Download Physical chemistry

Physical chemistry
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The sum of different types of energies associated with atoms and molecules except
potential and kinetic energies:
Heat of formation
Enthalpy
Enthropy
*Internal energy
Gibbs’ energy
Standard condition are determined such the values of pressure and temperature (by the
parameters of the state):
101,3 kPа, 0 K
01,3 kPа, 273 K
*101,3 kPа, 298 K
50 kPа, 273 K
50 kPа, 298 K
The state of the system, which does not change in time at unchanging external factors, is
named
* equilibrium
unequilibrium
Isothermal
Isobaric
Isochoric
For the isochoric process a thermal effect (heat) is equally:
Zero
The change of enthalpy of process
*The change of internal energy
The change of enthropy of the system
The change of free Gibbs energy
Open thermodynamic systems are exchanged with an surrounding:
By a matter
By energy
*By a matter and an energy
By components
By nothing
When the pressure and the volume are constant. What is name of this thermodynamic
process?
isochoric– isothermal
* Isobaric – isochoric
Isobaric
Isochoric
Isothermic
Record of reaction of N2(g)+ O2(g.)= 2NO(g.) – 180,8 kJ/mol means that:
For formation 1 mol of NO is taken of 180,8 kJ heat
*For formation 1 mol NO is released 90,4 kJ heat.
For formation1 mol N2 and 1 mol O2 is released 180,8 кJ heat.
For formation 1 mol N2 and 1 mol O2 is selected 90,4 kJ heat.
For formation 2 mol NO is selected 90,4 kJ heat.
The form of change energy as a result of chaotic molecules’s direction is
*Heat
Work
Enthropy
D. Enthalpy
E. Inthernal energy.
9. Work of the isobaric is calculated according to the following formula:
A. W= V*p
B. W=p.V
C. * W=p.V
D. W=nRTln(V2/V1)
E. W=nRT(V2/V1)
10. A process when there is V constant is ...
A. Isobaric– isothermal
B. Isochoric– isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. *Isochoric
E. Isothermal
11. What is the function of the state, that it independents of the way of process and depends of
the state of the system?
A. Heat
B. Work
C. * Enthalpy
D. Pressure
E. Volume
12. Universal gas constant R is measured:
A. 8,314 J/mol
B. 8,31 kJ/mol
C. 8,31 g/mol
D. * 8,314 J/mol*K
E. 8,314 J/K
13. What work will be executed by 1 mol Cl2 at permanent pressure at the increase of
temperature on 100C ?
A. *83,14 J
B. 8,314 J
C. 8,314:102 J
D. 8,314 kJ
E. 18,314 J
14. Science, which studies of processes of transformation of energy and exchange of matters in
the biological systems, is:
A. *Bioenergetics
B. Bionics
C. Thermochemistry
D. Biochemistry
E. Ecology
15. What is the intensive property of the thermodynamics system from the following list?
A. Mass
B. Volume
C. Internal energy
D. *Concentration
E. Enthalpy
16. Measuring of enthalpy is:
A. *kJ/mol
B. kJ
C. kcal
D. kJ/mol*K
E. kcal/K
17. During the reaction of H2(g)+ Cl2(g) + h  2HCl(g)+ Q= -ΔH:
A. *System gives a heat into its surrounding
B. System executes work
C. Internal energy of the system increases
D. System takes a heat from its surrounding
E. For beginning of reaction molecules of reagents need of activating
18. In some systems which are used in pharmaceutical technology volume does not changes.
What is kind of the correlation internal energy and enthalpy in such systems?
A. *U = H
B. U < H
C. U > H
D. 2U = H
E. U = 2H
19. When thermodynamics process has V = const . It is named:
A. *Isochoric
B. Isothermic
C. Adiabatic
D. Isobaric
E. There is not right answer
20. It consists of a definite amount of one or more substances and is separated from the
surroundings by a real or imaginary boundary through which matter and energy can
follow from the system to the surroundings. Name is
A. Thermodynamics function
B. Matter
C. Phase
D. *Thermodynamics system
E. Solution
21. Record of reaction 2H2+ O2  of 2H2O + 571 kJ/mol means that:
A. For formation 0,5 mol of water is released 285,5 kJ heat
B. *For formation 0,5 mol of water is taken in 145,75 kJ heat
C. For formation 0,5 mol of water is released 145,75 kJ heat
D. For formation 0,5 mol of water is taken in 285,5 kJ heat .
E. For formation 1 mol of water is released 285,5 kJ heat
22. When thermodynamics process has T = const. It is:
A. Isochoric
B. *Isothermic
C. Adiabatic
D. Isobaric
E. There is not right answer
23. What is the law: energy can neither be created nor destroyed although it may be converted
from one form to another?
A. *A first law of thermodynamics.
B. A second law of thermodynamics.
C. A third law of thermodynamics.
D. Gess’ law
E. Kirkhgof‘s law
24. When reaction is exothermic?
A. *H0
B. S0
C. S0
D. G0
E. H0
25. During the reaction of Mg(s) + 2HCl(l)  MgCl2(s)+ H2(g) +Q:
A. *Evolve the heat
B. System takes warm from an environment
C. Decrease volume of the system
D. Increase internal energy of the system
E. None of the above
26. Normal condition are determined such the values of pressure and temperature (by the
parameters of the state):
A. 101,3 kPа, 0 K
B. *101,3 kPа, 273 K
C. 101,3 kPа, 298 K
D. 50 kPа, 273 K
E. 50 kPа, 298 K
27. How is usually represented the Enthalpy of combustion:
A. ▲H0
B. ▲H0f
C. *▲Hc298
D. ▲Hf298
E. ▲Gf298
28. How is calculate the enthalpies of reactions?
A. *▲H0 = ( Sum of the standard enthalpies of formation of products)-( Sum of the standard
enthalpies of formation of reactants)
B. ▲H0 = ( Sum of the standard enthalpies of formation of products) + ( Sum of the standard
enthalpies of formation of reactants)
C. ▲H0 = (Sum of the standard enthalpies of formation of reactants) - ( Sum of the standard
enthalpies of formation of products)
D. ▲H0 = ( Sum of the standard enthalpies of formation of products) : ( Sum of the standard
enthalpies of formation of reactants)
E. ▲H0 = ( Difference of the standard enthalpies of formation of products) : (Difference of the
standard enthalpies of formation of reactants)
29. What is sign of the enthalpy in endothermic process?
A. *+▲H0
B. 0▲H0
C. -▲H0
D. ▲H0
E. ▲Gf298
30. What is sign of the enthalpy in exothermic process?
A. +▲H0
B. 0▲H0
C. *-▲H0
D. ▲H0
E. ▲Gf298
31. What is units of Entropy change?
A. J
B. kJ
C. J/mol
D. *J/mol*K
E. kJ/mol
32. Formula of Entropy are:
A. S = U + d▲V
B. S = T/Q
C. S = U-W
D. *S = Q/T
E. S = Q*T
33. What is find the entropy change?
A. ▲ S = sum Sreactants – sum Sproducts
B. ▲ S = sum Sreactants + sum Sproducts
C. *▲ S = sum Sproducts – sum Sreactants
D. ▲ S = sum Sproducts / sum Sreactants
E. ▲ S = sum Sreactants / sum Sproducts
34. What kind of properties has the entropy?
A. *Extensive and a state function
B. Intensive and state function
C. A state function
D. Intensive
E. Multiplicative
35. Chose Gibbs equation:
A. G = T▲ S
B. G = ▲H +W
C. *G = H - TS
D. G = H +TS
E. A = p▲V
36. What can you define using ▲G?
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Volume
D. *Direction of chemistry reaction
E. Mass
37. For what kind of process using Gibbs’ free energy?
A. *Isothermic-isobaric
B. Isothermic-isochoric
C. Adiabatic
D. Isochoric
E. Isoenthropy
38. For what kind of process using Helmholtz energy?
A. Isothermic-isobaric
B. *Isothermic-isochoric
C. Adiabatic
D. Isochoric
E. Isoenthropy
39. Heat effect of the forward reaction: 2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2 can be calculated for the
fallowing expression:
A. *▲H = ▲Hf(SO2) - 2▲Hf(Cu2O) - ▲Hf(Cu2S)
B. ▲H = 2▲Hf(Cu2O) + ▲Hf(Cu2S) - ▲Hf(SO2)
C. ▲H = ▲Hf(SO2)
D. ▲H = 2▲Hf(SO2) + (▲Hf(Cu2O))2 - ▲Hf(Cu2S)
E. ▲H = (▲Hf(Cu2O))2 + ▲Hf(Cu2S) - ▲Hf(SO2)
40. In the process of camphor’s melting there is:
A. *Increasing of entropy
B. Reducing of entropy
C. Reducing of internal energy
D. Stable meaning of entropy
E. Stable meaning of internal energy
41. The method of measuring the heat effect of reaction is named:
A. Thermometry
B. Conductometry
C. *Calorimetric
D. Colourmetric
E. Titration
42. For what substance does the standard enthalpy of combustion equal zero?
A. *H2
B. NO
C. NH3
D. H2O
E. NO2
43. The direction of the chemical equilibrium displace is determined by:
A. Paul’s principle
B. *Le Chatelier principle
C. Hund’s principle
D. Gibb’s principle
E. Hess’s principle
44. When are the molecularity and the order of chemical reaction same?
A. There are never the same
B. *There are the same only for simple (elementary ) reactions.
C. There are always the same
D. There are the same only for complex multi sided reactions.
E. There are the same in the enzymic reactions
45. The half-life of some chemical reacrtion depends back-proportional to the initial
concentration. What’s order of this reaction?
A. The first
B. * The second
C. Zero-order
D. The third
E. Fraction
46. The values of Molecularity and the order as a rule are:
A. *1-3, 0-3 corresponding
B. 1-3, 1-3 corresponding
C. 0-3, 0-3 corresponding
D. 2-3, 1-3 corresponding
E. 2-3, 2-3 corresponding
47. The equation for accounting of the rate constant in zero-order reaction is:
k 
1

