main centers from CNS
Definition for indirect sympathomimetics:
a) are agents that elevate the concentration of NE at neuroeffector junctions,
b) they either inhibit re-uptake, facilitate release, or slow breakdown by MAO,
c) side chain "-hydroxyl group confers affinity for α - and β -receptors
d) the ability of a substance to release norepinephrine from its neuronal stores without exerting
an agonist action at the adrenoceptor
e) can penetrate the blood-brain barrier and evoke such CNS effects as a feeling of well-being,
enhanced physical activity and mood (euphoria), and decreased sense of hunger or fatigue.
Adverse effects associated with guanethidine:
a) Hypotension (symptomatic)
b) Male sexual dysfunction
c) Diarrhea
d) Constipations
e) Hypertension
The effects of clonidine include:
a) sedation
b) bradycardia
c) dry mouth
d) tachycardia
e) hypotention
Which of the following effects is related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation?
a) Bronchodilation
b) Vasodilatation
c) Tachycardia
d) Renine release
e) Bradycardia
Beta2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects:
a) Stimulation of renin secretion
b) Hyperglicemia
c) Relaxation of bladder, uterus
d) Tachycardia
e) Bronchodilation
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Beta-2 selective agonist:
a) fenoterol
b) epinephrine
c) salbutamol
d) phenylephrine
e) labetalol
Hyperglycemia induced by epinephrine is due to:
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Inhibition of insulin secretion (alfa)
c) Stimulation of glycogenolysis (beta2)
d) Inhibition of insulin synthesis
e) Increasing in glucose absorbtion from the gut
Action of drugs acting adrenergic system on the eyes:
a) Αlfa agonists cause miosis
b) Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis
c) Beta antagonists decrease the production of aqueous humor
d) Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye
e) Αlfa agonists increase intraocular pressure in narrow-angle glaucoma
Αlfa-receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects:
a) Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
b) Contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
c) Stimulation of insulin secretion
d) Vasodilation
e) Stimulation of platelet aggregation
Choose cardiovascular effects of dobutamine:
a) decreases peripheral resistance
b) negative inotropism
c) positive inotropism
d) negative dromotropism
e) positive dromotropism
Toxicities/adverse reactions associated with sympathomimetics:
a) anxiety reactions
b) cardiac tachyarrhythmias
c) hypertension; cerebral hemorrhage
d) syncope
e) angina pectori
Adverse effects associated with dopamine administration:
a) bradycardia
b) arrhythmias
c) hypertension
d) tachycardia
e) palpitations
Epinephrine effects on the heart:
a) reduces oxygen consumption
b) reduces conduction
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c) increased contraction
d) decreased contractility
e) increased rate
Cardiac effects associated with epinephrine:
a) increased oxygen consumption
b) increased cardiac output
c) positive inotropic effect
d) decreased cardiac output
e) positive chronotropic effect
Ventricular effects associated with epinephrine administration:
a) decreased contractility
b) increased contractility
c) decreased conduction
d) increased conduction
e) decreased automaticity
Alpha agonist: vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure:
a) ethylephrine
b) clonidine
c) terbutaline
d) methoxamine
e) prazosine
Alpha adrenergic receptor blockers are:
a) atenolol
b) terazosine
c) terbutaline
d) phenoxybenzamine
e) phentolamine
Alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker(s) - blockade of alpha1 adrenergic receptors:
a) proroxan
b) doxazosin
c) phentolamine
d) terazosin
e) prazosin
Adverse effects associated with prazosin:
a) tachycardia
b) hypertension
c) dizziness
d) bradycardia
e) initial-dose marked orthostatic hypotension
Characteristic of labetalol:
a) is a mixed alpha/beta adrenergic antagonist
b) xused in hypertension management
c) is selective alpha adrenergic antagonist
d) is selective beta adrenergic antagonist
e) can causes orthostatic hypotension
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Blocks both alpha and beta receptors:
a) carvedilol
b) diazoxide
c) propranolol
d) labetalol
e) timolol
Block both alpha and beta receptors:
a) Atenolol
b) Labetalol
c) Metoprolol
d) Salbutamol
e) Carvedilol
Name contraindication for Beta-non selective adrenoblockers:
a) Bronchial asthma
b) Atrial- ventricular block
c) Tachyarrhythmias
d) Angina Pectoris
e) Raynoud disease
Beta- receptor activation is produced by:
a) pentetrasol
b) terphenadine
c) isoprenaline
d) phenoterenol
e) terbutaline
Which drugs are beta-agonists:
a) Digoxin
b) Dobutamine
c) Amrinone
d) Salbutamol
e) Isoprenaline
Adverse effects associated with beta adrenergic receptor agonists:
a) over usage of these drugs may predisposed to mortality in asthmatics
b) skeletal muscle tremor
c) excessive cardiovascular stimulation
d) bronchospasm
e) anxiety
Name adverse affect of the β1 blockade:
a) Bradycardia
b) Decreased cardiac output
c) Tachycardia
d) Hypertention
e) Low contractility
Clinical uses of for propranolol:
a) treatment of essential hypertension
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b) management of angina
c) management of certain arrhythmias
d) prophylactic against asthma attacks
e) AV block
Alpha2 selective adrenergic agonists:
a) phentolamine
b) clonidine
c) epinephrine
d) phenoxybenzamine
e) methyldopa
Beta1 selective adrenergic receptor antagonist:
a) propranolol
b) timolol
c) nadolol
d) metoprolol
e) atenolol
Selective beta1 blockers:
a) Atenolol
b) Propranolol
c) Acebutolol
d) Labetolol
e) Timolol
Beta1 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects:
a) Increase in heart contractility
b) Bronchodilation
c) Miometrium relaxation
d) Tachycardia
e) Increase in conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node
Bronchodilation is caused by:
a) atenolol
b) fenoterol
c) salbutamol
d) timolol
e) metoprolol
List beta blockers:
a) atenolol
b) fenoterol
c) salbutamol
d) timolol
e) metoprolol
Which of the following drugs causes bronchodilation without significant cardiac
stimulation?
a) Isoprenaline
b) Fenoterol
c) Xylometazoline
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d) Methoxamine
e) Salbutamol
Propanolol causes:
a) can cause bronchospasm
b) can cause bronchodilation
c) increases blodd pressure
d) decreases blodd pressure
e) can mask hypoglycaemia induced by insulin
The main adverse effects of phentolamine include all of the following:
a) Hypertenssion
b) Bradycardia
c) Tachycardia
d) Colaps
e) Hypotention
Characteristics of phentolamine include all of the following:
a) Reduction in peripheral resistance
b) Bradicardia
c) Tachycardia
d) Stimulation of muscarinic and histamine receptors
e) Block alfa-adrenoreceptors
Beta-blocking drugs-induced hypotension may be associated with their effects on:
a) The heart
b) The blood vessels
c) The renin-angiotensin system
d) Inhibition of norepinephrine release
e) Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake
Clinical applications of beta-adrenergic antagonists:
a) treatment of hypertension
b) treatment of arrhythmias
c) Raynaud disease
d) bronchial asthma
e) management of angina pectori
Non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker(s):
a) nadolol
b) esmolol
c) timolol
d) atenolol
e) metoprolol
Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: effects on the heart:
a) increased automatism
b) decreased contractility
c) increased contractility
d) decrease automatism
e) increase heart rate
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Most likely to cause dangerous bronchiolar constriction in asthmatic patients:
a) timolol
b) atenolol
c) nebivolol
d) propranolol
e) metoprolol
Characteristics of beta-blocking agents include all of the following:
a) They occupy beta receptors and competitively reduce receptor occupancy by catecholamines
or other beta agonists
b) They causes hypotention
c) They induce hypertention
d) They cause tachycardia
e) They can cause blockade in the atrioventricular node
Principal mechanisms by which beta adrenergic receptor blockade decreases blood
pressure:
a) blockade of angiotensin II receptors
b) reduced myocardial contractility
c) reduced heart rate
d) renin release suppression
e) they induce hypertention
Adverse effect(s) associated with beta-adrenergic blockers:
a) bradycardia
b) bronchospasm
c) tachycardia
d) impotence
e) hypertention
Beta-blocker with some intrinsic sympathomimetic properties:
a) practolol
b) sotalol
c) pindolol
d) metoprolol
e) propranolol
Selective beta1 blocker(s):
a) alprenolol
b) propranolol
c) acebutolol
d) pindolol
e) atenolol
Beta-receptor antagonists have all of the following cardiovascular effects:
a) The negative inotropic and chronotropic effects
b) Acute hypertention
c) Vasoconstriction
d) Vasodilation
e) Reduction of the release of renin
Compared with phentolamine, prazosine has all of the following features:
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a) Irreversible blockade of alfa 2 receptors
b) More often causes bradicardia
c) Highly selective for alfa1 receptors
d) Highly selective for alfa2 receptors
e) Persistent block of alfa1 receptors
Characteristics of alfa-receptor antagonists include all of the following:
a) They cause a fall in peripheral resistance and blood pressure
b) They cause epinephrine reversal (convert a pressor response to a depressor response)
c) Bronchospasm
d) Hypertension
e) They may cause postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia
Which of the following drugs is a competitive antagonist at both alfa1 and alfa2
receptors?
a) Prazosin
b) Doxazosin
c) Labetalol
d) Phenoxybenzamine
e) Phentolamine
List sympatholytic drugs:
a) clonidine
b) methyldopa
c) diazoxide
d) propranolol
e) reserpine
Characteristics of reserpine include all of the following:
a) It inhibits the uptake of norepinephrine into vesicles
b) It decreases cardiac output, peripheral resistance and inhibits pressor reflexes
c) It may cause a transient sympathomimetic effect
d) Can be used as neuroleptic
e) It depletes stores of catecholamines in the brain
Determine Beta1-adrenoceptor location:
a) myocardium
b) bronchi
c) juxtaglomerular apparatus
d) the syno-carotid zone
e) CNS
Determine the preponderant location of the beta2-adrenoceptors:
a) bronchial muscles
b) skeletal muscle
c) uterus
d) myocardium
e) juxtaglomerular apparatus
Indicate the effects caused by the excitation of postsynaptic alpha 1-adrenergic receptor:
a) mydriasis
b) miosis
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c) contraction of the spleen capsule
d) vassoconstriction
e) bronchodilation
Specify the effects caused by the excitation of beta1-adrenergic receptors:
a) intensification of contractility and cardiac automaticity
b) negative inotropic action
c) negative chronotropic action
d) miosis
e) to increase renin secretion
Specify the effects caused by the excitation of beta2-adrenoceptors:
a) relaxation of the myometrium
b) bronchodilation
c) bronchoconstriction
d) vasoconstriction
e) contraction of the spleen capsule
Specify peripheral alpha2-adrenomimetics:
a) methyldopa
b) clonidine
c) xylometazoline
d) naphazoline
e) orciprenaline
Specify central alpha2-adrenomimetics:
a) xmethyldopa
b) clonidine
c) xylometazoline
d) naphasoline
e) orciprenaline
Indicate nonselective Beta1,2-adrenomimetics:
a) isoprenaline
b) salbutamol
c) fenoterol
d) orciprenaline
e) epinephrine
Characteristic of epinephrine:
a) stimulates α and β receptors
b) block α β receptors
c) used in anaphylactic shock
d) can be used to prolong the action of local anaesthetic
e) used in hyperglycemia
Indicate selective Beta2-adrenomimetics:
a) terfenadine
b) salbutamol
c) isoprenaline
d) hexoprenaline
e) terbutaline
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Indicate adrenergic drugs with bronchodilator effect:
a) salmeterol
b) dopamine
c) norepinephrine
d) epinephrine
e) isoprenaline
Name indications of epinephrine:
a) anaphylactic shock
b) cardiogenic shock
c) hypoglycemic coma
d) hyperosmolar diabetic coma
e) conjunctivitis
Indicate drugs used to treat anaphylactic shock:
a) epinephrine
b) diphenhydramine
c) propranolol
d) salbutamol
e) phentolamine
Indicate drugs used to treat hypoglycemic coma:
a) epinephrine
b) norepinephrine
c) glucagon
d) glucose
e) insulin
Indicate the adverse effects of epinephrine:
a) bradycardia
b) tachycardia
c) hypoxia and tissue necrosis
d) anxiety, tremor
e) bronchospasm
Name the beta-2-adrenomimetics indications:
a) imminence of spontaneous abortion
b) paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
c) ventricular extrasystole
d) pectoral angina
e) bronchial asthma
Name the effects of beta1- adrenomimetics:
a) intensification of heart contractions
b) tachycardia
c) increased heart automaticity
d) bronchial muscle relaxation
e) bronchial spasm
Name Beta2 adrenomimetics:
a) salbutamol
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b) epinephrine
c) ephedrine
d) isoprenaline
e) fenoterol
Indicate pharmacological characteristic of clonidine:
a) stimulates beta2-adrenergic receptors
b) stimulates alpha2 receptors
c) causes bradycardia
d) can cause sedation and somnolence
e) causes tachycardia
The effects of clonidine include:
a) sedation
b) bradicardia
c) dry mouth
d) tachycardia
e) hypotention
Indicate the specific pharmacological effects of drugs that stimulate alfa1-adrenergic
receptors:
a) vasoconstriction
b) improvement of microcirculation
c) vasodilatation
d) decrease in microcirculation
e) decrease of blood pressure
Indicate the effects of beta-blockers:
a) antihypertensive
b) antiarrhythmic
c) antiangina
d) antipsychotic
e) anxiolytic
The following side-effects are seen in beta-antagonists:
a) bradycardia
b) hypotention
c) hypertention
d) impotence
e) tachycardia
Name beta-adrenoblockers:
a) Propranolol
b) Validol
c) Metoprolol
d) Alopurinol
e) Oxprenolol
The following are selective beta blockers:
a) pindolol
b) propanolol
c) nadolol
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d) atenolol
e) acebutol
The following are non-selective beta-blocker:
a) metoprolol
b) propranolol
c) oxprenolol
d) nadolol
e) sotalol
Characteristic of propanolol:
a) block alfa adrenoreceptors
b) block beta adrenoreceptors
c) decreases cardiac contractility
d) block alfa beta adrenoreceptors
e) can mask hypoglycaemia induced by insulin
Indicate beta-blocker drugs indications:
a) angina pectoris
b) acute heart failure
c) schizophrenia
d) tachyarrhythmia
e) sinus bradycardia
Name indications of beta-blockers:
a) bronchial asthma
b) myocardial infarction
c) migraine
d) atrioventricular block
e) hypertension
List the adverse effects of selective beta-blockers:
a) atrioventricular block
b) worsening angina pectoris
c) worsening of heart failure
d) exacerbation of bronchial asthma
e) spasm of peripheral vessels
Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for alpha-blockers?
a) produce vasodilatation
b) bradycardia
c) reduce microcirculation
d) tachycardia
e) improves microcirculation
Name contraindications of propranolol:
a) supraventricular tachycardia
b) atrioventricular block
c) bronchial asthma
d) angina pectores
e) Raynaud's disease
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Simpatholitics are used in:
a) treatment of the hypertension
b) myocardial infarction
c) severe forms oh hypertension
d) Raynaud disease
e) ventricular arrhythmias
Witch statements about sympatholytics is adequate?
a) affect noradrenaline synthesis
b) affect noradrenaline release
c) affect noradrenalne uptake
d) bind covalently to the alpha receptor an produce an irreversible effect
e) inhibit the flux of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators
release
Name adverse effects of reserpine:
a) tachycardia
b) bradycardia
c) the excitation of the CNS
d) depression
e) the decrease intestinal motility
Name alpha-adrenoblockers indications:
a) pheochromocytoma
b) hypertension
c) hypotension
d) ventricular arrhythmias
e) Raynoud disease
Name beta-blockers indications:
a) hypertension
b) angina pectoris
c) migraine
d) bradyarrythmie
e) imminence of premature birth
Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for propranolol:
a) is indicated to treat hypertension
b) is indicated in the treatment of migraine
c) possessing psycho-sedative action
d) possessing psychostimulant action
e) is administered to treat angina pectores
Indicate the adverse effects of beta-adrenoblockers:
a) Rebound phenomena
b) increased intraocular pressure
c) anxiety
d) atherogenic action
e) increase the need in oxygen of myocardium
Name astringent indications:
a) Poisoning with heavy metals salts
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b) Inflammatory processes of the digestive tract
c) Inflammation of the skin
d) To antagonize with morphine
e) For local anesthesia
Choose coating drugs:
a) Zinc oxide
b) Silver nitrate
c) Starch mucilage
d) Mucilage from flax seeds
e) Activated charcoal
Choose adsorbants indications:
a) Meteorism
b) Diarrhea
c) To decrease chloralhydrate irritant properties
d) Inflammatory processes of the urinary tract
e) Acute poisoning
Choose irritants:
a) Zinc oxide
b) Silver nitrate
c) Menthol
d) Ammonia solution
e) Starch mucilage
Are effective antitussives:
a) ambroxol
b) dimemorfan
c) acetylcysteine
d) ethylmorphine
e) codeine
Name drugs used in bronchial asthma treatment:
a) salbutamol
b) propranolol
c) fenoterol
d) sotalol
e) pindolol
Name drugs avoided in bronchial asthma:
a)
salbutamol
b) propranolol
c)
fenoterol
d) sotalol
e) pindolol
Name respiratory analeptics:
a) aminophilline
b) bemegrid
c) nikethamide.
