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Module 1 General microbiology, immunology and virology Text test questions 1. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes? A. Cholera and dysentery vaccines. B. Measles and Solk polio vaccines. C. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines. D. All of the above. E. *BCG and oral polio vaccines 2. Plasma cells are: A. mature T cells B. immature macrophages C. mature macrophages D. immature T cells E. *antibody-producing cells 3. Which viruses replicate in the nucleus? A. *Poxviruses B. Paramyxoviruses C. Picornaviruses D. Parvoviridae E. Rhabdoviruses 4. The smallest known viruses are the: A. *Picornavirus B. Adenovirus C. Enterovirus D. Orthomyxovirus E. Paramyxovirus 5. All of the following viruses contain lipid EXCEPT: A. herpesviruses B. *papillomaviruses C. poxviruses D. togaviruses E. paramyxoviruses 6. All of the following viral genomes are replicated in the cytoplasm EXCEPT: A. poxviruses B. reoviruses C. picornaviruses D. *herpesviruses E. paramyxoviruses 7. All of the following viruses are replicated in the nucleus EXCEPT: A. *poxviruses B. papovaviruses C. adenoviruses D. herpesviruses E. parvoviruses 8. Parvovirus genome: A. dsDNA, small, complex symmetry B. *ssDNA, small, icosahedral symmetry C. ssDNA, small, helical symmetry D. ssRNA, large, helical symmetry E. dsRNA, middle-sized, icosahedral symmetry 9. The nucleocapsid refers to: A. *the complete viral particle the viral genetic material the viral proteins only the viral genetic material and associated lipids the viral genetic material and associated proteins Polymerases are encoded on the genomes of: A. all viruses B. all DNA viruses C. *all RNA viruses D. only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and Poxviruses) E. no viruses, because viruses do not encode polymerases Which viruses replicate in the nucleus? A. Poxviruses B. Paramyxoviruses C. Picornaviruses D. *Parvoviridae E. Orthomyxoviruses What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell? A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments What is one component of all mammalian viruses? A. the envelope B. the polymerase C. the icosahedral capsid D. the lipid E. *the nucleic acid What is the role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus? A. *initiation and regulation of virus replication B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope Which of the following host proteins is the first to rise to high titer, in response to viral infection? A. Immunoglobulin B. Complement C. *Interferon D. Anti-idiotype antibody E. Interleukin 1 The characteristic cytophatologic effect (CPE) that viruses cause in cells include: A. vacuolation B. necrosis C. cell lysis D. syncytia formation E. *all of the above The main use of embryonated eggs in virology is the: A. detection of cytopathic effect B. production of interferon C. production of vaccines D. *observation of viral growth E. production of lysozym The following test determines the presence of infectious virus in a sample: B. C. D. E. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA) Neutralization Tests (NT) Complement Fixation Test (CF) ELISA The following test reveals the intracellular location of viral antigens: A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) B. *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA) C. Neutralization Tests (NT) D. Complement Fixation Test (CF) E. ELISA The following test uses a solid phase coated with antibody (or antigen) to capture antigen (or antibody) from the patient's specimen: A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) B. Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA) C. Neutralization Tests (NT) D. Complement Fixation Test (CF) E. *ELISA RS virus causes: A. destruction of tissue culture B. *formation of syncytio in tissue cultures C. death of chicken embryo D. hemagglutination of red cells E. hemolysis. Which of the following vaccine is attenuated? A. Dysentery vaccines. B. Cholera vaccines C. Diphtheria vaccines. D. Solk polio vaccines. E. *BCG Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens? A. lipids B. DNA C. fatty acids D. sugars E. *proteins Which of the following substances are antigens? A. DNA B. carbohydrates. C. lipids D. sugars E. *proteins Which part of the antibody molecule reacts with the antigenic determinants of the antigen? A. H chains B. L chains C. constant parts of the H and L chains D. hinge E. *variable parts of the H and L chains ?When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be made only if A. the acute titer is less than 10 B. the convalescent titer is greater than 20 C. there is a twofold rise in titer A. B. C. D. E. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer E. there is no change in titer 27. The function of a viral capsid is/are: A. it protects the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction B. it provides binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell C. it serves as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another D. It consists of proteins E. *all of the above 28. Enveloped viruses have a shape A. Icosahedral B. Helical C. Hexagonal D. *Roughly spherical E. Complex 29. Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA? A. Phage structural proteins B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release D. *All of the above E. None of the above 30. 5. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called, which can directly disrupt cell 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. structure A. Prokaryotes B. Chromosomal disruptions C. *Inclusion bodies D. Cytocidal bodies E. All of the above Icosachedral viruses have sides A. 6 B. 10 C. 12 D. *20 E. 48 ?Large granular lymphocytes which can kill virus-infected cells as part of innate immunity are called: A. neutrophils B. *natural killer cells C. monocytes D. lymphocytes E. mast cells Interferon action is: A. *primarily antiviral B. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes C. to protect primary infected cells D. found in high levels in phagocytic granules E. kill cells infected by viruses Match the following phrases concerning the classical complement pathway. A. C4b2b B. C1 C. C3 D. C9 E. CbBb Primary lymphoid organ/s are: thymus bursa of Fabricius. bone marrow. *all of the above are correct E all of the above are false Natural killer cells are involved in: A. allograft rejection. B. tumour rejection. C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells. D. type II of allergy E. *E all of the above. C3 is cleaved to form C3a and C3b by C3-convertase. C3b is involved in all of the following EXCEPT: A. *altering vascular permeability B. promoting phagocytosis C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase D. forming C5 convertase. E. E can bind to macrophages Each of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT: A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells C. They are codominantly expressed D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. E They are absent onto red blood cells CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by: A. *T cells. B. В cells. C. monocytes. D. granulocytes. E. mast cells AT helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if the antigen is associated with: A. HLA class I antigen. B. Surface immunoglobulin. C. *HLA class II antigen. D. CD 8 antigen. E. All of the above. T-killer cells are important in controlling A. *virus infections B. allergy C. autoimmunity D. antibodies synthesis E. all of these An antigen is A. a hapten that combines with an antibody B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies C. a small molecule that attaches to cells D. a carbohydrate E. a protein that combines with antibodies The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with A. antigen B. factor B A. B. C. D. E. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. C. *antigen-IgG complexes D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides E. E factor D and I 44. Natural killer cells are: A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells C. increased by immunization D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization E. T?? cells 45. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells? A. Alpha interferon B. *Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-5 D. Interleukin-6 E. bradikidin 46. All of the following are organs of immune system, except: A. GALT B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. *thyroid gland E. tonsil gland 47. An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is: A. NK cells B. unbroken skin C. cilia in trachea D. *lysozyme in saliva E. all of these 48. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. cascade reaction D. complement factor C1 E. *complement factor C9 49. Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells? A. because inhibits protein synthesis B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes C. because inhibits mRNA D. *because attacks of peptidoglycan E. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes 50. Which of the following pairs is mismatched A. vagina --- lactobacilli B. eye --- lysozyme C. oropharynx --- anaerobes D. mucus --- lactoferrin E. *skin --- Gram negative 51. Primary defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract include all except: A. *lysozyme B. secretory IgA C. mucus D. bile E. acidity in stomach 52. Lysozyme: A. aggregates bacteria captures free iron *breaks down the bacterial cell wall enhances phagocytosis is antiviral Stem cells arise from: A. yolk sac. B. foetal liver. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above. E. all of the above are wrong An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for the: A. CD 38 marker. B. CD 25 marker. C. CD 4 marker. D. CD 3 marker E. *CD 19 marker. Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells. A. Sensitized B. Cytotoxic C. *Helper D. Natural killer E. K cells Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT: A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells B. They have a high degree of polymorphism C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins E. They are main in succefull transplantation Find the correct statements concernin haptens: A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody B. A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to induce antibody C. Haptens are big molecules of protein D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic Antigen-presenting cells (had activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. Class III MHC antigens Match the following phrases concerning the classical complement pathway. A. C4b2b B. C1 C. C3 D. C9 E. C7 Natural killer cells are A. cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells C. increased by immunization D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization B. C. D. E. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. E. opsonissed phagocytes 61. The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with: A. *antigen-antibody complex B. factor B C. antigen-IgA complexes D. bacterial capsula E. endotoxin 62. Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells? A. *Alpha interferon B. Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-2 D. Interleukin-4 E. lymphotoxin 63. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue? A. spleen B. *thyroid gland C. lymph nodes D. GALT E. tonsil gland 64. Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is A. NK cells B. unbroken skin C. *lysozyme in saliva D. cilia in trachea E. all of these 65. Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. *cascade reaction D. complement factor C5 E. complement factor C1 66. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway? A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4 C. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present D. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway E. C3bBb presents 67. C3a and C5a can cause A. A bacterial lysis B. *B vascular permeability C. C phagocytosis of IgE coated bacteria D. D aggregation of C4 and C2 E. E activate protein synthesis 68. The most common type of circulating white cell is the: A. *neutrophil B. lymphocyte C. basophil D. eosinophil E. monocyte 69. The following is not part of the defense mechanisms of the neutrophil: A. lactoferrin B. superoxide anion C. *lysozyme D. free radicals E. hydrogen peroxide 70. Interferon action is: A. *primarily antiviral B. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes C. to protect primary infected cells D. found in high levels in phagocytic granules E. kill virus direct 71. CD8 surface antigen is present in: A. helper Т cells. B. *cytotoxic Т cells. C. NK cells D. both of the above. E. none of the above. 72. The earliest stages of B cell differentiation A. Occur in the embryonic thymus B. Require the presence of antigen C. Involve rearrangement of K chain gene segments D. Involve rearrangement of surrogate light chain gene rearrangement E. *Involve rearrangement of heavy chain gene segments 73. Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to? A. B-cells B. T-killers C. NK-cells D. Mast cells E. *T-helpers 74. Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are: A. lymph nodes. B. spleen. C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. D. GALT E. *all of the above 75. Natural killer cells take part in: A. allograft rejection. B. tumour rejection. C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells. D. cytothoxic and cytolytic reactions E. *all of the above 76. Human T lymphocytes: A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node. B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen. C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. 77. Individuals of blood group type AB A. are Rh(D)-negative B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies D. . have the same haplotype E. are "universal donors" of transfusions 78. The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the A. specific receptor B. *epitope C. antibody determinant. D. active center. E. antigen binding place. 79. Complement lyses cells by A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane B. activation of adenylate cyclase C. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane D. inhibition of elongation factor 2 E. production of lysozyme 80. Cytotoxic cells (NK) are A. B cells B. cytotoxic T cells C. *able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization D. able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production E. macrophages 81. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells? A. ? interferon B. ? interferon C. TNF D. *Interleukin-6 E. serotonin 82. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system: A. GALT, spleen B. *thymus, bone marrow C. lymph nodes, thymus, D. thyroid gland, tonsil gland E. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow 83. Monocytes are_ leukocytes that develop into A. *granular, phagocytes B. agranular, macrophages C. agrunular, mast cells D. granular, T cells E. granular, B cells 84. Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement system? A. properdin B. *membrane attack complex C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex D. complement factor C4 E. complement factor C5 85. Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity? A. complement B. collagenase C. *C. interferon D. lysozyme E. lysosome 86. Lymphocytes which can kill tumor cells, virus-infected cells as part of innate immunity are called: A. *mast cells B. monocytes C. neutrophils D. lymphocytes E. natural killer cells 87. Which is action of ? and ? interferons: *A.. activate antiviral enzymes in cells infected by viruses disrupt cytoplasmic membranes protect primary infected cells found in high levels in phagocytic granules stimulate production by infected cells syntetaise and proteinkinase Find a convertase enzyme that acts on classical complement pathway. A. C1 B. *C4b2b C. C3 D. C9 E. CbBb Choose primary lymphoid organ/s: A. thymus B. bursa of Fabricius. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above are correct E. all of the above are false What is function of natural killer? A. Inhibit macrophages. B. Activates B-cells. C. *Kill tissue cells infected by viruses D. take part in type I of allergy E. all of the above. C3b is involved in all of the following EXCEPT: A. *altering vascular permeability B. promoting phagocytosis C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase D. forming C5 convertase. E. can bind to macrophages Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect: A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells C. They are codominantly expressed D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. They are absent onto red blood cells What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen: A. *T cells. B. В cells. C. monocytes. D. granulocytes. E. mast cells What is function of T-killer cells? A. *take part in antiviral immunity B. allergy C. autoimmunity D. antibodies synthesis E. all of these Choose the correct sentence according antigen: A. a hapten that combines with an antibody B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies. C. a small molecule that attaches to cells. D. a carbohydrate A. B. C. D. E. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. E. a protein that combines with antibodies. 96. Cl must interact in the classic complement pathway with: A. antigen B. factor B C. *antigen-IgG complexes D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides E. factor D and I 97. NK cells are: A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells C. increased by immunization D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization E. T cells 98. Which substances can produce Th1 cells? A. Alpha interferon B. *Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-5 D. Interleukin-6 E. bradikidin 99. What of the following are not organs of immune system? A. *thyroid gland B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. GALT E. tonsil gland 100. Choose a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection: A. NK cells B. unbroken skin C. cilia in trachea D. *lysozyme in saliva E. all of these 101. Indicate the end product of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. cascade reaction D. complement factor C1 E. *complement factor C9 102. What is the point of action of lysozyme? A. inhibition of protein synthesis B. activation of lysosome’s enzymes C. inhibition of mRNA D. *destroing of peptidoglycan E. stimulation of proteolytic enzymes 103. Defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract are all except: A. bile B. secretory IgA C. mucus D. *lysozyme E. acidity in stomach 104. The main function of lysozyme: A. aggregates bacteria B. captures free iron C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall D. enhances phagocytosis E. is antiviral 105. Which part of the immunoglobulin binds with the antigen? A. Fc fragment B. H chains C. L chains D. constant parts of the H and L chains E. *variable parts of the H and L chains 106. Which part of the antibody can binds antigenic determinants of the antigen? A. H chains B. Hinge C. Fc fragment D. L chains E. *Fab fragments 107. Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins can cross the placenta? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgM E. *IgG 108. What classes of immunoglobilins contain J chain? A. IgG and IgE B. IgA and IgG C. IgG and IgM D. IgM and IgE E. *IgM and IgA 109. Which of the following classes of antibodies does newborn obtain from mother? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgM E. *IgG 110. Choose among the listed immunoglobulins that contain SP component: A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG1 D. IgE E. *SIgA 111. Choose antibody production cells: A. T cells B. B cells C. T helpers D. Macrophages E. *Plasma cells 112. All Antigen-presenting cells contain? A. IgM B. TNF C. Class I MHC antigens D. Gamma inlerferonv E. *Class II MHC antigens 113. A toxoid is a(n): A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins C. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis D. type of virus E. *inactivated toxin 114. For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses: A. specific antibodies, B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins C. IgM D. Bacteriophages E. *toxoids 115. Which of the following are antigen presenting cells? A. Plasma cells B. Cytotoxic cells and nurse cells C. *Macrophages and B cells D. NK cells and mast cels E. Th and Tk 116. The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to: A. make antibody B. lyse virus-infected target cells C. activate cytotoxic T cells. D. produce interleukins E. *process antigen and present it 117. A condition in which toxin circulate in blood is known as: A. bacteraemia B. septicaemia C. pyaemia D. viraemia E. *toxaemia 118. Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes: A. precipitation B. complement fixation C. agglutination D. lysis E. *degranulation 119. After formation of IgE-allergen complex on the surface of the mast cells occur: A. precipitation B. complement fixation C. agglutination D. toxin production E. *degranulation 120. Cell wall is lacking in: A. Actinomyces B. Corynebacterium C. Brucella D. Spirocheates E. *Mycoplasma 121. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hypersensitivity reaction) indicates that: A. a humoral immune response has occurred B. both the T and B cell systems are functional C. only the B cell system is functional D. B cells are activated E. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred 122. Cell wall is absent in: A. Actinomyces Brucella Corynebacterium Spirocheates *Mycoplasma A patient with a central nervous system disorder is maintained on the drug methyldopa; Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an example of: A. atopic hypersensitivity B. immune-complex hypersensitivity C. cell-mediated hypersensitivity D. delayed-type hypersensitivity E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity BCG vaccine is a: A. killed preparation B. toxoid preparation C. recombinant preparation D. vector vaccine E. *live attenuated preparation Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an example of: A. autoimmune diseases B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity C. immune-complex hypersensitivity D. atopic hypersensitivity E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity BCG vaccine is used for prevent: A. diphtheria B. botulism C. brucelosis D. Q fever E. *tuberculosis For an establishment of a kind of the pure culture of bacteria serological identification has crucial mportance. A. t is serological identification? Choose the true answer B. Examination of a kind of bacteria on biochemical properties C. Examination of ability to decompose the curtailed serum D. Examination of a kind of bacteria on ability to reduce the certain dyes E. *Examination of genome structure of bacteria's nucleoid An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is: A. NK cells B. unbroken skin C. cilia in trachea D. all of these E. *lysozyme in saliva What is serological identification? A. Examination of morphological properties B. Examination of reducing properties C. Examination of biochemical properties D. Examination of tinctorial properties E. *Examination of antigenic properties Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is: A. NK cells B. unbroken skin B. C. D. E. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. C. cilia in trachea D. all of these E. *lysozyme in saliva 131. What morphological structure is responsible for bacterial motility? A. Pilli B. Fimbria C. Capsule D. LPS E. *Flagella 132. Choose among the following humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection: A. macrophages B. unbroken skin C. cilia in intestine D. Hydrochloric acid of stomach E. *complement 133. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation? A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics B. For examinate biochemical properties C. For study morphology of bacteria D. For study cultural properties of bacteria E. *For study motility of bacteria 134. Monocytes are leukocytes that develop into: A. agranular, macrophages B. agrunular, mast cells C. granular, T cells D. granular, B cells E. *granular, phagocytes 135. Macrophages are leucocytes that develop from: A. thymocytes B. mast cells C. T cells D. B cells E. *monocytes 136. What is the value of a wet-mount preparation? A. For study cultural properties of bacteria B. For study morphology of bacteria C. For examinate biochemical properties D. For study sensitivity to antibiotics E. *For study motility of bacteria 137. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. cascade reaction D. complement factor C1 E. *complement factor C9 138. What is meant by the term colonial morphology? A. Ability of microorganisms to colonize some tissues B. Structure of bacteria inside the colony C. Ability of microorganisms grow separatly D. Characteristics by which bacterial colonies may be distinguished. E. *A visible aggregate of bacteria 139. Why can a single colony on a plate be used to start a pure culture? A. because it contains a large number of microbes because colony contains different kinds of bacteria because only colony can grow onto solid nutrients media because colonies of different bacteria are similar *because colony represents the growth of one bacterial species Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system? A. properdin B. cascade reaction C. complement factor C1 D. complement factor C5 E. *membrane attack complex Choose the nutrient medium for obtaining the separate colonies: A. Meat-pepton broth B. Sugar broth C. Kitt-Tarozzi medium D. Alkaline pepton water E. *Meat-pepton agar Choose among listed nutrients media for study of proteolytic properties of bacteria: A. Meat - pepton agar B. Sugar agar C. Blood agar D. Blood agar E. *The curtailed serum Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. complement factor C4 D. complement factor C5 E. *C1q, C1r, C1s complex It is possible to obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms with help: A. Fortner's method B. Shukevich's method C. Paster's method D. Loeffler's method E. *Veinberg's method Choose among the following the convertase of classic pathway of activation of the complement system? A. C4b2a5b B. membrane attack complex C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex D. C3bBb E. *C4b2a We can obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms with help: A. Fortner's method B. Shukevich's method C. Paster's method D. Loeffler's method E. *Veinberg's method Which of the following is the convertase of alternative pathway of activation of the complement system? A. C4b2a5b B. C1q, C1r, C1s complex C. C4b2a B. C. D. E. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. D. membrane attack complex E. *C3bBb 148. Choose among these bacteria obligate aerobes. A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis D. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae 149. Choose among these bacteria obligate anaerobes. A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis D. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi E. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini 150. Immunological memory refers to the ability of the immune system to: A. recognize millions of different antigens B. migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues C. react with millions of different antigens D. activate T cells E. *recall a previous immune response 151. The second stage of obtaining of pure culture of aerobes will be: A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium B. Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification C. Biochemical and serological identification D. Microscopic examination of a material E. *Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar 152. Immunological memory develops after: A. injection of antibodies B. activation of NK cells C. stimulation of macrophages D. activation of T cells E. *injection of the antigen 153. T killer cells are important in controlling: A. allergy B. autoimmunity C. production of antibodies D. all of these E. *virus infections 154. T killers can kill all infected cells, which contain: A. MHC II class antigens B. receptors to Fc fragment of antibody C. receptors to C3b component of complement D. all of these E. *MHC I class antigens 155. What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid? A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine B. Using alcohol C. Staining by mеthylene blue D. Using iodine solution E. *Washing with water 156. Spores are necessary to bacteria for: A. Survival into human and animal’s organism B. Reproduction C. Defence from fagocytosis D. Defence from acid in stomack E. *Survival in an external environment 157. Vaccination is synonymous with immunity. A. natural active B. artificial passive C. natural passive D. antitoxic passive E. *artificial active 158. Endospores are necessary to bacteria for: A. Defence from acid in stomack B. Reproduction C. Defence from fagocytosis D. Survival into human and animal’s organism E. *Survival in an external environment 159. B cells are responsible for which allergies? A. reumatic feber B. anaphylaxis C. tuberculin reactions D. delay hypersensitivity E. *hemolytic disease 160. Anaerobic conditions can be created with using: A. Zoessler's method B. Shukevich's method C. Veinberg's method D. Paster's method E. *Fortner's method 161. Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except? A. cytotoxic reactions B. anaphylaxis C. immune-complex rection D. atopy reaction E. *tuberculin reactions 162. Choose method of creating of anaerobic conditions: A. Koch’s method B. Loeffler’s method C. Shukevich's method D. Shukevich's method E. *Fortner's method 163. An example of a type III immune complex disease is: A. graft rejection B. contact dermatitis C. atopy D. asthma E. *serum sickness 164. Choose method of obtaining pure culture of anaerobic bacteria: A. Shukevich's method B. Koch’s method C. Fortner's method D. Paster's method E. *Zoessler's method 165. Choose the nutrients media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms: A. Meat pepton agar, meat pepton broth The curtailed serum, meat-pepton gelatin Blood agar, serum agar Endo's and Lewin's media *Sugar blood agar Zoessler, Kitt-Tarozzi's medium Choose among the following immune-complex disease: A. asthma B. atopy C. contact dermatitis D. graft rejection E. *serum sickness Specify the nutrients media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms: A. Meat pepton agar, meat pepton broth B. medium Endo's and Lewin's media C. The curtailed serum, meat pepton gelatin D. Blood agar, serum agar E. *Zoessler, Kitt-Tarozzi's Which of the following is immune-complex disease: A. graft rejection B. contact dermatitis C. atopy D. asthma E. *serum sickness Peptolytic properties of bacteria we can study by detection in tubes: A. Carbonic acids and waters B. Glucose and lactoses C. Carbonic acids and nitrogen D. Mannitol and metanol E. *Indol and hydrogen sulphide For obtaining separated colony of anaerobic microorganisms we use one of next nutrient media: A. Kitt-Tarozzi's medium B. Hiss media C. Endo's medium D. Ploskirev medium E. *. Sugar blood Zoessler's agar The third stage of selecting of pure culture of aerobic microorganisms is: A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium B. Microscopic examination of a material C. Microscopy of smear D. Studying of isolated colonies and Inoculating on the slant agar E. *Biochemical and serological identification Which of the following nonspecific substances is a normal component of serum? A. lysozyme B. interferon C. collagenase D. lysosome E. *complement Resistance of bacteria to acid depends from present in cytoplasm: A. lipopolysaccharides B. acetylglucosamine C. diaminopimelic acid D. polyphosphates E. *fatty waxes, fatty acid Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity? B. C. D. E. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. complement collagenase lysozyme lysosome *interferon Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall: A. lipopolysaccharides B. acetylglucosamine C. diaminopimelic acid D. polyphosphates E. *fatty waxes, fatty acid Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells? A. because inhibits protein synthesis B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes C. because inhibits mRNA D. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes E. *because attacks of peptidoglycan Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of: A. thin monolayer peptidoglycan B. lipoproteins C. lipopolysaccharides D. outer membrane E. *polilayer peptidoglycan Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contain all, except: A. thin monolayer peptidоglycan B. lipoproteins C. lipopolysaccharides D. outer membrane E. *polilayer peptidoglycan Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an: A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus C. AB mother carries an 0 fetus D. Two of the above are correct E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus Which with these substances can damage bacteria cell wall : A. sulphonamides B. interferone C. alcohol D. streptomycin E. *lysozyme Choose among the listed when hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs: A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus C. AB mother an 0 fetus D. B mother carries an Rh-positive fetus E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus Lysozyme can damage bacteria cell because bacteria contain: A. outer membrane B. lipopolysaccharides C. lipoproteins D. carbohydrates E. *peptidoglycan A. B. C. D. E. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria: A. by structure of the nucleoid B. by intracellular parasite C. by tinctorial properties D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane E. *by absence of cell wall 184. Which of the following are reservoirs for human infections. A. food and water B. humans C. animals D. All of the above are reservoirs for human infections E. *Only b and c are reservoirs 185. Mycoplasma differ from bacteria: A. by structure of the nucleoid B. by toxin production C. by tinctorial properties D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane E. *by absence of cell wall 186. Choose among the listed reservoirs for human infections A. food B. water C. sick animals, snsects D. fly E. *sick humans, cariers 187. Which concentration of ethyl alcohol would is the most effective disinfectant? A. 100% B. 60% C. 50% D. 30% E. *70% 188. Plasma cells are: A. mature T cells B. immature macrophages C. mature macrophages D. immature T cells E. *antibody-producing cells 189. At the classic complement pathway Cl must bind with: A. antigen-IgA complexes B. hapten C. red blood cells D. bacteria E. *antigen-IgG complexes 190. Choose among the listed cells plasma cells: A. immature macrophages. B. mature T cells. C. immature T cells. D. vmature macrophages. E. *antibody-producing cells 191. Which one of the following is true regarding the alternative complement pathway? A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in presence of antibodies B. It requires C1,C2, or C4 C. C4b2a presents D. components B and properdin are not necessery E. *C3bBb presents 192. Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens? A. lipids B. glucose C. fatty acids D. sugars E. *proteins 193. Choose among the listed substances the antigen: A. sugars B. fatty acids C. glucose D. lipids E. *proteins 194. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway? A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4 C. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway D. C3bBb presents E. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present 195. Which of the following antibodies can pass through the placenta? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD E. *IgG 196. Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal 197. 198. 199. 200. antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is: A. IgA antibody B. SIgA antibody C. IgE antibody D. IgM antibody E. *IgG antibody Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue? A. spleen B. lymph nodes C. GALT D. tonsil gland E. *thyroid gland Type II hypersensitivities are due to: A. IgE reacting with mast cells B. IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues C. activation of cytotoxic T cells D. activation of NK E. *complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies All of the following are organs of immune system, except: A. GALT B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. tonsil gland E. *thyroid gland Choose among the listed central organs of immune system: A. GALT, spleen B. lymph nodes, thymus, C. thyroid gland, tonsil gland D. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow E. *thymus, bone marrow 201. Which type of cells actually secretes antibodies? A. T cells B. macrophages C. monocytes D. NK cells E. *plasma cells 202. The greatest concentration of antibodies is found in the fraction of the serum is: A. albumin B. alpha globulin C. beta globulin D. crioglobuline E. *gamma globulin 203. Antibodies are found in one of next fraction of the serum: A. crioglobuline B. beta globulin C. alpha globulin D. albumin E. *gamma globulin 204. If we don’t detect in child T and B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. defect in: A. the thymus B. T cell-B cell interaction C. phagocytosis D. the bursal equivalent E. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow Where active center of antibody is located? A. in Fc part of antibody B. in H chains C. between constant part of the H and L chains D. in L chains E. *between variable parts of the H and L chains If we don’t detect in child B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in: A. the thymus B. stem cells originating in the bone marrow C. T cell-B cell interaction D. phagocytosis E. *the bursal equivalent Choose among the listed secretory immunoglobulins: A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgD E. *IgA If we don’t detect in child T cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in: A. stem cells originating in the bone marrow B. T cell-B cell interaction C. phagocytosis D. the bursal equivalent E. *the thymus If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. affected? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG and IgM E. *IgM and IgA The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that: A. it can be administered orally B. antibody persists for a longer period C. it contains primarily IgM D. it contains primarily IgG E. *it provides antibody more rapidly Which type of hypersensitivities is T-cell mediated? A. type I B. type II C. type III D. type VI E. *type IV Endotoxins have such properties: A. are found in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria. B. are part of the Gram-positive cell wall only. C. are heat labile. D. are proteins. E. *all have the same effect, What does Kingdom Prokaryotae include: A. protozoa B. fungi C. viruses D. all of the above. E. *bacteria Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient? A. Treponema B. Slaphylococcus C. Klebsiella D. Ricketsia E. *Mycoplasma When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as: A. basal media. B. enrichment medium C. enriched medium D. differential medium E. *selective medium Which of the following bacteria don’t contain cell wall? A. Klebsiella B. Ricketsia C. Slaphylococcus D. Treponema E. *Mycoplasma Peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall of: A. gram-negative bacteria. B. fungi C. protozoa D. none of the above E. *gram-positive bacteria 218. Choose among listed where peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall: A. gram-negative bacteria B. fungi C. protozoa D. none of the above E. *gram-positive bacteria 219. Lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall in: A. gram-positive bacteria B. fungi C. protozoa D. none of the above E. *gram-negative bacteria 220. Choose among listed where lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall: A. gram-positive bacteria B. fungi C. protozoa D. none of the above E. *gram-negative bacteria 221. Sterols are present in the cytoplasmic membrane of: A. Bacillus B. Clostridium C. Proteus D. Ricketsia E. *Mycoplasma 222. Which from following microorganisms does contain sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane? A. Bacillus B. Clostridium C. Proteus D. Ricketsia E. *Mycoplasma 223. Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to: A. lysosomes of eukaryotes. B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes. C. polyribosomes of eukaryotes D. none of the above E. *mitochondria of eukaryotes. 224. What analogous structures of eukaryotes are bacteria mesosomes? A. lysosomes B. Golgi apparatus C. polyribosomes D. endosomes E. *mitochondria 225. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous B. lophotrichous C. amphitrichous D. bitrichous E. *peritrichous 226. When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous B. amphitrichous C. peritrichous D. bitrichous E. *lophotrichous 227. When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234. permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as: A. basal media. B. enrichment medium. C. enriched medium. D. differential medium. E. *selective medium. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous B. lophotrichous C. peritrichous. D. bitrichous E. *amphitrichous When a substance is added to a liquid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria and favours the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as: A. selective medium B. enriched medium C. differential medium D. basal media E. *enrichment medium Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are: A. Bacterium B. Corynebacterium C. Mycobacterium D. Micrococcus E. *Bacillus Endo medium is an example of: A. transport medium. B. enrichment medium. C. enriched medium. D. selective medium E. *differential medium. Levin’s medium (EMB) is an example of: A. transport medium B. enrichment medium C. enriched medium. D. selective medium E. *differential medium Choose among listed bacteria which produce endospores: A. Bacterium B. Corynebacterium C. Mycobacterium D. Micrococcus E. *Bacillus Bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C are known as: A. psychrophiles. B. thermophiles. C. heterophiles. D. none of the above E. *mesophiles 235. Who was father of microbiology? A. Robert Koch B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek C. Edward Jenner D. John Hunter E. *LouisPasteur 236. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C: A. heterophiles B. psychrophiles C. thermophiles D. none of the above E. *mesophiles 237. Who was father of antiseptic surgery? A. Ferdinand Cohn B. John Needham. C. Karl Landsteiner D. Robert Koch E. *Joseph Lister 238. The construction and use of the compound microscope is attributed to: A. Louis Pasteur B. Robert Koch. C. Ferdinand Cohn D. Paul Ehrlich E. *Antony van Leeuwenhoek 239. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C A. heterophiles B. thermophiles C. mesophiles D. none of the above E. *psychrophiles 240. The first techniques of pasteriation were introduced by: A. Robert Koch. B. Ferdinand Cohn. C. John Needham. D. Gerhardt Domagk E. *Louis Pasteur 241. Who did first discovere of Salvarsan? A. Karl Landsteiner. B. Gerhardt Domagk C. Howard Florey. D. Arthur Fleming E. *Paul Ehrlich 242. Who was the founder of scientific microbiology? A. Robert Koch B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek C. Edward Jenner D. Paul Ehrlich E. *Louis Pasteur 243. Who did coin the term vaccine? A. Edward Jenner B. Kitasato C. Ehrlich D. Robert Koch E. *Louis Pasteur 244. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885? A. Semple B. Edward Jenner C. Paul Ehrlich D. Wasserman E. *Louis Pasteur 245. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox? A. Louis Pasteur B. Paul Ehrlich C. John Hunter D. Antony van Leeuwenhoek E. *Edward Jenner 246. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C: A. heterophiles B. psychrophiles C. thermophiles D. none of the above E. *mesophiles 247. Who of the following scientists proposed side chain theory of antibody production in 1898? A. Elie Metchnikoff B. John Hunter. C. Edward Jenner D. Ivanowsky E. *Paul Ehrlich 248. Generation time of Escherichia coli is: A. 20 seconds B. 20 minutes C. 20 days D. none of the above E. *20 hours 249. Generation time of Salmonella typhy is: A. 20 seconds B. 20 hours. C. 20 days. D. none of the above E. *20 minutes 250. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C: A. heterophiles B. thermophiles C. mesophiles D. none of the above E. *psychrophiles 251. The period between inaculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning of multiplication is known as: A. log phase B. stationary phase C. decline phase D. maximum phase E. *lag phase 252. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility? A. Atopic or anaphylactic Autoimmune Delayed Immune complex *Cytotoxic AIDS is caused by a human retrovirus that kills: A. B lymphocytes B. lymphocyte stem cells C. CD8-positive T lymphocytes D. NK cells E. *CD4-positive T lymphocytes Choose secondary immunodeficiency: A. DiGeorge's syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Chronic granulomatous disease E. *AIDS A lymphokine that stimulates the activity of B and T cells is: A. interleukin-2 B. г interferon C. TNF D. lymphotoxin E. *interleukin-1 The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with: A. antigen B. factor B C. bacterial lipopolysaccharides D. endotoxin E. *antigen-IgG complexes T cells which assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells are: A. Sensitized B. Cytotoxic C. Natural killer D. T killer E. *Helper The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with: A. factor B B. antigen-IgA complexes C. bacterial capsula D. endotoxin E. *antigen-antibody complex Natural killer cells are: A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells C. increased by immunization D. Tгл cells E. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization T cells that activate B cells and other T cells are? A. Natural killer B. Cytotoxic C. Sensitized D. T killer E. *Helper Cytotoxic cells (NK) are: B. C. D. E. 253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. B cells cytotoxic T cells able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production macrophages. *able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization An antigen is: A. a hapten that combines with an antibody B. a small molecule that attaches to cells C. a carbohydrate D. a protein that combines with antibodies E. *a substance that incites an antibody respons and can combine Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells? A. Gamma interferon B. Interleukin-2 C. Interleukin-4 D. lymphotoxin E. *Alpha interferon Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells? A. Alpha interferon B. Interleukin-5 C. Interleukin-6 D. bradikidin E. *Gamma interferon Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells? A. б interferon B. в interferon C. TNF D. serotonin E. *Interleukin-6 The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of: A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle B. the allergen on B lymphocytes C. lgE on smooth muscle D. lymphotoxin on mast cells E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces: A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. IgM E. *Class II MHC antigens Antigen-presenting cells must express on their surfaces: A. IgM B. IgE C. Class I MHC antigens D. Gamma interferon E. *Class II MHC antigens The first, direct symptoms of anaphylaxis are associated with action of: A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle B. the allergen on B lymphocytes C. lymphotoxin on mast cells D. lgE on smooth muscle A. B. C. D. E. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268. 269. E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils 270. All bacteria that inhabit the human body are: A. autotrophs B. phototrophs C. chemolithotrophs D. photolithotrophs E. *heterotrophs 271. Choose among listed the period between inoculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning 272. 273. 274. 275. 276. 277. 278. of multiplication: A. log phase B. stationary phase C. decline phase D. maximum phase E. *lag phase All microorganisms that live in the human body are: A. autotrophs B. phototrophs C. chemolithotrophs D. photolithotrophs E. *heterotrophs Choose among listed the period of microbial growth curve when microorganisms are growing and dividing at the maximal rate: A. lag phase B. stationary phase C. decline phase D. maximum phase E. *log phase Bacteria which cause illnesses at people are: A. autotrophs B. phototrophs C. chemolithotrophs D. photolithotrophs E. *heterotrophs Agar is used for solidifying culture media because: A. it does not add to the nutritive properties of the medium B. it is not affected by the growth of bacteria C. the melting and solidifying points of agar solution are not the same D. it does not contain toxic substances E. *all of the above. Choose among listed the period of microbial growth curve when balance between cell division and cell death occurs: A. lag phase B. log phase C. decline phase D. maximum phase E. *stationary phase Exponential phase of growth curve of bacteria is of limited duration because of: A. exhaustion of nutrients B. accumulation of toxic metabolites C. rise in cell density D. limiting of O2 E. *all answer is correct The process of freeing of an article from living organisms including bacterial and fungal spores and 279. 