c0  c 
A. *
B. ln с  ln с0  k  
k
C.
k
D.
1

 ln
c0
c
1 c0  с

 c0  с
1
1

 k 
c c0
E.
48. What is the order of the reaction where the value of the rate constant doesn’t depend from the
concentration’s units?
A. * The first
B. The second
C. Zero
D. The third
E. Fraction
49. What is the order of hydrolysis of saccharose has?
A. Zero
B. The third
C. Fraction
D. The second
E. * The first
50. What are the molecularity and the order of a forward reaction 2НІ = Н2+ І2:
A. Unimolecular the first order
B. Unimolecular the second order
C. Bimolecular the first order
D. *Bimolecular the second order
E. Termolecular the first order
51. What is the order of the reaction if the half-life depends proportional to an initial
concentration?
A. The first
B. The second
C. *Zero
D. The third
E. Fraction
52. The unit of the rate constant the first-order reaction is:
A. none of the following
B. L/mol*s
C. *s-1
D. L2/mol
E. mol/L
53. The rate of the chemical reaction is:.
A. The volume change of a reactant according to the specific time
B. The temperature change of a reactant according to the specific time
C. *The change in any one of the reactants or products per unit
D. The quantity change of the number of reactants according to the specific time
E. All are right
54. We use the chemical and the physico-chemical methods for the determination of the
chemical rate.What is the forward method wrong?
A. Titrimetry
B. *Osmometry
C. Polarimetry
D. The conductometry
E. The refractometry.
55. What are the molecularity and the order of a forward reaction СН3СОСН3 =
СО2+С2Н2+Н2О:
A. * Unimolecular, the fractional order
B. Unimolecular, the second order
C. Bimolecular, the first order
D. Bimolecular, the second order
E. Termolecular the first order
56. The half-life of the firs order is:
A.
1 2 
с0
2k
B. *
C.
D.
1 2 
0,693
k
с0
k
1

k
1 2 
1 2
1 2 
1
k  с0
E.
57. The half-life independs from the initial concentration of substance. What is the order of this
reaction?
A. *The first
B. The second
C. Zero
D. The third
E. Fractionl number
58. What is the half-live’ value of the drug determination as a shelf life?
A. 5 %
B. 20 %
C. *10 %
D. 50 %
E. 90 %
59. The formula of the chemical rate is   k  c Aa  cBb .What’s the general order of chemical
reaction?
A. a
B. *a+b
C. b
D. a* b
E. a-b
60. From what factors doesn’t depend the rate constant of the chemical reaction?
A. Temperature and time
B. Surface area
C. * Time and the concentrations of reactants
D. The catalyst presents
E. The nature of reactants
61. What is unit the rate constant has in the second order?
A. s-1
B. mol/s
C. L2/(mol*s2)
D. *L/(mol*s)
E. mol*s
62. What are named of axises of a graph that is plotted by integrated rate law method ?
A. *log [A] from time (s)
B. log k from time (s)
C. [A] from time (s)
D. log [A] from log k
E. lg k from 1/C
63. The rate equation of the first-order is:
A. υ = K C2
B. υ = С1/С2
C. * υ = КС
D. υ = КС3
E. υ = 1/С
64. How does calculate the half-life of the decomposition reaction?
A. t1/2 = C0/2k
B. t1/2 = 0
C. t1/2 = 3/2kC02
D. t1/2 = 1/kC0
E. * t1/2 = ln2/k
65. The half-life of the first-order reaction………
A. *doesn’t depend from the initial concentrations of reactants
B. depends from the initial concentrations of reactants
C. depends from the initial concentrations of reactants only for heterogeneous system
D. depends from the initial concentrations of reactants only for homogeneous system
E. depends from the initial concentrations of reactants only for topochemical system
66. For this equation С(s) + О2(g) = СО2 the rate law is:
  k  CO 2
A. *
B.
2
  k  CO
2
C.
  k  CO 2  CC
D.
2
  k  CO
 CC
2
  C C
2
O2
C
E.
67. For this equation 2Fe(s) + 3Cl2(g) = 2FeCl3 the rate law is:
A. *
B.
  k  C3Cl
  k  C 2Fe
2
 C3Cl
2
  k  C Fe  C3Cl
2
C.
2
  k  C Fe  CCl
2
D.
E.
  CCl3
2
68. What is equation wrong?
  k  C N  C3H
2
2.
A. N2(g) + 3Н2(g) = 2NН3;
B. *СО + Сl2(g) = СОСl2;
2
  k  CCO  CCl
2
.
  k  C3Cl
2 .
C. 2Fe(s) + 3Cl2(g) = 2FeCl3;
  k  CO
2
D. S(s) + O2(g) = SO2;
2
E. СО + Сl2(g) = СОСl2;   CCO  CCl
2
69. What is the most common method for studying the kinetics of chemical reactions?
A. Initial rate method
B. Graphical method
C. Alternative method
D. *Integral rate law method
E. Rate law method
70. If the concentrations are expressed in mol litre-1 and time in sec., then the units of the rate
constant for the first order reaction are:
A. mol litre-1 sec-1
B. mol-1 litre sec-1
C. *sec-1
D. mol2litre-2 sec-1
E. mol-1 litre-1 sec-1
71. The half life period for a first order reaction is 69.3 s. Its rate constant is:
A. *10-3s-1
B. 10-4s-1
C. 10s-1
D. 102s-1
E. 103s-1
72. For the single step reaction of the type: A + 2 B → E +2 F. The rate law is:
A. rate = k [A][B]
B. rate = k [E][F]2/[A][B]2
C. rate = k [A][2B]
D. *rate = k [A][B]2
E. rate = k [A]2[B]
73. The rate law for the chemical reaction: 2 NO2Cl → 2 NO2 + Cl2 is: rate = k[NO2Cl]. The rate
determining step is:
A. 2 NO2Cl → 2 NO2 + 2Cl
B. NO2 + Cl2 → NO2Cl + Cl
C. NO2Cl + Cl → NO2 + Cl2
D. *NO2Cl → NO2 + Cl
E. none of the above
74. For the reaction : A → C, it is found that the rate of the reaction quadruples when the
concentration of A is doubled. The rate for the reaction is: Rate = [A]n where the value of
n is:
A. 1
B. *2
C. zero
D. 3
E. 4
75. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.8 * 10-3 molL-1min-1 when the initial concentration is 0.3
mol L-1. The rate constant in the units of second is
A. 1*10-2 s-1
B. *36* 10-2 s-1
C. 6*10-2 s-1
D. 6*10-2 s
E. 1*10-2 s
76. The rate of the first order reaction is 0.69 * 10-2 molL-1min-1 and the initial concentration is
0.2 molL-1. The half-life period is:
A. *1205s
B. 0.33s
C. 600s
D. 1s
E. 988s
77. If the rate of reaction between A and B is expressed as k[A][B]2, the reaction is:
A. First order in A
B. Second order in B
C. Overall having third order
D. *All are correct
E. Non of the above
78. The rate constant of a reaction is 1.2 * 10-5 mol-2 litre2 s-1. The order of the reaction is:
A. zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. *3
E. 4
79. Temperature coefficient shows how much ……:
A. * The rate of chemical reaction increases for every 10 0C rise in temperature.
B. The rate of chemical reaction increases for every 1 0C rise in temperature.
C. The rate’s constant increases for every 10 0C rise in temperature.
D. The rate’s constant increases for every 1 0C rise in temperature.
E. The equilibrium’s constant increases for every 10 0C rise in temperature.
80. On increasing temperature of the reacting system by 10 degrees the rate of reaction almoust
doubles. The most appropriate reason for this is:
A. Collision frequancy increases
B. Activation energy decreases by increases in temperature
C. *The fraction of molecules having energy equal to threshold energy or more increases
D. The value of threshold energy decreases.
E. All answer correct
81. A large increase in reaction rate with small rise in temperature is due to:
A. * increase in number of activated molecules
B. increase in number of collisions
C. lowering of activation energy
D. Shortening of mean free path
E. All answer correct
82. What values define temperature coefficient?
A. Heat effect of reaction
B. Rate’s constant of forward and back chemical reaction
C. *Activation energy and temperature of reaction
D. The rate of chemical reaction
E. All over factors
83. In the most cases of biochemical reactions temperature coefficient equals:
A. * 2-4
B. 1-6
C. 1-5
D. 0-2
E. 3-5
84. How will a rate of a simple chemical reaction change 2A => B + C at an increasing of initial
concentration on 2 times?
A. decrease on 2
B. will not change
C. increase on 2
D. Decrease on 4
E. *increase on 4
85. The rate of reaction increases on some value at the increasing temperature on 10 0C. What
does this value equal according to Vant-Hoff’s rule?
A. 5
B. *2-4
C. 1-3
D. infinite
E. 2
86. How much will temperature increase that the rate will increase on 64 times if temperature
coefficient equal 2?
A. 70
B. 50
C. *60
D. 80
E. 40
87. The temperature coefficient equals 3. How much will the rate of reaction increase at the
increasing temperature on 20 оС?
A. On 2 times.
B. On 20 times.
C. On 3 times.
D. * On 9 times.
E. On 8 times.
88. At which temperature of human body the rate of biochemical reaction becomes slowly as a
result of protein’s denaturation and enzyme’s deactivation?
A. *40-42 0C
B. 38-40 0C
C. 36-38 0C
D. 34-36 0C
E. 36,6 0C
89. How will the rate of reaction 2Cl2O = 2Cl2 + O2 change if the concentration of Cl2O will
increase on 3 times?
A. * increase on 9 times
B. decrease on 9 times
C. increase on 3 times
D. decrease on 3 times
E. increase on 6 times
90. How will the rate of reaction 2NO + O2 = 2NO2 change if a pressure will decrease on 2 times
in the system?
A. increase on 8 times
B. increase on 6 times
C. increase on 2 times
D. decrease on 2 times
E. *decrease on 8 times
91. How will the rate of reaction 2NO + O2 = 2NO2 change if a pressure will increase on 3 times
in the system?
A. * increase on 27 times
B. decrease on 27 times
C. increase on 3 times
D. decrease on 3 times
E. increase on 9 times
92. What is not medicine enzyme?
A. Festal
B. Pepsin.
C. Lydaza.
D. Mezym
E. * Protargolum.
93. Where is homogeneous catalysis?
A. *2 SO2 + O2→2 SO3 (catalyst NO)
B. 2 H2O2 → 2 H2O + O2 (catalyst Рt)
C. C2H5OH→CH3CHO + H2 (catalyst Сu)
D. C2H5OH→C2H4 + H2O (catalyst Al2O3)
E. No one
94. What is the limitation stage?
A. *formation of activated complex
B. diffusion of reactants to the catalyst
C. regeneration of the catalyst
D. formation of the products
E. diffusion of reactants from the catalyst
95. The activation energy in our body is:
A. 30-50 J/mol
B. *30-50 кJ/mol
C. 40-300 кJ/mol
D. 40-300 J/mol
E. More than 300 кJ/mol
96. If the temperature of our body increases what’s happen with the rate of enzyme reactions?
A. The first decreases than increases
B. *The first increases than decreases
C. Only increases
D. Only decreases
E. doesn’t change
97. What kind of properties don’t the catalysts have?
A. The catalysts are selectivity to the chemical reactions.
B. The catalyst don’t affect on the general stoichiometric coefficient in the chemical reaction,
they take the part in the process of decomposition or combination with one of the
reactants to produce the product and they are regenerated
C. The catalysts decrease the activation energy that’s why the chemical rate increases.
D. The catalysts don’t influence to the equilibrium constant
E. *The catalysts increase the concentration of reactants on the dividing surface phases.
98. What does inhibitor do?
A. increase the rate of reaction.
B. *decrease the rate of chemical reaction.
C. doesn’t change the rate of the chemical reaction but decreases the formation heat of the
products.
D. makes the environment wormer
E. decreases the activation energy
99. What is a negative catalyst:
A. If the catalyst increases the rate of reaction.
B. *If the catalyst decreases the rate of reaction
C. If the catalyst directs the side of chemical reaction in the left
D. If the catalyst directs the side of chemical reaction in the right.
E. If the catalyst uses the inhibitors.
100. What is a positive catalyst?
A. *If the catalyst increases the rate of reaction.
B. If the catalyst decreases the rate of reaction
C. If the catalyst directs the side of chemical reaction in the left
D. If the catalyst directs the side of chemical reaction in the right.
E. If the catalyst uses the inhibitors
101. Homogeneous Catalysis is:
A. Decomposition of H2O2 in presence of MnO2.
B. Oxidation of SO2 in presence of V2O5.
C. Synthesis ammonia from Nitrogen and Hydrogen in presence of Iron
D. *Decomposition of H2O2 in presence of the ions MnO42- in solution.
E. No one
102.
Enzymes have the great activity in the human body. In what conditions do they work in
our body?
A. At the low temperature
B. At the high temperature
C. *At the body temperature
D. At the high pressure
E. рН = 3
103. When the molecules chemically react during their contact they must have the minimal
excess of energy. How is called this energy?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Molecular energy
C. Potential energy
D. *Activation energy.
E. Decomposition energy.
104. In what units does the activation energy measure?
A. J
B. J*mol.
C. *J/mol.
D. J/mol.К.
E. kJ
105. Arrhenius equation for calculation of the activation energy is
ln
A.
k 2 Ea  1 1 
  