d) camphor
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e)
prenoxdiazine
Name the reasons of morphine used for pulmonary edema:
a) cause bronchodilation
b) relief of anxiety
c) diuretic effect
d) - increases peripheral vasodilatation
e) causes vasoconstriction
Name antitussive drugs:
a) aminophilline
b) glaucine
c) xcodeine
d) mucaltin
e) bromhexine
Name expectorant drugs:
a) ambroxol
b) glaucine
c) codeine
d) mucaltin
e) bromhexine
Name opioids antitussives:
a) codeine phosphate
b) glaucina
c) prenoxdiazine
d) pronilid
e) ethylmorphine
Indicate drugs used to treat bronchial asthma:
a) isoprenaline
b) orciprenaline
c) pentoxiverine
d) pronilid
e) prenoxdiazine
Name side effects of aminophylline:
a) Arrythmia
b) Sudden death
c) Depression
d) Insomnia
e) Gastric irritation
Indicate antiallergic drugs used to treat asthma:
a) terfenadine
b) loratadine
c) astemizole
d) platifilină
e) fenoterol
Indicate effective drugs in bronchial asthma:
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a) ipratropium
b) aminophylline
c) salbutamol
d) propranolol
e) strophantin
Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center:
a) Bemegride
b) Caffeine
c) Aethymizole
d) Cytiton
e) Salbutamol
Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment?
a) Methylxanthines
b) M-cholinoblocking agents
c) Beta2 -stimulants
d) Alfa1-stimulants
e) M-cholinomimetic agents
Choose anti-asthma agents that act in part by activating pulmonary beta-receptors thus
increasing cAMP:
a) salbutamol
b) methoxamine
c) cromolyn
d) terbutaline
e) ipratropium
Choose methylxantines used in bronchial asthma therapy:
a) theophylline
b) cyclosporine
c) metaproterenol
d) aminophylline
e) ipratropium bromide
Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine:
a) Atropine
b) Orciprenaline
c) Adrenaline
d) Theophylline
e) Aminophylline
Name drugs that decrease the release of mediators ( histamine, other ABS) from mast
cell. (Stabilization of mast cells):
a) glucocorticoids
b) salbutamol
c) sodium cromoglicate
d) epinephrine
e) cyclosporine
The mechanisms of methylxanthines action are:
a) Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (high doses)
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b) Beta2 -adrenoreceptor stimulation
c) Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines
d) Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors
e) Inhibition of adenosine receptors
All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids:
a) Triamcinolone
b) Beclometazone
c) Sodium cromoglycate
d) Budesonide
e) Ketotifen
Choose the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents:
a) Zileuton
b) Sodium cromoglycate
c) Zafirlucast
d) Montelucast
e) Ketotifen
Indicate the drug which is a leucotriene receptor antagonist:
a) Sodium cromoglycate
b) Zafirlucast
c) Zileuton
d) Triamcinolone
e) Montelucast
Which of the following drugs are inhibitors of leukotrienes' receptors?
a) Montelukast
b) Zileuton
c) Ibuprofen
d) Diclofenac
e) Zafirlukast
Indicate pharmacological characteristic for isoprenaline:
a) stimulates beta1 and beta2 adrenergic receptors
b) stimulates just beta1 adrenoreceptors
c) produces tachycardia, palpitations, and tremor
d) is contraindicated in bronchial asthma
e) can be used in aerosols in bronchial asthma crisis
Indicate pharmacological characteristic for theophylline:
a) is from methylxanthines
b) is an ergot alkaloid derivative
c) has bronchodilator action, stimulates the heart and CNS
d) is contraindicated in bronchial asthma
e) is a synthetic catecholamine stimulates beta1 and beta2 adrenergic receptors
Explain the pharmacological effects of glucocorticoids used in bronchial asthma
treatment:
a) have marked anti-inflammatory effect
b) decrease bronchi edema and bronchial secretion
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c) inhibits the respiratory system
d) promotes the synthesis of lipocortin
e) increase bronchial edema and bronchial secretion
Indicate pharmacological peculiarities for codeine:
a) is an opiate drug
b) inhibits the cough center of the bulb
c) inhibit the vagus nerve center
d) possesses analgesic effect
e) possesses antipyretic action
Indication for antitussive drugs:
a) cough in rib fractures
b) bronchitis with wet cough
c) cough in open pneumothorax
d) cough in pulmonary tumor
e) pneumonia with wet cough
What drugs excites sino carotid reflexogenic zone?
a) caffeine
b) niketamidă
c) cititon
d) lobeline
e) bemegride
Indicate expectorant drugs:
a) mucaltin
b) sodium hydrocarbonate
c) potassium iodide
d) codeine
e) morphine
Indicate pharmacological characteristics for prenoxidiazine:
a) inhibits the cough center
b) depresses the reflex of cough by acting peripherally
c) antitussive effect is equivalent to codeine’s
d) antitussive effect is less than codeine’s
e) causes tolerance and drug addiction
Name preparations effective in status asthmaticus:
a) disodium cromoglycate
b) aminophylline
c) diazepam
d) dexamethasonum
e) ketotifenum
Which of the following drugs are not 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOG) inhibitors?
a) Diclofenac
b) Metamizole
c) Zileuton
d) Ibuprofen
e) Zafirlukast
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Which of the following drugs are leucotreine D4 receptor (LTD) blockers?
a) Diclofenac
b) Zafirleukast
c) Zileuton
d) Ibuprofen
e) Montelukast
Which of these groups of drugs are used for asthma treatment?
a) Methylxanthines
b) M-cholinoblocking agents
c) Beta2 -stimulants
d) Beta blockers
e) M cholinomimetics
Which of the following drugs are used in treatment of bronchial asthma?
a) Zafirlukast
b) Diclofenac
c) Zileuton
d) Salbutamol
e) Propranolol
Indicate disodium chromoglycate pharmacodynamic properties:
a) inhibits mast cell degranulation
b) blocks M- cholinoreceptors
c) inhibits the influx of calcium into the cell
d) decreases release histamine and other mediators of allergic reactions
e) stimulates beta-2-adrenoceptors
Choose indications for disodium chromoglycate
a) prevention of acute bronchospasm
b) status astmaticus
c) prevention and relief of nasal allergies
d) hyperaldosteronism type 1
e) to prevent the acute transplant rejection
What are the mechanisms of bronchodilator action of aminophylline?
a) the stimulation of beta-2-adrenergic receptors
b) blocking adenosine receptors
c) antagonizing the factor of platelet aggregation
d) toxic doses inhibit phosphodiesterase
e) stimulation adenilaciclazei
What is the mechanism of action of disodium cromoglycate to treat asthma?
a) prevents calcium influx into cells
b) causes adrenergic stimulation
c) is a musculotropic bronchodilator
d) antagonizes the action of histamine on bronchi
e) prevent mast cell degranulation
What preparations are preferred for mild bronchial asthma accesses?
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a) disodium cromoglycate
b) indomethacine
c) ketotifen
d) salbutamol
e) terbutaline
Indicate the pharmacological effects of aminophylline:
a) antiarrhythmic
b) cardiostimulator
c) hypertensive
d) diuretic
e) bronchodilator
Name inhaled glucocorticoids:
a) Triamcinolone
b) Beclometazone
c) Sodium cromoglycate
d) Budesonide
e) Prednesolone
Inhibitors of cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterases (enzymes that degrade cyclic AMP):
a) theophylline
b) caffeine
c) carbachol
d) aspartate
e) aminophylline
Name mecanisms of antihypertenisve effects:
a) Sympatic vegetative ganglia paralises
b) beta 1 adrenoblocking action
c) alfa 1 adrenostimulating action
d) beta 2 adrenoblocking action
e) alfa adrenoblocking action
In hypertensive emergencies are used:
a) Diltiazem
b) Prazozine
c) Reserpine
d) Phenylephrine
e) Captopril
Total peripheral resistance (TPR) is a determining factor for mean arterial pressure.
What are correct relationships between norepinephrine, minoxidil, and lisinopril and
TPR?
a) Minoxidil : TPR increases
b) Fosinopril : TPR increases
c) Norepinephrine : TPR increases
d) Phenoxybenzamine : TPR increases
e) Minoxidil : TPR decreases
Name antihypertensive mechanisms:
a) paralyzation of the vegetative sympathetic ganglions
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b) elective stimulation of alpha 1-adrenergic receptors
c) paralyzation of the sympathetic-peripheric terminals
d) elective blocking of alpha-adrenergic receptors
e) blocking of beta-adrenergic receptors
Name antihypertensive drugs:
a) alpha- adrenoblockers
b) alpha- adrenomimetics
c) beta- adrenoblockers
d) alpha-2-central adrenomimetics
e) sympathomimetics
Name sympapholitics:
a) rezerpine
b) capropril
c) phentolamine
d) guanethidine
e) prazosine
Name Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors:
a) lisionopril
b) capropril
c) phentolamine
d) enalapril
e) enalkiren
Concerning the use of ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme ) inhibitors in heart disease:
a) reduces efficacy of diuretic treatment requiring higher diuretic dosages
b) contraindicated in hypertensive patients with hypertrophic left ventricles
c) reduces aldosteron level
d) contraindicated in diabetic patients
e) benefits due to reduction in circulating angiotensin II levels
Name rennin inhibitors:
a) lisionopril
b) remikiren
c) phentolamine
d) enalapril
e) enalkiren
Name angiotensin II receptor blockers:
a) losartan
b) remikiren
c) phentolamine
d) valsartan
e) enalkiren
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist:
a) saralasyne
b) phenoxybenzamine
c) methyldopa
d) losartan
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e) captopril
Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is produced by:
a) ganglionic blocker
b) dopamine receptor activation
c) alpha receptor blocker
d) alpha receptor activation
e) beta receptor activation
Most likely to increase blood pressure:
a) norepinephrine
b) timolol
c) phenylephrine
d) propranolol
e) captopril
Decreases blood pressure
a) prazosine
b) phentolamine
c) phenylephrine
d) trimetaphan
e) propranolol
Calcium channel blockers with predominantly vascular effects:
a) diltiazem
b) nicardipine
c) verapamil
d) nifedipine
e) amlodipine
Centrally-acting antihypertensive drug:
a) moxonidine
b) captopril
c) methoxamine
d) clonidine
e) sodium nitroprusside
Name izothyoureic derivates:
a) izoturon
b) dopamine
c) izoprenaline
d) profetur
e)
difetur
Name vasoconstrictors with central action:
a) niketamide
b) camphor
c) sulfocamphocaine
d) epinephrine
e) izoturon
Name alkaloids from Ergot:
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a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ergotal
angiotensinamide
ergotamine tartrate
epinephrine
dihydroergotamine
Name effects of clonidine:
a) antihypertention
b) antihypotention
c) analgesic
d) psychostimulant
e)
sedation
Antihypertensive: action based on inhibition of norepinephrine release from adrenergic
nerve endings:
a) brethilium
b) phentolamine
c) hexamethonium
d) reserpine
e) propranolol
Choose antihypertensive agents:
a) methyldopa
b) guanethidine
c) carbidopa
d) epinephrine
e) reserpine
Usual adverse effects of vasodilating, antihypertensive drugs:
a) headache
b) bradycardia
c) angina pectori
d) reflex tachycardia
e) syncope
Adverse effects associated with ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme) inhibitor use:
a) hypokaliemia
b) dry cough
c) angioedema
d) proteinuria
e) hyperkalaemia
Indications for Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors:
a) treatment of hypertention
b) treatment of hypotention
c) treatment of bronchial asthma
d) treatment of familiar hyperkalemia
e) treatment of cardiac failure
ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme) inhibitors:
a) trandolapril
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b) methyldopa
c) timolol
d) captopril
e) nifedipine
Vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, and renin release suppression occur upon
activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. How would captopril affect these
responses?
a) block ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme)
b) blocks all except vasoconstriction
c) blocks only vasoconstriction
d) decrease angiotensine II synthesis
e) blocks only aldosterone secretion
Calcium channel blocker: vasodilation, less likely to have direct cardiac effects:
a) nimodipine
b) amlodipine
c) verapamil
d) diltiazem
e) nifedipine
Choose antihypertensive drugs belonging to the same class:
a) lisinopril
b) clonidine
c) verapamil
d) nifedipine
e) doxazosin
Name advers effects of nifedipine:
a) hypertention
b) reflex tachycardia
c) hypotension
d) bradycardia
e) constipation
Name adverse effects of verapamil:
a) AV-block
b) reflex tachycardia
c) low blood pressure
d) bradycardia
e) dry cough
Why should be avoided association between beta-blockers and verapamil?
a) promote bronchoconstriction
b) both acting negative inotropically
c) produce angina pectoris
d) depress A-V node conductivity
e) promote peripheral vascular spasms
Name drugs causing bradycardia having both antianginal and antiarrhythmic effects:
a) propranolol
b) isosorbide dinitrate
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c) nitroglycerine
d) nifedipine
e) verapamil
Indicate antiarrhythmics acting on the innervation of the heart:
a) procainamide
b) propranolol
c) quinidine
d) phenytoin
e) atenolol
Name class I A antiarrhythmic drugs:
a) verapamil
b) procainamide
c) lidocaine
d) metoprolol
e) quinidine
Name class I B antiarrhythmic drugs:
a) verapamil
b) procainamide
c) lidocaine
d) metoprolol
e) phenytoine
Name groups af drugs with antiarrhythmic propierties:
a) alpha-blockers
b) beta-blockers
c) potassium channel blockers
d) calcium channel blockers
e) sodium channel blockers
Antiarrhythmic drugs classified as sodium channel blockers:
a) amiodarone
b) verapamil
c) lidocaine
d) procainamide
e) quinidine gluconate
Quinidine: mechanism(s)/properties of antiarrhythmic activity:
a) slow rate of rise of phase 0
b) prolong repolarization
c) activates beta-receptors
d) activates K channels
e) block sodium channel
Prominent quinidine-mediated actions at receptors:
a) nicotinic agonist
b) H1 antagonist
c) alpha adrenergic antagonist
d) muscarinic, cholinergic antagonist
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e) beta adrenergic agonist
Correct match(es) between antiarrhythmic drugs and side effects:
a) verapamil: tachycardia
b) propranolol: bronchospasm
c) lidocaine: CNS-related side effects including paresthesias
d) quinidine: diarrhea, cinchonism
e) metoprolol: tachycardia
Agent(s) may be effective in terminating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
(PSVT)?
