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Engineering of Genes and Protein
I PG Microbiology
II Semester
Mrs. T. Dhanalakshmi
1. Which solvent used to precipitate the protein
a. methanol b. butanolc. c. ethanol d. none
2. . Which is used to separate the Dnamolecule(agarose).
a. Ploy Acrylamid b.Agarose c. both d. None
3.
GEAC stands for _________.
a. Genetic engineering approval committee. b. Genetic engineering action committee. c.
Genetic engineering action council. d. Genetic engineering approval council
4.
DNA fragments are _________ charged and hence move ______ the anode.
a. positively, towards. b. negatively, towards. c. positively, against. d. negatively,
against.
5. The cell wall of bacterium is digested by ________.
a. Protease. b. Chitinase. c. Lysozyme d. Amylase
6. Cloning is highly possible in _______.
a. bacteria. b. virus. c. fungi. d. algae.
7. Which organism is known as guinea pig?
a. Escherichia coli. b. Bacillus subtilis. c. Saccharomyces cerevisiae. d. Streptomyces
aureus.
8.
What type of treatment is carried out in transformation of E.coli? .
a. MgCl2 treatment. b. NaCl treatment. c. AgCl2 treatment d. CaCl2 treatment
9.
Where genes are located?
a. Nucleus. b. Ribosomes. c. Endoplasmic reticulum. d. Golgi complex
10. During the RNA isolation procedure, nuclear and cytoplasmic fractions were treated with
phenol/chloroform in order to precipitate ________.
a. DNA. b. RNA. c. proteins. d. b and c
11. Absolute ethanol is used in RNA isolation to _________.
a. precipitate DNA. b. precipitate RNA. c. precipitate proteins. d. dissolve RNA
12. The agarose gel used for the Northern blotting procedure contained formaldehyde. What
is its significance?
a. To denature proteins. b. To keep RNAs in their native form during electrophoresis c.
To make RNAs denatured during elec. d. To make RNAs positively charged
13. The proteins separated in SDS PAGE will carry _______ charge
a. positive. b. neutral. c. negative. d. no.
14. SDS used in PAGE will impart _______ charge to the protein.
a. positive. b. negative. c. Neutral d. a & b.
15. DNA is separated on agarose based on its ______.
a. length. b. charge. c. molecular weight. d. a & b.
16. On increasing the agarose concentration pore size will _________.
a. decrease. b. increase. c. remain the same. d. not be affected
17. Agarose used in electrophoresis is obtained from _______ .
a. fungi. b. bacteria. c. sea weed d. actinomycetes
18. Plasmid DNA and genomic DNA differ in density can be separated by ______.
a. enzymatic digestion. b. EtBrCaesium chloride density gradients. c. PEG separation
methods. d. chromatographic methods
19. To Concentrate and remove caesium chloride from DNA, dialysis is done against ______
buffer.
a. TE. b. PBS. b. TBE. d. phosphate.
20. Quantification of nucleic acids can be carried out by _______.
a. caesium chloride gradients. b spectrophotometric methods. C. chromatographic
methods.d. alkaline lysis method.
21. Quantification of DNA is done at ________nm.
a. 260 b. 290 c. 280 d. 220.
22. Purity of nucleic acids can be can be checked by measuring OD at ______nm & _____nm.
a. 260,280. b. 265,285. c. 260,285. d. 265,280.
23. Which of the following method of quantification is based on fluorescent staining of DNA?
a. Agarose gel electrophoresis. b. Spectrophotometry. c. Chromatography. d. Alkaline
lysis method
24. Which filter paper is in Northern blot
a. aminobenzyloxymethyl paper b. Nylon c. Nitrocellulose d. Cellulose
25. Which method of DNA quantification is performed with the help of UV absorption?
a. Agarose gel electrophoresis. b. Spectrophotometry. c. Chromatography. d. Alkaline
lysis method
Section B
1. Discuss briefly the technique of western blotting.
2. What are the steps involved in the isolation of plasmids from bacteria?
3. Discuss briefly on chromosome walking
4. Describe briefly the quantification of DNA and RNA.
Section C
1. Give detailed an account on the isolation and purification of nucleic acid.
2. Describe the blotting methods.
Unit 2
26. A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by joining together
a. one mRNA with a DNA segment b. one mRNA with a tRNA segment c. two mRNA
molecules d. Two DNA segments
27. Restriction endonucleases have the ability of cutting
a. DNA at random sites b. DNA at specific sites c. Both a and b d. DNA and RNA at
random sites
28. Endonucleases, a group of enzymes cleave DNA
a. Externally b. Internally c.Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
29. Which group of enzymes are popularly called “Molecular stichers―
a. restriction Endonuclease b. Ligases c. RNA polymerase d. DNA polymerase
30. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at a specific site called
a. ligation site b. Ori c. recognition sequence d. replication site
31. Restriction endonucleases are also called
a. molecular scissors b. Molecular stichers c. DNA synthesis d. polymerases
32. EcoR1 cleaves DNA at
a) 5/G AATTC3 (2) /GTT↓AAC3/ (3)5/C↓AATTG3 (4) 5/GGGCC↓T3/
33. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from
a. E.coli only b. E.coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage c. Saccharomyces d.