280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286. viruses is known as: A. disinfection B. antisepsis C. asepsis D. pasteurisation E. *sterilization Peptone water and nutrient broth are: A. enriched media B. selective media C. enrichment media D. differential medium E. *basal media The process of killing all microorganisms and their spores and viruses is known as: A. antisepsis B. asepsis C. disinfection D. pasteurisation E. *sterilization Destruction or inhibition of microorganisms in living tissues is known as: A. sterilization B. disinfection C. asepsis D. pasteurisation E. *antisepsis Killing of microorganisms in living tissues is: A. pasteurisation B. asepsis C. disinfection D. sterilization E. *antisepsis Incineration is an efficient method for: A. sterilizing points of forceps B. sterilizing scalpel blades C. sterilizing all-glass syringes D. sterilizing needles E. *destroying contaminated materials Heat of flame is used for sterilization of: A. all-glass syringes B. glass slides C. soiled dressings D. scalpel blades E. *inoculating wires and loops Heating in a hot air oven at 160°C for one hour is used for sterilization of: A. all-glass syringes B. oils and jellies C. swab sticks D. petri dishes and pipets E. *all of the above Choose among listed method of sterilization of all-glass syringes: A. . autoclaving B. heating in a hot air oven at 160°C C. gamma rays D. . boiling E. *using chemicals 287. In holder method of pasteurization, milk and butter are kept at: A. 72°C for 20 seconds B. . 63°C for 60 minutes C. 72°C for 30 seconds D. 90°C for 30 seconds E. *63°C for 30 minutes 288. Exposure of material to steam at 100°C for 20 minutes on three consecutive days is known as: A. autoclaving B. inspissation C. pasteurization D. none of the above E. *tyndallization 289. Which of the following articles can be sterilized in an autoclave? A. Dressing material B. Gloves C. Culture media D. Meat-pepton broth E. *All of the above 290. Biological control used in an autoclave is: A. Fungy B. Ricketsia C. E. colli D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. *Spores of bacillus 291. Which of the following organisms is retained in the fluids filtered by Seitz filter? A. Proteus B. Staphylococcus C. Clostridium D. Micrococcus E. *None of the above. 292. Which of the following microbes don’t pass through the Seitz filter? A. Proteus B. Staphylococcus C. Clostridium D. Micrococcus E. *None of the above 293. Phenol is bactericidal at a concentration of: A. 0.1% B. 0.25% C. 0.3% D. 0,75% E. *1% 294. Which class of immunoglobulins activate the complement cascade most effectively? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgE D. IgD E. *IgM 295. Which of the following is not a form of hypersensitivity? A. immediate B. immune complex C. cytotoxic D. delayed E. *instantaneous 296. Which of the following is the main preformed mediator released from cytoplasmic granules in mast 297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303. cells upon secondary exposure? A. prostaglandins B. interferon C. complement D. leukotrienes E. *histamine If a person were rushed to the hospital in anaphylactic shock from a bee sting, which antibodies would be found in the highest amount? A. IgD B. IgG C. IgA D. IgM E. *IgE Which of the following hypersensitivities is mismatched? A. immediate--caused by insect allergies B. cytotoxic--occurs when the wrong blood type is received C. immune complex--elicited by antigens on vaccine or microorganisms D. cell-mediated--from exposure to foreign antigen, like tissue transplant E. *delayed--caused by allergies to pollens Which of the following is the only treatment intended to cure an allergy type I? A. antiinflammatories B. corticosteroids C. denatured allergens D. topical ointments E. *antihistamines If you are of a particular blood type, that means that you have no antibodies against the antigens present on your blood cells. What kind of antibodies are you missing? A. IgG B. IgE C. IgD D. IgA E. *IgM Which of the following is a major sign of transfusion reactions? A. fever B. inflammation C. anaphylaxis D. wheal and flare reaction E. *tissue damage Which of the following causes immune complex hypersensitivity? A. Antigen-antibody complex formation B. phagocytosis of immune complexes C. formation of antigen-specific antibody D. destruction of immune complexes E. *persisting antigen-antibody complexes Which of the following is not an example of an immune complex disorder? A. systemic lupus erythematosus B. rheumatoid arthritis C. serum sickness D. acute glomerulonephritis E. *hemolytic disease 304. In allergic reactions, sensitization refers to A. administering increasing doses of allergen to a patient to produce blocking antibodies B. the degranulation of mast cells and basophils with release of mediators C. the capillaries becoming more permeable and undergoing dilation D. IgG reacting to cell-surface antigens perceived as foreign E. *the initial recognition of an allergen and production of specific IgE 305. In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the 306. 307. 308. 309. 310. 311. 312. following? A. neurons B. RNA C. blood cells D. dermis E. *DNA Which type(s) of hypersensitivity sometimes develops in health workers who handle drugs? A. Type II B. Type III C. Type I D. all of the above E. *Type IV The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following? A. DiGeorge syndrome B. rheumatoid arthritis C. leukemia D. agammaglobulinemia E. *severe combined immunodeficiency If you were assaying serum for the presence of several antigens in the blood, which of the following methods would you choose? A. agglutination B. neutralization reactions C. precipitin test D. antibody titer E. *immunoelectrophoresis A positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test is a classic example of A. an anaphylactic reaction B. degranulation and release of mediators C. a humoral immune response D. an IgG-complement mediated reaction E. *a delayed hypersensitivity reaction Antigenic mimicry, genetic factors, viral components in cell membranes and other factors may explain: A. allergic reactions B. cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. symptoms of AIDS D. tumor formation E. *the development of autoimmune disease Which of the following does not pertain to serological tests? A. they are used to detect seroconversion in a patient B. the reactions can be detected by the formation of a precipitate or agglutination C. hey can use enzymes, fluorescent dyes and radioactive substances to help detect antigenantibody reactions D. they can be used to diagnose of various diseases E. *they can detect antibodies but not antigens Which of the following pertains to a patient infected with HIV? the risk of sexual transmission of the virus is eliminated by using a condom decreasing cytokine levels affect macrophage and cytotoxic T cell activity if the patient doesn't have symptoms, the virus cannot be transmitted to others the patient will always have detectable serum antibodies *the progress of the infection depends on the infective dose of the virus and how often the exposure is repeated All of the following pertain to "tagged" serological tests except: A. enzymes, radioactive material, and fluorescent dyes serve as tags B. these are among the most sensitive immunologic tests C. the tag allows detection of the antigen-antibody D. they often detect nanogram quantities of an antibody or antigen E. *they rely on precipitation or agglutination reactions An anamnestic response involves a/an: A. intense response. B. effector response C. high intensity. D. rapid memory. E. *all of the above Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity? A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. All of the above D. None of the above E. *Artificially acquired passive immunity An epitope is: A. a T-cell. B. a B-cell. C. an antibody. D. a hapten. E. *the antigen determinant site Cell-associated differentiation antigens (CDs) are functional cell surface proteins or receptors that can be measured in situ. A. In normal individuals the concentration of these molecules in serum is always low. B. Thousands of CDs have been characterized. C. All of the above are true. D. None of the above are true. E. *Detecting these soluble molecules may help in the management of disease. An immunoglobulin is a: A. protein B. carbohydrate. C. fatty acid. D. nucleic acid. E. *glycoprotein The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to: A. host tissue B. various cells of the immune system C. some phagocytic cells D. lysosomes E. *antigen Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool? A. IgA B. IgD A. B. C. D. E. 313. 314. 315. 316. 317. 318. 319. 320. C. IgE D. IgM E. *IgG 321. Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM E. *IgE 322. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies SPECIFICALLY on: A. combinatorial joinings. B. somatic mutations C. variations in the splicing process D. T-cell clones E. *B-cell clones 323. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production? A. A hapten B. Antiserum C. Purified antigen D. Crude antigen E. *An adjuvant 324. Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response: A. has a more rapid log phase B. persists for a longer plateau period C. attains a higher IgG titer D. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen E. *has a longer lag phase 325. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by: A. lymphocytes B. myeloma cells. C. spleen cells. D. plasma cells. E. *hybridomas. 326. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT: A. the typing of tissue B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms C. the identification of tumor antigens D. the classification of leukemias E. *the manipulation of the immune response 327. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation? A. MHC class I molecules B. MHC class II molecules C. All of the above D. None of the above E. *MHC class III molecules 328. Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant? A. MHC class II molecules B. MHC class III molecules C. All of the above D. None of the above E. *MHC class I molecules 329. B-cells do which of the following? A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells Respond to antigens by making antibodies Act as antigen-processing cells None of the above *All of the above Which of the following is NOT a T-dependent antigen? A. Bacteria B. Foreign red blood cells C. Certain proteins D. Hapten-carrier combinations E. *Viruses Opsonization refers to: A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation B. agglutination of red blood cells C. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells D. antibody mediated viral inactivation E. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement? A. IgE B. IgG1 C. IgG2 D. IgG3 E. *IgM Which of the following best describes type I hypersensitivities? A. The reaction of TDTH cells, cytokines, and macrophages B. The formation of immune complexes that are deposited on basement membranes C. Complement-dependent lysis of cells D. Overreaction of the immune system E. *The release of physiological mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils An attenuated vaccine is composed of: A. killed microorganisms B. inactivated bacterial toxins C. purified macromolecules D. recombinant vectors E. *living, weakened microorganisms Passive immunization is routinely administered to individuals exposed to certain microbial pathogens that cause diseases, EXCEPT: A. Botulism B. Diphtheria C. Hepatitis А D. Rabies E. *Chicken pox Vaccines are available for all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Tetanus D. Measles E. *Hepatitis C Which is considered the "gold standard" of existing vaccines? A. Purified proteins B. DNA-based C. Inactivated exotoxins D. Capsular polysaccharides E. *Whole-organism B. C. D. E. 330. 331. 332. 333. 334. 335. 336. 337. 338. Which macromolecule is currently NOT being used as a vaccine in humans? A. Capsular polysaccharides B. Recombinant surface antigens C. Inactivated exotoxins D. All of the above E. *DNA-based 339. In type I hypersensitivity, which of the following DOES NOT happen upon second exposure to the 340. 341. 342. 343. 344. 345. 346. antigen? A. Degranulation of sensitized mast cells B. Histamine release C. Smooth muscle contraction D. Vasodilation E. *IgE binds to Fc receptors of mast cells Respiratory impairment during systemic anaphylaxis is PRIMARILY due to A. arteriole dilation B. reduced blood pressure C. increased capillary permeability D. circulatory shock E. *smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles Desensitization to an allergen involves injection of the allergen beneath the skin to induce production of which of the following immunoglobulins? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgM E. *IgG Attenuated viral vaccines: A. are viable B. *are nonpathogenic C. infect cells D. produce antigens in the context of MHC I E. All of the above Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue? A. Lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. Basophils D. None of the above E. *All of the above Which of the following assays is currently being used for the detection of HIV? A. Agglutination B. Complement fixation C. Immunodiffusion D. Flow cytometry E. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay A chromogen may be used in which of the following assays? A. Direct immuonsorbent assay B. Indirect immunosorbent assay C. Western blotting D. None of the above E. *All of the above The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies: A. antibodies B. immune complexes C. cytokines D. All of the above E. *antigen 347. Which of the following involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion and 348. 349. 350. 351. 352. 353. 354. precipitation? A. Flow cytometry B. Double diffusion immunoassay C. Direct immunosorbent assay D. Indirect immunosorbent assay E. *Immunoelectrophoresis What is a plasmid? A. Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA B. A bacterial chromosome C. Bacterial inclusion D. Part of the ribosome E. *Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscopes. Light of which color below would give you the best resolution? A. Red B. Orange C. Green D. Yellow E. *Blue Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because: A. they are inherited from one generation to the next B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant D. they may carry genes that code sugarlytic enzymes E. *All of the above Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells: A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain B. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain C. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet D. have monolayers of peptidoglycan E. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers? A. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall B. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells C. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages D. They help bacteria survive inside organism E. *They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in: A. eucaryotes only B. fungi C. protozoa D. both procaryotes and eucaryotes E. *procaryotes only All of the following are true about agar except it: A. liquefies at 100°C B. is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga C. Solidifies at approximately 40°C D. facilitates obtaining pure cultures E. *is metabolized by many bacteria 355. Which of the following procedures can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacteriam from a 356. 357. 358. 359. 360. 361. 362. 363. mixture more freguently? A. dilution in liquid medium B. dilution plating C. enrichment culture D. sedementation method E. *streak plating Which of the following uses radiant energy as their energy source? A. Auxotroph B. Autotroph C. Heterotroph D. Lithotroph E. *Phototroph Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of organic chemicals? A. Autotroph B. Heterotroph C. Lithotroph D. Phototroph E. *Chemotroph Addition of blood to a culture medium only allows the hemolytic bacteria that grow on the plate to be picked out. This is an example of a: A. Chemically defined media B. Complex media C. Liquid media D. Selective media E. *Differential media An organism is completely dependant on atmospheric O2 for growth. This organism is a(n): A. acidophile B. aerotolerant anaerobe C. facultative anaerobe D. osmotolerant E. *obligate aerobe The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that: A. doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it B. is killed by oxygen C. prefers to grow without oxygen D. requires less oxygen than is present in air E. *uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent Which of the following does not kill endospores? A. Autoclave B. Incineration C. Hot air sterilization D. All of these processes kill endospores E. *Pasteurization Mutations that arise without exposure to external agents are called: A. induced mutations B. analogous mutations C. specific mutations D. nonsens mutations E. *spontaneous mutations An enzyme that is always produced, regardless of the presence of substrates or the end products, is called: A. an allosteric enzyme an isoenzyme a repressible enzyme a regulator enzyme *a constitutive enzyme A mutagen is: A. an enzyme that repairs mutations B. a molecule which stabilizes DNA thus prevents mutations from occurring C. a chemical agent which changes strucrure of protein D. an enzyme which inhibits division of cell E. *a chemical or physical agent that induces mutations A mutation that affects only a single nucleotide is called: A. a regional mutation B. a site mutation C. nonsens mutation D. analogous mutation E. *a point mutation The transfer of genetic material between bacteria in direct physical contact is called: A. transformation B. transduction C. reparation D. recombination E. *conjugation The transfer of a naked fragment of DNA between bacteria is called: A. conjugation B. transduction C. general transduction D. recombinationECT E. *transformation Complement lyses cells by: A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane B. activation of adenylate cyclase C. inhibition of elongation factor 2 D. enzymatic digestion of LPS E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of: A. autoimmunity B. eczema C. acute contact dermatitis D. immune-complex reaction E. *delayed-type allergy Complement kills different cells by: A. . activation of adenylate cyclase B. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane C. apoptosis mechanism D. inhibition of elongation factor 2 E. *insertion of complement proteins into the A tuberculin test often use for detect one of the next types of: A. autoimmunity B. cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. anaphylactic hypersensitivity D. immune-complex reaction E. *delayed-type allergy A condition in which bacteria circulate in blood without multiplication is known as: B. C. D. E. 364. 365. 366. 367. 368. 369. 370. 371. 372. septicaemia pyaemia endotoxaemia viraemia *bacteraemia The transport of bacterial DNA to other bacteria via bacteriaphages is called: A. conjugation B. transformation C. recombination D. reparationCT E. *transduction F factor plasmids play a major role in what bacterial process? A. transduction B. replication C. transformation D. reparation E. *conjugation This type of plasmid makes the host more pathogenic: A. metabolic plasmid B. F factors C. R factor D. F plasmid E. *virulence plasmid This type of plasmid carries genes encoding enzymes that degrade substances such as aromatic compounds, pesticides or sugar: A. virulence plasmid B. F factors C. R factor D. Hly plasmid E. *metabolic plasmid Mobile genetic elements that carry the genes required for integration into host chromosomes: A. plasmids B. replicon C. F factors D. Hly plasmid E. *transposons Which of the following are true in regards to F+ x F- cooperation? A. DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells B. No DNA is transferred because F- cells are unable to perform conjugation C. F+ transmit to F- cells information about toxin production D. DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells only in death phase of growth curve of bacteria E. *DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells A bacterial cell that is able to take up naked DNA is said to be A. liable B. infected C. sensitive D. resistent E. *competent In which type of transduction does the transducing particle carry only specific portions of the bacterial genome? A. general transduction B. abortive transduction C. reverse transduction A. B. C. D. E. 373. 374. 375. 376. 377. 378. 379. 380. D. incomplete transduction E. *specialized transduction 381. These are bacterial proteins that destroy other bacteria: A. viruses B. transposable elements C. в-lactamaze D. exotoxin E. *bacteriocins 382. Which property(ies) or structure(s) is shared by all extrachromosomal plasmids in bacteria? A. Self-transmissibility from one bacterial cell to another B. Genes that impart resistance to antibiotics C. Genes that allow utilization of organic compounds D. Genes that produce toxins E. *An origin for autonomous replication 383. Which of the following processes contribute to the appearance of mutations in genes? A. Chemicals that damage bases B. Mistakes made by the DNA polymerase during replication C. Movement of transposons around the genome D. Formation of deletions in directly repeated DNA sequences E. *All of the above 384. The process by which bacteriophage P1 packages random phage-genome-sized pieces into phage 385. 386. 387. 388. heads and thereby allows transfer of pieces of the bacterial chromosomal DNA between bacteria is called: A. Nongeneral transposition B. Specialized transduction C. High-frequency recombination D. Reverse conjugation E. *Generalized transduction Which of the following is/are genotypic, not phenotypic, properties? A. Aerotolerance B. Spore formation C. Cellular staining characteristics in the light microscope D. Colony morphology. E. *Chromosomal G+C content of different bacterial species Transformation is important in bacterial pathogenicity because: A. It kills recipient cells and prevents future cell invasion B. It enhances site-specific recombination that turns on virulence factor genes C. It causes transpositions to occur at high frequency that can kill virulent bacteria. D. It activates production of enzymes of resistant to antibiotics E. *It allows uptake of DNA that can homologously recombine into the bacterial chromosome and change virulence characteristics. Which of the following processes allow(s) the transfer of bacterial DNA between different individual cells: A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Generalized transduction D. None of the above E. *All of the above Which of the following characteristics are possessed by the antibiotic-resistance conferring R plasmids? A. They contain tra genes that mediate self transmissibility B. They contain an origin of replication C. They are present in very low copy numbers D. Depending on the plasmid, they can confer resistance to more than one antibiotic E. *All of the above 389. Which of the following is contained in all plasmids, irrespective of size or source? A. Genes that impart antibiotic resistance to bacterial cells B. The tra genes that allow conjugation C. Genes that allow bacterial hosts to act as pathogens to mammalian cells D. All of the above E. *An autonomous origin of replication 390. Transformation is the genetic process by which: A. Bacteriophage attach to bacterial cells B. Bacterial genes acquire mutations and variants C. Bacterial DNA is carried by bacteriophage between different bacteria D. None of the above E. *Pieces of free DNA or free plasmids are taken up by bacterial cells 391. Which of the following is an example of a genotypic property? A. Growth rate in liquid medium B. MIC antibiotic resistance in broth tubes C. Permeability property of bacterial cell walls to antibiotics D. Size and shape of bacterial cells in media containing a sublethal dose of antibiotics E. *Sequence of missense mutations in genes that impart antibiotic resistance 392. Targeting antibiotic therapy against the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria is advantageous because 393. 394. 395. 396. 397. the wall is: A. chemically vulnerable B. mechanically accessible C. synthetically complex D. None of the above E. *unique to the bacterium Which of the following drug interferes with folic acid synthesis? A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin) B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) C. Rifampin D. Penicillins E. *Sulfonamides Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis? A. actinomycin B. erythromycins C. sulfonamides D. pyrimethamine E. *Cephalosporins Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis? A. tetracyclines B. erythromycins C. aminoglycosides D. Polymixins E. *Penicillins Bacterial pili are involved in: A. Motility B. Resistance to heat C. Resistance to phagocytosis D. Endotoxic activity E. *Adherence to host cells Which of the following properties are shared by prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A. Ribosome size Peptidoglycan layer Mitochondria structure and function Nuclear envelope *Chemical nature of genetic material Which structure is found in all bacteria? A. Capsular polysaccharide B. Flagella C. Pili D. Outer membrane E. *Cytoplasmic membrane Lysozyme produced by humans and other mammalian hosts: A. Inhibits the addition of amino acids to NAG. B. Disrupts the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria. C. Destroys lipopolysaccharide. D. Results in a sterile environment in the mouth. E. *Cleaves peptidoglycan between N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetyl- muramic acid (NAM) residues. The portion of the lipopolysaccharide molecule that varies the most among different bacteria and thus exhibits antigenic differences is the: A. Lipid A B. Core polysaccharide C. Dipicolinic acid D. Exotoxin component E. *Side polysaccharide chain The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is important in each of the following aspects EXCEPT: A. exocytosis of proteins B. cell wall synthesis C. oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport D. active transport of nutrients E. *location of lipopolysaccharide An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is: A. the presence of porins in the outer membrane B. the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes C. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer D. the accumulation of dipicolinic acid in the periplasmic space E. *the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall The LPS or lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of: A. lipid A B. core polysaccharide C. O-antigen D. Any of the above E. *peptidoglycan The Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls generally differ in that the Gram-positives exclusively possess: A. carbohydrates B. peptides C. lipid D. none of the above E. *teichoic acids Point the most important feature of all prokaryotes: A. produce endospores. B. possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes C. have inner and outer membranes B. C. D. E. 398. 399. 400. 401. 402. 403. 404. 405. D. have cell walls E. *lack mitochondria 406. Endospore formation is a property of: A. Escherichia coli B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Treponema pallidum D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. *Clostridium botulinum 407. Resistance to many antibiotics is carried on: A. sex pili. B. enzymes C. chromosomes D. Col factor plasmids. E. *R factor plasmids. 408. Thymine dimer formation is the result of exposing DNA to: A. base analogs B. transposons C. X-rays D. intercalating agents E. *ultraviolet light 409. An organism which requires a growth factor in order to grow is called a(n): A. prototroph B. wild type C. autotroph D. heterotroph E. *auxotroph 410. Which of the following processes does not result in recombination? A. transformation B. conjugation C. transduction D. Two of the above are correct. E. *replication 411. Which one of the following agents lacks nucleic acid? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Viroids D. Protozoa E. *Prions 412. Which one of the following is not a protist? A. Algae B. Protozoa C. Fungi D. Slime molds E. *Bacteria 413. Which one of the following agents simultaneously contains both DNA and RNA? A. Viruses B. Viroids C. Prions D. Plasmids E. *Bacteria 414. A 65-year-old man develops dementia, progres sive over several months, along with ataxia and somnolence. An electroencephalographic pattern shows paroxysms with high voltages and slow waves, suggestive of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. This disease is caused by which of the following 415. 416. 417. 418. 419. 420. 421. agents? A. Bacterium B. Virus C. Viroid D. Plasmid E. *Prion Which of the following structures is not part of the bacterial cell envelope? A. Peptidoglycan B. Lipopolysaccharide C. Capsule D. S-layer E. *Flagella Which of the following transport mechanisms functions without the requirement for energy? A. Binding protein-dependent B. Group transiocation C. Symport D. Uniport E. *Facilitated diffusion 22-old man presents with a painless 1-cm ulcer on the shaft of his penis. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The patient admits trading drugs for sex and has several sexual partners. An RPR test is positive; however, a Gram stain of a swab specimen from the ulcer shows no bacteria. Treponema patlidum, the causative agent of syphilis,cannot be visualized by light microscopy because A. It is transparent B. It cannot be stained by ordinary stains C. The wavelength of white light is too long D. The wavelength of white light is too short E. *It has a diameter of < 0.2 µm Which of the following components is present in gram-positive bacteria but not in gram-negative bacteria? A. Peptidoglycan B. Capsule C. Flagella D. Pili E. *Teichoic acid Eubacteria that lack cell walls and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan are called: A. Spirochetes B. Chlamydiae C. Rickettsiae D. Bacilli E. *Mycoplasmas An unculturable gram-positive microorganism has been visualized in tissue specimens obtained from patients with a previously undescribed disease. Which of the following techniques would be most useful in identifying this organism? A. Serology B. Multilocus enzyme electrophoresis C. SDS-polyacrylamide gel etectrophoresis D. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis E. *PCR amplification and sequencing of rDNA The DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is an important component of DNA amplification methods such as the polymerase chain reaction. This organism is capable of growing at temperatures above 100 °C. Organisms that are capable of growth at these temperatures are referred to as: A. Mesophiles B. Psychrophiles C. Halophiles D. Chemolithotrophs E. *Thermophiles 422. Most microorganisms pathogenic for humans grow best in the laboratory when cultures are 423. 424. 425. 426. 427. 428. 429. incubated at: A. 15-20°C B. 20-30°C C. 38-50°C D. 50-55°C E. *30-37°C The synthesis of which of the following cell components is dependent upon a template? A. Lipopolysaccharide B. Peptidoglycan C. Capsular polysaccharide D. Phospholipids E. *Deoxyribonucleic acid The steps leading to the synthesis of peptidoglycan occur in the cytoplasm, on the cytoplasmic membrane, and extracellularly. Which antibiotic inhibits peptidoglycan biosynthesis? A. Cycloserine B. Rifampin C. Bacitracin D. Streptomycin E. *Penicillin Amino acids are found in the protein, peptidoglycan,and capsule of bacteria. Which of the following amino acids is found only in peptidoglycan? A. L-Lysine B. D-Glutamate C. L-Alanine D. None of the above E. *Diaminopimelic acid Mutations in bacteria can occur by which of the following mechanisms? A. Deletions B. Insertions C. Rearrangements D. Base substitutions E. *all answer is correct The ability to use compounds and ions other than oxygen as terminal oxidants in respiration is a widespread microbial trait.This capacity is called: A. Photosynthesis B. Fermentation C. Substrate phosphorylation D. Nitrogen fixation E. *Anaerobic respiration The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is: A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transfection D. Horizontal transfer E. *Transduction The form of genetic exchange in bacteria that is susceptible to the activity of deoxyribonuclease is: A. Conjugation B. Transfection C. Transduction D. All of the above E. *Transformation 430. Replication of which of the following requires physical integration with a bacterial replicon? A. Single-stranded DNA bacteriophage B. Double-stranded DNA bacteriophage C. Single-stranded RNA bacteriophage D. Plasmid E. *Transposon 431. The formation of a mating pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires: A. Lysis of the donor B. Transfer of both strands of DNA C. A restriction endonuclease D. Integration of a transposon E. *A sex pilus 432. Which of the following is NOT a Th2 cytokine? A. IL-4 B. IL-5 C. IL-6 D. IL-10 E. *IL-2 433. Which of the following is NOT one of the four structural families of cytokines: A. chemokine family B. interleukin family C. tumor necrosis factor family D. interferons E. *hematopoietin family 434. Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen? A. IL-2 B. IL-6 C. TNF-? D. IFN-? E. *IL-1 435. The CD4 glycoprotein is found: A. on all Tc lymphocytes B. only on Th1 lymphocytes C. on all NK cells D. on all B lymphocytes E. *on all Th lymphocytes 436. A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express: A. CD4 B. Class II MHC C. membrane Ig D. the BcR E. *the TcR 437. The TcR is found on: A. all mature lymphocytes B. all mature B lymphocytes C. all NK cells D. all monocytes E. *all mature T lymphocytes 438. CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface molecules? A. ICAM TcR CD16 CD8 *CD40L Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion of IgG or IgM? A. C1s B. C9 C. C3 D. C5 E. *C1q C1 is composed of all of the following except: A. C1q B. C1r C. C1s D. A & B E. *C1b Which of the following complement components assumes a "bouquet of tulips" conformation? A. C3b B. C1q C. C1s D. C6 E. *C9 Which of the following is considered to be a C5 convertase? A. C4bC2a B. C1s C. C3bB D. C3bBb E. *C4bC2aC3b Which of the following complement components is not common to both the alternative and classical pathways: A. C3b B. C5b C. C8 D. C9 E. *C4b C3bBbC3b has a similar function as which of the following from the classical pathway? A. C4bC2a B. C5bC6C7 C. C1r D. C1q,r,s E. *C4bC2aC3b All of the following function as anaphylatoxins except: A. C3a B. C4a C. C5a D. C3a, C5a E. *C2a Which of the following components initiates formation of the membrane attack complex when bound to the target cell surface? A. C2b B. C3b C. C4b B. C. D. E. 439. 440. 441. 442. 443. 444. 445. 446. D. C6b E. *C5b 447. Which of the following complement components is actually a perforin-like molecule? A. C3a B. C5b C. C7 D. C8 E. *C9 448. Which of the following regulatory proteins can prevent C3b from binding to Factor B? A. S protein B. decay accelerating factor C. C4b binding protein D. properdin E. *Factor H 449. Which of the following complement components attracts neutrophils to the sites of complement 450. 451. 452. 453. 454. 455. activity ? A. C2a B. C2b C. C4a D. C5a E. *C3b What is an opsonin? A. a chemotactic factor B. a cytokine C. a hydrolytic enzyme D. an antiviral factor E. *a substance that enhances phagocytosis Which of the following cytokines has been shown to be most important in the regulation of CTL activity? A. IL-1 B. IL-4 C. IL-5 D. IFN-? E. *IL-2 Which of the following molecules are not typically found within CTL granules: A. TNFвs B. granzymes C. perforins D. FasL E. *histamines CD16 appears to be an important cell surface marker for: A. eosinophils B. neutrophils C. macrophages D. T cells E. *NK cells The current hypothesis is that NK cells recognize target cells: A. because of their TcR specificity B. due to the presence of sialic acid on the surface of target cells C. because the target cells are displaying viral peptides or tumor specific antigens D. because the target cells produce specific chemokines E. *due to low levels of Class I MHC expression on target cells Which of the following best describes NK cell morphology? small TcR- lymphocytes large polymorphonuclear leukocytes large Ig+ lymphocytes small BcR- lymphocytes *large granular lymphocytes Which of the following represents an important anatomic barrier to infection by microorganisims? A. lymphocytes B. interferons C. kinin system D. lysozyme E. *mucous membranes Which of the following is NOT an example of an innate immune mechanisms? A. interferons B. complement C. phagocytes D. lactoferrins E. *immunoglobulins Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells? A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II & Class III D. Class I & Class III E. *Class II All of the following would be classified as cytokines, except: A. interleukins B. tumor necrosis factors C. interferons D. MIF E. *kinins TcRs are present in the cell membrane of: A. all mature null cells B. all mature lymphocytes C. all mature monocytes D. all mature K cells E. *all mature T lymphocytes The specific portion of an antigen that is recognized by an antibody or TcR is termed: A. the agretope B. the MHC C. the CD D. idiotype E. *the epitope A group of serum proteins that participates in an enzymatic cascade which ultimately results in cell lysis: A. fibrinolytic system B. kinin system C. clotting system D. lactoferrin & transferrin E. *complement system A hydrolytic enzyme found within mucous secretions which has the ability to degrade the peptidoglycan cell wall of gram + bacteria: A. interferon B. histamine C. complement A. B. C. D. E. 456. 457. 458. 459. 460. 461. 462. 463. D. transferrin E. *lysozyme 464. Which of the following cells do NOT function as APCs? A. B lymphocytes B. macrophages C. interdigitating dendritic cells D. Langerhans cells E. *neutrophils 465. In an inflammatory response, which of the following physiological events occurs first: A. influx of phagocytic cells to the site of injury or infection B. increased capillary permeability leading to edema C. constriction of the blood vessels carrying blood away from the site of injury or infection D. action of leukins and plakins E. *vasodilation of the capillary network leading to the site of injury or infection 466. C reactive protein is classified as: A. a cytokine B. a chemokine C. a kinin D. lymphotoxin E. *an acute-phase protein 467. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are classifed as: A. acute phase proteins B. chemokines C. a cytokine D. lipid inflammatory mediators E. *kinins 468. The most abundant leucocyte in the blood of normal humans is the: A. monocyte B. eosinophil C. lymphocyte D. basophils E. *neutrophil 469. Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface? A. follicular dendritic cells B. macrophages C. basophils D. eosinophils E. *all of the above 470. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is: A. the spleen B. the thymus C. the appendix D. GALT E. *the bone marrow 471. The thymus is considered to be: A. a secondary lymphoid organ B. a reticuloendothelial organ C. a specialized lymph node D. a complement producing organ E. *a primary lymphoid organ 472. In which area of the lymph node are considered to be “T cell rich”? A. primary follicles B. medulla C. germinal centers D. capsules E. *paracortex 473. CD8 is a glycoprotein found on: A. all lymphocytes B. B cells C. helper T cells D. NK cells E. *cytotoxic T cells 474. Antibody-secreting cells are called: A. T cell blasts B. macrophages C. B lymphoblasts D. pre-B lymphocytes E. *plasma cells 475. Anti-viral proteins produced by virally infected cells are termed: A. complement B. lysozyme C. major basic proteins D. C-reactive proteins E. *interferon 476. Which of the following is correctly matched? A. dolor redness B. rubor pain C. tumor pain D. rubor swelling E. *calor heat 477. Phagocytosis, endocytosis and inflammation are all examples of: A. the anamnestic response B. acquired specific immunity C. postinfectious immunity D. none of the above E. *innate immunity 478. T lymphocytes undergo the process of negative selection in which of the following lymphoid organs? A. bone marrow B. lymph nodes C. spleen D. GALT E. *thymus 479. When monocytes complete their period of circulation in the blood and enter the tissues they become: A. natural killer cells B. mast cells C. polymorphonuclear cells D. B cells E. *macrophages 480. Macrophages activated with lipopolysaccharide and IFN-? express are known to produce high levels of: A. IL-2 B. nitric oxide C. complement proteins D. lymphotoxin E. *hydrogen peroxide 481. Which of the following would not be considered a secondary lymphoid organ? A. lymph nodes B. spleen C. tonsils D. GALT E. *thymus 482. In humans, the thymus is at its largest actual size: A. at birth B. in the mid-20s C. in the mid-40s D. in elderly individuals E. *at puberty 483. Which of the following T cells would survive the process of negative selection? A. those bearing a TcR specific for self MHC + self antigen B. those bearing a TcR specific for foreign MHC + foreign antigen C. those bearing a TcR specific for foreign MHC + self antigen D. Right answer not present E. *those bearing a TcR specific for self MHC + foreign antigen 484. Mature T cells are found in which of the following regions of the thymus? A. subcapsular region B. medulla C. Hassal’s corpuscles D. capsule E. *cortex 485. In humans, B cells undergo a process of negative selection in: A. the spleen B. the thymus C. the lymph nodes D. GALT E. *the bone marrow 486. The red pulp of the spleen is populated primarily by: A. macrophages and lymphocytes B. erythrocytes and lymphocytes C. plasma cells D. T lymphocytes E. *erythrocytes and macrophages 487. The T cell region of the spleen is known as: A. the primary follicles B. the marginal zone C. the subcapsular region D. the white pulp E. *the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath 488. The specific part of an antigen that combines with a specific antibody or T cell receptor is the A. agretope B. allotope C. paratope D. idiotype E. *epitope 489. Differentiation of myeloid cells from committed progenitors to mature cells occurs primarily in: A. thymus B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. GALt E. *bone marrow 490. Which of the following mitogens is specific for B cells? A. Con A B. PHA C. PWM20 D. antigen E. *LPS 491. Membrane bound Ig is just one part of a complex known as the B cell receptor complex. Additional 492. 493. 494. 495. 496. 497. accessory proteins are termed: A. CD4 and CD8 B. Ca and Cb C. CD3 and TcR D. Cq and Cr E. *Ig? and Ig? The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to: A. the constant regions of the light chains B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains C. the variable regions of the heavy chains D. the constant regions of the heavy chains E. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains The human MHC complex is referred to as : A. the H-2 complex B. the B complex C. complement complex D. none of the above E. *the HLA complex Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the following types of cells? A. Monocytes B. T lymphocytes C. both a & c D. NK cells E. *B lymphocytes Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the following types of cells? A. epithelial cells B. nerve cells C. basophils D. all of the above E. *macrophages Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes? A. CD2 B. CD3 C. CD4 D. CD5 E. *CD8 During an inflammatory response, which type of leucocyte is first to arrive at the site? A. T lymphocyte B. Macrophage C. Basophil D. Eosynophil E. *Neutrophil 498. Which of the following would be considered to be a lipid-derived mediator of inflammation? A. plasmin B. bradykinin C. IL-1 D. IL-2 E. *prostaglandin 499. The swelling associated with inflammation is described by the clinical term: A. dolor B. calor C. rubor D. pain E. *tumor 500. A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to: A. other APCs B. B lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. NK cells E. *Th lymphocytes 501. Which of the following types of antigens are processed for presentation by macrophages? A. polysaccharides B. nucleic acids C. glycolipids D. lipids E. *proteins 502. Which of the following is an example of an oxygen dependent anti-microbial product of 503. 504. 505. 506. macrophages? A. TNF-a B. lysozyme C. defensin D. lactoferrin E. *superoxide anion Which of the following is an example of a primary lymphoid organ? A. lymph node B. spleen C. tonsils D. GALT E. *thymus Small proteins which act chemotactically to attract leucocytes to the site of inflammation are termed: A. interferons B. kinins C. lysosomes D. cytokines E. *chemokines Which of the following cell types is able to actively secrete immunoglobulin: A. naive B lymphocyte B. Th lymphocyte C. macrophage D. Tk lymphocyte E. *plasma cell Which of the following are responsible for the acquired specific immune response: A. monocytes B. PMN leucocytes C. macrophages D. NK cells E. *lymphocytes 507. One of the distinguishing characteristics of bacteria is the presence of a cell wall made of A. cellulose B. protein C. glycoprotein D. glycoprotein E. *peptioglycan 508. In addition to their role as decomposers, bacteria are able to, a function which all life depends 509. 510. 511. 512. 513. 514. upon. A. convert water to oxygen B. remove cancerous cells C. make glucose D. cause disease E. *fix nitrogen Bacterial species that must live in an environment devoid of oxygen are called A. chemotrophs B. aerobes C. facultative anaerobes D. obligate aerobes E. *obligate anaerobes Bacteria may share genetic information that has been picked-up by a bacteriophages in a process known as A. tranformation B. electroporation C. conjugation D. lipofection E. *transduction Bacteria most often cause disease by A. interfering with vital functions B. growing too rapidly for the immune system C. destruction of tissue D. all of these E. *secreting toxins into the host The region of an antigen that binds to specific receptors on lymphocytes is known as an: A. epitaph B. epitome C. epitomy D. epitop E. *epitope Helper T cells are characterised by the presence of cell surface A. CD2 B. CD6 C. CD8 D. CD10 E. *CD4 Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called: A. forations B. perforinse C. perforations D. performins E. *perforins 515. Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as: A. a poptos B. a poptosis C. a pop tosis D. apopstasis E. *apoptosis 516. Dimorphic fungi are all except A. coccidiodomycosis B. Blastomycosis C. Histoplasma D. sporothrix Schenkii E. *Candida 517. Actinomycetes is A. Gram negative bacteria B. Fungus C. A yeast like form D. Viruses E. *Gram Positive bacteria 518. Satellitism is seen in cultures of A. Streptococcus B. Klebsiella C. Proteus D. Salmonella E. *Hemophilus 519. Immunoglobulin-which is produced first by the fetus in response to Infection A. IgG B. IgA C. IgD D. IgE E. *IgM 520. Type of immunologic response in transplant rejection A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. TypeV E. *type IV 521. Glass vessels and syringes are best sterilised by A. autoclaving B. Irridiation C. Eethylene dioxide D. simple boiling E. *Hot air oven 522. Oil and Grease are sterlised by A. autoclaving B. filtration C. Irradiation D. Ethylene dioxide E. *Hot air oven 523. Vaccines are sterilised by A. Hot air oven B. Autoclaving C. Heat inactivation D. radiation E. *Seitz filtration 524. Which of the following regarding chlamydia trachomatis is true A. Susceptible to pencillins B. Cause infertility C. Ttransmitted parenterally D. They are viruses E. *Gram negative 525. Dark Ground microscopy is used for detection of A. Chlamydia B. Fungi C. Virus D. Mycoplasmas E. *Spirochetes 526. Graft versus Host reactions is caused by A. B- lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. Complement D. Neutrophils E. *T-lymphocytes 527. Gas gangrene bacilli is A. Facultative anaerobe B. Facultative aerobe C. Obligate aerobe D. Microaerophylic bacteria E. *Obligate anaerobe 528. Clostridium tetani is A. Gram negative bacilli B. Gram positive cocci C. Gram negative cocci D. Spiral-shaped bacteria E. *Gram positive bacilli 529. Mononuclear phagocytes are produced by A. Thymus B. Spleen C. Liver D. Spleen E. *Bone marrow 530. Large antigen antibody reaction is required to cause A. Serum sickness B. urticarin C. Anaphylactic reaction D. Delayed allergic reaction E. *Arthus reaction 531. Which is concerned with cell mediated immunity A. B- Lymphocytes B. Esoinophils C. Monocytes D. Neutrophyls E. *T-Lymphocytes 532. Organ of adhesion of bacteria is A. Capsule B. Slime C. Flagella D. Spore E. *Fimbriae 533. Delayed tuberculin test response is due to A. B lymphocytes B. Monocytes C. Histiocytes D. Neutrophyls E. *T Lymphocytes 534. Sharp instruments are sterilied by A. Autoclaving B. Simple boiling C. Cidex D. Alcochol E. *20 % Lysol 535. Reaginic immunoglobulin is A. lgG B. lgD C. IgA D. IgM E. *IgE 536. Penicillin is the drug of choice for A. Whooping cough B. Typhoid C. Brucellosis D. Cholera E. *Scarlet fever 537. Multiple drug resistance is spread by A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Mutation D. Translocation E. *Conjugation 538. Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is A. IgG and IgA B. IgG and IgD C. IgD and IgE D. IgM and IgE E. *IgG and IgM 539. Antigen recognition on the surface of antigen processing cells is by A. T cell recognition antigen B. Fc portion of immunoglobulin C. B cell recognition antigen D. Macrophage recognition antigen E. *Fab portion of immunoglobulin 540. Best method of sterilising disposable syringes is A. hot air oven B. UV rays C. Boiling D. 20 % Lysol E. *Gamma rays 541. Best method of skin disinfectant is A. Spirit B. 100 % alcohol C. Cetrimide D. Formaldehyde E. *Tincture iodine 542. Phagocytic cells elaborate A. prostaglandins B. Thromboxane A C. Histamine D. all of these E. *Leukotrienes 543. All are acid fast except A. Nocardia B. Bacterial spores C. M. leprae D. M. tuberculosis E. *Mycoplasma 544. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is known as A. Agglutination B. Flocculation C. Complement fixation D. Hemagglutination E. *Precipitation 545. Septicemia is: A. bacteria in blood B. Toxin in blood C. Pus in blood D. viruses in the blood E. *Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood 546. T cells mature in A. peyers patch B. lymph node C. bursa of fabricius D. bone marrow E. *thymus 547. The Prototype of Type II hypersensitivity A. Arthus reaction B. anaphylactic shok C. Contact dermatitis D. Serum sickness E. *Auto Immune hemolytic anemia 548. Which is an example of type III hypersensitivity A. contact dermatitis B. Hemolytic anemia C. Good Pasture's syndrome D. skin allergic test E. *Serum sickness 549. Spores are disinfected by A. Betapropiolactone B. Formaldehyde C. Hexachlorophene D. Alcohol E. *Glutaraldehyde 550. An example of Type I Hypersensitivity reaction is A. Schicks test mantoux test Lepromin test Koch’s test *Skin pollen test T cell functions are assesed by A. phagocytic Index B. T cell count C. Immunoglobutin Index D. haemagglutination test E. *migration inhibition test The main aim of an adjuvant is to increase A. Distribution B. Absorption C. metabolism D. Solubility E. *Antigenicity Delayed hypersensitivity Involves A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. Platelets E. *Lymphocytes Which is a live attenuated Vaccine A. Rabies B. Hepatitis B C. Cholera D. Tick borne encephalitis E. *BCG Latent Infection is not seen in A. Adenovirus B. Chicken pox C. measles D. cholera E. *Small pox Helper cells belong to A. Macrophages B. B Cells C. Monocytes D. Platelets E. *T Cells T Cell multiplication is stimulated by A. Macrolin B. Heat C. Bovine Serum D. Erythrocytes E. *Phytohemagglutinin Agent which on addition to a colony Inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is A. Bactericidal B. Antibiotic C. Antiseptic D. Antifungal E. *Bacteriostatic Anti Rh antibodies belong to B. C. D. E. 551. 552. 553. 554. 555. 556. 557. 558. 559. lgA lgE IgM IgD *lgG Anti-Rh antibodies belong predominantly to A. Ig G2 B. Ig G3 C. Ig G4 D. None of these E. *Ig G1 F factor Integrates with bacterial chromosome to form A. RTF + r B. FC. RTF D. F’ E. *HFr True about mycobacterium tuberculosis is: A. Gram negative B. Thin cell wall C. Strict anaerobes, curved rod D. Strict aerobes, spherical E. *Strict aerobes, rod-shaped A 40X objective and an 10X ocular produce a total magnification of A. 4 B. 50 C. 90 D. 120 E. *400 A cytoplasmic membrane is A. a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the nucleus and the cell’s internal structures B. *part of the cell envelope C. a membrane that provides a barrier between the cell’s internal structures D. a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the cell wall and the cell’s internal structures E. None of the above A pili is: A. A form of storage granule within the cell. B. Is a long thin protein rod that is used for adhesion. C. Generally composed of sugars. D. *Is a long thin protein rod that is used for bacterial exchange of genetic material. E. Always present on a cell that has the ability to form a capsule. Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall: A. lipopolysaccharides B. *waxes, fatty acid C. acetylglucosamine D. diaminopimelic acid E. polyphosphates After what sign of mycoplasma differ from bacteria : A. by structure of the nucleosis B. *by absence of cell wall C. by intracellular parasite A. B. C. D. E. 560. 561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. 567. D. by tinctorial properties E. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane 568. All prokaryotes A. produce endospores. B. possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes. C. have inner and outer membranes. D. *lack mitochondria. E. have cell walls. 569. Among these bacteria gram-positives there are all, EXCEPT FOR : A. Staphylococci B. *Meningococci C. Streptococci D. Clostridium botulini E. Bacillus anthracis 570. An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is: A. *the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall B. the presence of porins in the outer membrane C. the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes D. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer E. the accumulation of dipicolinic acid in the periplasmic space 571. Another common bacterial shape is that of a rod, often called A. coccus B. *bacillus C. pleomorphic D. vibrio E. spirochete 572. Capsules to the bacteria are needed for: A. survival in an external environment B. *defence from fagocytosis C. toxins production D. antibodies production E. spore production 573. carbon source A. Spores are formed under adverse environmental conditions such as the absence of a B. Spores are resistant to boiling C. Spores are metabolically inactive and contain dipicolinic acid, a calcium chelator D. *Spores are formed primarily by organisms of the genus Neisseria E. They may be killed in autoclave 574. Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contains all, except: A. thin monolayer peptidiglycan B. lipoproteins C. lipopolysaccharides D. *polilayer peptidoglycan E. outer membrane 575. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of: A. thin monolayer peptidiglycan B. lipoproteins C. *polilayer peptidiglican D. lipopolysaccharides E. outer membrane 576. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of: A. thin monolayer peptidoglycan B. lipoproteins C. *polilayer peptidoglycan D. lipopolysaccharides E. outer membrane 577. Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in A. *procaryotes only. B. eucaryotes only. C. fungi D. protozoa E. both procaryotes and eucaryotes. 578. Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in A. *procaryotes only. B. eucaryotes only. C. fungi D. protozoa E. both procaryotes and eucaryotes 579. Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain. B. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain. C. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain. D. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet. E. have monolayers of peptidoglycan 580. Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain. B. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain. C. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain. D. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet. E. have monolayers of peptidoglycan 581. Choose method of staining of bacterial spores: A. Staining by mеthylene blue B. *Staining by Auesko’s method C. Staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method D. Staining by Gram method E. Staining by crystal violet 582. Choose rod-shaped bacteria: A. *Clostridium B. Meningococcus C. Vibrio D. Borrelia E. Sarcina 583. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT: A. *Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity B. They are formed by gram-positive rods C. They can be killed by being heated to 121 °C for 15 minutes D. They contain much less water than bacterial cells E. They are formed by some gram-positive cocci 584. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXEPT: A. *Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity B. They are formed by gram-positive rods C. They can be killed by being heated to 120 C? for 15 minutes D. They contain much less water than bacterial cells E. No correct answer 585. Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct EXCEPT: A. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer *Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer Mycoplasma pncumoniae isn't visible in the Gram stain because it doesn't have a cell wall No true answer Endospore formation is a property of: A. Escherichia coli B. Staphylococcus aureus C. *Clostridium botulinum D. Treponema pallidum E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Endospore formation is a property of: A. Escherichia coli B. Staphylococcus aureus C. *Clostridium botulinum D. Treponema pallidum E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Endospores of bacillus are necessary for: A. Defence from acid in stomach B. Reproduction C. Defence from fagocytosis D. *Survival in an external environment E. Survival into human and animal’s organism Fimbriae A. *attach bacteria to various surfaces. B. cause bacteria move through fluids. C. sense changes in nutrient concentration. D. are pathways for the secretion of exoenzymes. E. cause diseases Gram positive cells A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain. B. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain. C. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain. D. have inclusions that traps crystal violet stain. E. have monolayer of peptidoglycan that traps crystal violet stain Gram positive cells A. have thick, homogeneous cell walls. B. have large amounts of teichoic acids. C. do not have an outer membrane. D. do not have LPS E. *all of the above are true. Indicate gram-negative bacteria. A. Neisseria and Treponema B. Salmonella and Shigella C. Vibrio and Spirocheta D. *Correct all E. No correct answer Indicate gram-negative bacteria. A. Clostridium botulinum B. Bacillus anthracis C. *Neisseria meningitidis D. Micrococcus luteus E. Staphylococcus epidermidis Indicate gram-positive bacteria. B. C. D. E. 586. 587. 588. 589. 590. 591. 592. 593. 594. Escherichia coli Neisseria meningitidis *Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio cholerae Treponema palloidum Indicate gram-positive bacteria. A. *Streptococcus B. Vibrio C. Borrelia D. Neisseria E. Salmonella Indicate gram-positive bacteria. A. Salmonella and Shigella B. *Micrococcus and Tetracoccus C. Vibrio and Spirocheta D. Borrelia and Leptospira E. Neisseria and Treponema Indicate gram-positive bacteria. A. Neisseria and Treponema B. Vibrio and Spirocheta C. Borrelia and Leptospira D. Salmonella and Shigella E. *Bacillus and Clostridium manner similar to human cells A. Bacteria are prokaryotic (ie, they have one molecule of DNA, are haploid, and have no nuclear membrane), whereas human cells are eukaryotic (ie, they have multiple chromosomes, are diploid, and have a nuclear membrane) B. *Bacteria derive their energy by oxidative phosphorylation within mitochondria in a C. Bacterial and human ribosomes are of different sizes and chemical compositions D. Bacterial cells possess peptidoglycan, whereas human cells do not E. No correct answer Mark rod-shaped bacteria: A. Vibrio B. Treponema C. Borrelia D. *Escherichia coli E. Staphylococcus Mark rod-shaped bacteria: A. Sarcina B. Spirilla C. *Mycobacterium D. Streptococcus E. Neisseria Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to: A. *mitochondria of eukaryotes. B. lysosomes of eukaryotes. C. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes. D. polyribosomes of eukaryotes E. none of the above. Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include: A. Clostridium species B. Escherichia species C. Bacillus species A. B. C. D. E. 595. 596. 597. 598. 599. 600. 601. 602. D. *A and C E. A, B, and C 603. Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include: A. Clostridium tetanus B. Clostridium botulinum C. Bacillus species D. *All of them E. None of them 604. Morphological classification of rod-shaped bacteria: A. monobacilli and monobacteria B. diplobacteria and diplobacilli C. streptobacteria and streptobacilli D. *Correct all E. No correct answer 605. Morpholohgical classification of spherical bacteria: A. monococci and diplococci B. streptococci and staphylococci C. tetracocci and sarcina D. *Correct all E. No correct answer 606. Peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall of: A. *gram-positive bacteria. B. gram-negative bacteria. C. fungi. D. protozoa. E. none of the above 607. Phase Contrast microscopy A. Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve contrast in the specimen. B. *Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell with different refractive indices. C. Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phases of the cell. D. Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them. E. Can examinate only fixing objects. 608. Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because A. they are inherited from one generation to the next. B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage. C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant. D. they may carry genes that code sugarlytic enzymes E. *All of the above. 609. Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because A. they are inherited from one generation to the next. B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage. C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant. D. *all of the above. E. none of the above 610. Polyphosphate inclusion bodies A. protect bacteria from excessive drying. B. *supply of nutritives and energy C. turn reddish brown when stained with iodine. D. are composed of polymers of glucose. E. no correct answer 611. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is best used to study small internal cell structures. *surface morphology. cytoplasma nucleoid all of the above. Show diplococci: A. Vibrio B. Treponema C. *Neisseria D. Borrelia E. Clostridium Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means: A. they are shaped like bent rods. B. they have a corkscrew shape. C. *they do not have just one shape. D. they are not either bacilli or cocci. E. they are not either vibrio or spirochete Spherical bacteria arranged in a chain are known as A. spirochetes B. bacilli C. staphylococci. D. streptobacilli E. *streptococci Spores are necessary to bacteria for: A. Survival into human and animal’s organism B. Reproduction C. *Survival in an external environment D. Defence from fagocytosis E. Defence from acid in stomach Spores are necessary to bacteria for: A. Survival into human and animal’s organism B. Reproduction C. *Survival in an external environment D. Defence from fagocytosis E. Defence from acid in stomack Syphilis is caused by which of the following? A. Helicobacter pylori B. Proteus mirabilis C. *Treponema pallidum D. Serratia marcesans E. Treponema Vincentii The 70S procaryotic ribosomes consist of A. two 40S subunits. B. *a 50S and a 30S subunit. C. a 40S and a 30S subunit. D. a 50S and a 20S subunit. E. a 30S and 70S subunit. The bacteria of what family have a capsule constantly? A. shigella B. salmonella C. *klebsiella D. brucella E. shigella A. B. C. D. E. 612. 613. 614. 615. 616. 617. 618. 619. 620. The bacterial capsule is: A. A form of storage granule within the cell. B. a long thin protein rod that is used for attachment. C. *A coating on the exterior of many cells. D. a long thin protein rod that is used for bacterial exchange of genetic material. E. Always present on a cell that has the ability to form a capsule. 621. The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is composed primarily of A. chitin. B. cellulose, C. starch. D. protein. E. *peptidoglycan. 622. The construction and use of the compound microscope is attributed to: A. *Antony van Leeuwenhoek. B. Louis Pasteur. C. Robert Koch. D. Ferdinand Cohn. E. Paul Ehrlich. 623. The first person to see bacteria did his work mostly in what century? A. 14th B. 16th C. *17th D. 18th E. 19th 624. The first techniques of sterilization were introduced by: A. *Louis Pasteur. B. Robert Koch. C. Ferdinand Cohn. D. John Needham. E. Gerhardt Domagk. 625. The form of coffee corn is had: A. staphylococcus and streptococcus B. pneumococcus and monococcus C. *meningococcus and gonococcus D. peptococcus and peptostreptococcus E. tetracoccus and sarcina 626. The fourth stage of making of a staining smear is: A. Fixation B. Washing C. *Staining D. Drying E. Preparation of smear 627. The major function of the cell membrane is: A. To keep water from entering the cell, which causes it to burst. B. To bind lipids in the hydrophobic inner layer. C. To trap energy so the cell can use it for the functions of life. D. *To protect the internal components of a cell from the chaos outside of a cell. E. No correct answer 628. The significance of the plasma membrane is that A. *it selectively allows some molecules to pass into the organism B. it prevents movement of molecules out of the organism C. it is the site of protein synthesis D. all of the above E. none of the above 629. The structure of DNA was discovered by: A. Watson and Griffith B. *Watson and Crick C. Darwin and Crick D. Pasteur and Koch E. Baltimore and Flemming 630. The substage condenser A. changes the wavelength of the light reaching the specimen B. *focuses light on the specimen C. decreases the amount of light reaching the specimen D. eluminate the specimen E. magnificates size of specimen 631. The third stage of making of a staining smear is: A. *Fixation B. Washing C. Staining D. Drying E. Preparation of smear 632. What are plasmides of bacteria? A. circular DNA in nucleoid B. *circular DNA in a cytoplasm C. circular DNA in a shell D. fragments DNA in volutin granules E. circular RNA in cytoplasm 633. What bacteria have the spiral form: A. staphylococcus B. streptococcus C. *spirillum D. bacillus E. sarcina 634. What disease do Staphylococci cause? A. Typhoid fever B. Mumps C. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis D. *Sepsis E. Tuberculosis 635. What disease do Streptococci cause? A. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis B. *Scarlet fever C. Enteric fever D. Diphtheria E. Flue 636. What disease do Streptococci cause? A. Typhoid fever B. Mumps C. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis D. *Rheumatic fever E. Tuberculosis 637. What disease does Neisseria meningitidis cause? A. Rheumatic fever B. Scarlet fever C. Cholera D. *Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis E. Nodamura disease 638. What does Kingdom Prokaryotae include: A. *bacteria. B. protozoa. C. fungi. D. viruses E. all of the above. 639. What is a compound microscope? A. A microscope that has one lenses. B. *A microscope that has two sets of lenses: an ocular lens and an eye-piece. C. A microscope whose lenses are concave. D. A microscope whose lenses are convex. E. No correct answer 640. What is a microorganism? A. A microorganism is a small organism that takes in and breaks down food for energy and 641. 642. 643. 644. 645. nutrients, excretes unused food as waste, and is capable of reproduction. B. A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in plants. C. A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in animals. D. *A microorganism is a term that refers to a cell. E. No correct answer What is a pathogenic microorganism? A. A microorganism that multiplies B. A microorganism that grows in a host C. A microorganism that is small D. *A disease-causing microorganism E. No correct answer What is a plasmid? A. *Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA B. Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA C. A bacterial chromosome D. Bacterial inclusion E. Part of the ribosome What is a plasmid? A. *Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA B. Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA C. A bacterial chromosome D. Baterial inclusion E. Bacterial spores What is a smear? A. *A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is spread on a slide. B. A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is dyed. C. A smear is a process in which a specimen is moved beneath a microscope. D. A smear is a process used to identify a specimen. E. No correct answer What is Archaea? A. Archaea is a classification for organisms that have two nuclei. B. Archaea is a classification for organisms that use phagocytosis. C. *Archaea is a classification of an organism that identifies prokaryotes that do not have peptidoglycan cell walls. D. Archaea is a classification of an organism that identifies prokaryotes that have peptidoglycan cell walls. E. Archaea is a classification of Protozoa. 646. What is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic organisms? A. the presence of a cell membrane B. *the presence of a nuclear membrane C. "naked" DNA molecule D. the presence of cytoplasm E. No correct answer 647. What is the function of an illuminator? A. To control the temperature of the specimen B. To keep the specimen moist C. *An illuminator is the light source used to observe a specimen under a microscope D. To keep the specimen dry E. No correct answer 648. What is the purpose of bacterial endospores? A. Allow the bacterium to make hundreds of "seeds" to spread on the wind. B. Help the bacterium to differentiate into faster growing stages of bacteria. C. Allow the bacterium to survive the absence of oxygen. D. *Allow the bacterium to survive the bad condition (drying,lack of nutrition). E. All of the above. 649. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation? A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics B. For examinate biochemical properties C. For study morphology of bacteria D. *For study motility of bacteria E. For study cultural properties of bacteria 650. What is the value of a wet-mount preparation? A. For study cultural properties of bacteria B. *For study motility of bacteria C. For study morphology of bacteria D. For examinate biochemical properties E. For study sensitivity to antibiotics 651. What is unique about the Mycoplasma bacterial group? A. *they lack cell walls B. they lack a cell membrane C. they have organelles D. they are prokaryotes E. they have ribosome 652. What microbes do belong to coccal forms? A. Escherichia coli B. *Staphylococcus aureus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Yersinia pestis E. None of above 653. What microbes do belong to coccal forms? A. Salmonella B. Leptospira C. Yersinia D. Clostridia E. *Streptococcus 654. What microbes do belong to coccal forms? A. Bordetella B. Treponema C. *Micrococcus D. Vibrio E. Shigella 655. What microbes do belong to coccal forms? A. *Neisseria B. Borrelia C. Corynebacteria D. Proteus E. Spirilla 656. What microbes do belong to spiral forms? A. Neisseria B. Borrelia C. Corynebacteria D. Proteus E. *Spirilla 657. What microbes do belong to spiral forms? A. Bordetella B. *Treponema C. Micrococcus D. Sarcina E. Shigella 658. What microbes do belong to spiral forms? A. Salmonella B. *Leptospira C. Yersinia D. Clostridia E. Streptococcus 659. What microbes do belong to spiral forms? A. Bordetella B. Clostridia C. Micrococcus D. *Vibrio E. Shigella 660. ?What morphological structure is responsible for bacterial motility? A. Pilli B. Fimbria C. *Flagella D. Capsule E. LPS 661. What shape is not peculiar for bacteria: A. round or oval B. rod or stick C. *icosaedral D. spiral E. No correct answer 662. When would you use a wet mount? A. A wet mount is used to observe a dead specimen under a micro-scope. B. *A wet mount is used to observe a live specimen under a microscope. C. A wet mount is used to observe an inorganic specimen under a microscope. D. A wet mount is the first step in preparing a specimen. E. A wet mount is the last step in preparing a specimen 663. Which of the following bacteria don’t contain cell wall? A. Klebsiella B. *Mycoplasma C. Ricketsia D. Slaphylococcus. E. Treponema. 664. Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient? A. *Mycoplasma. B. Treponema. C. Slaphylococcus. D. Klebsiella. E. Salmonella 665. Which of the following does NOT apply to plasmids? A. *They are essential to growth of the cell. B. They are composed of DNA. C. They multiply independently of the chromosome. D. They may pass from cell to cell in recombinations. E. They may be included into chromosome 666. Which of the following is NOT equivalent to 10 micrometers. A. 0.0001 cm B. 0.01 mm C. *10 nm D. 10,000 nm E. 100,000 Angstroms 667. Which of the following is not true about bacterial flagella? A. Most of their length consists of a hollow, rigid protein tube. B. They are constructed largely of a single protein called flagellin. C. *They spin like wheels, either clockwise or counterclockwise. D. They use cytoplasmic ATP as their primary energy source. E. All of the above. 668. Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers? A. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall. B. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells. C. *They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture. D. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages. E. They help bacteria survive inside organism 669. Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers? A. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall. B. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells. C. *They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture. D. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages. E. All of the above. 670. Which of the following materials is NOT a bacterial storage granule: A. Sulfur B. Glycogen C. Phosphorous D. *Ribosomes E. Volutin 671. Which of the following structures is unique to prokaryotic organisms? A. mitochondria B. ribosomes C. cell wall D. *peptidoglycan cell wall E. cell membrane 672. Which of the following structures is unique to prokaryotic organisms? A. mitochondria B. ribosomes C. cell wall D. *peptidoglycan cell wall E. cell membrane 673. Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria most of all? A. by structure of the nucleoid B. *by absence of cell wall C. by intracellular parasite D. by tinctorial properties E. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane 674. Which with these substances can damage bacteria cell wall : A. sulphonamides B. *lysozyme C. interferone D. alcohol E. streptomycin 675. Who did advance the concept of Contagium vivum? A. *Fracastorius. B. Pollender. C. Louis Pasteur. D. Lazzaro Spallanzani. E. Edward Jenner 676. Who did coin the term vaccine? A. Edward Jenner. B. Kitasato. C. Ehrlich. D. *Louis Pasteur, E. Robert Koch. 677. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885? A. *Louis Pasteur. B. Semple. C. Edward Jenner D. Paul Ehrlich. E. Wasserman. 