a) propranolol
b) dobutamine
c) verapamil
d) atropine
e) epinephrine
Useful in treating third-degree (complete) heart block:
a) digoxine
b) isoprenaline
c) lidocaine
d) edrophonium
e) atropine
Common drugs that induce AV block include:
a) digoxin
b) beta-blockers
c) atropine
d) isoprenaline
e) calcium channel blockers (verapamil)
Procainamide side effects:
a) tachycardia
b) hypertension
c) drug-induced lupus
d) hypotension
e) bradycardia
Choose class I antiarrhythmic drugs:
a) Quinidine gluconate
b) Lidocaine
c) Flecainide
d) Verapamil
e) Adenosine
Procainamide side effects:
a) Nausea
b) Hypotension
c) Drug-induced lupus
d) Tachycardia
e) Hypertension
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Antiarrhythmic drugs classified as sodium channel blockers:
a) Quinidine gluconate
b) Procainamide
c) Phenytoin
d) Verapamil
e) Adenosine
Quinidine gluconate : mechanism(s)/properties of antiarrhythmic activity:
a) Inhibition of sodium channel
b) Depression of conduction velocity
c) Reduced excitability
d) Activation of sodium channel
e) Activated calcim channel blockade
Quinidine gluconate : major clinical use:
a) Atrial fibrillation
b) Atrial flutter
c) Ventricular tachycardia
d) AV block
e) Cardiac arrest
Name arrhythmics:
a) verapamil
b) enalapril
c) metoprolol
d) mexiletine
e) amiodarone
Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for lidocaine:
a) has tropism to certain tissues
b) calcium channel blocker
c) sodium channel blocker
d) can cause neuropsychiatric adverse reactions (in high doses)
e) peros bioavailability is reduced, and as a result is administered parenteraly
The following are true with regard to lidocaine:
a) is local anesthetic
b) x is antiarrhythmic drug
c) is diuretic drug
d) it slows the heart by producing beta-adrenoceptor blockade
e) it is effective in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias
The following are true about lidocaine:
a) it has a local anaesthetic action lasting for about 2 days
b) is more active if injected into an inflameted area
c) inhibits the rapid influx of sodium ions into excitable cells
d) its action is prolonged by the concurrent use of epinephrine
e) has antiarhythmic effetc
Characteristics of lidocaine:
a) used to treat ventricular arythmia
b) is opiod analgesic
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c) common side effects include sleepiness, muscle twitching, confusion
d) is an antiarrhythmic medication
e) used in infectous diseases
Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for lidocaine:
a) is the choice in ventricular arrhythmias
b) sodium channel blocker
c) potassium chanel blocker
d) calcium channel blocker
e) shorten the repolarization
Indicate pharmacological characteristics for verapamil:
a) is calcium channel blocker
b) has a depressing action on the myocardium
c) increased therapeutic efficacy in heart failure
d) works by blocking the potassium channels
e) causes bradycardia
The action of calcium blockers (verapamil) on the heart:
a) bradycardia;
b) automatism diminishing
c) contractility diminishing;
d) contractility increasing;
e) automatism increasing;
Calcium channel blocker(s) most likely to affect myocardial contractility and AV
conduction:
a) nimodipine
b) nicardipine
c) verapamil
d) nifedipine
e) diltiazem
Agents which decreased ventricular performance:
a) theophylline
b) metoprolol
c) cardiac glycosides
d) caffeine
e) diltiazem
Indicate pharmacological characteristics of amiodarone:
a) block membrane sodium channels
b) membrane potassium channel blocker
c) antiarrhythmic and antianginal effects
d) disrupts thyroid function
e) is commonly associated with beta-blockers and verapamil
Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for phenytoin:
a) Class 1 antiarrhythmic
b) is used in digitalis overdose-induced arrhythmias
c) is useful in the combination with acetylsalicylic acid
d) is used in the treatment of epilepsy
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e) is calcium channel blocker
Name reserpine indications:
a) mild to moderate hypertension
b) depression
c) peptic ulcer
d) diarrheic syndrome
e) alcoholic psychosis
Indicate pharmacological characteristic for raviten:
a) is an isothiourea derivative
b) hypertensive effect through direct action on the vascular wall
c) decreases and body temperature, and oxygen consumption by the organism
d) excites alpha1-adrenoceptors
e) non-peptide selective inhibitor interacting with the active center of the rennin
Name centrally acting antihypertensive drugs:
a) clonidine
b) sodium nitroprusside
c) capropril
d) prazosine
e) methyldopa
Common adverse effects of clonidine are:
a) Orthostatic hypotension
b) Somnolence
c) Diarrhea
d) Reflex tachycardia
e) Xerostomia
Adverse effects associated with clonidine:
a) euphoria
b) tachycardia
c) sedation
d) dry mouth
e) anxiety
Clonidine mechanism of action:
a) stimulating presynaptic α2 receptors in the brain
b) inhibiting presynaptic α2 receptors in the brain
c) inhibiting the release of norepinephrine (NE)
d) stimulating the release of norepinephrine (NE)
e) inhibiting presynaptic beta 2 receptors
Name systemic vasoconstrictor drugs groups:
a) alpha-adrenomimetics
b) beta-adrenomimetics
c) alpha, beta-adrenoblockers
d) isothiourea derivatives
e) alpha, beta-adrenomimetics
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Name antihypertensive preparations which acts presynaptically:
a) clonidine
b) reserpine
c) propranolol
d) guanethidine
e) hydralazine
Indicate pharmacological characteristic for captopril:
a) increases blood pressure
b) acting on the angiotensin receptors
c) lower blood pressure
d) decreases the angiotensin II level
e) inhibit converting enzyme
Indicate hypotensives from alpha1-adrenoblockers:
a) clonidine
b) terazosin
c) prazosin
d) propranolol
e) hydralazine
Name drugs with nitrovasodilatator mechanism:
a) nitroglycerine
b) molsidomine
c) sodium nitroprusside
d) nitrazepam
e) nitrofurantoin
Name antianginal drugs which may cause tachycardia:
a) propranolol
b) nifedipine
c) isosorbide dinitrate
d) nitroglycerine
e) verapamil
Indicate the mechanisms of action of antianginal drugs:
a) reducing the work of the heart
b) reduction of cardiac pre and afterload
c) decrease in cytoplasmic calcium
d) increased sympathetic tone
e) coronary dilatation
Name mechanisms of action of antianginal drugs:
a) coronary dilatation
b) decrease sympathetic tone
c) reducing the work of the heart
d) increased cardiac afterload and preload
e) increase in cytoplasmic calcium
Drugs clinically used for management of angina:
a) metoprolol
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b) nadolol
c) glycerol
d) propranolol
e) salbutamol
Drug effects that may prevent/terminate angina:
a) negative chronotropic drugs
b) peripheral vasodilators
c) negative inotropic drugs
d) positive chronotropic drugs
e) coronary vasodilators
Toxicities associated with nitrates:
a) hypotensive reactions
b) drug rash
c) dizziness
d) hypertension
e) headaches caused by meningeal vascular dilatation
Antianginal action of calcium channel blockers:
a) decreased myocardial wall tension
b) coronary artery dilatation
c) reduced afterload
d) increased preload
e) negative inotropism
Mechanism basis/bases for antianginal effects of beta-blockers:
a) increased preload
b) decreased contractility
c) increased automatism
d) increased blood pressure
e) decreased heart rate
Calcium channel blocker(s) that cause tachycardia and are most likely to worsen
myocardial ischemia:
a) nimodipine
b) diltiazem
c) nicardipine
d) verapamil
e) amlodipine
Main clinical uses of calcium channel blockers are:
a) Angina pectoris
b) Hypertension
c) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
d) A-V block
e) Hypotension
Ca channels blocker are:
a) Diltiazem
b) Verapamil
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c) Propranolol
d) Ivabradine
e) Labetolol
Characteristis of nitric oxide:
a) increases cardiac contractility
b) decreases blood pressure
c) causes coronarodilation
d) causes pulmonary vasoconstriction
e) is also known as endothelium relaxing factor
Symptoms associated with nitrates:
a) hypertension
b) tachycardia
c) headache
d) hypotension
e) bradycardia
Indicate the mechanisms of antianginal action of organic nitrites and nitrates:
a) arterioconstriction and venous constriction
b) decrease heart preload and afterload
c) decrease in cardiac oxygen consumption
d) coronary dilatation
e) increase the supply of oxygenated blood
Side effects associated with nitrates:
a) Bradycardia
b) Hypotension
c) Headache
d) Hypertension
e) Diarrhea
Pharmacologic features of nitroprusside sodium:
a) lead to vasoconstriction
b) nitric oxide activates guanylyl cyclase
c) forms nitric oxide
d) forms methemoglobin
e) lead to vasodilation
Cardiovascular effects of nitroglycerin:
a) increased systemic vascular resistance
b) reduced systemic vascular resistance
c) ameliorates circulation in the ischemic areas
d) negative inotropic and chronotropic effects
e) significant reflex tachycardia
Indicate side effects of organic nitrites:
a) hypertension
b) headache
c) hypotension
d) reflex tachycardia
e) tolerance
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Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for nitroglycerin:
a) is an organic nitrate
b) is a volatile explosive liquid
c) used in angina pectoris accesses
d) is used just sublingually
e) to avoid the sublingual use
Indicate the effects of organic nitrates:
a) coronary dilatation
b) arterio dilation
c) afterload reduction
d) venous constriction
e) preload reduction
Name antianginal molecular mechanisms of action of nitrites and nitrates:
a) stimulates guanylate cyclase
b) reduce the level of cGMP
c) increase the concentration of cGMP
d) blocks the receptors for nitrous oxide
e) inhibit adenosine deaminase
Name antianginal preparations which may cause tachycardia:
a) propranolol
b) nifedipine
c) isosorbide dinitrate
d) nitroglycerine
e) verapamil
Drugs clinically used for management of angina:
a) Atenolol
b) Propranolol
c) Salbutalol
d) Metoprolol
e) Cholecalcipherol
All these drug groups useful in angina both decrease myocardial oxygen requirement and
increase myocardial oxygen delivery:
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Isosorbide dinitrate
c) Atenolol
d) Metoprolol
e) Alinidine
Which of the following statements concerning nitrate mechanism of action is true?
a) Therapeutically active agents in this group are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in to
vascular smooth muscle target tissues
b) Nitric oxide (NO) is an effective activator of soluble guanylyl cyclase and probably acts
mainly through this mechanism
c) Nitrates useful in angina decrease myocardial oxygen requirementand increase myocardial
oxygen delivery
d) Nitrates useful in angina only decrease myocardial oxygen requirement
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e) Nitrates useful in angina only increase myocardial oxygen delivery
The following statements concerning mechanism of nitrate beneficial clinical effect are
true:
a) Decreased myocardial oxygen requirement
b) Relief of coronary artery spasm
c) Improved perfusion to ischemic myocardium
d) Increased myocardial oxygen consumption
e) Decreased myocardial oxygen delivery
Side effect of nitrates and nitrite drugs are:
a) Orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia
b) Bradycardia
c) Throbbing headache
d) Tolerance
e) Orthostatic hypertension
The following statements concerning antianginal mechanism of calcium channel blockers'
action are true:
a) are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in vascular smooth muscle target tissues
b) bind to L-type calcium channel sites
c) decrease myocardial oxygen requirement and increase myocardial oxygen delivery
d) decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in smooth muscle with long-lasting
relaxation and in a cardiac muscle with a reduction in contractility
e) bind to T-type calcium channel sites
Which of the following antianginal agents are calcium channel blockers?
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Dipyridamole
c) Minoxidil
d) Amlodipine
e) Verapamil
Which of the following antianginal agents is a beta-adrenoreceptor-blocking drug:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Alinidine
e) Propranolol
The following agents are cardioselective beta1-adrenoreceptor-blocking drugs labeled for
use in angina:
a) Metoprolol
b) Talinolol
c) Atenolol
d) Propranolol
e) Nadolol
Which of the following antianginal agents is the specific bradycardic drug:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Pentoxiphylline
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d) Alinidine
e) Falipamil
Name organic nitrates:
a) nifedipine
b) nitroglycerin
c) sustac mite
d) trinitrolong
e) minoxidil
Name classes of drugs used to treat angina pectoris:
a) alfa-adrenomimetics
b) beta-adrenomimetics
c) beta adrenoblockers
d) organic nitrates
e) Ca channel blocking drugs
Effects of Ca channel-blocking drugs (nifedipine):
a) decrease calcium influx into smooth muscle
b) increase calcium influx into smooth muscle
c) cause vascular relaxation
d) cause vascular contraction
e) cause reflex tachycardia
What are the adverse effects of nitrates?
a) flushing (do to vasodilation)
b) tachycardia
c) hypotention
d) hypertention
e) headache
What are the adverse effects of nitrates?
a) met-hemoglobinaemia
b) tolerance
c) reflex tachycardia
d) bradycardia
e) hypertention
What are the therapeutic uses for beta blockers?
a) angina pectoris
b) hypertension
c) tachyarrhythmias
d) bradyarrhythmia
e) atrioventricular block
What type of cardiovascular side effects do beta blockers have?
a) hypotension
b) hypertension
c) tachycardia
d) bradycardia
e) atrioventricular block
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List drugs that are beta blockers:
a) metoprolol
b) validol
c) propranolol
d) trinitrolong
e) salbutamol
List contraindication for beta blockers:
a) angina pectori
b) hypertension
c) tachyarrhythmias
d) atrioventricular block
e) decompensated cardiac failure
List effects of nitrates:
a) increase heart rate
b) increase the supply off blood flow
c) decrease preload and afterload
d) increase blood pressure
e) decrease heart rate
List effects of beta blockers:
a) increase heart rate
b) increase diastole duration
c) decrease cardiac contractility
d) increase blood pressure
e) decrease heart rate
List Beta blockers contraindications:
a) hypertention
b) systolic heart failure
c) peripheral vascular disease
d) angina pectoris
e) diabetes mellitus
Name chemical classes of calcium channel blockers:
a) benzodiazepines
b) phenylalkylamines
c) benzothiazepines
d) dihydropyridines
e) methylxanthines
List adverse effects of calcium channel blockers:
a) hypertention
b) peripheral edema
c) hypotension
d) tachycardia or bradycardia
e) bronchospasm
Drugs used to treat migraine:
a) nitrates
b) triptans
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c)
d)
e)
ergot alkaloids
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
beta blockers
Name cerebral vasodilators:
a) nicergoline
b) nitroglycerine
c) cinnarizine
d) vinpocetine
e) niketamide
Indicate the group of drugs from cerebral vasodilators:
a) Ca-channel blockers
b) Antispastic drugs
c) Loop diuretics
d) Organic nitrates
e) Derivatives of Vinca minor plant
The following Ergot derivative is used for treatment of acute migraine attack:
a) Paracetamol
b) Sumatriptan
c) Ergotamine
d) Metoclopramide
e) Methylergometrine
The following indol derivatives are used for treatment of acute migraine attack:
a) Paracetamol
b) Sumatriptan
c) Ergotamine
d) Metoclopramide
e) Zolmitriptan
Indicate groups of drugs classified as influencing the cerebral flow:
a) Ca2+-channel blockers
b) Derivatives of GABA
c) Derivatives of Vinca minor plant
d) K+-channel blockers
e) Benzidiazepines
Indicate the drugs which are Ca2+-channel blockers influencing the cerebral blood flow:
a) Aminalon (Gama aminobutiric acid)
b) Nimodipine
c) Cinnarizine
d) Heparin
e) Vinpocetine
Indicate the drugs influencing the blood flow in the brain - derivatives of GABA:
a) Aminalon (Gama aminobutiric acid)
b) Picamilon
c) Nimodipine
d) Heparin
e) Vinpocetine
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Indicate the drugs - Vinca minor alcaloids:
a) Nicergoline
b) Warfarin
c) Cinnarizine
d) Vinpocetine
e) Vincamine
The following indol derivatives are used for treatment of acute migraine attack:
a) Paracetamol
b) Sumatriptan
c) Ergotamine
d) Metoclopramide
e) Zolmitriptan
What are the therapeutic benefits of tonicardiacs in heart failure?
a) reduce tachycardia
b) positive inotropic action
c) increase in cardiac output
d) vasoconstrictor action
e) batmotropic positive action
Indicate drugs that can be used in heart failure:
a) drugs which lower the contractile force of the myocardium
b) vasodilating drugs
c) diuretics
d) beta-2 adrenomimetics
e) converting enzyme inhibitors
Indicate adverse effects characteristic for digitalis:
a) bradycardia
b) anorexia, nausea, vomiting
c) headache, confusion
d) mydriasis and hyposalivation
e) visual disturbances
ECG finding(s) consistent with digitalis intoxication include:
a) PQ decrese
b) third degree heart block
c) sinus bradycardia
d) ectopic A-V junctional beats
e) PQ increase
Symptoms of digitalis toxicity include the following:
a) tachycardia
b) yellow halos around lights (xanthopsia)
c) bradycardia
d) no vision affection
e) hallucinations
Positive inotropic agent - phosphodiesterase inhibitor:
a) milrinone
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b) dopamine
c) amrinone
d) digoxin
e) dobutamine
The non-glycoside positive inotropic drugs are:
a) Digoxin
b) Strophantin K
c) Dobutamine
d) Digitoxin
e) Amrinone
Primary chemical components of digoxine:
a) fat residues
b) sugar residues
c) steroid nucleus
d) lactic acid residues
e) lactone ring
Cardiac glycosides: principal mechanism of action:
a) increases vagal nerve activity
b) inhibits calcium transport
c) inhibits Na/K ATPase
d) activates myocardial leukotrienes
e) blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
Which of the following agents belong to cardiac glycosides?
a) Digoxin
b) Strophantin K
c) Amrinone
d) Digitoxin
e) Adoniside
Choose derivatives of the plant Foxglove (Digitalis):
a) Digoxin
b) Strophantin K
c) Dobutamine
d) Amrinone
e) Digitoxin
All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true:
a) They inhibit the Na+/K+-ATPase and thereby increase intracellular Ca2+ in myocardial cells
b) They inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase from parietal cell
c) They inhibit the Na+ K+ Cl- from loop Henle
d) The most frequent cause of digitalis intoxication in concomitant administration with
diuretics that deplete K+
e) They activate the Na+/K+-ATPase
All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true:
a) They inhibit the activity of the Na+/K+-ATPase
b) They decrease intracellular concentrations of calcium in myocytes
c) They increase vagal tone
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d) They have a very low therapeutic index
e) They increase the tone of sympathetic system
All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true:
a) Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside of medium duration of action
b) Digoxin increases vagal tone
c) Digoxin has a longer half-life than digitoxin
d) Digoxin acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase
e) Amrinone acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase
The manifestations of glycosides intoxication are:
a) Visual changes
b) AV block
c) Gastrointestinal disturbances
d) Pseudomembranous colitis
e) Atrial tachyarrhythmias
For treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmias are used the following drugs:
a) Quinidine
b) Phenytoin
c) Lidocaine
d) Propanolol
e) Procainamide
Symptoms of digitalis toxicity:
a) disturbed color vision
b) nausea
c) poliuria
d) hypertension
e) first-degree A-V block
Useful in managing serious ventricular arrhythmias due to digitalis overdosage:
a) metoprolol
b) phenytoin
c) phenylephrine
d) adenosine
e) potassium administration
Indicate effects characteristic for cardiac glycosides:
a) negative inotropic
b) negative dromotropic
c) negative chronotropic
d) positive dromotropic
e) positive inotropic
Indicate effects at the therapeutic doses of digoxin in the heart:
a) intensification of the force of contractions of the heart
b) bradycardia
c) slowing of impulse transmission through the conducting system of the heart
d) tachycardia
e) decrease heart automaticity
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Specify mechanism of action of the cardotonic glycosides:
a) inhibits phosphodiesterase
b) inhibits adenylate cyclase
c) inhibits Na + K-ATPase
d) increases calcium concentration in cells
e) decreases calcium concentration in cells
How is modified the concentration of free ions in cardiomyocytes under the influence of
cardiac glycosides?