k1
R  T2 T1 
ln
B. *
k 2 Ea  1 1 
  

k1
R  T1 T2 
ln
k 2 Ra  1 1 
   
k1 T  T2 T1 
ln
k 2 Ea

k1
F
C.
D.
1 1
  
 T2 T1  .


E. ln k 2  H a  1  1 
R  T2
k1
106.
Dependence the rate constant from the temperature is determination according to:
1 2 
A.
k
B.
T1 
1
k  с0
1 c0  с

 c0  с
C. * k  A  e
k0 
1
 Ea
RT
.
c0  c 

D.
E. k1  1  ln c0

c
107. In which coordinates is Arrhenius dependence plotted?
A. *ln k from 1/T
B. k from 1/T
C. lg k1 from lg k2
D. lg k fromT
E. 1/T from lg k
108. What is the activated complex of the following reaction А + ВС = АВ + С:
A. *АВС*
B. АВ*
C. АС*
D. ВС*
E. No one
109. To choose the formula for the determination of the activation energy when there are
Т2Т1:
(ln k 2  ln k1 ) RT1T2
T2  T1
(lg k 2  lg k1 ) RT1T2
Ea 
T2  T1
(ln k1  ln k 2 ) RT1T2
Ea 
T1  T2
(ln k 2  ln k1 ) RT1T2
Ea 
T2  T1
Ea 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ea 
(ln k2  ln k1 ) RT1T2
T2  T1
110. The processes in which both catalyst and reagents are in same phase are called:
A. Heterogeneous catalysis;
B. *Homogeneous catalysis;
C. Positive catalysis;
D. Negative catalysis;
E. Autocatalysis.
111. Matters, which increase activity of catalyst named:
A. *Promoter
B. Inhibitors
C. Hormones
D. Indicators
E. Ferment
112. The process in which reagents react with surface of catalyst is named:
A. *Heterogeneous catalysis;
B. Homogeneous catalysis;
C. Positive catalysis;
D. Negative catalysis;
E. Autocatalysis.
113. The catalysis in which rate of reaction increase is named:
A. Heterogeneous catalysis;
B. Homogeneous catalysis;
C. *Positive catalysis;
D. Negative catalysis;
E. Autocatalysis.
114. The catalysis in which rate of reaction decrease is named:
A. Heterogeneous catalysis;
B. Homogeneous catalysis;
C. Positive catalysis;
D. *Negative catalysis;
E. Autocatalysis.
115. The nature of enzyme is:
A. Carbohydrate.
B. Lipid.
C. *Protein.
D. Mineral acid.
E. Vitamin.
116. Proteins which can to catalyze biological reactions are:
A. Polymers.
B. *Enzymes.
C. Hormones.
D. Indicators.
E. Vitamin.
117. Catalyst influences for:
A. chemical equilibrium.
B. temperature.
C. pressure.
D. *rate of reaction.
E. volume.
118. What is effective collision?
A. *The collision wich actually produce the products
B. The number of collision that takes place per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture
C. The minimum amount of energy which the colliding molecules must posses
D. The excess energy wich must be supplied to the reactants
E. The energy required to form activation energy
119. What is threshold energy?
A. The collision wich actually produce the products
B. The number of collision that takes place per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture
C. *The minimum amount of energy which the colliding molecules must posses
D. The excess energy wich must be supplied to the reactants
E. The energy required to form activation energy
120. What is collision frequency?
A. The collision wich actually produce the products
B. *The number of collision that takes place per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture
C. The minimum amount of energy which the colliding molecules must posses
D. The excess energy wich must be supplied to the reactants
E. The energy required to form activation energy
121. According to what formla can be the stability of medicines calculated?
A. *  298  2 n  T
B.  298  2  T
k
C.   t 10
kt
t
Т
10
D.