Retroviruses
34. Most commonly used enzyme for the construction of gene libraries is ______.
a. Bam HI. b. Hind II. c. Hind I. d. Bal II
35. Which of the following restriction enzyme recognizes the methylated sequences?
a. TypeI. b. TypeII. c. TypeIII. d. TypeIV
36. GANTC is the recognition site of _________.
a. XhoII. b. BamHI. c. SstI. d. HinfI.
37. Pick out the isoschizomers
a. SacI&SstI. b. BamHI&NotI. c. Sau3AI &SacI. d. BamHI&SstI
38. Type II restriction endonucleases requires ________.
a. ATP. b. magnesium ions. c. SAM. d. GTP.
39. Gene library is a term used to describe _________.
a. a computerized listing of known DNA sequences .b. bacteria with plasmids
containing DNA fragments representing the majority of the genetic informationfrom
a plant or animal. c. a collection of books about recombinant DNA technology. d. a
compilation of the amino acid sequences of protein coding genes.
40. DNA from an eukaryotic organism is digested with restriction endonucleases and the
resulting fragments cloned into a plasmid vector. Bacteria transformed by these plasmids
collectively contain all of the genes of the organism and is referred as _________.
a. restriction map. b. RFLP profile. c. Both d. gene library.
41. The inducer used in blue white screening is ________.
a. X-gal. b. IPTG. c. lactose. d. Allolactose
42. cDNA, a term used in recombinant DNA technology means
a. competetive DNA b. chemical DNA c. complex DNA d. complementary DNA
43. The Father of recombinant DNA technology is __________.
a. Cohen. b. Boyer. c. Paulberg. d. Cohen and Boyer
44. IPTG is a
a. Inducer b. Enhancer c. Catalyser d. Terminator
45. Example for hybrid vector is
a. pBR322 b. M13 phage c. cosmid d. pUC
46. A polylinker is a/an ________.
a. adaptor. b. linker. c. multiple cloning site. d. selectable marker
47. Which of the following is not a part of pBR322? . .
a. Ampr. b. Tetr c. Lac Z. d. Ori
48. The method of recombinant selection in pUC vectors is ________.
a. physical selection. b. insertional inactivation. c. indirect selection. d. alpha
complementation
49. The size of the yeast genome is ______ Mb.
a. ~12. b. ~16. c. ~18. d. ~20
50. Which of the following is NOT a phage vector?
a. Cosmid. b. Phagemid. c. Plasmid. d. Phasmid
Section B
1.
Describe briefly the construction of genomic library.
2.
Give an account on Restriction endonuclease enzymes.
3.
Describe briefly the construction of genomic library.
4.
Give an account on the ligase enzymes and linkers, adaptors.
Section C
1. Describe the various transformations techniques.
2. Describe in detail the screening methods used to identify the recombinants.
Unit 3
Section A
51. Restriction enzymes were discovered by ________.
a. Arthur Kornberg. b. Cohen and Boyer. c. Werner Arber. d. Paulberg.
52. MCS stands for ________.
a. Multiple Cloning Sequence b. Multiple Cloning Segment. c. Multiple Cloning Site. d.
Methylated Cloning Site.
53. A virus with Cos site is __________.
a. lambda phage. b. M13 phage. c. plasmid. d. Cosmids
54. SS extensions of lambda phages consists of ________ nucleotides.
a. 12. b. 24 c. 46. d. 56.
55. M13 phage contains _____.
a. ss DNA. b. ds DNA. C. ss RNA.d. ds RNA
56. Who developed yeast artificial chromosomes? n.
a. Boyer and Cohe b. Szostak and Blackburn. c. Beggs. d. Clarke and Carbon.
57. ARS sequences are seen only in _____.
a. YEps. b. YRps. c. YCps. d. Yips
58. Who first constructed Yeast centromere plasmid?
a. Hinnen, 1980. b. Ehlirch, 1980. c. Beggs, 1980. d. Clarke and Carbon, 1980
59. Yeast plasmid also called as ______ plasmid.
a. 2microm. b. 4microm. c. 6microm. d. 8microm.