a) increases the content of potassium ions
b) is reduced potassium ion content
c) increases the content of magnesium ions
d) increases the content of calcium ions
e) is reduced content of calcium ions
Name cardiac glycosides indications:
a) acute heart failure
b) supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
c) bradycardia
d) angina
e) chronic heart failure
Name cardiac glycosides indications:
a) ventricular tachycardia
b) supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
c) acute and chronic heart failure
d) acute myocarditis
e) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome
The remedies used in intoxication with cardiac glycosides:
a) potassium chloride
b) unitiol
c) phenytoin
d) digoxine
e) strophantine
The symptoms of cardiac glycosides intoxication:
a) bradycardia
b) tachycardia
c) altered color vision (xanthopsia)
d) broncospasm
e) hyperpotasiemia
Drug classes used in management of heart failure:
a) diuretics
b) NSAIDs
c) glycozides
d) alpha1 adrenergic agonists
e) bipyridines
Effect(s) of circulating catecholamines on cardiac function:
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a) negative dromotropism
b) reduced contractility
c) negative chronotropism
d) increased cardiac output
e) positive chronotropism
Example(s) of drugs that improve ventricular performance:
a) procainamide
b) amrinone
c) xmilrinone
d) propranolol
e) levosimendan
Cardiac glycosides are still in use today to treat:
a) bronchial asthma
b) cardiac failure
c) atrial fibrillation or flutter
d) angyna pectori
e) acute hypertention
Name the modifications on ECG produced by cardiac glycosides in therapeutical doses:
a) no essential modifications
b) decrease of R-R
c) low amplitude of R
d) high amplitude of R
e) increasing of R-R
Name non glycosides cardiotonics:
a) amrinone
b) corglycon
c) milrinone
d) digoxine
e) strophantine
Choose the positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure:
a) Dopamine
b) Digoxin
c) Dobutamine
d) Adrenalin
e) Strophantine
Choose the positive inotropic drug of non-glycoside structure:
a) Digitoxin
b) Digoxin
c) Dobutamine
d) Strophanthin
e) Milrinone
Name steroid glycosides:
a) amrinone
b) corglycon
c) milrinone
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d)
e)
digoxine
strophantine
List nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) dihydroergotamine mesylate
b) sumatriptan
c) ibuprofen
d) diclofenac
e) caffeine
List triptans mechanism of action:
a)
5HT1b/1d agonist in vasculature
b) antagonist of D2 receptors
c) vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels.
d) vasodilatation of intracranial blood vessels.
e) block calcium channels
Name cardiac glycosides indications:
a) ventricular tachycardia
b) supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
c) acute and chronic heart failure
d) acute myocarditis
e) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome
Name selective inhibitors of myocardial phosphodiesterase III:
a) theophylline
b) dobutamine
c) aminophylline
d) amrinone
e) milrinone
Note the mechanisms of action of cardiotonic digitalis:
a) the inhibition of Na + / K + ATPase
b) the stimulation of Na + / K + ATPase
c) increase in cytoplasmic Ca2 + in cardiac fiber
d) inhibiting the release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2 +
e) pacemaker stimulation
Name orexygenic drugs:
a) Vitamins
b) Bitters
c) Amfepramone
d) Insulin
e) Carnitine
Name drugs that stimulate appetite:
a) Insulin
b) Bitters
c) Sibutramine
d) Vitamins
e) Amphetamine
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List remedies with orexigenic effect:
а) cyproheptadine
б) amphetamine
в) phenfluramine
г)insulin
д) amitryptiline
Indicate pharmacodynamic properties of cyproheptadine:
a) possesses anticholinergic action
b) possesses H1-antihistamine action
c) possesses antiserotonin action
d) excite the receptors of mouth
e) decreases blood glucose
Indicate the mechanisms of action of bitter staff:
a) reflex stimulate hunger center
b) increase appetite as a result of direct action on hunger center
c) stimulates the pancreas function
d) decreases the elimination of bile
e) affect reflectory the central nervous system, which signals the gut to release digestive
hormones that stimulate appetite
Name the preparations that increase the appetite:
a) amfepranone
b) insulin
c) sibutramine
d) bitter stuffs
e) mazindol
Name cyproheptadine indications:
a) gastric ulcer
b) allergic rhinitis
c) gastritis
d) obesity
e) anorexia
Name the antacid preparations:
a) Magnesium trisilicate
b) Atropine
c) Magnesium oxide
d) Sodium bicarbonate
e) Sucralfate
What drugs are contraindicated in active peptic ulcer?
a) phenylbutazone
b) pentazocine
c) omeprazol
d) diazepam
e) acetylsalicylic acid
Name drugs that intensify gastrointestinal motility:
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a) Papaverine
b) Metoclopramide
c) Domperidone
d) Cisapride
e) Neostygmine
Name the mechanism of antiemetic action of metoclopramide:
a) H1 and H2-receptor blocking effect
b) M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect
c) D2-dopamine receptor blocking effect
d) 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect
e) M-cholinoblocking effect
Name emetic drugs with reflex action:
a) Ipecacuanha derivatives
b) Apomorphine hydroclorid
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Metoclopramide
e) Cuprum sulphate
Indicate emetics:
a) Copper sulfate
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Pepsin
d) Diphenhydramine
e) Apomorphine
Name antiemetics:
a) Metoclopramide
b) Ondansetron
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Apomorphine hydrochloride
e) Cuprum sulphate
Name drugs with antiemetic effect:
a) Scopolamine
b) Diphenhidramine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Cyproheptadine
e) Amphetamine
Choose centrally-acting anti-emetics:
a) thiethylperazine
b) cholestyramine
c) bismuth subsalicylate
d) chlorpromazine
e) lidocaine
Indicate antivomiting preparations:
a) apomorphine
b) metoclopramide
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c) thiethylperazine
d) Paraffin oil
e) diphenhydramine
Name antacids:
a) Misoprostol
b) Magnesii oxydum
c) Famotidine
d) Almagel
e) Omeprasole
Antacids are:
a) sodium bicarbonate
b) omeprazole
c) almagel A
d) cimetidine
e) atropine
Drug(s) used iin eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection:
a) metronidazole
b) clarithromycin
c) amoxicillin
d) remantadine
e) tetracycline
Choose antacids that may cause constipation:
a) aluminium hydroxidum
b) aluminium carbonas
c) almagel
d) magnesii subcarbonas
e) magnesii oxydum
Choose antacids that may cause diarrhea :
a) aluminium hydroxidum
b) aluminium carbonas
c) almagel
d) magnesii subcarbonas
e) magnesii oxydum
Side Effects of antiacids are:
a) Constipation (for Aluminum compounds)
b) Diarrhea (for Magnesium compounds)
c) Decreases absorption of other drugs
d) Constipation (for Magnesium compounds)
e) Diarrhea (for Aluminum compounds)
Indicate gastric preparations with antisecretory effect:
a) omeprazole
b) sucralfate
c) cimetidine
d) pirenzepine
e) carbenoxolone
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List H2 histaminoblockers:
a) famotidine
b) omeprazol
c) lansoprazol
d) ranitidine
e) cimetidine
List proton pump inhibitors:
a) famotidine
b) omeprazol
c) lansoprazol
d) ranitidine
e) cimetidine
Indicate the main effects of atropine in duodenal ulcer:
a) stimulates the secretion of gastric glands
b) increases the activity of pepsin
c) contracts pyloric sphincter
d) relaxeses pylorus
e) decreases gastric secretion
Gastric acid secretion is under the control of the following agents:
a) Histamine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Serotonin
d) Gastrin
e) Somatostatine
Remedies used in hyposecretion of digestive glands are:
a) neostigmine
b) atropine
c) galantamine
d) scopolamine
e) cimetidine
Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors:
a) Pirenzepine
b) Ranitidine
c) Omeprazole
d) Trimethaphan
e) Pantoprazole
Pharmaological pecularities of omeprazole are:
a) is a prodrug that needs a low pH to be active
b) irreversible inhibits proton pump
c) is a competitive H2 receptor Antagonist;
d) blocks all types of muscarinic receptors
e) Chemically neutralizes stomach acid
Which of the following drugs is an agent of substitution (replacement) therapy?
a) Gastrin
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b) Diluted hydrochloric acid
c) Pepsin
d) Carbonate mineral waters
e) Omeprazole
For substitution of gastric glands secretion are used:
a) artificial gastric juice
b) natural gastric juice
c) pepsin
d) omeprazole
e) caffeine
Choose the drug which is a H2-receptor antagonist:
a) Omeprazole
b) Pirenzepine
c) Carbenoxolone
d) Ranitidine
e) Famotidine
Indicate pharmacodynamic properties of cimetidine:
a) block H2 receptors
b) blocks M- receptors
c) increases the secretion of gastric juice
d) H1-receptor blocking
e) decreases the secretion of pepsin and HC
All of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors:
a) Pantoprozole
b) Omeprazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Rabeprazole
e) Fluconazol
Indicate the drug belonging to M1-cholinoblockers:
a) Cimetidine
b) Ranitidine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Omeprazole
e) Telenzepine
Selective M1 receptor antagonists are:
a) pirenzepine
b) atropine
c) telenzepine
d) scopolamine
e) neostigmine
Choose the drug that causes constipation:
a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Aluminium hydroxide
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Magnesium oxide
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e) Atropine
Are H2 receptor antagonist:
a) mizoprostol
b) nizatidine
c) omeprazole
d) ranitidine
e) famotidine
Indicate adverse effects of cimetidine:
a) inhibition of liver enzymes
b) hypertention
c) hyperacidity
d) tachycardia
e) gynecomastia
Choose anti-ulcer agents that block proton generations by parietal cells:
a) lansoprazole
b) bismuth compounds
c) ranitidine
d) omeprazole
e) sucralfate
Acting at prostaglandin EP3 receptors on parietal cells & on epithelial cells prostaglandin
agonists inhibits:
a) acid secretion
b) gastrin release
c) pepsin secretion
d) mucus secretion
e) mucosal blood flow
Acting at prostaglandin EP3 receptors on parietal cells & on epithelial cells prostaglandin
agonists stimulates:
a) acid secretion
b) gastrin release
c) pepsin secretion
d) mucus secretion
e) mucosal blood flow
Mechanism of Action of Proton Pump Inhibitors:
a) bloc H2 histaminoreceptors
b) Irreversibly bind to proton pump (H+/K+ ATPase enzyme)
c) Preventing the movement of hydrogen ions from the parietal cell into the stomach
d) bloc M3 cholinoreceptors
e) contain alkaline ions that chemically neutralize stomach gastric acid
List indications of Proton Pump Inhibitors:
a) aErosive esophagitis
b) bZollinger-Ellison syndrome
c) cTreatment of H. pylori-induced ulcers; given with an antibiotic
d) dGastric carcinoma
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e)
eViral hepatitis
Name the groups of substances that reduce the secretion of gastric juice:
a) M-cholinoblockers
b) antacid remedies
c) antigastrinices
d) H2- histaminoreceptors blockers
e) H1- histaminoreceptors blockers
Name gastroprotective drugs:
a) famotidine
b) omeprazole
c) sucralfate
d) pirenzepine
e) bismuth chelate
Name gastroprotectors:
a) cimetidine
b) bismuth salts
c) atropine
d) propantheline
e) sucralfate
Indicate pharmacological characteristic of sucralfate:
a) weakly interacts with intact mucosa
b) extensively covers the ulcer
c) is not absorbed and does not exert systemic effects
d) inhibits gastric acid secretion
e) possesses purgative effect
Name mechanism of action and effects of sucralfate
a) protects the gastric and duodenal mucosa from acid/pepsin attack
b) does not decrease the concentration or total amount of acid in the stomach
c) It works by forming a protective layer on the ulcer to serve as a barrier against acid
d) is weak base that neutralize HCl in the stomach
e) is synthetic Analog of Prostaglandin E1
Name gatroprotectors drugs that forms a paste-like membrane on the surface of ulcer:
a) carbenoxolone
b) mizoprosol
c) omeprazole
d) bismuth subcitrate
e) sucralfate
Severe obesity may be treated by:
a) cyproheptadine
b) amphetamine
c) phenfluramine
d) insulin
e) amitryptiline
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List remedies used in pancreatic hypersecretion:
a)
x aprotinine
b) atropine
c) pancreatin
d) abomine
e) festal
Drugs indicated in acute pancreatitis:
a) aprotinine
b) atropine
c) neostigmine
d) tramadol
e) natural gastric juice
List remedies used in inadequate pancreatic secretion:
a) aprotinine
b) atropine
c) pancreatin
d) abomine
e) festal
Name preparations used in pancreas hyposecretion as substitution:
a) aprotinin
b) digestal
c) misoprostol
d) pancreatin
e) triferment
What are the mechanisms of action of aprotinin in acute pancreatitis?
a) suppress the secretion of pancreatic juice
b) facilitates the excretion of pancreatic juice in the duodenum
c) stimulates the activity of proteolytic enzymes in the blood
d) inhibits the proteolytic enzymes in the blood
e) inhibits the proteolytic enzymes of pancreas
Name the drugs used in the treatment of chronic pancreatitis:
a) panzinorm
b) triferment
c) bisacodyl
d) pancreatin
e) cimetidine
Indicate preparations for replacement therapy in hypoacidity of gastric juice:
a) pepsin
b) natural gastric juice
c) artificial gastric juice
d) atropine
e) drotaverine
Indicate characteristic of pharmacological effects of magnesium oxide:
a) in large doses have purgative action
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b) causes constipation
c) works longer then sodium bicarbonate
d) neutralizes the gastric juice
e) acts momentanly
Are used in treatment of diarrhea:
a) apomorphine
b) loperamide
c) diphenoxylate
d) senadexin
e) bisacodil
Indicate pharmacological characteristic of castor oil:
a) irritate the stomach
b) irritate the bowel
c) act in the small intestine
d) is activated by intestinal juice
e) soften the feces by increasing its volume
Laxatives and purgatives can act through follow mechanisms:
a) stimulates motility through an irritative mechanism
b) stimulates direct cholinergic receptors
c) difussion growth plus active water and electrolytes secretion
d) water retention in the intestines through hydrophilic and osmotic force
e) direct softening of defecation
Name the drugs with antidiarrheal properties:
a) lopiramide
b) abomine
c) atropine
d) morphine
e) castor oil
Name 3 types of drugs with antidiarrheal properties:
a) adsorbents, mucilaginous, opioids
b) opiates, absorbents, anticholinergics
c) osmotic laxative, anticholinergics, stool softners
d) osmotic laxative, stimulants and contact laxatives, stool softners
e) cholinomimetics, stool softners, opiates
Indicate neurotropic spasmolytics:
a) papaverine
b) atropine
c) butylscopolamine
d) neostigmine
e) drotaverine
Indicate the pharmacodynamics of myotropic spasmolitics:
a) H2-receptors stimulates
b) inhibits phosphodiesterase
c) inhibits H2 receptors
d) increases the concentration of cAMP
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e) stimulates adenylate cyclase
Name hepatoprotective preparations:
a) carbenoxolone
b) silymarin
c) sucralfate
d) ademethionine
e) liv-52
Name hepatoprotective preparations:
a) silymarin
b) abomine
c) LIV-52
d) Essential
e) Almagel
Name the preparations from cholelitholytics group:
a) cholosas
b) ursodeoxycholic acid
c) alochol
d) chenodeoxycholic acid
e) colenzim
List tensio-active drugs used for fighting flatulence:
a) Dimethicone
b) Pancreatin
c) Almagel
d) Simethicone
e) atropine
Indicate the mechanisms of action of loop diuretics:
a) block thiol (SH) groups of the epithelial cells enzymes of ascending part of the loop of
Henle
b) inhibit energetic processes, diminishing the active absorption of Na, Cl and partially K ions.
c) inhibits carbonic anhydrase as a secondary mechanism
d) increases osmotic pressure in the blood vessel by attracting fluid bed
e) inhibit aldosterone receptors and prevent mineralocorticoid effects.