Т
2
1
RT1T2 (ln k 2  ln k1 )
T2  T1
122. What does  means in Vant-Hoff’s rule:
A. Activation energy
B. *Temperature coefficient
C. Rate constant
D. Time
E. Change in temperature
123. What does equal activation energy?
E. Ea 
A. Ea = *E (threshold) – E (reactants)
B. Ea = E (threshold) + E (reactants)
C. Ea = E (reactants) - E (threshold)
D. Ea = E (reactants)
E. Ea = E (threshold)
124. When does activated complex form?
A. *Colliding molecules posses the kinetic energy equal to activation energy
B. Colliding molecules posses the kinetic energy less then activation energy
C. Colliding molecules posses the kinetic energy less then threshold energy
D. At any time
E. All above correct
125. What does Arrhenius propose?
A. Relationship between rate constant and time
B. *Relationship between rate constant and temperature
C. Relationship between rate and time
D. Relationship between rate and temperature
E. Relationship between rate constant and time
F. Relationship between rate constant and concentration
126. What property does not characterise the catalyst?
A. Activity
B. Selectivity
C. Small quantity
D. Specific
E. *Takes place in the reaction
127. How does catalyst influence on the activation energy of the chemical reaction?
A. Does not change
B. *Decrease
C. Increase
D. First increase than reduse
E. First reduce than increace
128. The amount of solute required to prepare 10 litres of decimolar solution is:
A. 0.01
B. 0.2
C. 0.05
D. *1.0
E. 2.0
129. The molarity of pure water is:
A. 18
B. 5.56
C. *55.6
D. 100
E. 1000
130. One kilogram of water contains 4 g of NaOH. The concentration of the solution is best
expressed as:
A. *0.1 molal
B. 0.1 molar
C. decinormal
D. about 0.1 mole
E. decimolar
131. The number of moles of NaCl in 3 litres of 3 M solution is:
A. 1
B. *9
C. 3
D. 27
E. 25
132. Isotonic solutions are the solutions having the same :
A. surface tension
B. vapour pressure
C. *osmotic pressure
D. viscosity
E. density
133. A colligative property is:
A. *osmotic pressure
B. boiling point
C. vapour pressure
D. electrical conductivity
E. electrophoresis
134. When 0.6 g of urea dissolved in 100 g water, the water will boil at ( Kb for water=0.52
Km-1 and normal boiling point of water=100 0C):
A. 372.48
B. 273.52
C. *373.052
D. 273.052
E. 376.06
135. At high altitudes, the boiling point of water decreases because:
A. the atmospheric pressure is high
B. the temperature is low
C. *the atmospheric pressure is low
D. the temperature is high
E. the area contains lesser oxygen
136. The boiling point of a solvent containing a non-volatile solute
A. is depressed
B. *is elevated
C. does not change
D. none of the above
E. the first is elevated than is depressed
137. The colligative properties of a dilute solution depend on:
A. the nature of the solute
B. the nature of the solvent
C. *the number of particles of solute
D. the number of particles of solvent
E. none of the above
138. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
A. depression in freezing point
B. elevation in boiling point
C. *optical activity
D. relative lowering in vapour pressure
E. osmotic pressure
139. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because:
A. heat is more evenly distributed
B. the high pressure tenderizes the food
C. *the boiling point of water inside the cooker is elevated
D. the boiling point of water inside the cooker is depressed
E. heat is less evenly distributed
A solution of solute X in benzene boils at 0.126 0C higher than benzene. What is the
molality of the solution? (Kb for benzene = 2.52 K/m)
A. *0.05
B. 1
C. 2
D. 20
E. 22
141. Regardless of the atmospheric pressure, the boiling point of a solution as compared to
that of pure solvent is:
A. lower
B. *higher
C. same
D. none of these
E. first is lower than is higher
142. The osmotic pressure of equimolar solutions of glucose, sodium chloride and barium
chloride will be in the order:
A. *BaCl2 > NaCl > glucose
B. BaCl2 > glucose > NaCl
C. glucose > BaCl2> NaCl
D. NaCl > BaCl2 > glucose
E. glucose > NaCl > BaCl2
143. The weight of calcium hydroxide in 100 ml of 0.01 molar solution will be:
A. 1.48 g
B. 74.0 g
C. 14.8 g
D. *0.074 g
E. 0.74 g
144. An aqueous solution solution containing 6 g of urea in 500 ml of solution has a density
equal to 1.05. If the molar mass of urea is 60, then the molality of solution is:
A. 0.20
B. *0.19
C. 0.10
D. 1.2
E. 1.3
145. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid “A” is 70 torr (millimeter of mercury) at 27 0C. It
forms an ideal solution with another liquid B. The mole fraction of B in the solutions is
0.2 and total pressure of solution is 84 ttor at 27 0C. The vapour pressure of pure liquid B
at 27 0C is:
A. 14 torr
B. 56 torr
C. 145 torr
D. 70 torr
E. *140 torr
146. The osmotic pressure of 0.2 molar solution of urea at 27 0C is:
A. *498.84 Pa
B. 4.9884 Pa
C. 50 Pa
D. 515.74 Pa
E. 709.09 Pa
147. Molal freezing point depression constant for water is 18.6 K mol per 100 g. It can also be
written as:
A. 186 Km-1
140.
B. *1.86 Km-1
C. 18.6 Km-1
D. 1.86 K mol per 10 g
E. 0.186 K mol per 1 g
148. Cryoscopic method is:
A. *The method for determination of molar mass of compounds by freezing-point depression.
B. The method for determination boiling temperature;
C. The method for determination boiling-point elevation;
D. The method for determination osmosis;
E. The method for determination solubility.
149. When cells are placed in а solution with а lower solute concentration (hypotonic
solution), water will move into the cells. Red blood cells, for example, will swell and
rupture in а process called:
A. Plasmolysis;
B. Osmosis;
C. *Hemolysis;
D. Solubility;
E. Diffusion.
150. In hypertonic solutions, the cells are shrinked because water movements out of the cell.
What is the name of this phenomenon?
A. *Plasmolysis;
B. Osmosis;
C. Hemolysis;
D. Solubility;
E. Diffusion.
151. Henry-Dalton’s law is
A. The total number of particles increases in electrolyte solution and, therefore, the colligative
properties of such solution will be large.
B. The relative lowering in vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing the non-volatile
solute is equal to the mole fraction of the solute at a given temperature.
C. The boiling point of the solution is always higher than that of the pure solvent.
D. *The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of its
components.
E. The freezing point of the solution is always lower than that of the pure solvent
152. Colligative properties is all except:
A. Vapor-pressure lowering;
B. Boiling-point elevation;
C. Freezing-point depression;
D. Osmotic pressure;
E. *Mole mass.
153. What is hemolysis?
A. In hypertonic solutions, those with higher solute concentrations, cells shrivel because there is
а net movement of water out of the cell. The shrinkage of red blood cells in hypertonic
solution.
B. *When cells are placed in а solution with а lower solute concentration (hypotonic solution),
water will move into the cells. Red blood cells, for example, will swell and rupture.
C. The method for determination of molar mass of compounds by ffreezing-point depression.
D. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
above the liquid.
E. The spontaneous mixing of the particles of the solute (present in the solution) and the solvent
(present above the solution) to form а homogeneous mixture.
154. What is plasmolysis?
A. *When cells are placed in а solution with а higher solute concentration (hypertonic solution).
The cells are shrinked because water movements out of the cell. What is the name of this
phenomenon.
B. When cells are placed in а solution with а lower solute concentration (hypotonic solution),
water will move into the cells. Red blood cells, for example, will swell and rupture.
C. The method for determination of molar mass of compounds by ffreezing-point depression.
D. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
above the liquid.
E. The spontaneous mixing of the particles of the solute (present in the solution) and the solvent
(present above the solution) to form а homogeneous mixture.
155. Diffusion is:
A. The phenomenon on the flow of solvent through a semi-permeable membrane from pure
solvent to the solution
B. The intermolecular attraction by which the elements of a body are held together.
C. The method for determination of molar mass of compounds by ffreezing-point depression.
D. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
above the liquid.
E. *The spontaneous mixing of the particles of the solute (present in the solution) and the
solvent (present above the solution) to form а homogeneous mixture.
156. Raoult's Law:
A. The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of its
components.
B. The spontaneous mixing of the particles of the solute (present in the solution) and the solvent
(present above the solution) to form а homogeneous mixture.
C. *The relative lowering in vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing the non-volatile
solute is equal to the mole fraction of the solute at a given temperature.
D. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
above the liquid.