60. Most commonly used yeast selectable marker is ______.
a. Ura3. b. Trp1. c. Leu2. D. His3
61. The vector which is used to express gene of interest is a/an ________ vector.
a. expression. b. replacement. c. insertion. d. shuttle.
62. The first organism used in the DNA technology by many scientists is _________.
a. Bacillus sp. b. E.coli. c. yeast. d. phages.
63. The first successful recombinant plasmid was constructed by Boyer and Cohen in _____.
a. 1973. b. 1993. c. 1983. d. 1963
64. Vectors with selectable markers are used to identify ________.
a. recombinant clones. b. desired genes. c. vector DNA fragments. d. foreign genes.
65. The plasmids may carry genes for special functions that include ________.
a. toxin producing genes. b. tumour inducing genes. c. both a and b. d. b alone
66. Who developed yeast artificial chromosomes?
a. Boyer and Cohen. b. Szostak and Blackburn. c. Beggs d. Clarke and Carbon
67. Widely used viral promoters in vectors are __________.
a. T7. b. SP6. c. T5. d. a and b
68. How many groups are present in plasmid incompatibility?
a. 2.0. b. 20. c. 30. d. 40.
69. Which of the following is required for DNA amplification?
a. Deoxyribonucleotides.b. Primers. c. Thermostable DNA polymerase. d. All the above
70. Taq polymerase starts copying at _________.
a. the end of free single-stranded RNA. b. any open point. c. RNA primers attached to
the end of the desired gene. d. DNA primers attached to the end of the desired gene
71. PCR requires all of the following EXCEPT __________. .
a. primers b. dNTPs. c. DNA of interest. d. Topoisomerase
72. If you start with one double-stranded DNA molecule and you perform SIX cycles of PCR,
how manydouble-stranded copies of the DNA will you have?
a. 6. b. 8. c. 16. d. 64
73. The most likely source of the Taq polymerase used in PCR is a bacterium that lives in
______.
a. soil. b. arctic ice. c. Hot vents. d. Humans
74. Which of the following hybridize with the ends of the gene to be amplified?
a. RNA primers. b. Deoxyribonucleotides. c. Ribonucleotides.d. DNA molecules
75. Which of the following synthesizes the complementary strands of DNA?
a. Taq polymerase. b. Deoxyribonucleotides. c. Ribonucleotides. d. DNA molecules
Section B
1.
Write short note on animal vectors
2.
Explain briefly about expression of genes in bacteria.
3.
Write short note on M13 vector.
4.
Write short note on phage vector.
Section C
1.
What are the expression vectors? Which promoter sequences are most commonly
used for constructing expression vectors.
2.
Discuss in detail the yeast plasmid vectors.
3.
Give detail on the vectors, properties and types.
Unit 4
Section A
76. The similarity in the DNA of two different organisms can be determined and studied by
________.
a. DNA finger printing. b. SDS-PAGE. c. SAGE. d. PCR.
77. Pick out the ODD one.
a. Southern blotting. b. PCR. c. RAPD. d. Western blotting
78. ___________ is a DNA sequence variation occurring when a single nucleotide differs
between members of a species.
a. RFLPs. b. VNTRs. c. STRs. d. SNPs
79. Advantages of polymerase chain reaction which of the following?
a. The reaction is specific for certain sequences in the DNA. b. The results can be obtained
with DNA that is old or partially degraded c. Only small amount of template is needed. d.
All of the above.
80. PCR was invented in __________.
a. 1983. b. 1980. c. 1985. d. 1981.
81. The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineering are
a. Exonuclease and ligase b. Restriction endonuclease and polymerase c. Ligase and
polymerase d. Restriction endonuclease and ligase
82. Western blotting is the technique used in the determination of
a. RNA b. DNA c. Proteins d. All of these
83. In genetic engineering breaks in DNA are formed by enzymes known as
a. Restriction enzymes b. Ligases c. Nucleases d. Hydralases
84. The enzyme required for DNA from RNA template:
a. RNA polymerase b. Reverse transcriptase c. DNA polymerase d. Terminal
transferase
85. Which is the following is not used in PCR
a. Primer b. Monomers c. Polymerase d. None
86. Why is DNA polymerases from thermophilic organisms used in the polymerase chain
reaction?
a. Because they are required to keep the two strands separated b. Because the primers will
not attach to a complementary sequence unless the polymerases warm the reaction tube c.
Because they are easier to isolate than psychrophilic DNA polymerases d. Because the
priming and extension steps must be carried out at high temperatures to prevent the
single strands from reannealing.