What are the main side effects of furosemide:
a) retain uric acid in the body
b) retain potassium in the body
c) increases excretion of calcium ions
d) can cause hyperglycemia
e) retain magnesium in the body
Indicate adverse effects of furosemide:
a) ototoxicity
b) hypercalcaemia
c) dehydration
d) hipernatriemie
e) hypokalaemia
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Adverse effect(s) associated with loop diuretics:
a) hyperglycemia
b) hyperuricemia
c) hypercalcemia
d) ototoxicity
e) potassium depletion
Adverse effect(s) associated with thiazide diuretic use:
a) hypercalcemia
b) hyperglycemia
c) ototoxicity
d) potassium depletion
e) hyperuricemia
Characteristic of mannitol:
a) is antagonist of aldosterone
b) is indicated just in patient with cardiac failure
c) is used just orally
d) decreases the vitreous volume
e) can be given in acute glaucoma
List diuretics used to treat acute intoxication:
a) spironolactone
b) mannitol
c) triamterene
d) urea
e) amiloride
Which of the following diuretics agents would be the LEAST apt to cause hypokalemic
alkalosis?
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Manitol
e) Spironolactone
Which of the following diuretics agents would be apt to cause hypervolemia and
hypertention at the beginning of the treatment?
a) Furosemide
b) Urea
c) Triamterene
d) Manitol
e) Spironolactone
Indications for thiazides:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetus insipitus
c) Hypertension
d) Acute glaucoma
e) Conn's syndrome
Diuretics used to treat hypopotasemia:
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a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Manitol
e) Spironolactone
The following are true with regard to acetazolamide:
a) is a medication used to treat glaucoma
b) is a medication used to treat epilepsy
c) is a medication used to treat altitude sickness
d) is a medication used to treat pulmonary edema
e) is a medication used to treat acute intoxications
Choose properties of acetazolamide:
a) decreases potassium secretion
b) increases HCO-3 elimination
c) may produce metabolic acidosis
d) may produce metabolic alkalosis
e) inhibits carbonic anhydrase
Choose diuretics least likely to produce hypokalemia:
a) chlortalidon
b) amilorid
c) furosemide
d) triamterene
e) ethacrynic acid
Characteristics of mannitol:
a) is a loop Henle diuretic
b) is poorly absorbed from the gut
c) is used in the treatment of cerebral oedema
d) is completely filtered at the renal glomeruli and not reabsorbed from the renal tubule
e) is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Which of the following statements about spironolactone is TRUE?
a) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronism
b) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist
c) Spironolactone is useful as a diuretic
d) Spironolactone is useful as an anti diabetic agent
e) Spironolactone is useful as an anti gout drug
Potassium sparing diuretic:
a) acetazolamide
b) triamteren
c) chlorothiazide
d) bumetanide
e) amiloride
All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true:
a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3
b) Loop diuretics increase Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site
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on the Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter
c) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site
on the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter
d) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubule
e) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretion
These drugs should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Amilorid
c) Furosemide (Lasix)
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamterene
The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:
a) Furosemide
b) Indapamid
c) Spironolactone
d) Sulthiam
e) Torasemide
The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
e) Thiazide like diuretics
List Loop diuretics:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Amiloride
e) Torasemide
These drugs act by affecting the tubular fluid composition by increasing of osmotic
pressure:
a) Furosemide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Triamterene
d) Mannitol
e) Urea
List drugs used in gout treatment:
a) xallopurinol
b) furosemide
c) sulphinpyrazone
d) aspirin
e) acetazolamide
List drugs used in gout crises:
a) prednisolone
b) aspirin
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c) dexamethasone
d) penicillin
e) acetazolamide
Potassium sparing diuretics:
a) Bumetanide
b) Chlorothiazide
c) Amiloride
d) Spironolactone
e) Mannitol
The drug inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase:
a) Furosemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Sultiam
d) Acetazolamide
e) Torasemide
The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Indapamide
The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors, EXCEPT:
a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone
e) Triamteren
The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting
tubules:
a) Furosemide
b) Amiloride
c) Spironolactone
d) Triamteren
e) Hydrochlorothiazide
The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect,
EXCEPT:
a) Spironolactone
b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) Furosemide
d) Amiloride
e) Triamteren
The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:
a) Ehacrinic acid
b) Indapamid
c) Spironolactone
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d) Furosemide
e) Acetazolamide
Name of heparin therapeutic indications:
a) thrombophlebitis
b) thromboses and thrombembolisms
c) to prevent osteoporosis
d) cardiac and vascular surgery
e) anemias
Name heparin therapeutic indications:
a) Thrombophlebitis
b) Deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
c) Thrombocytopenia
d) Brain aneurysm
e) Myocardial Infarction
Characteristics of warfarin:
a) inhibits the vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors
b) inhibit tromboxane activity
c) is indirect anticuagulant
d) is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal system
e) the common side effect is bleeding.
Characteristic of warfarin:
a) has a higher molecular weight than heparin
b) is metabolized chiefly by liver
c) works directly binding with AT III
d) interferes with the production of factor II, VII, IX and X
e) its control is based on the prothrombin time
Characteristic of Heparin:
a) is found in the human mast cells
b) is not active if given orally
c) lowers the plasma triglyceride level
d) binds to anti-thrombin III and increases its inactivation of thrombin
e) is reversed by administration of vitamin K
Indicate pharmacological characteristics for nadroparin:
a) prophylaxis of thromboembolic disease
b) equal anticoagulant and antifybrinolitic actions
c) low molecular weight heparin
d) high molecular weight heparin
e) oral and injectable administration
Indicate pharmacological effects of heparin:
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a) binds to the enzyme antithrombin III
b) inactivates thrombin, factor Xa and other proteases
c) has additional anti-inflammatory action
d) favors platelets agglutination
e) atherosclerotic action
Nume indications of heparin:
a) thrombophlebitis
b) arterial thrombosis and embolia
c) myocardial infarction
d) cardiac and vascular surgery
e) anemia
Name pharmacodinamic effects of cumarinic anticoagulants:
a) decrease hepatic synthesis of factors: II, VII, IX, X
b) antifibrinolytic action
c) are antimetabolites of vitamin K
d) decrease platelet aggregation
e) are used parenterally
Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of dipyridamole:
a) inhibits TXA2 synthesis through acetilation of cyclooxygenase
b) blocks uptake and metabolism of adenosine
c) serotonin antagonist effect
d) inhibits phosphodiesterase and increases the AMPc
e) inhibits synthesis of TXA2 by blocking thromboxane synthase
All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment:
a) Anticoagulant drugs
b) Antifibrinolitic drugs
c) Fibrinolitic drugs
d) Antiplatelet drugs
e) Coagulant drugs
Choose the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action:
a) Acetylsalicylic acid
b) Heparin
c) Acenocumarol
d) Phenandione
e) Nandroparin
Choose drugs used as oral anticoagulants:
a) Enoxaparin
b) Acenocumarol
c) Daltreparin
d) Heparin
e) Warfarin
Choose antiplatelet agents:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Ticlopidine
c) Heparin
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d) Dazoxiben
e) Lamifiban
Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors?
a) Acetylsalicylic acid
b) Clopidogrel
c) Ticlopidine
d) Abciximab
e) Eptifibatide
Which of the following drugs are fibrinolytics?
a) Ticlopidine
b) Streptokinase
c) Acetylsalicylic acid
d) Warfarin
e) Alteplase
Fibrinolytic drugs are used for following:
a) Acute myocardial infarction
b) Heart failure
c) Multiple pulmonary emboli
d) Central deep venous thrombosis
e) GI bleedings
Indicate the drug belonging to fibrinoliytic inhibitors:
a) Aminocapronic acid
b) Ticlopidine
c) Streptokinase
d) Vitamin K
e) Tranexanic acid
Indicate the drugs used in deep venouse thrombosis:
a) phytomenadione
b) alteplase
c) aminocapronic acid
d) heparin
e) aprotinine
Name phytomenadione contraindications:
a) tromboembolia
b) thrombophlebitis
c) blood hypercoagulability
d) overdose of coumarins
e) hipovitaminosis K
Pharmacological characteristics of phytomenadione are:
a) promotes hepatic synthesis of clotting factors
b) the effect increases in case of liver cells damege
c) used to treat haemorrhages related to vitamin K deficiency
d) antidote is protamine sulfate
e) binds to the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT)
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Indicate antifibrinolytic drugs:
a) carbazocrom
b) aminocaproic acid
c) batroxobin
d) aprotinine
e) etamsilat
Pinpoint causes of acetylsalicylic acid should be avoided in patients under treatment with
heparin:
a) inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K
b) interfers with metabolism of heparin
c) is fibrinolytic
d) inhibit the aggregation of platelets
e) causes hemorrage because of tromboxane inhibition
Indicate pharmacological characteristics of warfarin:
a) inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X
b) is avoided in pregnancy
c) used just intravenously
d) indicated in the treatment of thrombosis
e) is oral anticoagulant
Name indications of heparine:
a) thrombophlebitis
b) arterial thromboses and embolia
c) hemophilia
d) brain aneurysm
e) myocardial infarction
Indicate the heparin drugs with low molecular weight:
a) clopidogrel
b) enoxaparin
c) dalteprarin
d) hirudin
e) nadroparin
Indicate pharmacological characteristics of clopidogrel:
a) is drug of heparin
b) stimulates antithrombin II, and blocks thrombin and X factor
c) selectively and irreversibly inhibits platelets receptors of ADP and decrease aggregation
d) used for the prevention of thrombosis
e) may cause thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemorrhage
Indicate the antiaggregant drugs:
a) abciximab
b) tirofibad
c) heparin
d) eptifibatide
e) acenocumarol
Indicate pharmacological characteristics of streptokinase:
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a) fibrinolytic action
b) is indicated in thrombophlebitis
c) antiaggregant effect
d) inhibits the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver
e) is contraindicated in the postoperative period
What are the differences between heparins with low molecular weight(LMWH) versus
standard heparin:
a) oral administration for LMWH
b) marked inhibition of Factor Xa for LMWH
c) marked human thrombin inhibition for LMWH
d) x longer duration of action of for LMWH
e) for LMWH does not cause osteoporosis
Indicate the pharmacological characteristic for coumarin anticoagulants (oral):
a) fast action and short-duration
b) inactivates the enzymes and complex factors Xa, IXa, XIIa, XIa
c) are active both in vitro and in vivo
d) in case of hemorrhagic accidents specific antidote is phytomenadione
e) pass through the placental barrier, and in breast milk
Indicate pharmacological characteristics of streptokinase:
a) is extracted from Streptomices venezuelae cultures filtrate
b) activates convertion of plasminogen in plasmin (fibrinolyitic enzyme)
c) long half-life allows oral administration
d) can be useful in acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, deep vein thrombosis,
peripheral artery occlusion
e) has not been described serious adverse reactions
Indicate the pharmacological peculiarities of acetylsalicylic acid as platelet
antiaggregatory agent:
a) used 1 time per week
b) is useful (among other information) in patients with unstable angina, suspects of myocardial
infarction
c) its given in high doses
d) is given by inhibiting cyclooxygenase
e) main contraindications are allergy, gastrointestinal bleeding, peptic ulcer
Indicate anti-haemorrhagics with systemic action:
a) heparin
b) nandroparine
c) phytomenadione
d) fibrinogen
e) blood clotting factors
Name preparations used for local hemostasis:
a) epinephrine
b) thromboplastin
c) thrombin
d) fibrin
e) phytomenadion
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Indicate hemostatics with antifibrinolytic mechanism of acting:
a) tromboplastin
b) aprotinin
c) aminocaproic acid
d) etamsilate
e) carbazochrome
Indicate drugs used in leucopenia:
a) heparin
b) methyluracil
c) cyanocobalamine
d) pentoxil
e) phenindione
Indicate the coagulant drugs:
a) menadione
b) cyanocobalamine
c) thrombin
d) acenocumarol
e) heparin
Indicate hemostatics:
a) acenocumarol
b) aminocaproic acid
c) warfarine
d) fibrinogen
e) heparin
Indicate hemostatics with topic action:
a) heparin
b) trombin
c) menadion
d) human fibrine
e) gelatine
Indicate direct anticoagulants:
a) heparin
b) acenocumarol
c) fibrinolysin
d) nadroparin
e) sodium hydrocytrate
Indicate the indirect anticoagulants:
a) acenocumarol
b) heparin
c) phenindione
d) warfarin
e) sodium cytrate
Name antifibrinolytics indications:
a) hyperfibrinolysis
b) thrombophlebitis
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c) acute pancreatitis
d) traumatic, hemorrhagic and septic shock
e) myocardial infarction
Name fibrinolytics indications:
a) pulmonary thrombembolia
b) acute myocardic infarction
c) arterial and venoase thrombosis
d) thrombocytopenia
e) hyperfibrinolysis
Name indications of indirect coagulants:
a) gastric hemorrhage
b) thrombophlebitis
c) parenchymal and capillary hemorrhages
d) indirect anticoagulants overdose
e) arterial and venous thrombosis
Indicate the mechanism of anticoagulant action of heparin:
a) activates antihtrombin III
b) decrease activity of factors IX,X,XI,XII and calicrein
c) inhibits tromboplastin activitaty and blocks convertion of protrombin in trombin
d) inhibits protrombine synthesis in the liver
e) activates natural fibrinolysis
Name antiaggregants indications:
a) arterial thrombosis prophylaxis
b) myocardial infarction
c) ischemic cardiopathy
d) cerebral circulatory disorders
e) parenchymal and capillary hemorrhage
Name antifibrinolytics indications:
a) haemorrhages caused by hyperfibrinolysis
b) predisposition to thrombosis
c) hepatic cirrhosis
d) streptokinase overdose
e) arterial thrombosis
Indicate the mechanism of antifibrinolytic effect of aminocapronic acid:
a) decrease plasmin activity
b) inhibits synthesis of clothing factors
c) increase plasmin activity
d) use in the treatment of thrombosis
e) use in the treatment of acute bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity
Indicate pharmacologic characteristics of indirect anticoagulants:
a) absorbed orally
b) inhibit epoxi-reductase that convert vit. K to active form of vit. K
c) they cross the placental barrier
d) used in hemorrhagic syndrome
e) are safe drugs and can be used in pregnancy
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Name the drugs which stimulates leucopoesis:
a) cyanocobalamine
b) pentoxil
c) iron sulphate
d) sodium nucleinat
e) coamide
Name main characteristics of heparin:
a) active both in vivo and in vitro
b) the effect appears after 18-24 hours and last for some hours
c) activates antithrombin III
d) the effect appears almost immediately, and lasts for 3-6 hours
e) inbibits blood clotting only in vitro
Which drugs decrease platelets aggregation?
a) dazoxiben
b) acetylsalycylic acid
c) ridogrel
d) streptokinase
e) heparin
Inhibition of which enzymes are the base of antiaggregants actions:
a) monoaminoxidase
b) phosphodiesterase
c) lipooxygenase
d) cholinesterase
e) cyclooxygenase
Name direct anticoagulants:
a) acenocumarol
b) heparin
c) sodium cytrate
d) nadroparine
e) streptokinase
With regard to iron drug in the human body:
a) it is stored chiefly in the bone marrow
b) 70% of iron in the body is found in the haemoglobin
c) it is transported in the body as transferrin
d) it is absorbed mainly in the ferric form
e) the liver excretes excess iron
Pernicious anemia is:
a) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults, caused by a failure of the
stomach to absorb vitamin B12
b) A form of anemia in which the capacity of the bone marrow to generate red blood cells is
defective, caused by a bone marrow disease or exposure to toxic agents, such as radiation,
chemicals, or drugs
c) Anemia characterized by a decrease in the concentration of corpuscular hemoglobin
d) Is characterized by abnormally large red blood cells, gastrointestinal disturbances, and
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lesions of the spinal cord
e) Anemia characterized by an increase in the concentration of corpuscular hemoglobin
The administration of histamine in man can produce:
a) bronchodilatation
b) increased gastric acid secretion
c) vasodilation and edemas
d) negative chronotropic action
e) reduced secretion of intrinsic factors
Indicate effects characteristic for the NSAIDs remedies:
a) xanti-inflammatory
b) antihistamine
c) adrenergic
d) ganglioblocant
e) analgesic
Common Uses of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS):
a) used to increase intraocular pressure
b) used to relieve pain
c) used in bronchal asthma
d) used to treat arthritis
e) used to reduce signs of inflammation
Name correctly the mechanism of action for acetylsalicylic acid:
a) inhibits phospholipase A2
b) inhibit cyclooxygenase
c) decreased prostaglandin production
d) increases thromboxane A2 production
e) decreases leukotrienes
Name effects of piroxicam:
a) analgesic
b) antispasmodic
c) anti-inflammatory
d) anxiolitic
e) anticoagulant
What effects are caused by inhibition of COX synthesis?