E. The relative lowering in vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing the non-volatile
solute is equal to the mole fraction of the solute at a given temperature.
157. What is osmosis?
A. *The phenomenon on the flow of solvent through a semi-permeable membrane from pure
solvent to the solution
B. The intermolecular attraction by which the elements of a body are held together.
C. The method for determination of molar mass of compounds by ffreezing-point depression.
D. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
above the liquid.
E. The spontaneous mixing of the particles of the solute (present in the solution) and the solvent
(present above the solution) to form а homogeneous mixture.
158. Isotonic solutions to our body are:
A. Those which have the less osmotic pressure then the human blood serum;
B. *Those which have the same osmotic pressure as the human blood serum;
C. Those which have the greater osmotic pressure then the human blood serum
D. Solution is one in which the concentration of solute is greater than its concentration in a
saturated solution
E. Solution in which the concentration of solute is less than its concentration in a saturated
solution.
159. Hypertonic solutions to our body are:
A. Those which have the lest osmotic pressure then the human blood serum;
B. Those which have the same osmotic pressure as the human blood serum;
C. *Those which have the greater osmotic pressure then the human blood serum
D. Solution is one in which the concentration of solute is greater than its concentration in a
saturated solution
E. Solution in which the concentration of solute is less than its concentration in a saturated
solution.
160. Hypotonic solutions to our body are:
A. *Those which have the lest osmotic pressure then the human blood serum;
B. Those which have the same osmotic pressure as the human blood serum;
C. Those which have the greater osmotic pressure then the human blood serum
D. Solution is one in which the concentration of solute is greater than its concentration in a
saturated solution
E. Solution in which the concentration of solute is less than its concentration in a saturated
solution.
161. p= CMRT is:
A. Henry-Dalton's law equation;
B. Depression in freezing point equation;
C. *Vant-Hoff’s law equation;
D. Raoult's law equation;
E. Boiling-point elevation equation.
162. Tboiling= Kb Cm is:
A. Henry's law equation;
B. Freezing point determination equation;
C. Van’t Hoff law equation;
D. Raoult's law equation;
E. *Boiling-point elevation equation.
163. Tfreezing= Kf Cm is:
A. Henry's law equation;
B. *Depression in freezing point equation;
C. Van’t Hoff law equation;
D. Raoult's law equation;
E. Boiling-point elevation equation.
164. PA0-PA/PA0 = XA is:
A. Henry's law equation;
B. Freezing point determination equation;
C. Van’t Hoff law equation;
D. *Raoult's law equation;
E. Boiling-point elevation equation.
165. Colligative property is:
A. Temperature;
B. *Boiling-point elevation;
C. Volume;
D. Mole;
E. Molecule weight.
166. Physiological solution of sodium chloride is solution, which percent by weight is:
A. *0.98 %;
B. 2.61 %;
C. 10.63 %;
D. 8.66 %;
E. 98.64 %.
167. Colligative property is:
A. Temperature;
B. Normality;
C. Volume;
D. *Osmotic pressure;
E. Molecule weight.
168. Vapour pressure of the solvent under the solution wich contains non-volatile solute is
directly proportional to:
A. *Mole fraction
B. Molality
C. Molecularity
D. Mass fraction
E. Normality
169. What is the osmotic pressure of the medicaments which are isotonic to the human blood
serum?
A. 100 кPа
B. *770 кPа
C. 3.8 кPа
D. 770 Pа
E. 7.7 кPа
170. Can the solution of the non-volatile solute have the boiling point less the pure solvent?
A. Can at the negative deflection (error) from Raul’s law
B. *Can not be present
C. Can for nonelectrolyte solution
D. Can for electrolyte solution
E. Can at the positive deflection (error) from Raul’s law
171. For wat system Dalton’s law is not?
A. *For the solvent if the solution is concentrated
B. For solution of gas in liquid
C. For the solute in the diluted solution
D. For ideal solution
E. No one correct
172. Solubility of iodine does not depend on:
A. Nature of the solvent
B. Temperature
C. *Pressure
D. Dispersion of iodine
E. Present of mixing
173. For solutions with concentration 1 mol/l the minimal ionic strength is such kind of the
solution as:
A. *KCl
B. [CH3COO]2Pb
C. CaCl2
D. AlCl3
E. [NH4]2S
174. Whose theory strong electrolytes and ion’s atmosphere?
A. The Arrhenius theory
B. The Lewis theory
C. *The Debye-Huckel’s theory
D. The Bronsted-Lowry theory
E. Izmayil theory
175. Ionic products of water are...
A. *The product of concentration’s of Н3О+ and ОН-.
B. The product of activities of Н3О+ and ОН-.
C. The product of concentration’s and activity’s coefficient of Н3О+.
D. The product of concentration’s and activity’s coefficient of ОН-.
E. the water number of mol in a solution.
176. For what the following ox-red electrodes does the potential depend from ph:
A. Pt | Fe2+, Fe3+
B. Pt | Cr3+, Cr2+
C. Pt | Co2+, Co3+
D. Pt | MnO42-, MnO4E. *Pt | Mn2+, MnO4177. What kind of type is the following electrode which consists of Au3+‫ ׀‬Au ?
A. *The first type
B. The second type
C. The third type
D. The Ox-red type
E. The ion-selective type
178. Determination of Ph is:
A. The logarithm of hydroxide anion concentration;
B. The product of concentration’s of Н+ and ОН-;
C. The sum of hydroxide and hydrogen ions concentrations;
D. The difference of concentrations between hydroxide ion and Hydrogen;
E. *the minus logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration.
179. Hydrogen electrode is:
A. Metal-metal ion electrode;
B. *Gas-ion electrodes;
C. Metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode;
D. Inert "oxidation-reduction" electrode;
E. Membrane electrode.
180. What is E in Nernst equation: E = E0 – RT/nF?
A. Mass-action expression;
B. *Electrode potential;
C. Standard electrode potential;
D. EMF;
E. Oxidation potential.
181. Silver electrode is:
A. *Metal-metal ion electrode;
B. Gas-ion electrodes;
C. Metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode;
D. Inert "oxidation-reduction" electrode;
E. Membrane electrode.
182. E0 in Nernst equation: E = E0 – RT/nF is:
A. Mass-action expression;
B. Electrode potential;
C. *Standard electrode potential;
D. EMF;
E. Oxidation potential.
183. What value of standard electrode potential for standard hydrogen electrode:
A. – 0.34;
B. – 1.22;
C. *0;
D. + 0.15;
E. + 0.220.
184. What equation is using for calculated рН solutions in electrochemistry?
A. *Nernst;
B. Arrhenius;
C. Electro-neutrality;
D. Raoult’s;
E. Shredyngare.
185. Diagram of silver-silver chloride electrode is:
A. Pt, H2/2H+;
B. Ме/Ме+;
C. Zn/Zn2+;
D. *Ag/AgCl, KCl;
E. Hg/Hg2Cl2, KCl.
186. Potentiometry is:
A. *Physic-chemical method of research concentration of ions, electrode potential, which used
the EMF measuring;
B. Aggregation of the particles arising from the stabilizing effect of this secondary minimum;
C. Increase of the boiling temperature of solutions;
D. Decline of the freezing temperature of solutions;
E. System, in which a dispersion phase and dispersion medium are liquids, which are non
dissolved eth other.
187. Standard hydrogen electrode this:
A. Platinum lamina is in contact with hydrochloric acid solution.
B. Platinum lamina is in contact with zinc sulfate solution.
C. Platinum lamina is in contact with its ions in solution.
D. *Hydrogen at atmospheric pressure is passed into 1 М НСl in which foil of the platinized
platinum remains immersed through which inflow or outflow of electrons takes place.
E. A metal is in contact with one of its insoluble salts and also with а solution containing the
anion of the salt.
188. What is value of рН blood human body?
A. 7,93 -8,45;
B. 6,20 - 7,30;
C. *7,36-7,40;
D. 2,10 -7,15;
E. 10,70-17,74.
189. Standard EMF of the cell equal…
A. pH;
B. Oxidation number;
C. Standard oxidation potential of the oxidation half reaction + Standard reduction potential of
the reduction half reaction;
D. *Standard oxidation potential of the oxidation half reaction - Standard reduction potential of
the reduction half reaction;
E. Heat effect.
190. What formula of Nernst equation?
A. E = E0catode – E0anode;
B. *E = E0 – (RT/ nF) ln ([M]/ [Mn+]);
C. pH = - log [H+];
D. pH = 14- pOH;
E. pH = 14
191. The metal - metal ion electrode is electrode, which:
A. Employs а gas in contact with its anion or cation in solution;
B. A metal is in contact with one of its insoluble salts and also with а solution containing the
anion of the salt.
C. Really no more of an oxidation-reduction electrode than any other;
D. Semipermeable membrane;
E. *Consists of а metal in contact with its ions in solution.
192. In the metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode is electrode, which:
A. Employs а gas in contact with its anion or cation in solution.
B. *A metal is in contact with one of its insoluble salts and also with а solution containing the
anion of the salt.
C. Really no more of an oxidation-reduction electrode than any other.
D. Semipermeation membrane
E. Consists of а metal in contact with its ions in solution.