678. Who did discovere bacillus of tuberculosis? A. Hansen. B. Loeffler. C. *Robert Koch. D. Bruce. E. Pasteur 679. Why bacteria are prokaryotic organism? A. A bacterium is a multicell organism that has a distinct nucleus. B. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus. C. A bacterium is a multicell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus. D. *A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus E. No correct answer 680. Why is a bacterium called a prokaryotic organism? A. *A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus. B. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus. C. C. A bacterium is a multicell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus. D. A bacterium is a multicell organism that has a distinct nucleus. E. No correct answer 681. According to the source of energy there are such bacteria: A. *chemotrophs and phototrophs lithotrophs and organotrophs chemotrophs and heterotrophs autotrophs and chemotrophs autotrophs and heterotrophs According to the types of bacterial respiration such groups of bacteria may exist: A. obligate aerobes B. obligate anaerobes C. facultative anaerobes D. capneic E. *all answers are correct All nutrient media are elective, EXCEPT: A. Mueller’s medium B. Ru’s medium C. Leffler’s medium D. 1 % alkaline peptone water E. *blood MPA All of bacteria belong to obligate aerobes, EXCEPT: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Yersinia pestis C. Micrococci spp. D. *Clostridium tetani E. Vibrio cholerae All of the listed microorganisms are facultative anaerobes, EXCEPT: A. *Clostridium botulinum B. Escherichia spp. C. Salmonella spp. D. Shigella spp. E. Staphylococci spp. Anaerobic microorganisms may be selected by: A. Fortner’s method B. *Veynberg’s method C. Shukevich’s method D. Pasteur’s method E. Leffler’s method At what temperature agar-agar melts and becomes thick? A. *100 °С and 40 °С B. 90 °С and 70 °С C. 80 °С and 60 °С D. 60 °С and 30 °С E. 50 °С and 20 °С Bacteria that form R-colonies have all features, EXCEPT: A. *does not have capsules B. have capsules C. sometimes does not have flagella D. low or absent virulence E. easily phagocytable Bacteria that form S-colonies have all features, EXCEPT A. *easily phagocytable B. poorly phagocytable C. biochemically more active D. isolated in the acute stage of disease E. have capsules Choose a correct answer according to the types of microbial decontamination: B. C. D. E. 682. 683. 684. 685. 686. 687. 688. 689. 690. sterilization disinfections antiseptics *all answer are right all answer are wrong Choose among listed media, differential diagnostic ones. A. MPA B. Kitt-Tarozzi's medium C. MPB D. glucose MPB E. *Giss’s media Choose bacteria susceptible to desiccation. A. *Gononococci B. Vibrio cholerae C. Shigella D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae E. Salmonella typhi Choose capneic bacteria: A. Shigella dysentery B. *Brucella abortus C. Clostridium botulinum D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar A. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride B. MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride C. MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride D. MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride E. MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium Choose microaerophils: A. Clostridium tetani B. Escherichia coli C. *Lactobacillus acidophilus D. Salmonella typhi E. Salmonella paratyphi A Choose obligate aerobes among these microorganisms: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp. Choose obligate anaerobes among these microbes: A. Bacillus anthracis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. *Bacteroides spp. D. Rickettsia spp. E. Corynebacterium spp. Choose obligate anaerobes: A. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum B. Escherichia coli C. Salmonella typhi D. Proteus vulgaris E. Brucella melitensis A. B. C. D. E. 691. 692. 693. 694. 695. 696. 697. 698. 699. Choose the best destroying exhaust cultures of bacteria: A. sterilization by boiling B. sterilizations heat oven C. *sterilizations in an autoclave D. sterilization by ethylene oxide E. sterilization by ultraviolet light 700. Differential diagnostic media are used for: A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility of bacteria B. Accumulations of microbial biomass C. Examination of microorganisms pathogenicity D. Studies of antigen structure of microorganisms E. *Examination of bacteria enzyme activity 701. During a Log-phase the division of bacteria takes place: A. delay of division B. *at constant rate C. more bacteria die, then appears D. division does not take place E. all answers are incorrect 702. Endo’s medium consist of: A. *MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsin B. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsin C. MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin D. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin E. MPA, 5 % lactose, indicator bromthymol blue 703. Enzymes that are produced outside from bacteria are called: A. endoenzymes B. *exoenzymes C. heteroenzymes D. isoenzymes E. all answers are correct 704. Ethylene oxide may be used for sterilization of all equipment, EXCEPT: A. equipment for anesthesia B. *nutrient media C. prostheses D. endoscope instruments E. catgut 705. For abolition of bacteria in the air of operating room such methods may be used: A. gamma-rays B. X-ray C. *ultraviolet Light D. gamma-rays E. gas method 706. For chemical sterilization by gases all of them are used, EXCEPT: A. formaldehyde B. chloroform C. beta-propiolactone D. ethylene oxide E. *methane 707. Free oxygen is toxic for bacteria, because it: A. kills a bacterium B. *detains their growth C. halts spore formation D. inhibit toxins production E. inhibit enzymes production 708. Heat oven may be used for sterilization of all objects, EXCEPT: A. tubes B. Petry’s plates C. *rubber corks D. metallic instruments E. heat-resistant powders 709. How many classes of bacterial enzymes do you know? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. *6 E. 2 710. In burner’s flame it is possible to sterilize everything, EXCEPT: A. forceps B. bacteriological loops C. *tampons for material collection D. slide glasses E. cover slip 711. In depending on substrate that is donor of electrons there are such bacteria: A. lithotrophs and chemotrophs B. chemotrophs and heterotrophs C. autotrophs and chemotrophs D. chemotrophs and phototrophs E. *lithotrophs and organotrophs 712. In depending on the source of carbon such groups of bacteria are: A. lithotrophs and organotrophs B. chemotrophs and phototrophs C. chemotrophs and heterotrophs D. autotrophs and chemotrophs E. *autotrophs and heterotrophs 713. Indicate aerotolerant bacteria: A. *Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus viridans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 714. Indicate among these microbes obligate anaerobic bacteria: A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp. B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp. C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae 715. Indicate composition of semi-solid Giss’s media A. *MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), indicators water blue with rosolic acid) B. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), indicator Andrede C. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an indicator diamond green D. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), indicator – complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate E. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an indicator phenol red 716. Indicate halophilic bacterium: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. *Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. Treponema pallidum E. Shigella flexneri 717. Indicate the basic components of Ploskirev’s medium. A. MPB, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. B. MPA, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. C. MPB, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. D. *MPA, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. E. MPA, glucose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. 718. Indicate the capneic bacteria: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. *Brucella abortus C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Lactobacillus spp. E. Clostridium perfringens 719. Indicate the composition of blood agar. A. *MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals B. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator bromthymol blue C. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator fuchsin D. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator neutral red E. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator eosin 720. Indicate the composition of Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for cultivation of anaerobes: A. MPA, pieces of liver or meat B. MPB, yolk, medium is covered with vaseline oil C. *Hottinger’s broth, pieces of liver or meat, glucose, medium is covered with vaseline oil D. Hottinger’s broth, pieces of brain tissues E. Serum broth, pieces of liver or meat, , medium is covered with vaseline oil 721. Indicate the composition of liquid Giss’s media A. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator bromthymol dark blue B. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator eosin C. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator is methylene blue D. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator neutral red E. *1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), indicator of Andrede 722. Indicate the composition of Olkenitsky’s medium? A. MPA, lactose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red B. MPA, saccharose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red C. MPA, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red D. MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, an indicator is phenol red E. *MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red. 723. Indicate the growth signs of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium: A. formation of diffuse turbidity B. formation of pellicle C. formation of sediment D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 724. Indicate the necessary components of Levin’s medium: A. MPB, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin . B. MPA, saccharose, indicators methylene blue, eosin. C. MPB, saccharose, indicators methylene dark, eosin. D. *MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin. E. MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, fuchsin. 725. Indicate the type of bacterial cell division: A. And. passing ahead B. In. synchronous C. P. with the passing ahead division of nucleoid D. **all of answers are correct E. all of answers are wrong 726. Indicate vitamins necessary for bacterial growth: A. Biotin B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 727. Is it necessary to examine the structure of colonies. What method can you offer? A. *In the passing light at the small increase of microscope B. In an electron microscope C. By a "hanging" drop technique D. By a phase-contrast microscope E. By the immersion system of microscope 728. It is necessary to choose the medium for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria: A. Endo’s and Levin’s media B. Meat-peptone agar, meat-peptone broth C. *Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar, Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium D. Coagulated serum, мeat-peptone gelatin E. Ascitic agar, serum agar 729. It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of juice. Choose its optimum mode: A. 70 °С during 5-10 min B. 70 °С during 30 min C. 80 °С during 60 min D. 80 °С during 30 min E. *80 °С during 5-10 min 730. It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of milk. Choose its optimum mode: A. *70 °С during 30 min B. 70 °С during 60 min C. 70 °С during 90 min D. 60 °С during 30 min E. 60 °С during 60 min 731. ?It is possible to sterilize in burner’s flame: A. liquid nutrient media B. physiological solution C. *forceps D. solid nutrient media E. catheters 732. Mechanism of antibacterial effect of 37-40 % formaldehyde solution of: A. destruction of cellular lipids. B. *Interaction with protein amino groups and their denaturation C. destruction of cellular endotoxin D. destruction of cellular polysaccharides. E. Cell dehydration 733. Mechanism of high temperatures antibacterial action: A. damage of ribosomes B. destruction of tertiary structure of albumens C. destruction of cytoplasm membranes D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 734. Microorganisms that require the high concentrations of salts for their cultivation are called: A. Acidophilic B. *Halophilic C. Oxyphilic D. Mesophilic E. Osmiephilic 735. Microorganisms, which are able to cause diseases in human, belong to: A. chmemoorganoautotrophs B. *chemoorganoheterotrophs C. chemolithoheterotrophs D. chemolithoautotrophs E. heterophotoorganotrophs 736. Most of non-spore-forming perish at a temperature: A. *58-60 °С 30-60 minutes B. 20-30 °С in 2-4 ч C. 40-50 °С in 1 ч D. 10-20 °С in 5-8 ч E. 20-30 °С in 30-60 minutes 737. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria belong to what group according to their type of respiration? A. Obligate aerobes B. Obligate anaerobes C. Facultative anaerobes D. *Microaerophils E. Capneic 738. Non-inoculated Endo’s medium has color: A. bright red B. *poorly-rose C. yellow D. greenish E. colorless 739. One of the asepsis measures is disinfection. What is it – a concept "disinfection"? A. deleting bacterial and fungal spores of the objects of environment B. elimination of pathogenic microorganisms in a wound C. *decontamination of pathogenic microorganisms is the D. diminishing the degree of microbial contamination of skin and mucous membranes E. elimination viruses in the environment 740. Peculiarities of S-colonies of bacteria: A. *smooth, convex surface gyrose surface fibred consistency edges are rosette-like have capsules Respiration of bacteria is a process: A. biosynthesis of protein molecules B. *biooxidation with formation of ATP C. biosynthesis of carbohydrates D. biosynthesis of lipids E. biosynthesis of microelements Respiration of bacteria is accompanied: A. *by formation of energy B. by the loss of energy C. by accumulation of CO2 D. all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong Rubber and polymeric wares can be sterilized immersing them in: A. *solution of dexon on 45 min at 18 °С B. solution of dexon on 25 min at 18 °С C. solution of dexon on 15 min at 18 °С D. solution of dexon on 45 min at 56 °С E. solution of dexon on 25 min at 56 °С Salts of heavy metals will cause in a bacterial cell: A. destruction of lipids B. destroying the polysaccharides C. DNA destroying D. Protein synthesis disturbances E. *coagulation of protein Special nutrient medium is: A. Blood agar B. Serum agar C. Ascitic agar D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong Specify, to what pressure in an autoclave a temperature 100 °С corresponds: A. *0 аtm. B. 0,5 аtm. C. 1 аtm. D. 1,5 аtm. E. 2 аtm. Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 112 °С corresponds: A. 0 аtm. B. *0,5 аtm. C. 1 аtm. D. 1,5 аtm. E. 2 аtm. Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 121 °С corresponds: A. 0 аtm. B. 0,5 аtm. C. *1 аtm. D. 1,5 аtm. E. 2 аtm. Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 127 °С corresponds: B. C. D. E. 741. 742. 743. 744. 745. 746. 747. 748. 749. 0 аtm. 0,5 аtm. 1 аtm. *1,5 аtm. 2 аtm. Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 131 °С corresponds: A. 0 аtm. B. 0,5 аtm. C. 1 аtm. D. 1,5 аtm. E. *2 аtm. Sterilization may be conducted by the following methods: A. action of moist steam B. filtration C. radiation D. pasteurization E. *all answers are correct Such enzymes prevail in a bacterial cell: A. oxydoreductases B. constitutive C. hydrolases D. *adaptive E. ligases Such groups of bacteria are existed according to their respiration: A. capneic B. microaerophils C. anaerobes D. aerobes E. *all of them Such nutrient media belong to universal ones: A. *MPB and MPA B. Mannitol salt agar Levin’s medium C. Serum MPA and 1% alkaline peptone water D. Endo’ medium and blood agar E. Ploskirev’s medium and serum broth Surface-tension-reducing agents (detergents) can cause: A. violation of spores’ formation. B. violation of flagella structure C. violation of capsule formation. D. Violation of nucleoid function E. *violation of CPM structure and cell wall structure Synthesis of what cell molecules needs the most of energy? A. nucleic acids B. lipids C. polysaccharides D. *proteins E. amino acid Temperature optimum for mesophilic bacteria: A. 10-15 1 C B. 20-30 2C C. *30-37 3С D. 40-50 4C E. 50-60 5C A. B. C. D. E. 750. 751. 752. 753. 754. 755. 756. 757. 758. Temperature optimum for psychrophilic bacteria: A. *10-25 1C B. 20-30 2C C. 30-37 С3 D. 40-50 4C E. 50-60 5C 759. Temperature optimum for thermophilic bacteria: A. 10-20 1C B. 20-30 0C C. 30-37 С3 D. 40-50 4C E. *50-60 5C 760. The mechanism of action of iodine consists of: A. destruction of lipids B. destroying the polysaccharides C. DNA depolarization D. *oxidization of protein active groups and their denaturizing E. violation of proteins synthesis 761. There are such demands to the nutrient media, EXCEPT: A. presence of nutrients B. sterility C. *certain color D. certain viscidity E. transparency 762. There are such mechanisms of penetration different substances into the cell, EXCEPT: A. facilitated diffusion B. *transformations of chemical groups C. passive diffusion D. active transport E. ionic transport 763. To Chlorine which are used for disinfection, belong all preparation, EXCEPT: A. 0,2-1,0 % solutions of Chloramin B. B. 5 % water solutions of calcium hypochloride. C. 0,05-0,1 % solution of trichloroisocyanuric acid. D. 0,1-0,2 % sulfochlorantine solution E. *3-5 % solution of carbolic acid. 764. To dyes, which can inhibit bacterial growth , belong: A. diamond green. B. rivanol. C. acriflavin. D. none of them. E. *all of them. 765. To the universal nutrient mediums belong: A. serum MPA and serum MPB. B. Endo’s medium and Ploskirev’s medium C. *MPA and MPB D. Blood MPA and TCBS medium E. Yolk salt agar and Ascitic agar 766. Wares from polymeric materials may be sterilized by such method: A. mechanical B. *chemical C. biological D. pasteurization E. in a heat oven 767. What is tyndalization? A. single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 30 minutes B. *sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other C. sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other D. sterilization by water bath 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other E. sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during a hour 5-6 days one after the other 768. What bacteria are very susceptible to drying? A. Staphylococci B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. *Meningococci D. Shigella E. Salmonella 769. What bacteria do belong to obligate anaerobes? A. *Clostridium septicum, Bacteroides fragilis B. Salmonella schottmuelleri C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Proteus rettgeri E. Francisella tularensis 770. What bacterial colony? A. Medium which is inoculated with bacteria, where different microorganisms grow B. Growth of microbes of one species on different nutrient medium C. *Macroscopically visible growth of microbes (posterity of one bacterial cell) on a solid nutrient medium D. Visible growth of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium E. Visible growth of bacteria on the slant meat-peptone agar 771. What can be the form of rough surfaces of colonies of R-form of bacteria? A. *wrinkled B. gyrose C. warty D. rosette-shaped E. all answers are correct 772. What color do Giss’s media have, if microbes utilize sugars? A. *red B. green C. violet D. brown E. a color does not change 773. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have? A. dark blue B. colorless C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. *rose 774. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have? A. dark blue B. *colorless C. rose D. brown E. green 775. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have? A. dark blue B. colorless C. *rose D. brown E. green 776. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have? A. *dark blue B. colorless C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 777. What color does a simple medium – MPA– have? A. red B. *yellow C. greenish D. violet E. dark blue 778. What color does a simple medium – MPB– have? A. red B. dark blue C. greenish D. violet E. *yellow 779. What color does no inoculated Levin’s medium have? A. bright red B. poorly-rose C. yellow D. greenish E. *violet 780. What color does non-inoculated Olkenitsky’s medium have? A. bright red B. *pink C. yellow D. greenish E. violet 781. What components may be the source of nitrogen in nutrient media? A. meat B. fish C. meat and bone flour D. casein E. *all answers are correct 782. What elements can form macroergic bounds? A. phosphorus B. sulfur C. selenium D. *right answers A and B E. right answers A, B, C 783. What enzymes do control the substrate splitting with joining the water molecules? A. Oxydoreductases B. Isomerases C. Ligases D. *Hydrolases E. Transferases 784. What enzymes do provide oxydation-reduction reactions? A. Hydrolases Isomerases Transferases Lyases *Oxydoreductases What enzymes do provide the reactions of groups of atoms transfer? A. *Transferases B. Ligases C. Lyases D. Oxydoreductases E. Isomerases What enzymes localized in cytoplasm membrane do provide the facilitated diffusion? A. transferases B. proteases C. *permeases D. hydrolases E. ligases What factors do not influence on the bacterial reproduction? A. age of bacteria B. composition of nutrient medium C. medium рН D. *year season E. temperatures, aeration What finished products do appear in the liquid Giss’s media after decomposition of sugars? A. acid B. alkali C. gas D. *acid and gas E. fixing the finished goods is not succeeded What finished products does appear in the semi-solid Giss’s media after sugar utilization? A. acid B. alkali C. gas D. *acid and gas E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded What from the listed words is a name of enzyme? A. Saccharose B. *Saccharase C. Glucose D. Maltose E. Galactose What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen? A. Andrede B. Neutral red C. *Phenol red D. Bromthymol blue E. Thymol blue What is a biological catalyst? A. nucleic acids B. *enzymes C. metabolites D. Plasmids E. Transposons What is a chemical origin of agar-agar? B. C. D. E. 785. 786. 787. 788. 789. 790. 791. 792. 793. Lipids Proteins *Polysaccharides Carbohydrates Amino acids What is a chemical origin of gelatin? A. Polysaccharides B. Lipids C. *Proteins D. Carbohydrates E. Amino acids What is a name of enzyme localized inside a bacterial cell: A. adaptive B. *endoenzymes C. exoenzymes D. constitutive E. all answers are right What is a reason molecular oxygen toxic action according to bacteria? A. formation of singlet oxygen B. formation of hydrogen peroxide C. formation of ozone D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are incorrect What is chemical composition of prokaryotic cell? A. Water - 50-60 %, dry weight - 40-60 %. B. Water - 60-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %. C. *Water - 70-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %. D. Water - 40-50 %, dry weight - 50-60 %. E. Water - 20-40 %, dry weight - 60-80 %. What is chemostate? A. synonym of term of «jar» B. vehicle which allows to study chemical properties of bacteria C. vehicle, in which it is possible to make sterilization of media D. *vehicle which allows to make continuous cultivation of microorganisms in laboratory conditions E. vehicle which allows to study antigenic properties of bacteria What is disinfection? A. *Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potentially pathogenic for human causative agents on the different objects of medium for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection to the receptive organism B. Complex measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for human in the air for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection to the receptive organism C. Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for human in his body for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection to the receptive organism D. Complex of measures which prevent spread of potential pathogens from human body in an medium E. Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for human in the water for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection to the receptive organism What is raw material for agar-agar obtaining? A. Skin A. B. C. D. E. 794. 795. 796. 797. 798. 799. 