a) antiplatelet
b) immunosuppressive
c) antiallergic
d) antipyretic
e) analgesic
What are the mechanisms of action of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid?
a) inhibits platelet aggregation by stimulating adenylate cyclase
b) intensifies the synthesis of thromboxane A2
c) inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A2
d) irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase
e) inhibits phosphodiesterase
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Name typical effects of steroidal anti-inflammatory remedies:
a) xanti-inflammatory
b) immunostimulatory
c) desensitizing
d) immunosuppressive
e) cholinomimetic
Choose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Ketoprofen
c) Ketorolac
d) Triamcinolone
e) Hydroxychloroquine
Choose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from propionic (arilpropionic) acid
derivatives:
a) phenylbutazone
b) ketorolac
c) ibuprofen
d) diclofenac
e) naproxen
Choose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from indole derivatives:
a) Indomethacin
b) Sulindac
c) Diclofenac
d) Ketoprofen
e) Naproxen
Choose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from oxicams:
a) Indomethacin
b) Sulindac
c) Piroxicam
d) Tenoxicam
e) Lornoxicam
Choose non-selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Meloxicam
b) Celecoxib
c) Piroxicam
d) Tenoxicam
e) Lornoxicam
Choose selective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Meloxicam
b) Celecoxib
c) Piroxicam
d) Tenoxicam
e) Lornoxicam
Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Meloxicam
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b) Celecoxib
c) Prednisone
d) Prednisolone
e) Methylprednisolone
Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with moderate anti-inflammatory and
mineralocorticoid effects:
a) Cortisone
b) Hydrocortisone
c) Prednisone
d) Prednisolone
e) Methylprednisolone
Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with marked anti-inflammatory effect and
practically free from effects of salt and water retention:
a) Cortisone
b) Betamethasone
c) Dexamethasone
d) Prednisolone
e) Methylprednisolone
Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from gold compounds:
a) Sodium aurothiomalate
b) Aurothioprol
c) Auranofin
d) Phenylbutazone
e) Hydroxychloroquine
Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from 4-aminoquinoline derivatives:
a) Sodium aurothiomalate
b) Aurothioprol
c) Chloroquine
d) Phenylbutazone
e) Hydroxychloroquine
Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from cytotoxics:
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Azathioprine
c) Methotrexate
d) Chloroquine
e) Hydroxychloroquine
Choose characteristics of COX-2:
a) It is a constitutive enzyme expressed in most tissues
b) It has a "housekeeping" role in the body
c) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are injured
d) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated by the inflammatory cytokine IL-1
e) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated by the inflammatory cytokine TNF-alpha
Mechanisms of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
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a) Block COX
b) Block phospholipase A2
c) Block 5 lipooxigenase
d) block synthesis of leucotriens
e) Decrease synthesis of prostaglandins
Mechanisms of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Block Cholinestarase
b) Block phospholipase A2
c) Activate directly COX2
d) Activate 5 lipooxigenase
e) Decrease synthesis of prostaglandins
Mechanisms of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Decrease expression of COX-2
b) Increase synthesis of lipocortine
c) Decrease synthesis of lipocortine
d) Increase synthesis of prostaglandins
e) Decrease synthesis of leukotriens
Choose the effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Anti-inflammatory
b) Analgesic
c) Antipyretic
d) Bronchodilator
e) Decrease blood pressure
Choose the effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Antiagregant
b) Moderate desensitizing
c) Tocolytic
d) Orexigenic
e) Anorexigenic
Choose peculiarities of analgesic effect of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) They are effective against mild or moderate pain
b) They are effective against pain arising from inflammation
c) Their ability to relieve headache may be related to the reduction in vasodilator
prostaglandins acting on the cerebral vasculature
d) Their analgesic effect develops only when used in combination with opiod analgesics
e) Higher analgesic effect than opioids
Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Dysmenorrhoea
c) Acute gout
d) Arterial hypertension
e) Bleedings from varicose veins of the esophagus
Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Headache and migraine
b) Musculoskeletal injuries and pain
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c) Osteoarthritis
d) Gastric ulcer
e) Duodenal ulcer
Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Postoperative pain
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Secondary prevention of vascular events among patients with a history of vascular events
d) Bronchial asthma
e) Hemorrhagic cerebro-vascular accidents
Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Hyperpyrexia (fever)
b) Migaine
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
e) Hyperprolactinemia
Choose specific side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Hemathopoetic deregulations
b) Gastrointestinal bleeding
c) Interstitial nephritis
d) Arterial hypotension
e) Bradycardia
Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Bronchospasm
b) Renal papillary necrosis
c) Gastric ulcers
d) Bronchodilation
e) Osteoporosis
Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Gastrointestinal bleedings
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Aspirin - Reye's syndrome
d) Tachycardia
e) Hyperglycemia
Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Suppression of gastroprotective prostaglandins in the gastric mucosa
b) Neutropenia
c) Abnormal liver function tests and rare liver failure
d) Moon face
e) Buffalo hump
Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Cutanous rashes
c) Reversible renal insufficiency
d) Obesity
e) Rebound syndrome
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Which of the following property combinations is peculiar to the majority of NSAIDs?
a) Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic
b) Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory
c) Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
d) Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-aggregant effect
e) Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic
Which of the following are NSAIDs?
a) Indomethacin
b) Clarithromycin
c) Metamizole
d) Diclofenac
e) Ketorolac
Which of the following NSAIDs are not indol derivatives?
a) Diclofenac
b) Meclofenamic acid
c) Indomethacin
d) Ibuprofen
e) Ketorolac
Which of the following NSAIDs are selective COX-2 inhibitors?
a) Diclofenac
b) Celecoxib
c) Indomethacin
d) Piroxicam
e) Nimesulid
The following statements concerning acetylsalicylic acid are true:
a) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits tromboxane A2 formation
b) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits phospholipase A2
c) Acetylsalicylic acid causes Reye syndrome
d) Acetylsalicylic acid irreversibly inhibits COX
e) Acetylsalicylic acid stimulates tromboxane A2 formation
Indication for acetylsalicylic acid administration are the following:
a) Reducing elevated body temperature
b) Relieving severe visceral pain in acute abdomenum
c) Decreasing the incidence of transient ischemic attack
d) Treatment of gastric ulcer
e) Inflammatory conditions
Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to:
a) Decreased recruitment of WBC (White blood cells) and monocyte-macrophage into affected
areas
b) Decreased elaboration of chemotactic substances
c) Increased lipocortin synthesis
d) Decreased lipocortin synthesis
e) Increased recruitment of WBC and monocyte-macrophage into affected areas
Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to:
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a) Decreased synthesis of IL1 by monocyte-macrophage
b) Decreased formation of plasminogen activator
c) Decreased synthesis of arachidonic acid
d) Increased synthesis of IL1 by monocyte-macrophage
e) Increased formation of plasminogen activator
Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to:
a) Decreased fibroblastic activity
b) Decreased expression of COX-2
c) Increased synthesis of arachidonic acid
d) Increased expression of COX-2
e) Decreased expression of lipocortin
Choose contraindications for steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Vaginal yeast infections
b) Patients who are in high risk for infection
c) Peptic ulcer
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus
e) Wegener's granulomatosis
Choose contraindications for steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Fungal infections
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Hypertension
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
e) Psoriatic arthritis
Choose synonyms of slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) Anti-rheumatoid drugs
b) Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)
c) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
d) Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (SAIDs)
e) Selective COX-2 inhibitors
Name slow-acting , anti-inflammatory drugs:
a) chloroquine
b) prednisone
c) diclofenac
d) D-penicillamine
e) cortisol
What side effects can be caused by glucocorticoids?
a) increased blood pressure
b) increased intraocular pressure
c) central nervous system stimulation
d) hyperkalemia
e) gynecomastia
Chronic administration of glucocorticoids results in:
a) hypertension
b) hyperkalaemia
c) hypercalcemia
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d) hyperglicemia
e) ocular hypertension
Corticosteroid inhibits:
a) inflammatory proceses
b) allergic reactions
c) immunity
d) gluconeogenesis
e) lipocortin production
The following are true about corticosteroids:
a) they are synthesized in the adrenal medulla
b) are produced in the adrenal cortex
c) chronic use may predispose to cataract and retinopathy.
d) they suppress immune reactions
e) cause a movement of body fat to the face and torso
Choose pharmacological properties of gold compounds:
a) Alter morphology and function of macrophages
b) Are used in early stages of adult and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
c) Side effects are cutaneous reactions such as erythema and exfoliative dermatitis
d) Side effects are blood dyscrasias and renal toxicity
e) Block COX (cyclooxigenase) and LOX-5 (lipoxygenase -5)
Choose correct affirmations concerning mechanisms of action of 4-aminoquinoline
derivatives:
a) Suppress T-lymphocyte responses to mitogens
b) Decrease leukocyte chemotaxis
c) Stabilize lysosomal enzymes
d) Block COX-1 (cyclooxigenase 1)
e) Block COX-2 (cyclooxigenase 2)
Choose correct affirmations concerning mechanisms of action of 4-aminoquinoline
derivatives:
a) Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis
b) Trapping of free radicals
c) Block PL-A2 (phospholipase A2)
d) Increase expression of lipocortin
e) Decrease expression of lipocortin
Name anti-inflammatory effects of 4-aminochinolinic derivatives?
a) do not change radiological manifestations of the disease
b) develop slowly, not earlier than 4-8 weeks, up to 6-12 months, with reduction of
inflammation, and rheumatoid factor titre
c) are associated with the analgesics
d) appear rapidly, and are used in the acute period
e) are used to reduce platelet aggregation
Choose pharmacological properties of hydroxychloroquine:
a) Is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
b) Is used in the treatment of juvenile chronic arthritis
c) Can cause retinal degeneration
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d) Block PL-A2 (phospholipase A2)
e) Increase expression of lipocortin
Choose pharmacological properties of hydroxychloroquine:
a) Is used for short-term treatment of acute malaria
b) Is used in the treatment of Systemic lupus erythematosus
c) Can affect the eyes
d) Can cause rheumatoid arthritis
e) Can cause Systemic lupus erythematosus
Choose pharmacological properties of penicillamine:
a) works by binding heavy metals
b) should not be used in combination with gold compounds
c) it is used in the treatment of Sclerodermia
d) side effect is aplastic anemia
e) It is used in the treatment of postoperative pain
Choose pharmacological properties of penicillamine:
a) Penicillamine works by binding heavy metals
b) It is used in the treatment of resistant cases of rheumatoid arthritis
c) Side effect is membranous glomerulonephritis
d) It is used in the treatment of aplastic anemia
e) It has antipyretic action
Name drugs used in immediate-allergy :
a) dexamethasone
b) clemastine
c) epinephrine
d) metotrexat
e) chloroquine
Indicate the pharmacological effects of H1-antihistamines:
a) antivomiting effect
b) hypnotic effect
c) antiallergic effects
d) gastric antisecretory effect
e) immunostimulatory
Name additional nonhistamine-related effects of antihitamines:
a) Antimuscarinic reduction in bladder tone
b) Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injected
c) Anti-motion sickness effects
d) Increase in total peripheral resistance
e) Sedation
Name effects of antihistamines :
a) Euphoria and /or disphorya
b) Anticholinergic peripheral effect
c) Vomiting
d) Antiemetic
e) Sedation
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Which of the H1 antihistamines are used to prevent vomiting?
a) astemisol
b) promethazine
c) terfenadine
d) diphenhydramine
e) loratadine
These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects:
a) Phenothiazines;
b) Ethylenediamines;
c) Ethanolamines
d) Piperidines;
e) Piperazines
These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines:
a) Phenothiazines;
b) Ethylenediamines;
c) Ethanolamines
d) Piperidines;
e) Piperazines
Indications for administration of 1st generation histamine H1 antagonists are the
following:
a) Treatment of sleep disorders
b) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness")
c) Management of seizure states
d) Alcoholism
e) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)
Side effects of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists are:
a) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding
b) Sedation
c) Dry mouth
d) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing
e) Aplastic anemia
The following are true about anti-histamines 1st generation:
a) they inhibit the release of histamines from mast cells
b) they have anticholinergic effects
c) they can be used as anti-emetic agents
d) they increase blood pressure
e) they reduce gastric secretion
Name drugs from the I-generation antihistamines:
a) - chloropyramine
b) - clemastine
c) - loratadine
d) - cetirizine
e) - diphenhydramine
Name contraindications for H1 antihistamines:
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a) drivers
b) hepatic and renal insufficiency
c) depressive states
d) rhinitis
e) hight fever
Pharmacodynamic actions of H1 antihistamines, to antagonize the effects of histamine
are:
a) prevent bronchial spasm
b) prevents uterine spasm
c) total antagonize the effects of anaphylactic shock
d) prevents intestinal spasm
e) decrease gastric secretion
Ketotifen has the following properties:
a) antiserotoninic
b) blocks H1 receptors
c) inhibit degranulation of mast cell
d) anticholinergic
e) inhibits histamine release
Name antiallergic without sedative effects:
a) astemizole
b) diphenhydramine
c) loratadine
d) promethazine
e) clemastine
Name effects of H1-antihistamines (I generation) :
a) antiallergic
b) emetic
c) sedative
d) hypothermic
e) orexigen
Contraindications and precautions for H1-antihistamines 1st generation :
a) prostate hypertrophy
b) Menier disease
c) hypotension
d) liver and kidney disease
e) polynosis
Name mechanism of action of H1 antihistamins:
a) contain a groupe ethanolamino as histamine has, works competitively
b) works by preventing the release of natural chemicals from cells in the body (mast cells)
involved in an allergic reaction
c) inhibit competitively H1 receptors and the corresponding effects i. e. vasodilation and
capillary permeability increase
d) are envisaged to enhance body's resistance against infections
e) do not inhibit antigen/antibodies reactions, nor histamine release, they inhibit H1 effects
Name I generation antihistamines:
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a) cloropiramine
b) clemastine
c) loratadine
d) cetirizine
e) x, diphenhydramine
The following are mast cell stabilizers:
a) disodium cromoglycate
b) loratadine
c) ketotifen
d) clemastine
e) nedocromil
The effects of anti-histamines of I generation:
a) sedation
b) arrhythmogenic effect
c) atropine like effects
d) anti-vomiting effect
e) local anesthetic effect
Name pharmacological effects of H1-antihistamines (I generation):
a) antiallergic
b) emetic
c) antiparkinsonian
d) hypothermic
e) anorectic
Indication for administration of histamine H1 antagonists is:
a) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)
b) Motion sickness and vestibular disturbances
c) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness")
d) Gastric and duodenal ulcer
e) Acute pancreatitis
These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines:
a) Astemizole
b) Loratadine
c) Cetirizine
d) Clemastine
e) Chlorophiramine
Indications for administration of histamine H1 antagonists are the following:
a) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)
b) Management of seizure states
c) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness")
d) Treatment of sleep disorders
e) Acute psychosis
Choose examples of second-generation antihistamine:
a) loratadine
b) cyproheptadine
c) astemizole
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d) diphenhydramine
e) cetirizine
Choose antihistaminics most likely to exhibit anticholinergic activity:
a) clemastine
b) terfenadine
c) cetirizine
d) astemizole
e) diphenhydramine
Name therapeutic indications of cyproheptadine:
a) vomiting
b) allergic rhinitis
c) gastric ulcer
d) viral hepatitis
e) anorexia nervosa
Indicate glucocorticoids effects:
a) antiallergic
b) immunostimulant
c) anti-shock
d) xanti-inflammatory
e) anabolic
What is entomology immunomodulatory preparations?
a) extracted from insect tissues
b) alkaloids
c) containing essential and nonessential amino acids
d) preparations of the thymus
e) are polypeptides acquired by genetic engineering involving E. coli.