193. An inert oxidation-reduction electrode is:
A. Employs а gas in contact with its anion or cation in solution.
B. A metal is in contact with one of its insoluble salts and also with а solution containing the
anion of the salt.
C. *It consists of а strip, wire, or rod of an inert materiel, say, platinum, in contact with а
solution, which contains ions of а substance, is two different oxidation states.
D. Semipermeation membrane
E. Consists of а metal in contact with its ions in solution.
194. The difference between the electrode potentials of the two half cell is known as:
A. *Electromotive force (EMF) of the cell or cell potential or cell voltage;
B. electrokinetic potential;
C. Mole mass;
D. Molarity;
E. Solubility product.
195. Silver-silver chloride electrode is
A. The metal - metal ion electrode;
B. The gas-ion electrode is electrode;
C. *Metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode;
D. Inert "oxidation-reduction" electrode;
E. Membrane electrode.
196. Cu/Cu2+ electrode is:
A. *The metal - metal ion electrode;
B. The gas-ion electrode is electrode;
C. Metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode;
D. Inert "oxidation-reduction" electrode;
E. Membrane electrode.
197. Zn/Zn2+ electrode is
A. *The metal - metal ion electrode;
B. The gas-ion electrode is electrode;
C. Metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode;
D. Inert "oxidation-reduction" electrode;
E. Membrane electrode.
198. In the metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode is electrode:
A. *Silver-silver chloride electrode;
B. Zn/Zn2+ electrode;
C. Hydrogen electrode;
D. Glass electrode;
E. Cu/Cu2+ electrode.
199. Gas-ion electrode is electrode:
A. Silver-silver chloride electrode;
B. Zn/Zn2+ electrode;
C. *Hydrogen electrode;
D. Glass electrode;
E. Cu/Cu2+ electrode.
200. Calomel electrode is;
A. The metal - metal ion electrode;
B. The gas-ion electrode is electrode;
C. *Metal-insoluble salt-anion electrode;
D. Inert "oxidation-reduction" electrode;
E. Membrane electrode.
201. For measuring pH of solution and biological liquids is used such electrode:
A. Zn/Zn2+ electrode;
B. Calomel electrode;
C. *Hydrogen electrode;
D. Ag/Ag+ electrode;
E. Cu/Cu2+ electrode.
202. For measuring pH of solution and biological liquids is used such electrode:
A. Zn/Zn2+ electrode;
B. Calomel electrode;
C. *Glass electrode;
D. Ag/Ag+ electrode;
E. Cu/Cu2+ electrode.
203. An electrochemical cell
A. It is а device, which makes use of a precipitation reaction to produce the interconversion of
chemical and kinetic energy;
B. It is а device, which makes use of reaction to produce the interconversion of chemical and
potential energy;
C. It is а device, which makes use of reaction to produce the interconversion of electric and
potential energy;
D. It is а device, which makes use of reaction to produce the interconversion of heat and
potential energy;
E. *is а device, which makes use of an oxidation-reduction reaction to produce the
interconversion of chemical and electric energy.
204. Galvanic call:
is used for
measuring:
A. Membrane potential;
B. *pH;
C. Standard electrode potential;
D. Concentration potential;
E. Electro-kinetic potential.
205. Electrode potential is formed in systems when are such reactions:
A. Double decomposing reaction;
B. Hydrolysis reaction;
C. Precipitation reaction;
D. *Oxidation – redaction reaction:
E. Neutralization reaction.
206. Which of the following statements is incorrect about electrochemical cell?
A. electrons are released at anode
B. chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
C. salt bridge maintains the electrical neutrality of the electrolytes
D. *cell can work indefinitely
E. cations are released at cathode
207. Point out the correct statement in a cell of zinc and copper:
A. zinc acts as cathode and copper as anode
B. *zinc acts as anode and copper as cathode
C. the standard reduction potential of zinc is more than that of copper
D. the flow of electrons is form copper to zinc
E. none of the above
208. The e.m.f. of the cell in which the reaction 2 Ag+(aq) + H2(g)  2 Ag(s) +2H+(aq) Occurs is
0,80 V. The standard reduction potential of Ag+|Ag electrode is:
A. *0,80 V
B. 0, 40 V
C. -0,80 V
D. -0,40 V
E. 0,6 V
209. The reduction potentials of Zn, Cu, Fe, Ag are in the order
A. *Ag, Cu, Fe, Zn
B. Cu, Ag, Fe, Zn
C. Zn, Cu, Fe, Ag
D. Fe, Zn, Cu, Ag
E. Cu, Zn, Ag, Fe
210. In a galvanic cell, which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Anode is negatively charged
B. Cathode is positively charged
C. *Reduction takes place at the anode
D. Reduction takes place at the cathode
E. Oxidation takes place at the anode
211. The standard electrode potentials for Pb2+ | Pb and Zn2+ |Zn are -0,12 V and -0,763 V
respectively. The e.m.f. of the cell Zn | Zn2+ (0,1 M) || Pb2+ (0,1 M) | Pb is:
A. *0,637 V
B. -0,637 V
C. 0,889 V
D. -0,889 V
E. 0,453 V
212. For the electrode reaction: Mn+(aq) + n e- → M (s). Nernst equation is:
A. E0 = E0 + RT/nF log 1/[Mn+]
B. E0 = E0 + RT/nF ln [Mn+]
C. *E = E0 + RT/nF ln [Mn+]
D. E/ E0 = RT/nF ln [Mn+]
E. E = E0 + RT/nF log [M]
213. E0cell and ∆G0 are related as:
A. ∆G0 = nF E0cell
B. *∆G0 = - nF E0cell
C. ∆G = nF E0cell
D. ∆G0 = nF E0cell = 0
E. None of the above
214. When lead storage battery discharges
A. SO2 is evolved
B. PbSO4 is consumed
C. Lead is formed
D. *H2SO4 is consumed
E. H2SO4 is in excess
215. The standard electrode potentials for the half cell reactions are as:
Zn → Zn2+ + 2 e- E0 = -0.76 V
Fe → Fe2+ + 2 e- E0 = 0.41V
216. The e.m.f. of the cell reactions Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe is:
A. 0
B. -0.35
C. *+1.17
D. 0.35
E. -1.17
217. The units of specific conductance are
A. *ohm-1cm-1
B. ohm-1cm
C. cm
D. cm-1
E. ohm cm-1
218. If the specific resistance of a solution of concentration C g equiv/litre is A, then its
equivalent conductance is:
A. *1000 A / C
B. A C / 1000
C. 1000 / A C
D. C / 1000 A
E. A + C / 100
219. Choose the equation which connects the dissociation constant and the degree of the
dissociation for a weak electrolyte and expresses Ostvald’s law:
A. *К = 2с (1-)-1
B. К =  с (1-)-1
C. К = 2с (1-)
D. К =  с2 (1-)-1
E. К = 2с2 (1-)-1
220. Which factor does not influence on the degree of the dissociation?
A. Nature of the solute
B. Nature of the solvent
C. Temperature
D. Concentration
E. *Partial pressure
221. Which theory is true only for weak electrolytes?
A. *The Arrhenius theory
B. The Lewis theory
C. The Debye-Huckel’s theory
D. The Bronsted-Lowry theory
E. Izmaylov theory
222. Which theory gives the explanation about acids and bases due to the proton’s
relationship?
A. The Arrhenius theory
B. The Lewis theory
C. The Debye-Huckel’s theory
D. *The Bronsted-Lowry theory
E. Izmaylov theory
223. Which equation can be used for calculation of the molar conductance at infinite dilution
of weak electrolyte?
A. *λ = λ+ + λ -.
B. λ = λ+ . λ -.
C. λ = λ+ - λ -.
D. λ = λ+ / λ -.
E. λ = 0,5(λ+ + λ -).
Tests with figures
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1. What is thermodynamic system that is shown on the figure №1?
*Open;
Closed;
Isolated;
Thera are two systems: the first is closed, the second is isolated
No one.
2. The system on the figure №1:
Сhanges the mass with the surroundings
*Сhanges the mass and energy with the surroundings
Change the energy with the surroundings
Does not change with the surroundings
No one
3. What is thermodynamic’s system that is shown on the figure №2?
Open;
*Closed
Isolated
There is not thermodynamics system
No one
4. What is thermodynamic’s system that is shown on the figure № 3?
Open;
*Closed;
Isolated
There is not thermodynamics system
No one
5. The system on the figure № 3:
Сhanges the mass with the surroundings
Сhanges the mass and energy with the surroundings
*Change the energy with the surroundings
Does not change with the surroundings
No one
6. What the phases are at the equilibrium in the point № 1 on the AntipyrineMentholum fusibility diagram (figure № 4)?
Solid mentholum
Solid antipyrine;
*Fusion and solid antipyrine;
Fusion;
Fusion, solid mentholum and solid antipyrine.
7. What the phases are at the equilibrium in the point № 2 on the AntipyrineMentholum fusibility diagram (figure № 4)?
Solid mentholum
Solid antipyrine;
*Fusion and solid antipyrine;
Fusion;
Fusion, solid mentholum and solid antipyrine
8. What the phases are at the equilibrium in the point № 3 on the AntipyrineMentholum fusibility diagram (figure № 4)?
Solid mentholum
Solid antipyrine;
Fusion and solid antipyrine;
Fusion;
E. *Fusion, solid mentholum and solid antipyrine
9. What the phases are at the equilibrium in the point № 4 on the AntipyrineMentholum fusibility diagram (figure № 4)?
A. Solid mentholum
B. Solid antipyrine;
C. Fusion and solid antipyrine;
D. *Fusion;
E. Fusion, solid mentholum and solid antipyrine
10. At which temperature the 10% mentholum containing mixture starts to fusion
(figure 4)?
0
A. *3 C;
B. 50 0C;
C. 60 0C;
D. 70 0C;
E. 100 0C.
11. At which temperature the 80% mentholum containing mixture completely fusions
(figure 4)?
A. *Approximately 40 0C;
B. 50 0C
C. 60 0C;
D. 70 0C;
E. 100 0C.