800. Meat *Algae Arthral cartilage Bones What is the minimum area of washings for control of disinfection quality? A. not less than, 50 см2. B. not less than, 100 см2. C. not less than, 150 см2. D. *not less than, 200 см2. E. not less than, 250 см2. What mechanism of action of ultraviolet light against bacteria? A. does not have any effect according to the cell B. affect RNA molecules C. *affect DNA molecules and as a result forms thymine dimers D. affect the ribosomes E. affect the structure of cell wall What mechanism of ultrasound action against bacteria? A. destroys cell DNA B. destroys cell RNA C. destroys cell mesosome D. *forms a cavitation cavity, filled in the pair of liquid, with high pressure inside; cytoplasm structures are destroyed E. an ultrasound does not influence on bacteria What mechanism reproduction of bacteria is: A. *by a simple transversal division B. by a mitosis C. by spore formation D. by sexual way E. by a disjunctive way What medium is it possible to use for checking the utilization of a few sugars? A. Ru’s medium B. Leffler’s medium C. *Giss’s media D. Ploskirev’s medium E. End’s medium What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes? A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi D. Brucella abortus E. Lactobacillus acidophilus What part of dry weight of the cell does belong to protein? A. 15 %. B. 35 %. C. *55 %. D. 75 %. E. 95 % What phase is characterized by high speed of bacterial division and increasing their number? A. Stationary B. *Exponential C. Initial D. Death E. Expotential B. C. D. E. 801. 802. 803. 804. 805. 806. 807. 808. 809. What phase of microbial growth in periodic culture does not exist? A. Initial B. Exponential C. *Accumulations D. Stationary E. Decline 810. What signs of hemolytic activity of bacteria are present on blood MPA? A. appearance of areas of darkening on a mat red background B. the changes of medium color C. appearance of bright red colonies of microbes, if they cause haemolysis D. *appearance of colorless areas surround the colonies on mat red background if the have 811. 812. 813. 814. 815. 816. 817. hemolytic activity E. appearance of colorless colonies What stage of meat water preparing is the most important? A. Making meat small B. Filtration C. *Extraction D. Boiling E. Sterilization What substance must be added into nutrient medium for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties? A. Agar-agar B. *Gelatin C. Agarose D. All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong What substances can repress the action of inhibitors of bacterial growth and toxin formation? A. some amino acids B. tweens C. active carbon D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong What substitutes of meat are used for making the nutrient media? A. placenta B. blood clots C. yeasts D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong What substrate does provide a necessary density of nutrient medium? A. Protein B. Lipids C. *Agar-agar D. Carbohydrates E. No correct answer What technique does belong to the biological method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. *Joint cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and Serratia marcescens, which utilizes an oxygen intensively B. Cultivation of anaerobes in the organism of laboratory animals C. Cultivation of anaerobes in the chicken embryos D. All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong What technique does belong to the chemical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box application of pyrogallol on the bottom of the jar use the high column of nutrient medium introduction of pieces of liver or muscles and vitamin K3 as supplement in the medium *right answer A, B, D What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil C. use the high column of nutrient medium D. *right answers B and C. E. right answers A, B and C What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil C. use the high column of nutrient medium D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation E. a right answer is not present What type of bacterial growth near the inner part of tube wall is there may be? A. formation of flakes, fastened to the inner wall of test tube B. by diffuse turbidity C. formation of grains, fastened on the inner wall of test tube. D. formation of pellicle on the surface of medium E. *right answers A and C What type of sediment may be formed by microbes in liquid nutrient media? A. Crumble-like B. homogeneous C. viscid D. mucous E. *all answers are correct What types of bacterial fermentation do you know? A. Lactic-acid fermentation B. alcoholic fermentation C. butiric-acid fermentation D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong What vitamins are necessary for development of bacteria A. pantothenic acid B. Cholin C. nicotine acid D. *all answers are correct E. all answers of incorrect What way does glycerin penetrate in a bacterial cell? A. Translocation of radicals B. Active transport C. Diffusion D. *Ionic transport E. Facilitated diffusion Where does point of replication localize, when the division of bacteria begins? A. on DNA of cell B. on мРNA C. on a cytoplasm membrane D. on a cellular wall E. *on DNA, located in the place of connection of mesosome and cytoplasm membrane Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis? B. C. D. E. 818. 819. 820. 821. 822. 823. 824. 825. 826. I. Mechnikov S. Vinogradsky *L. Pasteur R. Koch E. Ru According to the colony relief there may have such form: A. Flat B. Convex C. Dome-shaped D. Pitted E. *All answers are correct According to the types of bacterial respiration such groups of bacteria may exist: A. obligate aerobes B. obligate anaerobes C. facultative anaerobes D. capneic E. *all answers are correct According to what signs can we check the purity of selected bacterial culture? A. Biochemical and serologic B. *Cultural (signs of growth) and morphological C. Tinctorial and biochemical D. Susceptibility to phages and antibiotics E. Right answer is not present All nutrient media are elective, EXCEPT: A. Mueller’s medium B. Ru’s medium C. Leffler’s medium D. 1 % alkaline peptone water E. *blood MPA All of bacteria belong to obligate aerobes, EXCEPT: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Yersinia pestis C. Micrococcus spp. D. *Clostridium tetani E. Vibrio cholerae All of the listed microorganisms are facultative anaerobes, EXCEPT: A. *Clostridium botulinum B. Escherichia spp. C. Salmonella spp. D. Shigella spp. E. Staphylococci spp. Anaerobic microorganisms may be isolated according such technique: A. Fortner’s B. *Veynberg’s C. Shukevitch’s D. Pasteur’s E. Leffler’s Bacteria, which form R-colonies, have all features, EXCEPT: A. *does not have capsules B. have capsules C. sometimes does not have flagella D. low or absent virulence E. easily phagocytable A. B. C. D. E. 827. 828. 829. 830. 831. 832. 833. 834. 835. Bacteria, which form S-colonies, have all features, EXCEPT A. *easily phagocytable B. poorly phagocytable C. biochemically more active D. isolated in the acute stage of disease E. have capsules 836. Biochemical identification is examination of bacterial species according to their: A. *enzymes B. toxins C. allergens D. plasmids E. antigens 837. Biological identification is carrying out by: A. allergic tests B. *inoculation of laboratory animals C. agglutination test D. biochemical reactions E. cultivation on species 838. Choose among these media differential diagnostic ones: A. MPA B. Kitt-Tarozz's medium C. MPB D. Sugar meat peptone broth E. *Giss’ media 839. Choose capneic bacteria: A. Shigella dysentery B. *Brucella abortus C. Clostridium botulinum D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae 840. Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar A. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride B. MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride C. MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride D. MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride E. MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium 841. Choose microaerophils: A. Clostridium tetani B. Escherichia coli C. *Lactobacillus acidophilus D. Salmonella typhi E. Salmonella paratyphi A 842. Choose obligate aerobes among these microorganisms: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp. 843. Choose obligate anaerobes among these microbes: A. Bacillus anthracis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. *Bacteroides spp. D. Rickettsia spp. E. Corynebacterium spp. 844. Choose obligate anaerobes: A. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum B. Escherichia coli C. Salmonella typhi D. Proteus vulgaris E. Brucella melitensis 845. Choose the components of Ressel’s medium: A. *semi-solid agar, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator of WR (water blue and rosolic 846. 847. 848. 849. 850. 851. 852. acid) B. MPB, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic acid) C. MPB, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator fuchsine D. semi-solid agar, lactose (1 %), maltose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic acid) E. semi-solid agar, mannitol (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic acid) Choose the method of inoculation of bacteria, based on mechanical principle? A. Ru’s method B. Gram’s method C. Inoculation by a needle D. *Drigalsky’s method E. Morozov’s method Colonies of bacteria that grow on solid nutrient media can differentiate according to: A. consistencies B. density C. color D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong Cultural identification is examination of bacterial species according to: A. *character of growth B. character of staining C. enzyme activity D. all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong Cultural properties – there are: A. character of bacterial staining B. *character of growth of bacteria on/in nutrient medium C. character of biological features of bacteria D. all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong Differential diagnostic media are used for: A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility of bacteria B. Accumulations of microbial biomass C. Examination of microorganisms pathogenicity D. Studies of antigen structure of microorganisms E. *Examination of bacteria enzyme activity During examination of peptolytic properties what products are checked in a nutrient medium: A. Carbonic acids and waters B. Glucose and lactose C. Carbonic acid and nitrogen D. Mannitol and methanol E. *Indole and hydrogen sulfide Final products of carbonhydrates utilization: sediment in test tube *acid, or acid + gas pellicle on the surface of nutrient medium all answer are correct absence of changes For diagnosis of what diseases biological identification is most important? A. Tuberculosis B. Botulism C. Tetanus D. Salmonellosis E. *All answers are correct For examination of saccharolytic properties of bacteria we can use such medium: A. Veinberg’s medium B. Zeissler’s medium C. *Giss’ media D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium E. Milk For inoculation of microbes according to Drigalsky’s method we can use: A. Bacteriological loop B. *Spatula C. Bacteriological needle D. Jar E. All answers are correct For inoculation of microbes by streak’s technique we can use: A. *Bacteriological loop B. Spatula C. Bacteriological needle D. All answers are wrong E. All answers are correct For mechanical separation of bacteria is not used such method: A. Pasteur’s serial dilution B. Koch’s method C. Drigalsky’s method D. Streak’s method E. *Leffler’s method For obtaining the isolated colonies of aerobic bacteria tested material is inoculated: A. *on solid nutrient media B. in liquid nutrient media C. in laboratory animals D. in chicken embryo E. in cell cultures For what purpose does microbiologist carry out identification of pure cultures? A. For cognition B. For treatment C. *For diagnostic D. For prophylactic E. For anamnesis Free oxygen is toxic for bacteria, because it: A. kills a bacterium B. *detains their growth C. halts spore formation D. inhibit toxins production E. inhibit enzymes production A. B. C. D. E. 853. 854. 855. 856. 857. 858. 859. 860. 861. Genetic identification is examination of bacterial species according to: A. allergic tests B. biotests in animals C. *polymerase chain reaction D. phage typing E. examination of bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics 862. How can we use this test-system? A. for control of sterilization in a heat oven B. *for control of sterilization by autoclaving C. for control of mechanical sterilization D. for control of sterilization by gas method E. for control of sterilization by ultraviolet rays 863. How is it possible to carry out control of sterility of nutrient media after their preparing? A. By keeping in incubator at 37 °С for a few hours. B. By keeping in incubator at a temperature 42 °С for a few hours C. By keeping at 18-20 °С. For a few hours D. *By keeping in incubator for a few days at 37 °С. E. Right answer is not present 864. How is it possible to separate microorganisms according to their motility? A. To inoculate tested material on the upper part of slant agar B. *To inoculate tested material in the drop of fluid in the lower part of slant agar C. To do inoculation of tested material by a prick in the slant agar D. To separate microorganisms is impossible E. To add to the tested material some substance which cause coagulation flagella protein 865. How is it possible to verify motility of bacteria that form a colony? A. *By wet-mount technique B. By Grey’s technique C. Staining according to Zdrodovsky’s technique D. By scanning microscope E. By radioisotope method 866. How is it possible to verify the motility of bacteria which form colony? A. Staining according to Leffler’s technique B. Staining according to Gram’s technique C. *By «hanging» drop technique D. By electron microscope E. By «lying» drop technique 867. In the process of pure culture identification the most value has: A. Morphological identification B. Biological identification C. Biochemical identification D. Serological E. *All answer are correct 868. In what color does rezazurin stain nutrient medium if its redox potential increases? A. Yellow B. Green C. Brown D. Dark blue E. *Pink 869. Indicate molecular-genetic methods that can be utilized for identification of bacteria A. Reactions of hybridization of DNK and RNK (reaction of gene probes) B. Polymerase chain reaction C. Immunofluorescence test D. *Right answers A and B E. Right answers A, B and C 870. Indicate among these microbes obligate anaerobic bacteria: A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp. B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp. C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae 871. Indicate composition of semi-solid Giss’s media A. *MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), 872. 873. 874. 875. 876. 877. indicators water blue with rosolic acid) B. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), indicator Andrede C. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an indicator diamond green D. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), indicator – complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate E. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an indicator phenol red Indicate obligate anaerobic microorganisms: A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp. B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp. C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae Indicate the basic components of Ploskirev’s medium. A. MPB, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. B. MPA, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. C. MPB, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. D. *MPA, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. E. MPA, glucose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red. Indicate the capneic bacteria: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. *Brucella abortus C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Lactobacillus spp. E. Clostridium perfringens Indicate the composition of blood agar. A. *MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals B. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator bromthymol blue C. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator fuchsine D. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator neutral red E. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator eosin Indicate the composition of Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for cultivation of anaerobes: A. MPA, pieces of liver or meat B. MPB, yolk, medium is covered with vaseline oil C. *Hottinger’s broth, pieces of liver or meat, glucose, medium is covered with vaseline oil D. Hottinger’s broth, pieces of brain tissues E. Serum broth, pieces of liver or meat, , medium is covered with vaseline oil Indicate the composition of liquid Giss’ media A. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator bromthymol dark blue B. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator eosin C. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator is methylene blue D. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), an indicator neutral red E. *1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol and other), indicator of Andrede 878. Indicate the composition of Olkenitsky’s medium? A. MPA, lactose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red B. MPA, saccharose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red C. MPA, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red D. MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate, an indicator is phenol red E. *MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), 879. 880. 881. 882. 883. sodium thiosulphate, urea, and an indicator is phenol red. Indicate the correct sequence of the stages of isolation of pure culture of aerobes. A. *Microscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient medium for obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining the pure culture > identification > conclusion B. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on the slant agar for the obtaining the isolated colonies > obtaining the pure culture > identification > conclusion C. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation in MPB for the obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining the pure culture > identification > conclusion D. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient medium for the obtaining the isolated colonies > identification > conclusion E. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient medium for obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining a pure culture > identification Indicate the growth signs of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium: A. formation of diffuse turbidity B. formation of pellicle C. formation of sediment D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong Indicate the necessary components of Levin’s medium: A. MPB, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin . B. MPA, saccharose, indicators methylene blue, eosin. C. MPB, saccharose, indicators methylene dark, eosin. D. *MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin. E. MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, fuchsine. ?Indicate vitamins necessary for bacterial growth: A. Biotin B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong It is necessary to choose the medium for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria: A. Endo’s and Levin’s media B. Meat-peptone agar, meat-peptone broth C. *Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar, Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium D. Coagulated serum, мeat-peptone gelatin E. Ascitic agar, serum agar 884. It is necessary to study peptolytic properties of bacteria. Choose proper nutrient medium: A. Meat-peptone agar B. Sugar MPA C. Coagulated serum D. *Meat-peptone broth E. gelatin 885. Make an example of aerotolerant bacteria A. *Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus viridans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 886. Non-inoculated Endo’s medium has color: A. bright red B. *poorly-rose C. yellow D. greenish E. colorless 887. Peculiarities of S-colonies of bacteria: A. *smooth, convex surface B. gyrose surface C. fibred consistency D. edges are rosette-like E. have capsules 888. Serological identification is examination of bacterial species by: A. Bacteria staining B. *agglutinating sera C. laboratory animals D. biochemical signs E. character of growth on/in nutrient media 889. Special nutrient medium is: A. Blood agar B. Serum agar C. Ascitic agar D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong 890. Such groups of bacteria are existed according to their respiration: A. capneic B. microaerophils C. anaerobes D. aerobes E. *all of them 891. Such nutrient media belong to universal ones: A. *MPB and MPA B. Mannitol salt agar Levin’s medium C. Serum MPA and 1% alkaline peptone water D. Endo’ medium and blood agar E. Ploskirev’s medium and serum broth 892. Temperature optimum for mesophilic bacteria: A. 10-15 1C 20-30 2C *30-37 3С 40-50 4C 50-60 5C That is a reason of toxic action of molecular oxygen for bacteria? A. formation of singlet oxygen B. formation of hydrogen peroxide C. formation of ozone D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong The first stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobes is: A. Inoculation of material in the melted sugar agar B. *Inoculation of material in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium C. Inoculation of material in a coagulated serum D. Inoculation of material on the Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar E. Inoculation of material on Endo’s medium The second stage of isolation of pure culture of aerobes is: A. Macroscopic examination of material and its inoculation in liquid nutrient medium B. Macro- and microscopic verification of culture purity C. Serological identification D. *Macro- and microscopic study of colonies and their inoculation them on slant agar E. Biochemical identification The structure of colonies can be examined by such method: A. *In the passing light, small objective of microscope B. In an electronic microscope C. By a "hanging" drop technique D. In a phase-contrast microscope E. By the immersion system of microscope There are such components of Endo’s medium: A. *MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsine B. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsine C. MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin D. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin E. MPA, 5 % lactose, indicator bromthymol blue There are such demands to the nutrient media, EXCEPT: A. presence of nutrients B. sterility C. *certain color D. certain viscidity E. transparency Tinctorial properties of bacteria – there is: A. character of growth B. *character of bacterial staining C. presence of flagella D. antigen properties E. all answers are correct To the universal nutrient media belong: A. serum MPA and serum MPB. B. Endo’s medium and Ploskirev’s medium C. *MPA and MPB D. Blood MPA and TCBS medium E. Yolk salt agar and ascitic agar What are cultural properties of microorganisms? B. C. D. E. 893. 894. 895. 896. 897. 898. 899. 900. 901. Features of bacterial staining Features of growth of bacteria in the column of agar Features of chemical composition of bacteria *Features of bacterial growth on/in nutrient media It is a manifestation of tinctorial signs What are feature of inoculation of anaerobes by Veinberg’s technique? A. *Dilute material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium in tubes with melted sugar meat-peptone agar, their cultivation then B. Dilute material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium in tubes with MPB, their cultivation then C. Dilute material from 1 % alkaline peptone water in tubes with melted sugar MPA, their cultivation then D. Dilute material from 1 % alkaline peptone water in tubes with MPB, their cultivation then E. Transfer material in a test tube with melted sugar MPA, its cultivate then What are features of І stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobes? A. Macroscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium and milk B. Microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium and milk C. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation on the slant agar and in milk D. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in MPB and on MPA E. *Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in the KittTarozzi’s medium and milk What bacteria do belong to obligate anaerobes? A. *Clostridium septicum, Bacteroides fragilis B. Salmonella schottmuelleri C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Proteus rettgeri E. Francisella tularensis What bacterial properties could we check by Erlich’s reagent? A. Hydrogen sulfide production B. *Indole production C. Ammonium production D. Carbon dioxide production E. Hydrogen production What basic principles are used for isolation of pure cultures? A. Isolation and analysis B. Physical and chemical C. Biochemical and serum D. Quantitative and qualitative E. *Mechanical and biological What biological properties are not taken into consideration for pure culture isolation? A. Type of respiration B. Motility C. Spore formation D. *Type of reproduction E. Acid resistance What changes do appear in Ressel’s medium when microbes produce gas? A. Discoloration of column of agar B. Discoloration of the slant surface of agar C. Appearance of gas bubbles D. Appearance of breaks in the column of agar A. B. C. D. E. 902. 