87. Which of the following statements regarding the polymerase chain reaction is untrue?
a. it can increase the amount of DNA in a sample b. It has the potential of diagnosing an
infection from a single copy of a gene c. It utilizes DNA polymerases from psychrophilic
organisms d. It essentially mimics DNA replication as it occurs naturally.
88. In recombinant DNA technology, a selected gene is removed from an animal, plant, or
microorganism, and is inserted into what?
a. A primer b. probe c. Oligonucleotide d. vector
89. Genomic libraries are useful for obtaining what product?
a. Periodicals on genomics research b. Collections of isolated genes c. Instructional
information on how to locate the exact site of the gene of interest d. Information relating to
primers and PCR
90. The insertion of a cloning vector into a cloning host typically involves what process?
a. Transduction b. Polymerase chain reaction c. Transformation d. Conjugation
91. The technique that utilizes probes to detect specific DNA sequences is known as what?
a. sourthern b. western c. northern d. dot
92. All of the genes and other DNA of an organism is called its
a. open reading frame. b. genome c. Introns d. none
93. Why was the first genome sequence considered a milestone?
a. It showed the coding sequences for all the proteins produced by a virus. b. It proved that
DNA could be isolated from a virus. c. It proved that the coding sequences within a
genome could be located and identified. d. all
94. Why did the first organisms that had their genomes sequenced have comparatively small
genome sizes?
a. Organisms that could be kept easily in the lab were the focus of early research. b. Until
the advent of automated DNA sequencers, researchers had to use organisms with
small genomes because the procedure was very time-consuming. C. Only organisms
that reproduced rapidly were selected and these had small genomes.d. none
95. What researcher proposed "shotgun sequencing"?
a.Todd Golub b. Craig Venter c. Stephen Fodor d. None
96. In the Sanger method of sequencing DNA, how does the researcher differentiate between
the four nucleotide bases?
a. Each nucleotide base has a unique radioactive label and the results are read on Xray film. b. Each nucleotide base is fluorescently colored and a spectrophotometer reads
the results. c. Computers read the results of the gel electrophoresis d. all
97. How many genes constitute the human genome?
a. more than 1 million b. about 30,000 c. 46 d. 50
98. What interesting or unexpected outcome(s) resulted from the Human Genome Project?
a. Genes are not distributed evenly over the genome. b. A human gene is fragmented. c.
All of these are correct. d. none
99. Groups of distinctly different genes that often occur together in a cluster are called
a. multigene families. b. segmental duplications. c. tandem clusters. d. all
100.
Whole blocks of genes that have been copied from one chromosome to another are
referred to as
a. single-copy genes. b. segmental duplications c. multigene families d. all
Section B
1. Write short note on RFLP
2. Describe the Micro array.
3. Explain Restriction mapping.
Section C
1. What is PCR? Explain types and applications.
2. Define DNA sequencing? Explain the methods of sequencing.
Unit 5
Section A
101.
Which of these is not a type of noncoding human DNA?
a. structural DNA b. constitutive heterochromatin c. None of these. d. All are types of
noncoding DNA
102.
Bits of DNA that literally jump from one chromosome to another are
a. introns. b. transposable elements. c. pseudogenes d. None
103.
A discrete collection of gene fragments on a stamp-sized chip is called a
a. reference sequence. b. SNP profile. c. gene microarray d. all
104.
DNA finger printing was developed by
a. Fracsis Crick b. khorana c. Alec jerrific d. None
105.
For glycoprotein most commonly used probe
a. lectin b. antibody c. All d. None
106.
Southern blotting hybridize with
a. RNA b. DNA c. Protein d. Ribosome
107.
Western blot hybridize with
a. protein b. DNA c. RNA d. None
108.
Northern blot hybridize with
a. RNA b. DNA c. Protein d. All
109.
Oligonucleotide gene probes are defined as what?
a. Enzymes that recognize and subsequently degrade foreign DNA b. A short stretch of
DNA of a known sequence that will base-pair with a complementary sequence c. A
piece of DNA to which new nucleotides are added during DNA sequencing d. All
110.
Molecular markers includes
a. RFLP b. RAPD c. both d.None
111.
RFLP is used to identify
a. RNA b. DNA c. Both d. All
Section B
1. Write short note on MALDI-TOF.
2. Describe the uses of Two- dimensional electrophoresis in genetic engineering.
3. Explain briefly about protein sequencing.
4. Explain the protein structure based drug design methods.
Section C
1. Give a detailed account on the mass spectrometry based methods for protein
identification.
2. Define enzymes engineering. Discuss briefly the principles, objective, different
steps and potential contributions of enzymes engineering.
3. Give detail an account on site directed mutagenesis.
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