12. At which temperature the 100% mentholum containing mixture starts to fusion
(figure 4)?
A. *41 0C;
B. 50 0C;
C. 60 0C;
D. 70 0C;
E. 100 0C.
13. At which temperature the 100% antipyrine containing mixture starts to fusion
(figure 4)?
A. *111 0C;
B. 50 0C;
C. 60 0C;
D. 70 0C;
E. 10 0C.
14. At which temperature the 18,9 % mentholum containing mixture starts to fusion
(figure 4)?
A. *3 0C;
B. 50 0C;
C. 60 0C;
D. 70 0C;
E. 100 0C.
15. At which temperature the mixture completely crystallizes on the figure 4?
A. *3 0C;
B. 50 0C;
C. 60 0C;
D. 70 0C;
E. 100 0C.
16. What is the antipyrine containing in the eutectic mixture on the figure 4?
A. *81,1 %;
B. 18,9 %;
C. 100 %;
D. 50 %;
E. 1 %.
17. What is the mentholum containing in the eutectic mixture on the figure 4?
A. 81,1 %;
B. *18,9 %;
C. 100 %;
D. 50 %;
E. 1 %.
18. Which phases are at the equilibrium in the point 1 on the MethylstearateParaphine fusibility diagram (figure 5)?
A. Solid methylstearate;
B. Solid paraphine
C. *Fusion and solid methylstearate
D. Fusion;
E. Fusion, solid methylstearate and solid paraphine
19. Which phases are at the equilibrium in the point 2 on the MethylstearateParaphine fusibility diagram (figure 5)?
A. Solid methylstearate;
B. Solid paraphine
C. Fusion and solid methylstearate
D. *Fusion;
E. Eutectic
20. Which phases are at the equilibrium in the point 3 on the MethylstearateParaphine fusibility diagram (figure 5)?
A. Solid methylstearate
B. Solid paraphine
C. Fusionion and solid methylstearate
D. Fusion;
E. *Fusionion , solid methylstearate and solid paraphine
21. Which phases are at the equilibrium in the point 4 on the MethylstearateParaphine fusibility diagram (figure 5)?
A. Solid methylstearate;
B. Solid paraphine
C. *Fusionion and solid paraphine
D. Fusion;
E. Fusion , solid methylstearate and solid paraphine.
22. On the Methylstearate-Paraphine fusibility diagram (figure 5) the eutectic point
is:
A. 2;
B. 1;
C. *3;
D. 4;
E. No one.
23. Which point on the fusibility diagram (figure 4) is eutectic point?
A. 1;
B. 2;
C. *3;
D. 4;
E. No one.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
24. At which temperature the 40% methylstearate containing mixture starts to fusion
(figure 5)?
*25 0C
30 0C;
35 0C;
40 0C;
50 0C.
25. At which temperature the 70% methylstearate containing mixture starts to fusion
(figure 5)?
25 0C;
30 0C;
35 0C;
*40 0C;
50 0C.
26. Below which temperature the Methylstearate-Paraphine system contains only the
solid crystalline components (figure 5)?
0
*25 C;
41 0C;
50 0C;
55 0C;
20 0C.
27. Below which temperature the Antipyrine-Menthol system contains only the solid
crystalline components (figure 4)?
0
*3 C;
40 0C;
41 0C;
111 0C;
60 0C.
28. At which temperature the clean Antipyrine fuses (figure 4)?
3 0C;
40 0C;
41 0C;
*111 0C;
60 0C.
29. At which temperature the clean Menthol fuses (figure 4)?
3 0C;
40 0C;
*41 0C;
111 0C;
60 0C.
30. At which temperature the clean Methylstearate fuses (figure 5)?
0
0 C;
25 0C;
*41 0C;
50 0C;
55 0C.
31. At which temperature the clean Paraphine fuses (figure 5)?
0
0 C;
25 0C;
41 0C;
*50 0C;
55 0C.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
32. What is Paraphine’s content in the eutectic mixture (figure 5)?
*40 %;
25 %;
60 %;
50 %;
100 %.
33. What is Methylstearate’s content in the eutectic mixture (figure 5)?
40 %;
25 %;
*60 %;
50 %;
100 %.
34. What is the aggregate state of the system on the figure 5 at 55 0C?
*Liquid;
Gas;
Solid;
Fusion and the crystals of Methylstearate;
Fusion and the crystals of Paraphine.
35. What is the aggregate state of the system on the figure 5 at temperature below 25
0
C?
Liquid;
Gas;
*Solid;
Fusion and the crystals of Methylstearate;
Fusion and the crystals of Paraphine.
36. What is the system that has the state diagram on the figure 5?
*2- components system with simple eutectic;
3-components ;
2-components, its components form the solid solution;
1-component;
2-components, its components form the stable chemical compound.
37. What is the system that has the state diagram on the figure 6?
2-components, its components don’t form the solid solution;
3-components;
2-components, its components form the solid solution;
*1-component;
2-components, its components form the stable chemical compound.
38. What is the system that has the state diagram on the figure 7?
2-components, its components don’t form the solid solution;
3-components;
*2-components, its components form the solid solution;
1-component;
2-components, its components form the stable chemical compound.
39. What the system’s state corresponds to the C point on the figure 7?
*Eutectic;
Gas;
Solid;
Fusion and crystals;
Fusion and gas
40. What is the system’s state that corresponds to the field +Fe3C on the figure 7?
*Solid solution;
Gas;
C. Fusion;
D. Fusion and crystals;
E. Fusion and gas.
41. What is the system that has the state diagram on the figure 8?
A. 2-components, its components don’t form the solid solution;
B. 3-components;
C. 2-components, its components form the solid solution;
D. 1-component;
E. *2-components, its components form the unstable chemical compound.
42. What the system’s state is on the figure 8 above the liquidus line?
A. Solid solution;
B. Gas;
C. *Fusion;
D. Fusion and crystals;
E. Fusion and gas.
43. What the system’s state corresponds to the E point on the figure 8?
A. Solid solution;
B. Gas;
C. Fusion;
D. Fusion and crystals of the both components;
E. *Fusion and crystal of the one component and a chemical compound.
44. What is the composition that is represented by Gibbsa-Rozebum equilateral
triangle (figure 9)?
A. 2-components system, its components don’t form the solid solution;
B. *3-components system;
C. 2-components system, its components form the solid solution;
D. 1-component system;
E. 2-components system, its components form the unstable chemical compound.
45. Which is the parameter on the diagram of 3-components system (figure 10) that is
perpendiculary represented to the plane of the components composition?
A. *Temperature;
B. Pressure;
C. Aluminium oxide concentration;
D. Calcium oxide concentration;
E. Silicon oxide concentration.
46. The spatial diagram of the which system is depicted on the figure 10?
A. 2-components system, its components don’t form the solid solution;
B. 1-component system;
C. 2-components system, its components form the solid solution;
D. *3-components system;
E. 2-components system, its components form the unstable chemical compound.
47. Which point on the fusibility diagram of 2-components system on the figure 11
corresponds to the formation of a stable chemical compounds?
A. *c;
B. d;
C. k;
D. No one;
E. All.
48. In the d point on the figure 11 the system composes with:
A. Fusion;
B. *Fusion, solid component CaCl2 and a chemical compound;
C. Fusion, solid component CsCl and a chemical compound;
D. Solid component CaCl2 and a chemical compound;
E. Solid components CaCl2 and CsCl.
49. In the f point on the figure 11 the system composes with:
A. Fusion;
B. Fusion, solid component CaCl2 and a chemical compound;
C. *Fusion, solid component CsCl and a chemical compound;
D. Solid component CaCl2 and a chemical compound;
E. Solid components CaCl2 and CsCl.
50. What the system’s state corresponds to the point on the figure 11?
A. Solid solution;
B. Gas;
C. *Fusion;
D. Fusion and crystals;
E. Fusion and gas.
51. How many degrees of freedom has the Metylstearate – paraphine system in the
point 1 on the figure 5?
A. *1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. 0.
52. How many degrees of freedom has the Metylstearate – paraphine system in the
point 2 on the figure 5?
A. 1;
B. *2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. 0.
53. How many degrees of freedom has the Metylstearate – paraphine system in the
point 3 on the figure 5?
A. 1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. *0.
54. How many degrees of freedom has the Antipyrine – menthol system in the point 2
on the figure 4?
A. *1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. 0.
55. How many degrees of freedom has the Antipyrine – menthol system in the point 3
on the figure 4?
A. 1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. *0.
56. How many degrees of freedom has the Antipyrine – menthol system in the point 4
on the figure 4?
A. 1;
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
*2;
3;
4;
0.
57. What is the type of the composition reaction that corresponds to the scheme on
the figure 12?
Double-sided;
*Parallel
In the consecutive order;
Conjugating;
No one.
58. What is the type of the composition reaction that corresponds to the scheme on
the figure 13?
Double-sided;
Parallel;
*In the consecutive order;
Conjugating;
No one.
59. What is the type of the composition reaction that corresponds to the scheme on
the figure 14?
Double-sided;
Parallel;
In the consecutive order;
*Conjugating;
No one.
60. What is the characteristic of the chemical reactions that can be determined from
the tangent of an angle of the slope tangent on the graph figure 15?
*Rate;
Activation energy;
Activation enthropy;
Rate constant;
No one.
61. For what is the order the kinetic curve is plotted in this coordinate system (figure
16)?
*First;
Second;