What are the indications for immunomodulatory entomological preparations?
a) conditions with decreasing resistance body
b) bronchial asthma
c) gastrointestinal bleeding
d) infectious and inflammatory diseases with immunodeficiency
e) duodenal ulcers
Select an endocrine drug which is an amino acid derivative:
a) Insulin
b) Hydrocortisone
c) Calcitonin
d) Levothyroxine
e) Liothyronine
Select endocrine drugs which are peptide derivatives
a) Progesterone
b) Nandrolone
c) Prednisolone
d) Oxitocin
e) Calcitonin
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Select endocrine drugs which are steroidal derivatives:
a) Gonadorelin
b) Insulin
c) Levothyroxine
d) Hydrocortisone
e) Levonorgestrel
Which of the following hormones are produced by the hypothalamus?
a) Estradiol
b) Aldosterone
c) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
e) Somatostatin
Which of the following hormones are produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary?
a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH)
d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
e) Follicule-stimulating hormone (FSH)
All of the following statements about growth hormone are true:
a) Stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration
b) Hypersecretion can result in acromegaly
c) Hyposecretion can result in acromegaly
d) It is contraindicated in subjects with closed epiphyses
e) It is secreted by suprarenal glands
Correct statements about adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) include all of the
following:
a) The oral route is the preferred rout of administration
b) ACTH is most useful clinically as a diagnostic tool in adrenal insufficiency
c) ACTH stimulates the synthesis of corticosteroids
d) Endogenous ACTH is also called corticotropin
e) ACTH inhibits the synthesis of corticosteroids
Indications of bromocriptine are following:
a) Prolactin deficiency
b) Acromegaly caused by hyperprolactinaemia
c) Amenorrhea-Galactorrhea
d) Prolactin-secreting adenomas
e) Parkinson's disease
Indications of oxitocin are following:
a) For control of pospartum uterine hemorrhage
b) Incompleted abortion
c) Labor and augment dysfunctional labor for conditions requiring early vaginal delivery
d) Heart failure
e) Diabetes insipidus
Indications of vasopressin is following, EXCEPT:
a) Incompleted abortion
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b) Pituitary diabetes insipidus
c) Hypertension
d) Diabetes mellitus
e) Сontrol of postpartum uterine hemorrhage
Vasopressin causes a pressor effect by:
a) All of the mechanisms
b) A direct action on smooth muscles of the blood vessels
c) Releasing and activating renin-angiotensin system
d) Releasing noradrenaline from the nerve terminals
e) Activating specific receptors on smooth muscles of the blood vessels
Which of the following hormones is produced by the thyroid gland?
a) Thyroxine
b) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
c) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
d) Thyroglobulin
e) Сalcitonine
Thyrotrophin stimulates the following processes:
a) De-iodination of thyroid hormones
b) Release of triidothyronine
c) Iodination of thyroglobulin
d) Concentration of iodine by thyroid follicles
e) Release of thyroxine
Indications of thyroid hormones are following:
a) For treatment of simple obesity
b) Hashimoto's disease
c) Myxedema
d) Cretinism
e) Basedov-Graves disease
Name hormone drugs:
a) Thyroxine
b) Somatotropin
c) Vasopressin
d) Bromocriptine
e) Oxytocin
The posterior pitutary secrets:
a) Vasopressin
b) Oxytocin
c) Growth hormone
d) Methylergometrine
e) Insulin
Oxytocin produces the following effects:
a) It causes contraction of the uterus
b) It assists the progress of spermatozoa into the uterine cavity
c) It brings about milk ejection from the lactating mammary gland
d) It causes relaxation of the uterus
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e) It has no effect on the milk ejection
The adrenal cortex produces:
a) aldosterone
b) angiotensin II
c) deoxycorticosterone
d) noradrenaline
e) adrenaline
Mineralocorticoid effects cause:
a) Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomen
b) Increased gluconeogenesis
c) Increased Na retention
d) Increased К excretion
e) Increased catabolism
The major mineralocorticoids are the following:
a) Cortisone
b) Budesonid
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Deoxycorticosterone
e) Fludrocortisone
Name naturale corticosteroids:
a) betamethasone
b) cortisone
c) prednisolone
d) triamcinolone
e) hydrocortisone
Side effects for prednisone:
a) Arterial hypertension
b) Gastroduodenal ulcer
c) Retention of sodium and water
d) Hyperpotassemia
e) Central nervous excitation
Name effects of chronic treatment with big doses of prednisolon:
a) decrease of endogenous corticotropin secretion
b) rise of susceptibility to infections disorders
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hydroelectrolitic disturbances
e) Osteoporosis
Glucocorticoid hormones alter bone mineral homeostasis because of :
a) are potent osteopenic agents
b) direct inhibition of matrix synthesis by the osteoblast
c) directly stimulate the secretion of parathormone
d) inhibiting renal calcium excretion
e) decreasing parathyroid hormone stimulated bone resorption
Name toxic effects of the corticosteroids:
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a) Growth inhibition
b) Hypertention
c) Hypoglicemia
d) Psychosis
e) Salt retention
Indications of glucocorticoids are following:
a) Skin diseases (atopic dermatitis, dermatoses, localized neurodermatitis)
b) Inflammatory conditions of bones and joints (arthritis, bursitis, tenosynovitis)
c) Postmenopausal hormonal therapy
d) Gastrointestinal diseases (inflammatory bowel disease)
e) Addison disease
Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:
a) Hypomania or acute psychosis
b) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)
c) Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the
appearance of the face - moon faces)
d) Acute peptic ulcers
e) Diabetes insipidus
The major mineralocorticoids are the following:
a) Aldosterone
b) Deoxycorticosterone
c) Fludrocortisone
d) Hydrocortisone
e) Cortisone
Name side effects caused by steroids:
a) high blood pressure
b) increased intraocular pressure
c) CNS stimulation
d) hyperkalaemia
e) gynecomastia
With regard to thyroxine:
a) synthesized by adrenal cortex
b) used in bronchial asthma
c) it is important for skeletal growth
d) it increases the sensitivity of receptors to catecholamines
e) it increases oxygen consumption
Excessive doses of thyroid hormone may cause:
a) angina pectoris
b) cardiac decompensation
c) adrenal insufficiency
d) psychotic behavior
e) constipation
Indicate the effects of thyroid hormone drugs:
a) increased basal metabolism
b) decreased basal metabolism
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c) tachycardia
d) bradycardia
e) xtremor
Synthesis and release of thyroid hormones are controlled by:
a) Anterior pituitary
b) Hypothalamus
c) Blood levels of thyroid hormones
d) Posterior pituitary
e) Blood levels of cortisole level
Currently used antithyroid drugs include the following:
a) Propylthiouracil
b) Iodine in high dosage
c) Thiamazole
d) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
e) Thyroglobulin
Indications of thyroid hormones are following:
a) Cretinism
b) Myxoedema
c) Hashimoto's disease
d) For treatment of simple obesity
e) Diabetus insipidus
Characteristics of thiamazole:
a) Decreases thyroid hormone synthesis
b) Inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 in T3
c) Causes neutropenia
d) Should be stopped if causes rashes
e) Decreases TSH production
The following statements about the parathyroid hormone are true:
a) The parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands
b) The parathyroid hormone increases calcium and phosphate absorption in intestine
c) The parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium and decreases serum phosphate
d) The parathyroid hormone increases calcium excretion and decreases phosphate excretion in
kidneys
e) The parathyroid hormone decreases calcium and phosphate absorption in intestine
Indications for calcitonin administration are the following:
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Paget's disease
c) Osteoporosis
d) Hypophosphatemia
e) Wegener's granulomathosis
Which of the following statements about calcitonin is true:
a) Calcitonin is secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid
b) lower blood calcium and phosphate by acting on bones and kidneys
c) Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption
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d) Effects of calcitonin are to increase blood calcium and phosphate by acting on bones and
kidneys
e) Calcitonin stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption
Indicate drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus:
a) insulin
b) insulin-zinc-protamine
c) glibenclamide
d) vasopressin
e) adiurecrine
Indicate preparations used in type II diabetes mellitus?
a) glibutid
b) metfornin
c) glucagon
d) prednisolone
e) glibenclamide
Insulin causes reduction in blood sugar level by the following mechanisms:
a) Increased glucose uptake in the peripheral tissue
b) Decreased glucose absorption from the gut
c) Diminished gluconeogenesis
d) Reduction of breakdown of glycogen
e) Increased glucose absorption from the gut
Insulin can be administered by:
) Intramuscular route
b) Subcutaneous route
c) Intravenous route
d) Oral route
e) Intrarectal route
Antidiabetic sulphonylureas act by:
a) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
b) Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral tissues
c) Reducing the hepatic gluconeogenesis
d) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas
e) Stimulating production of insulin by the beta islet cells of pancreas
Thiazolidinediones act by:
a) Diminishing insulin resistance
b) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
c) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
d) Increase glucose uptake and its metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues
e) All of the answers
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by:
a) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
b) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
c) Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-ghucosidases
d) Modulating the postprandial digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides
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e) Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and
adipose tissues
Biguanides are used in the following conditions:
a) In case of hyperglycemic shock
b) In case of hypoglycemic shock
c) To reduce insulin requirements
d) In over weight diabetics
e) As a supplement to sulphonylurea, where it is insufficient to give good results
Biguanides are used in the following conditions:
a) As a supplement to sulphonylurea, where it is insufficient to give good results
b) In diabetes mellitus type I
c) To reduce insulin requirements
d) In case of hyperglycemic shock
e) In over weight diabetics
Metformin characteristics are:
a) It's a biguanide drug
b) Used in diabetes mellitus type II
c) Causes anorexia and weight loss
d) It's a sulphonylurea drug
e) Used in diabetes mellitus type I
Characteristics of metformin:
a) is a biguanide
b) used in Diabetus Mellitus type II
c) causes anorexia and weight loss
d) causes hyperglycemia
e) is contraindicated in Diabetus Mellitus Type I
Characteristics of Thiamazol:
a) decreases thyroid hormone synthesis
b) inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
c) causes neutropenia
d) used in cretinism
e) decreases directly TSH production
Name androgens drugs:
a) testosterone
b) estradiol
c) methyltestosterone
d) cortisone
e) ethinylestradiol
The major natural estrogens produced by women are following:
a) Estriol
b) Ethinyl estradiol
c) Diethylstilbestrol
d) Estron
e) Estradiol
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The major synthetic estrogens are following:
a) Estradiol
b) Estron
c) Benzestrol
d) Diethylstilbestrol
e) Dienestrol
Indications of synthetic estrogens are following:
a) For treatment of simple obesity
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Hormonal contraception
d) Postmenopausal hormonal therapy
e) Primary hypogonadism
Tamoxifen is, EXCEPT:
a) Androgen
b) Antiestrogen
c) Antiandrogen
d) Antiprogestin
e) Estrogen
Mifepristone is:
a) Androgen
b) Antiestrogen
c) Antiandrogen
d) Antiprogestin
e) Antiglucocorticoid
Name Testosterone effects:
a) growth of genitals in a boy
b) muscular development
c) erythropoietin secretion decreased
d) behavioral changes in men
e) growth of facial, pubic & axillary hairs
Name indication for hormone androgen preparations:
a) Insufficient renal anemia treatment
b) inoperable breast cancer in woman during postmenopause
c) hypogonadism
d) amenorhea
e) breast cancer in men
Name characteristic of testosterone:
a) it is a major male hormone
b) it is highly effective by the oral route
c) it is reduced to dihydrotestosterone in the body
d) it is produced by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal cortices
e) it is a major female hormone
Name Testosterone effects:
a) Growth of genitals in men
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b) Muscular development
c) Decrease of erythropoietin secretion
d) Behavioral changes in men
e) Growth of facial, pubic & axillary hairs
Mechanism of action of oral contraceptives:
a) Inhibition of follicular development & ovulation
b) Thicken of cervical mucus
c) Inhibition of implantation of blastocyst in endometrium
d) Indirect inhibition of spermatogenesis
e) Activation of follicular development & ovulation
All of the following statements about oral contraceptives are true:
a) The "combination pill" contains both estrogen and progestin
b) Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol are commonly used in oral contraceptives
c) The "minipill" contains progestin alone
d) The "triphasic pill" contains estrogen, progestin, and luteinizing hormine (LH)
e) The "triphasic pill" contains progestin, and luteinizing hormine (LH
General principles of anti-infective therapy are:
a) Clinical judgment of microbiological factors
b) Definitive identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism's susceptibility
c) Optimal route of administration, dose, dosing frequency and duration of treatment
d) Identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism's susceptibility is not important
e) Optimal route of administration is always internally
Which of the following antienzymes are beta-lactamase inhibitors?
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Neostigmine
c) Tazobactam
d) Aminocaproic acid
e) Disulfiram
Name inhibitors of betalactamase?
a) clavulanic acid
b) tazobactam
c) sulbactam
d) ticarcillin
e) piperacillin
Name antibiotics from beta lactamines:
a) ampicillin
b) rifampicin
c) tetracycline
d) benzylpenicillin
e) gentamicin
Describe pharmacokinetic properties of benzylpenicillin?
a) resistance on gastric juice action
b) used just orally
c) in case of a healthy meninx weak penetration in cephalo rachidine liquid
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d) most of the dose - predominantly renal elimination
e) sensitivity at beta-lactamase
The following medication can cause ototoxicity:
a) cephalexin
b) kanamycin
c) penicillin
d) gentamicin
e) vancomycin
Name characteristics for aminoglycosides:
a) are absorbed well after oral administration
b) prevent the synthesis of protein bacterias
c) all generations are used in tuberculosis
d) excretes through glomerular filtration without significant tubular resorbtion
e) are used in anaerobic infections
Aminoglycosides can be associated (acting synergistically) with antibiotics group:
a) tetracycline
b) glycopeptide
c) macrolide
d) beta-lactamins
e) polimixines
The following medications can cause neuromuscular block:
a) gentamycin
b) cefuroxim
c) streptomycin
d) pilocarpine
e) kanamycin
With regard to gentamicin:
a) it is used just orally
b) it is well absorbed by the small intestine
c) it can produce permanent vestibular nerve damage
d) it can cause neuromuscular block
e) it can produce nephrotoxicity
The main side efects of aminoglycosides are :
a) Ototoxicity
b) Nephrotoxicity
c) Extrapyramidal disorders
d) Neuromuscular blockade
e) Hepatotoxicity
Characteristics of cefuroxime:
a) inhibits cell wall synthesis
b) has cross-sensitivity with penicillin
c) is an enteral second-generation cephalosporin antibiotic.
d) is a third generation cephalosporin
e) is less toxic to the renal function than gentamicin
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Macrolides are naturally resistant to:
a) Bacillus fragilis
b) Pseudomonas
c) Chlamydia
d) Acinetobacter
e) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
The following antibiotics are bacteriostatic:
a) penicillins
b) erythromycin
c) isoniazid
d) chloramphenicol
e) cephalosporins
The following are true about tetracycline:
a) treat Chlamydia
b) should be avoided in children
c) are used in viral infections
d) broad-spectrum antibiotics
e) inhibit the cell wall synthesis
Characteristics of gentamycin:
a) is poorly soluble in lipid and therefore needs to be given parenterally
b) is excreted exclusively by the kidneys
c) inhibits presynaptic acetylcholine release with neuro-muscular block
d) causes ototoxicity
e) inhibits cell wall synthesis of bacteria
Characteristics of vancomycin:
a) inhibits bacteria DNA synthesis
b) is effective against Gram negative aerobic organisms
c) is well absorbed from the gut
d) is a type of glycopeptide antibiotic
e) stimulates the release of histamine
Drugs that are bacteriostatic include:
a) cephalexin
b) gentamicin
c) chloramphenicol
d) tetracyclines
e) penicillin
Charactristics of aminoglycosides:
a) are effective against anaerobic infection
b) cause nephrotoxicity
c) Very active against Gr- aerobic bacillus
d) are not effectively against systemic infection if given orally
e) cause ototoxicity
With regard to vancomycin:
a) is a glycopeptide
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b) can cause ototoxicity
c) is bacteriostatic in action
d) is bactericidal in action
e) causes “Red man” syndrome
Describe vancomycin:
a) is an aminoglycoside.
b) ototoxicity and nephrotocicity common sides effects
c) targets the RNA of bacteria.
d) is used in parenterally way
e) is used against Gram positive bacteria.