Third;
Zero;
Fructional.
62. For what is the order the kinetic curve is plotted in this coordinate system (figure
17)?
First;
*Second;
Third;
Zero;
Fructional.
63. For what is the order the kinetic curve is plotted in this coordinate system (figure
18)?
First;
Second;
*Third;
Zero;
E. Fructional.
64. For what is the order the kinetic curve is plotted in this coordinate system (figure
19)?
A. First;
B. Second;
C. Third;
D. *Zero;
E. Fructional.
65. At which body temperature the biochemical reaction rate reduces according to the
protein denaturation and enzyme deactivation (figure 20)?
A. *40-42 0C;
B. 38-40 0C;
C. 36-38 0C;
D. 34-36 0C;
E. 36,6 0C
66. What characteristic can be determined by the tangent of an angle of the slope
tangent on the graph (figure 21)?
A. Rate;
B. *Activation energy;
C. Activation enthropy;
D. Rateconstant;
E. No one.
67. How can the activation energy be calculated from the graph on the figure 21, the
graph was plotted between the rate constant logariphms and back temperature?
A. *Еа = -R·tg;
B. Еа = R·tg;
C. Еа = tg;
D. Еа = -tg;
E. Еа = 1/tg.
68. On the figure 20 there are the following relationship between temperature rising
and the enzymic reaction rate:
A. *The rate firstly rises then reduses;
B. The rate firstly reduses then rises;
C. The rate high rises;
D. The rate reduses;
E. The rate doesn’t change.
69. Figure 22 shows that the saturated steam at comparison with the equilibrium
solution enriched by the component, which causes the following process at the
adding to the solution
A. *Increases the vapour pressure above the solution or reduces temperature of its boiling
point;
B. Increases the vapour pressure above the solution or increases temperature of its boiling
point;
C. Reduses the vapour pressure above the solution or increases temperature of its boiling
point;
D. Reduses the vapour pressure above the solution or reduses temperature of its boiling
point;
E. Does not change the vapour pressure above the solution.
70. According to Raoult’s law (figure 22) the partial pressure of the component’s
saturated steam of the ideal solution line increases according to the increasing of
its….
A. *Mole fraction;
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
Molar concentration;
Molal concentration;
Titre;
Normal concentration.
71. In the case of a positive deviation from Raoult's law (Figure 23):
*Redusing the interaction forces between solution’s particles;
Redusing the vapour pressure of a solution;
Reducing the activity of a solution;
Reducing the system’s volume at the solubility;
The curves of a general and partial pressures of a saturated steam bend down.
72. In the case of a negative deviation from Raoult's law (Figure 24):
*Increasing the interaction forces between solution’s particles;
Increasing the vapour pressure of a solution;
Increasing the activity of a solution;
Increasing the system’s volume at the solubility;
The curves of a general and partial pressures of a saturated steam bend to up.
73. Figure 25 shows:
*Osmometr;
Areometr;
Calorimeter;
Viscosymeter;
Manometer.
74. What is the process the figure 26 shows?
Only dissociation;
Only solvation;
Only hydration;
*Dissociation and hydration;
Association.
75. The potential of Silver - silver chloride electrode depends on the concentration of:
*Chloride ion;
Sulphate ion;
Nitrate ions;
Sulphide ion;
Phosfate ion.
76. Choose the correct scheme of Hydrogen electrode (figure 28):
Pt ‫ ׀‬H+, H2;
Pt, H2‫ ׀‬H+;
Pt, H+, H2;
Pt, H+, H2;
*Pt ‫ ׀‬H2, H+.
77. If the system (figure 29) consists from а metal in contact with its ions in solution.
The is dominating of the process of metal’s ions transition into the solution then
the metal has the following charge:
*Negative;
Positive;
Zero;
The charge does not change;
The charge is neutralized.
78. The equivalent point on the conductometry diagram (figure 30) denotes...
*The minimal electrical conductance of the solution;
The maximal electrical conductance of the solution;
Absence water molecule in the solution;
D. Present of the charge transfer;
E. The minimal рН of solution.
79. In which coordinates is the conductometry diagram plotted (figure 30)?
A. Moloar conductivity from the titrant volume;
B. The titrant volume from the specific conductance;
C. *The specific conductance from the titrant volume;
D. The mobility of the ions from the solution concentration;
E. The mobility of the ions from temperature.
80. What is correct in the scheme of a concentrated galvanic cell (figure 31):
A. Salt-bridge written on the write;
B. Salt-bridge written on the left;
C. Anod written on the left;
D. Cathode written on the write;
E. *Salt-bridge does not write.
81. What is type of Silver - silver chloride electrode (figure 27)?
A. The first reference electrode;
B. Oxidation-reduction electrodes;
C. *The second reference electrode;
D. The third reference electrode;
E. Gas electrode.
82. Standard hydrogen electrode (figure 28) consists of platinum wire which is dipped
in a sulfuric acid solution at 293 K and p=1,013*105 Pa with the following
activity of Н3О+ ions:
A. 0,2 mol/L;
B. *1 mol/L;
C. 0,5 mol/L;
D. 2 mol/L;
E. 0,1 mol/L.
83. In the standard hydrogen electrode (figure 28) hydrogen is under the following
pressure:
A. 10,13 kPа;
B. 101,3 Pа;
C. *101,3 kPа;
D. 1013 Pа;
E. 1,013 kPа.
84. What is the dissociation degree of strong electrolites (figure 32):
A. α<30%;
B. α<3%;
C. 3%< α<70%;
D. *α>70%;
E. α>50%.
85. What is the dissociation degree of strong electrolites (figure 33):
A. α<30%;
B. α<3%;
C. 3%< α<70%;
D. *α>70%;
E. α>50%.
86. What is the dissociation degree of week electrolites (figure 34):
A. α<30%;
B. *α<3%;
C. 3%< α<70%;
D. α>70%;
E. α>50%.
87. What is the dissociation degree of week electrolites (figure 35):
A. α<30%;
B. *α<3%;
C. 3%< α<70%;
D. α>70%;
E. α>50%.
88. The theory of what scientists based on the assumption about the complete
dissociation of strong electrolytes and the existence of the ionic atmosphere
around a central ion (Figure 36)?
A. Arrhenius
B. Lewis’ theory
C. *Debye-Hückel theory;
D. Bronsted theory;
E. Theory Izmailov
89. Inhibition of the ion motion through the opposite direction of the ion and its ionic
atmosphere (Figure 36) is called:
A. Dorn effect;
B. Effect Quincke;
C. Relaxing brake;
D. *Electrophoretic inhibition;
E. Viscosity.
90. The Solvation (figure 37) is
A. *Interaction of the solute’s molecules with the solvent’s molecules;
B. Interaction of the solute’s molecules between themselves;
C. The same that an association;
D. The same that a dimerization;
E. The same that an ionisation.
91. The specific conductance is measured by the placing of the electrolytes solution
in a conductometric cell (figure 38). What relation is called the constant
conductivity cell?
A. L/R;
B. *L/S;
C. S;
D. S/R;
E. 1/R.
92. The conductometry method is based on the measuring of the electrical
conductivity of a solution, it are widely used in biomedical and pharmaceutical
practices. How the dilution impacts on the electrical conductivity value of a
strong acid solution (Figure 39)?
A. *The specific conductance increases then reduces;
B. The specific conductance reduces then increases;
C. The specific conductance increases then reaches the limiting value;
D. The specific conductance increases all time;
E. The specific conductance does not change.
93. The decreasing of the molar conductivity of strong electrolytes with the
concentration increasing (Figure 39) explains:
A. *Present of an ionic atmosphere;
B. Increasing an ion quantity;
C. Increasing the dissociation degree;
D. Increasing the solution density;
E. Increasing the solution viscosity.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
94. What is type of the Hydrogen electrode (figure 28)?
*The first reference gas electrode;
Oxidation-reduction electrode;
The second reference electrode;
The third reference electrode;
The first reference metal electrode.
95. What is the type of electrode that is represented on the figure 40?
The first reference gas electrode;
*Oxidation-reduction electrode;
The second reference electrode;
Ionselectivity electrode;
The first reference metal electrode.
96. What is the name of the system on the figure 41, in which the chemical energy of
the red-ox process converts into the electricity?
рН-meter;
Voltmeter;
*Galvanic element;
Polarimeter;
Rheostat.
97. Conductometric titration is widely used for drug’s analysis. How is the
equivalence point determined in this method (Figure 30)?
For the colour change of the indicator;
For the viscositychange of the solution;
*For the electrical conductance change of the solution;
For the opical density change of the solution;
For the E.M.F. change.
98. Conductometric titration is widely used for drug’s analysis. At the equivalent
point (Figure 30) of the titration of a strong acid by an alkali, electric(al)
conductivity…
Maximal;
*Minimal;
Zero;
Negative;
one
99. E.M.F. that presents between two electrodes (figure 41) equals:
The product of the two electrode potentials;
The logarithms sum of the two electrode potentials;
*The difference between the two electrode potentials;
The ratio of the two electrode potentials;
No one