Describe vancomycin:
a) active on gram-positive cocci
b) is a type of glycopeptide antibiotic
c) causing ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
d) active on gram-negative flora
e) bacteriostatic
Name unwanted effects of vancomycin:
a) Gray baby syndrom
b) Ototoxicity
c) "Red neck" syndrome, phlebitis
d) Cristaluria
e) Pneumonitis
Vancomicin has the following unwanted effects:
a) Pseudomembranous colitis
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) "Red men" syndrome
d) All of the above
e) Phlebitis
All of the following drugs are antibiotics:
a) Streptomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Co-trimoxazole
d) Chloramphenicol
e) Ciprofloxacine
Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect?
a) Tetracyclines
b) Macrolides
c) Penicillins
d) Aminiglycosides
e) Cephalosporins
Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect:
a) Carbapenems
b) Macrolides
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Cephalosporins
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e) Tetracyclines
Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure:
a) Penicillins
b) Cephalosporins
c) Carbapenems
d) Monobactams
e) Tetracyclines
Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides and azalides:
a) Neomycin
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Cefotaxime
e) Azithromycin
Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-carbapenems:
a) Aztreonam
b) Amoxacillin
c) Imipinem
d) Clarithromycin
e) Meropenem
Tick the drug belongs to antibiotics-cephalosporins:
a) Streptomycin
b) Cefaclor
c) Phenoxymethylpenicillin
d) Erythromycin
e) Cefalexin
Tick the drug belonging to lincosamides:
a) Erythromycin
b) Lincomycin
c) Clindamycin
d) Azithromycin
e) Aztreonam
Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:
a) Doxycycline
b) Minocycline
c) Streptomycin
d) Clarithromycin
e) Amoxacillin
Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:
a) Gentamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Clindamycin
d) Neomycin
e) Amoxacillin
Tick the drug belonging to glycopeptides:
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a) Vancomycin
b) Lincomycin
c) Neomycin
d) Carbenicillin
e) Teicoplanin
Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are:
a) Beta-lactam antibiotics
b) Tetracyclines
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Macrolides
e) Glycopeptides
All of the following antibiotics inhibit the protein synthesis in bacterial cells:
a) Macrolides
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Glycopeptides
d) Tetracyclines
e) Cycloserine
Choose antibiotics from carbapenems:
a) Thienam
b) Amoxacillin
c) Bicillin-5
d) Penicillin
e) Imipenem
Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins:
a) Cilastatin
b) Sulbactam
c) Sultiam
d) Aztreonam
e) Tazobactam
All of the following antibiotics are macrolides:
a) Erythromycin
b) Clarithromycin
c) Lincomycin
d) Roxythromycin
e) Aztreonam
Tetracyclins have following unwanted effects:
a) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa, phototoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect
c) Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
d) Myocardial infarction
e) Addison syndrome
Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:
a) Erythromycin
b) Gentamycin
c) Vancomycin
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d) Polymyxin
e) Kanamycin
Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects
a) Pancytopenia
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Ototoxicity
d) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa
e) Nephrotoxicity
Name antibiotics used parenterally:
a) streptomycin
b) erythromycin
c) gentamicin
d) ampicillin
e) imipinem
Choose antibiotics most likely to produce increased neuromuscular-blockade in the
presence of nondepolarizing blockers:
a) vancomycin
b) kanamycin
c) amikacin
d) gentamicin
e) ampicillin
Name characteristic for Aztreonam?
a) is a monobactam antibiotic
b) is active against gram-negative bacteria
c) is active against Pseudomonas aeroginosa
d) is active against protozoa
e) is active against helmints
With regard to tetracycline:
a) directly inhibits DNA synthesis in bacteria
b) crosses the placenta and accumulates in foetal skeleton
c) side effects include poor tooth development
d) have a narrow spectrum of antibiotic action
e) used just intravenously
Name semisynthetic tetracyclines:
a) tetracicline
b) doxycycline
c) metacycline
d) demeclocycline
e) minocycline
Name spectrum of action for tetracyclines:
a) chlamydia
b) mycoplasma
c) brucella
d) helmints
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e) rickettsiae
What antimicrobial inhibits bacterial protein synthesis following attachment of 30 S
subunits of ribosomes?
a) clindamycin
b) tetracycline
c) chloramphenicol
d) imipenem
e) doxycycline
Charactristics of chloramphenicol:
a) inhibits cell wall synthesis
b) is active against Haemophilus and Neisseria
c) causes ototoxicity
d) causes aplastic anaemia
e) should not be given to newborns
What remedies inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, following attachment of 50S ribosomes
subunits:
a) chloramphenicol
b) clarithromycin
c) clindamycin
d) tetracycline
e) doxycycline
Name pharmacological properties of chloramphenicol:
a) choice for systemic salmonellosis
b) not acting in anaerobic infections
c) induces gray syndrome
d) induced aplastic anemia
e) does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier
Name the chloramphenicol causes of gray syndrome in neonates and premature:
a) excessive doses
b) baby diseases
c) liver enzyme deficiency of glucuronyltransferase
d) genetic predisposition
e) association with penicillins
Concerning sulfonamides:
a) act as competitive inhibitors of the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase
b) are big group from antibiotics
c) certain sulfonamides are sometimes mixed with the drug trimethoprim
d) contraindicated in pregnancy and newborn
e) minimal side effects
Charactristics of sulphonamides:
a) inhibit the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid to folate
b) are bactericidal
c) can be combined with trimethroprim
d) are used just intravenously
e) are a known cause of Steven-Johnson's syndrome
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Sulfonamides are effective against:
a) Bacteria and Chlamidia
b) Grame negative aerobes
c) Gonococcus
d) Echinococcus
e) Cytomegalovirus
Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects:
a) tendinitis and tendons ruptures
b) crystalluria
c) peripheral neuropathy
d) neuro-muscular block
e) gray baby syndrome
Tick the antibacterial drug - a quinolone derivative:
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Nalidixic acid
c) Streptomycin
d) Pipemidic acis
e) Nystatine
The following are true about fluoroquinolone:
a) it acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase
b) ciprofloxacin is poorly absorbed by the gastrointestinal system
c) corneal deposition is a complication of topical ofloxacin
d) it is active against gram negative bacilli
e) have been shown to contribute to tendinopathies
Name indications for fluoroquinolones:
a) Urinary tract infections
b) Gonorrhea
c) Urethritis
d) Treatment of pneumonia
e) Listeriosis
Antimicrobials that inhibit folic acid synthesis include:
a) ciprofloxacine
b) sulfonamides
c) pyrimethamine
d) clindamycin
e) tetracycline
Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following:
a) Active transport out of a microorganism
b) Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism
c) Modification of a drug's target
d) Reduced uptake by a microorganism
e) Hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes produced by a microorganism
Antimalarial drug classification:
a) penicillin
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b) metronidazol
c) quinine
d) tetracyclines
e) chloroquine
Characteristics of quinine:
a) is a medication to treat malaria
b) highly effective schizonticide against P vivax, P ovale, P falciparum, P. malariae
c) is a medication to treat viruses infection
d) is antibiotic used just in anaerobes infections
e) is used just intravenously
Name metronidazole indications:
a) amebiasis
b) malaria
c) syphilis
d) duodenal ulcer
e) anaerobic infections
True statements about metronidazole include:
a) it is bacteristatic
b) it inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
c) it is most effective against Gram positive bacteria
d) it is most effective against Gram negative bacteria
e) alcohol should be avoided while taking metronidazole
Name effective preparations in echinococcosis:
a) mebendazole
b) albendazole
c) piperazine
d) befeniu
e) pirviniu
Name metronidazole indications:
a) tuberculosis
b) lambliozis
c) amebiasis
d) malaria
e) trichomoniasis
Show drugs used to treat giardiasis:
a) levamisole
b) metronidazole
c) furazolidone
d) pyrantel
e) mebendazole
Specify pharmacological peculiarities typical for interferons:
a) antiviral
b) immunomodulatory
c) antiproliferative
d) induce biochemical changes that create an antiviral state in infected cells
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e) antioxidant
Name antivirals effective against flaviviruses (hepatitis C virus):
a) Interferon alfa-2b
b) PEG-interferon alpha-2b
c) PEG interferon alpha-2a
d) foscarnet
e) Interferon alfa-2a
Ganclovir characteristics:
a) is effective against cytomegalovirus infection
b) causes bone marrow failure
c) is effective against HIV infection
d) is effective against influenza
e) inhibits DNA polymerase
Drugs effective against cytomegalovirus include:
a) acyclovir
b) gancyclovir
c) foscarnet sodium
d) zidovudine
e) amantadine
Name drugs that inhibit viral enzymes?
a) acyclovir
b) zidovudine
c) ethambutol
d) saquinavir
e) indinavir
Group of endogenous proteins that exhibit antiviral activities:
a) ribavirin
b) interferon beta
c) ganciclovir
d) vidarabine
e) interferon alpha
The indication for interferon alpha administration is:
a) Hepatitis C virus infection
b) Treatment of sleep disorders
c) Kaposi's sarcoma
d) Can be used to treat multiple sclerosis
e) All of the answers
Name poliene antibiotics:
a) grizeofulvine
b) ristomicine
c) kanamycin
d) amphotericin B
e) natamycin
Which of the following drugs is used for candidiasis treatment:
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a) Nystatine
b) Ampicillin
c) Myconazol
d) Streptomycin
e) Gentamicin
Name drugs that demonstrate a fungicidal effect:
a) Cloramphenicol
b) Amfotericin B
c) Ketoconazole
d) Myconazole
e) Imipinem
Choose antifungal remedies:
a) nystatine
b) tropicamide
c) rifampicin
d) fluconazole
e) cocaine
Name antifungal drugs from imidazole derivatives group:
a) econazole
b) flucytosine
c) amphotericin B
d) ketoconazole
e) miconazole
Specify the first choice drugs in superficial candidiasis:
a) clotrimazole
b) flucytosine
c) nystatin
d) amphotericin B
e) ketoconazole
Characteristic of fluconazole:
a) used systemically
b) is an antifungal medication
c) is an antibiotic
d) prevents the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol from fungal membrane
e) inhibits cell wall
Name therapeutic indications of miconazole:
a) iv infusion in severe fungal infections with coccidioides
b) per os in oral and intestinal candidiasis
c) topic in pityriasis
d) intravaginal in candidiasis
e) per os in trichomoniasis
Specify polyene antifungal antibiotic:
a) nystatin
b) griseofulvin
c) amphotericin B
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d) flucytosine
e) capreomycin
Specify anti leprous drugs:
a) nalidixic acid
b) co-trimoxazole
c) solasulfon
d) dapsone
e) nitroxoline
Tick the antibiotics that have antituberculous action:
a) Ampicillin
b) Penicillin
c) Kanamycin
d) Gentamicin
e) Rifampicine
Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:
a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
c) Inhibition of ADP synthesis
d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
e) Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
Mechanism of Rifampicin's action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II
d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
Isoniazid has following unwanted effect:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Loss of hair
d) Immunotoxicity
e) Peripheral neuropathy
Specify pharmacological typical peculiarities of Ethambutol:
a) is an antilepros drug
b) is an antituberculosis drug
c) mechanism of antituberculous action is bacteriostatic
d) mechanism of antileprous action is bactericidal
e) can cause optic neuritis
Specify pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for the hormonal drugs from
antitumor grups:
a) estrogen is used in prostate cancer
b) androgens are used in breast cancer
c) antiandrogens are used in prostate cancer
d) antiestrogens are used in breast cancer
e) aminoglutethimide inhibit aromatase
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Specify group of monoclonal antibodies from antitumor preparations:
a) transtuzumab
b) rituximab
c) bevacizumab
d) vincristine
e) colchicine
Specify antitumor preparations made by vegetal origin:
a) vinblastine
b) vincristine
c) vinorelbine
d) bevacizumab
e) bruneomicine
Cyclosporin A:
a) can only be given orally as it is too toxic to be given intravenously
b) it may be given prophylactically to reduce organ rejection before transplantation
c) causes little bone marrow suppression
d) causes renal impairment
e) acts specifially on cytotoxic T lymphocytes
The following cytotoxic drugs are immunosuppressive drugs:
a) chlorambucil
b) cyclophosphamide
c) vinblastine
d) mielopid
e) timogen
Name immunosuppressive drugs:
a) imupurine
b) thiamazole
c) interferon
d) cyclophosphamide
e) chlorambucil
The Immunosuppressive agents are:
a) Corticosteroids
b) Imunofan
c) Cyclosporine
d) Tacrolimus
e) Interferon
Cytotoxic agents are the following:
a) Azathioprine
b) Imupurin
c) Ampicillin
d) Cyclophosphamide
e) Clemastine
Name cytostatics:
a) azathioprine
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b) diphenhydramine
c) cyclosporine
d) ipratropium
e) mercaptopurine
Name the indications for immunosuppressive preparations:
a) rheumatoid arthritis
b) allergic rhinitis
c) lack of glucose-6-fosfatdehidrogenase
d) organ transplantation
e) collagen diseases
Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:
a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells)
b) Inhibiting function of tissue macrophages and other antigen-presenting cells
c) Activation of Cyclooxygenase I&II expression that results in reducing amount of an enzyme
available to produce prostaglandins
d) Activation of phospholipase A2 and reducing prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis
e) Activation of cyclooxygenase II expression that results in reducing amount of an enzyme
available to produce prostoglandins
Cyclosporine A is from the group, EXCEPT:
a) Immunoglobulins
b) Monoclonal antibodies
c) Immunosuppressive agents
d) Interferons
e) Immunostimulating agents
Indication for interferon alpha administration is, EXCEPT:
a) Hepatitis C virus infection
b) Organ transplantation
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Autoimmune diseases
e) Hepatitis A virus infection
Indications for interferon alpha administration are:
a) Chronic granulomatous disease
b) Hepatitis C virus infection
c) Kaposi's sarcoma
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
e) Prophylaxis of sensitization by Rh antigen
Optic neuropathy occurs in deficiency of the following vitamins:
a) vitamin A
b) phytomenadione
c) riboflavine
d) retinyl acetate
e) cyanocobolamine
The following are true about vitamin A:
a) it is fat soluble
b) it is water soluble
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c) deficiency can lead to scurvy
d) deficency causes pellagra.
e) deficiency can lead to night blindness
Fat-Soluble Vitamins are:
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin C
The following are true about vitamin A deficiency:
a) causes night blindness
b) causes scurvy
c) causes pellagra
d) causes Beri-beri.
e) the immune system is impaired by vitamin A deficiency
Name clinical uses of vitamin D:
a) Osteoporosis
b) Nutritional rickets
c) Scurvy
d) Pellagra
e) Beriberi
Optic neuropathy occurs in deficiency of the following vitamin B:
a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B3
d) Vitamin B6
e) Vitamin B12
Symptom of vitamin A deficiency are:
a) Night blindness - lessened ability to see in dim light
b) Xerophthalmia and keratomalacia
c) Various epithelial tissue defects
d) Osteoporosis
e) induced Parkinson disease
Choose the correct statements relating to adverse allergic reactions:
a) appear due to pharmacokinetic features
b) does not depend on the dose
c) are characteristic of drugs with a high intrinsic toxicity and narrow therapeutic window
d) are crossed for structurally related compounds
e) high incidence when drugs are given orally
Choose drug complications caused by the suspension of medication:
a) idiosyncrasy
b) the liver enzyme induction
c) suppression of hepatic enzymes
d) Rebound syndrome
e) absence syndrome
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Name drug complications caused by the patients hypersensitivity:
a) immediate immunoallergic type reactions
b) delayed immunoallergic type reactions
c) tachyphylaxis
d) tolerance
e) dysbacteriosis
Indicate antidotes definitions:
a) drug possessing action to neutralize and / or elimination of toxic substances
b) drug preventing action to develop symptoms of intoxication with a certain toxic
c) drug which possess antagonistic action against a specific toxic
d) drug possessing agonistic action to a particular toxic
e) drug potentiating action of a particular toxic
Specify how to divide antidotes according to the mechanism of action:
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Physiological
d) Inhibitory
e) Stimulatory
Name antidotes used in morphine and other opioid analgesics intoxication:
a) naloxone
b) nalorphine hydrochloride
c) izonitrozin
d) dipiroxim
e) aloxim
Name antidotes used in organophosphorus compounds poisoning:
a) naloxone
b) nalorphine hydrochloride
c) izonitrozin
d) dipiroxim
e) aloxim
Indicate groups of drugs causing depression more frequently as adverse effects:
a) centrally acting hypotensive drugs
b) tranquilizers
c) beta-adrenoblockers
d) adrenomimetics
e) MAO inhibitors
Specify groups or drugs frequently cause side effects such as mixed liver injury:
a) NSAIDs
b) anti-tuberculous drugs
c) contraceptives
d) beta-adrenoblockers
e) converting enzyme inhibitors
Specify drugs that cause more frequently as adverse effect bronchospasm:
a) acetylsalicylic acid
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b) propranolol
c) neostigmine
d) ipratropium bromide
e) salbutamol
Specify preparations that cause more frequently as adverse effect orthostatic hypotension
and collapse:
a) trimetaphan
b) nifedipine
c) clonidine
d) izoturon
e) dopamine
Specify drugs would frequently cause anaphylaxis as a side effect:
a) penicillins
b) procaine
c) famotidine
d) omeprazole
e) diphenhydramine
Specify drugs would cause more frequently as adverse effect duodenal and gastric ulcer:
a) prednisolone
b) acetylsalicylic acid
c) diclofenac
d) sucralfate
e) misoprostol
Specify groups of drugs that would cause more frequently as adverse effect
dysbacteriosis:
a) antibiotics
b) nitrofurans
c) glucocorticoids
d) NSAIDs
e) converting enzyme inhibitors
Specify drugs possessing a major potential to develop drug addiction:
a) trimeperidine
b) diazepam
c) amfepramone
d) diclofenac
e) piracetam
Which drugs can cause ototoxicity?
a) Furosemide
b) Gentamycine
c) Kanamycin
d) Acetazolamide
e) Scopolamine
Which drugs can cause neuro-muscular blocking effect?
a) Streptomycine
b) Gentamycine
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c) Kanamycin
d) Acetazolamide
e) Scopolamine
Which drugs can cause xerosthomia?
a) Atropine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Scopolamine
d) Neostigmine
e) Pilocarpine
Which drugs can cause ventricular arhythmias?
a) Loratadine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Cetirizine
d) Clemastine
e) Cyproheptadine
Which drugs can cause somnolence?
a) Loratadine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Cetirizine
d) Clemastine
e) Cyproheptadine
Which drugs can cause constipation?
a) Atropine
b) Neostigmine
c) Pilocarpine
d) Scopolamine
e) Platyphylline
Which drugs can cause specific side effect- dry cough?
a) Captopril
b) Clonidine
c) Salbutamol
d) Enalapril
e) Lisinopril
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