903. 904. 905. 906. 907. 908. E. *Right answers C and D 909. What changes may be observed Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium after inoculation of tested material? A. Turbidity B. Formation of sediment C. Formation of gas D. Right answers A and C E. *Right answers A, B, C 910. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have? A. dark blue B. colorless C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. *rose 911. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have? A. dark blue B. *colorless C. rose D. brown E. green 912. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have? A. *dark blue B. colorless C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 913. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have? A. dark blue B. colorless C. *rose D. brown E. green 914. What color does a simple medium – MPA– have? A. red B. *yellow C. greenish D. violet E. dark blue 915. What color does a simple medium – MPB– have? A. red B. dark blue C. greenish D. violet E. *yellow 916. What color does no inoculated Levin’s medium have? A. bright red B. poorly-rose C. yellow D. greenish E. *violet 917. What color does non-inoculated Olkenitsky’s medium have? A. bright red B. *pink C. yellow D. greenish E. violet 918. What color does noninoculated Ressel’s medium have? A. bright red B. *pinky C. yellow D. greenish E. violet 919. What color does the methylene blue stain nutrient medium if its redox potential increases? A. Yellow B. Green C. Brown D. *Blue E. Pink 920. What color has Erlich’s reagent for detection of indole production? A. Violet, blue-violet B. Green C. *Pink D. Brown E. Yellow 921. What color is acquired by Giss’ media, if microbes utilize sugars? A. *red B. green C. violet D. brown E. a color does not change 922. What component is added into the nutrient media for examination of decarboxilase activity of 923. 924. 925. 926. bacteria? A. Proteins B. Peptones C. *Amino acids D. Lipids E. Carbohydrates What do we do when begin the ІІІ stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes? A. Examination of biochemical properties of bacteria B. Examination of serologic properties of bacteria C. Examination of bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics D. Examination of colicinogenic properties of bacteria E. *Verification of culture purity What dyes can inhibit bacterial growth: A. Brilliant green B. Rivanol C. Acriflavin D. none of them. E. *all of them What enzyme of aerobic bacteria can stop the harmful effect of hydrogen peroxide? A. lipase B. protease C. hydrolase D. *catalase E. urease What finished products do appear in the liquid Giss’ media after decomposition of sugars? A. acid alkali gas *acid and gas fixing the finished goods is not succeeded What finished products do appear in the semi-solid Giss’ media after sugar utilization? A. acid B. alkali C. gas D. *acid and gas E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded What from the listed methods, based on principle of mechanical separation of bacteria, is most perfect? A. Pasteur’ technique B. Koch’ technique C. *Drigalsky’s technique D. Inoculation by a loop E. Inoculation by a needle What group of nutrient media does Ressel’s medium belong to? A. Universal B. Liquid C. Selective D. Elective E. *Differential-diagnostic What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen? A. Andrede B. Neutral red C. *Phenol red D. Bromthymol blue E. Thymol blue What is a chemical origin of gelatin? A. Polysaccharides B. Lipids C. *Proteins D. Carbohydrates E. Amino acids What is a name of standard agglutination test for examination of bacterial antigens? A. Kuns’s test B. Kumbs’s test C. Ouchterloni’s test D. Manchini’s test E. *Gruber’s test What is a sign of bacterial proteolytic properties in milk? A. Formation of diffuse turbidity B. Formation of pellicle C. *Dissolution of casein clot D. Formation of sediment E. Formation of pellicle and turbidity What is a sign of proteolytic properties of bacteria in a column gelatin? A. Formation of diffuse turbidity B. Formation of pellicle C. Dissolution of casein clot D. Formation of sediment E. *Gelatin liquefacience B. C. D. E. 927. 928. 929. 930. 931. 932. 933. 934. 935. What is a tinctorial property of microbes? A. Features of antigen composition of bacteria B. Features of chemical composition of bacteria C. *Features of bacterial staining D. Features of susceptibility to phages E. Features of manifestation of antibiotics susceptibility 936. What is an essence of isolation of anaerobes pure cultures according to Zeissler’s technique? A. Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in test tubes with a sugar- blood agar by bacteriological loop, then they are placed in the jar and incubator B. Material from the Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently on MPA in by a spatula, then they are placed in the jar and in a thermostat C. Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently on serum agar by a spatula, then it is placed in the jar and in a thermostat D. *Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in the Petry’s plates with sugar-blood agar by a spatula, then they are placed in the jar and in the thermostat E. Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in test tubes with serum broth 937. 938. 939. 940. 941. 942. by a loop, then they are placed in the jar and in a thermostat What is an essence of Koch’s technique for isolation of pure cultures? A. *Use of solid nutrient media (gelatin) for obtaining the isolated colonies B. Use of liquid nutrient media for obtaining the isolated colonies C. Use of blood agar for examination of hemolysines types D. Use of solid nutrient media for examination of antibiotics susceptibility E. Use liquid nutrient media for examination of antibiotics susceptibility What is an essence of Pasteur’s technique for isolation of pure cultures? A. Dilution of tested material in gelatin B. *Dilution of tested material in a liquid nutrient medium C. Dilution of tested material in MPA D. Dilution of tested material in the AGV nutrient medium E. Dilution of tested material in a solid nutrient medium What is an essence of ІV stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobic bacteria? A. Inoculation of colonies on the proper nutrient medium B. Examination of tinctorial properties of bacteria C. *Checking the culture purity and its identification D. Examination of serologic features of bacteria which form colonies by precipitation test E. Right answer is absent What is bacterial colony? A. Medium which is inoculated with bacteria, where different microorganisms grow B. Growth of microbes of one species on different nutrient medium C. *Macroscopically visible growth of microbes (posterity of one bacterial cell) on a solid nutrient medium D. Visible growth of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium E. Visible growth of bacteria on the slant meat-peptone agar What is biochemical identification of bacteria? A. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to produce dehydrogenases B. *Verification of bacteria according to their biochemical properties C. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to produce hemolysines D. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties E. Verification of bacteria according to their reduce properties What is biological identification of bacteria? A. *Verification of bacteria according to changes which they cause in the organism of laboratory animals B. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties C. Verification of bacteria according to their biochemical properties D. Verification of bacteria according to their antigen properties E. Verification of bacteria according to their cultural properties 943. What is cultural identification of bacteria? A. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form S- and R-forms of colonies C. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to form slime layer D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to produce hydrogen sulfide E. *Verification of bacteria according to their features of growth on/in nutrient media 944. What is essence of ІІІ stage of isolation of aerobes? A. verification of culture purity B. inoculation of Giss’ media , slide agglutination C. examination of the antibiotics susceptibility D. Phage typing E. *all answers are correct 945. What is it necessary to do during the second stage of isolation of pure culture of aerobes? A. Study the features of colonies B. Make a smear from colonies C. Inoculation onto slant agar D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are not correct 946. What is morphological identification? A. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form a capsule B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form flagella C. *Verification of bacteria according to their morphological signs D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to spore formation E. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to transform into L-forms 947. What is serologic identification of bacteria? A. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to form of lipopolysaccharide B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to producе bacteriocines C. *Verification of bacteria according to their antigen properties D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to produce antibodies E. Right answer is not present 948. What is serological identification? A. Examination of bacterial species according to biochemical properties B. Examination of bacterial species according to ability to utilize a coagulated serum C. *Examination of bacterial species according to their antigen structure D. Examination of bacterial species according to ability to reduce some dyes E. Examination of bacterial species according to gene composition of bacterial nucleoid 949. What is strain? A. *Microbes of the only species isolated from different sources, or from the same source, but at different times B. Microbes of different species isolated from different sources C. Microbes of different species isolated from the only source D. Microbes of different species isolated in different times E. Microbes of different species isolated from different sources, or from the same source, but in different times 950. What is the essence of ІІІ stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes? A. Examination the isolated colonies B. Examination bacterial growth in the column of agar C. Bacterial phage typing D. *Identifications of the unknown bacteria E. Examination of ability for bacteriocine production 951. What is the main idea of ІІІ stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobic bacteria? A. Examination of features of pure culture and its identification B. *Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them , inoculation of colonies 952. 953. 954. 955. 956. 957. 958. 959. into Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for obtaining the pure culture C. Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them, inoculation of colonies on slant MPA for obtaining the pure culture D. Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them, inoculation of colonies in MPB for obtaining the pure culture E. Examination of features of colonies, inoculation of colonies in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for obtaining the pure culture What laboratory animals are most often utilized for biological identification? A. Guinea pigs B. White mice C. White rats D. *All answers are correct E. Right answer is not present What laboratory animals are very susceptible to Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. White rats B. *Guinean pigs C. Rabbits D. Syrian hamsters E. White mice What laboratory animals are very susceptible to Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. White rats B. Guinean pigs C. Rabbits D. Syrian hamsters E. *White mice What main idea of the first stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes? A. To study tested material B. To choose nutrient medium for inoculation C. *To obtain the isolated colonies D. To study the morphological features of possible causative agent E. To study the antigen features of causative agent What medium is it possible to use for checking the utilization of a few sugars? A. Ru’s medium B. Leffler’s medium C. *Giss’ media D. Ploskirev’s medium E. End’s medium What methods of isolation of pure cultures, based on mechanical principle do you know ? A. Pasteur’s method B. Koch’s method C. Streak’s method D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are incorrect What methods of isolation of pure cultures, based on mechanical principle do you know ? A. Leffler’s method B. Grey’s method C. *Streak’s method D. Buchin’s method E. Nemchinov’s method What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes? A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae *Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi Brucella abortus Lactobacillus acidophilus What microbes have ability to penetrate through normal skin? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Shigella flexneri C. Salmonella patience D. *Yersinia pestis E. Streptococcus pyogenes What microorganisms do have a tendency to superficial growth? A. Obligate anaerobes B. Capneic bacteria C. *Obligate aerobes D. Microaerophilic bacteria E. Facultative anaerobes What modern test-systems are utilized for identification of bacteria? A. “Roche” B. “API” C. “Enterotest” D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong What nutrient medium is it possible to use for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties? A. *Gelatin B. Olkenitsky’s medium C. MPB D. Endo’s medium E. Levenshtein-Yensen’s medium What nutrient medium is it possible to use for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties? A. Endo’s medium B. Olkenitsky’s medium C. MPB D. *Milk E. Levenshtein-Yensen’s medium What properties of bacteria are utilized for identification of anaerobic bacteria? A. Morphological B. Signs of growth in/on nutrient media C. Biochemical D. Toxigenic E. *All answers are correct What properties of colonies do we study first? A. Shape, color B. Character of edges C. Character of surface of colonies D. A right answer is not present E. *All answers are correct What reaction can be utilized for examination of toxigenic properties of microbes? A. Agglutination test B. Complement fixation test C. *Precipitation test D. Gruber’s test E. Indirect hemagglutination test What signs of hemolytic activity of bacteria are present on blood MPA? B. C. D. E. 960. 961. 962. 963. 964. 965. 966. 967. 968. appearance of areas of darkening on a mat red background the changes of medium color appearance of bright red colonies of microbes, if they cause haemolysis *appearance of colorless areas surround the colonies on mat red background if the have hemolytic activity E. appearance of colorless colonies What substrate is utilized for providing the necessary density of nutrient medium? A. proteins B. lipids C. *agar-agar D. carbohydrates E. there is no correct answer What substrate must be added into nutrient medium for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties? A. agarose B. *gelatin C. agar-agar D. all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong What technique does belong to the biological method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. *Joint cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and Serratia marcescens, which utilizes an oxygen intensively B. Cultivation of anaerobes in the organism of laboratory animals C. Cultivation of anaerobes in the chicken embryos D. All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong What technique does belong to the chemical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box B. application of pyrogallol on the bottom of the jar C. use the high column of nutrient medium D. introduction of pieces of liver or muscles and vitamin K3 as supplement in the medium E. *right answer A, B, D What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil C. use the high column of nutrient medium D. *right answers B and C. E. right answers A, B and C What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil C. use the high column of nutrient medium D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation E. a right answer is not present What type of bacterial growth near the inner part of tube wall is there may be? A. formation of flakes, fastened to the inner wall of test tube B. by diffuse turbidity C. formation of grains, fastened on the inner wall of test tube. D. formation of pellicle on the surface of medium E. *right answers A and C What type of sediment may be formed by microbes in liquid nutrient media? A. Crumble-like B. homogeneous A. B. C. D. 969. 970. 971. 972. 973. 974. 975. 976. C. viscid D. mucous E. *all answers are correct 977. What vitamins are necessary for development of bacteria? A. pantothenic acid B. Cholin C. nicotine acid D. *all answers are correct E. all answers of incorrect 978. Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis? A. I. Mechnikov B. S. Vinogradsky C. *L. Pasteur D. R. Koch E. E. Ru 979. Why do we use Vinyal-Veyon’s tubes? A. *For cultivation of anaerobes according to Veinberg’s technique B. For cultivation of anaerobes according to Zeissler’s technique C. For cultivation of aerobes according to Ziehl–Neelsen’s technique D. For cultivation of aerobes according to Leffler’s technique E. In bacteriology they are not used 980. Why is it necessary to identify the pure cultures of bacteria? A. for prescribing the treatment B. *for revealing the etiological factor illness C. for prophylaxis D. for examination of phages susceptibility E. for examination of antibiotics susceptibility 981. ______ is probably the most important characteristic for classification of viruses in eucaryotes. A. Host preference B. Morphology C. Physical nature of virion constituents D. *Chemical nature of virion constituents E. Genetic relatedness 982. A viral particle can exist in different forms. What is provirus? A. predecessor of virus B. *virus, which is integrated into a cellular chromosome C. vegetative form of virus D. bacteriophge in cell cytoplasm E. virus in the cell wall 983. A/an _______ is specifically able to have a long-term relationship with the host known as lysogeny. A. *Temperate virus B. Adsorbed virus C. Virion D. RNA phage E. DNA phage 984. According to Appelman’s technique for phages titration the titer of phages is: A. *its maximal dilution, which causes the complete lysis of bacteria B. its minimum dilution, which causes the complete lysis of bacteria C. its minimum dilution, which causes the incomplete lysis of bacteria D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 985. According to mechanism of action phages are divided into: inert *virulent and moderate toxic All answers are correct No correct answer According to the specifity of action there may be such phages: A. polyvalent phages B. monophages C. type specific phages D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer After carrying the phages in agar bacterial culture _____ are arisen. A. *negative colonies (plaques) B. protuberant colonies C. turbid colonies D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer After infection of cell culture with viruses we can detect them there by: A. a cytopathic effect B. hemadsorption test C. plaques formation test D. changes of indicator color E. *All answers are correct After reproduction of phages in bacterial culture in liquid nutrient medium there will be: A. *formation of transparent liquid nutrient medium B. turbidity in the liquid nutrient medium C. formation of sediment D. formation of film on the surface of liquid nutrient medium E. All answers are correct All cell cultures belong to the continuous cell lines, except: A. HeLa. B. Carcinoma of oral cavity (KB). C. *Fibroblasts of chicken embryos. D. Detroit-6. E. Hep-2. All DNA-containing viruses have no envelope, except: A. Adenoviruses B. *Herpesviruses C. Parvoviruses D. Papovaviruses E. All answers are correct All of the following viral genomes are replicated in the cytoplasm EXCEPT: A. poxviruses B. reoviruses C. picornaviruses D. *herpesviruses E. paramyxoviruses All of the following viruses are replicated in the nucleus EXCEPT: A. *poxviruses B. papovaviruses C. adenoviruses D. herpesviruses E. parvoviruses A. B. C. D. E. 986. 987. 988. 989. 990. 991. 992. 993. 994. All of the following viruses contain lipid EXCEPT: A. herpesviruses B. *papillomaviruses C. poxviruses D. togaviruses E. paramyxoviruses 995. All of viruses are divided according to their shape. What viruses do have cuboidal shape? A. Ebola viruses B. Epidemic parotitis viruses C. *Cow pox virus D. Parainfluenza virus E. Poliovirus 996. All of viruses depending on their properties classify on certain groups. What signs are the basis of 997. 998. 999. 1000. 1001. 1002. classification? A. Susceptibility to physical and chemical agents B. Natural method of transmission C. Host, tissue, and cell tropism D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer All of viruses depending on their properties classify on certain groups. What signs are the basis of classification? A. type of nucleic acid B. presence of specific enzymes C. type of viral symmetry D. Presence or absence of envelope E. *All answers are correct All viruses belong to complex ones, except: A. Herpesviruses B. Flu viruses C. Small pox viruses D. *Polioviruses E. HIV All viruses belong to simple ones, except for: A. Polioviruses B. Papillomaviruses C. Polyomaviruses D. Adenoviruses E. *Herpesviruses All viruses may do any of the following but not A. Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis B. Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis C. Inhibit host cell protein synthesis D. *Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis E. Degrade host cell DNA An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? A. penetration B. lysis C. synthesis D. *release E. assembly An indication of viruses there is: A. Examination of viral families B. Examination of viral genes C. Examination of viral species D. Examination of viral serovar E. *Examination of viral presence in tested material 1003. Areas of dead host cells evident on an agar plate are: A. pocks B. cytopathic effects C. cell lines D. *plaques E. primary cell cultures 1004. Bacteriophage, which is integrated in bacterial chromosome is called: A. interphage B. lysophage C. *prophage D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1005. Bacteriophages are resistant to the action of: A. high pressure B. X-rays C. ionizing a radiation D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1006. Bacteriophages are susceptible to: A. boiling B. ultraviolet rays C. disinfectant solutions D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1007. Bacteriophages can be found in the: A. soil and water B. sewage C. in excretions of people D. in excretions of animals E. *All answers are correct 1008. Bacteriophages cause lytic action against the cells a bacterium. This type of action is: A. *obligate specific B. quite heterospecific C. conditionally specific D. preferentially specific E. No correct answer 1009. Bacteriophages consist of various chemicals. Chemical composition of phages is presented: A. DNA (RNA) B. Proteins C. Lipids D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1010. Bacteriophages exist anywhere, where are corresponding ____ : A. *bacteria B. viruses C. viroids D. prions E. transposones 1011. Choose among listed combinations components for making haemagglutination test: A. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte Viral material, sheep’s white cells, electrolyte Antiviral antibodies, antigen, red cells, electrolyte Patient’s serum, viral diagnosticum, electrolyte Viral diagnosticum, specific serum, chicken red cells, electrolyte Choose among listed viruses causative agents, which have a spherical shape: A. Tobacco mosaic disease viruses B. Poxviruses C. Rhabdoviruses D. *Influenza viruses E. Ebola virus Choose among the listed viruses causative agents, which have envelope: A. Adenoviruses B. Polioviruses C. *Herpeviruses D. ECHO-viruses E. Hepatitis A viruses Choose the components, which are present in viral genome: A. *nucleic acids B. fatty acids C. teichoic acids D. proteins E. No correct answer Choose the correct interpretation of disjunctive way of viral reproduction: A. *the synthesis of viral genome and viral proteins are interrupted in the space and time B. synchronous doubling of RNA or DNA of virus C. reproduction of virus goes simultaneously with reproduction of host cells D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer Choose the discoverer of viruses from the listed scientists.: A. F. d’Herelle B. *D. Ivanovsky C. F. Loeffler D. R. Koch E. W. Reed Choose three initial stages of reproduction of viruses in a cell: A. attachment, synthesis of protein, penetration B. *attachment, penetration, uncoating C. replication, assembly, virogeny D. deproteinization, release from a cell, assembly E. synthesis of nucleic acids, assembly, virogeny Degenerative changes in the cell culture under the influence of viruses are called: A. Cytotoxic action B. *Cytopathic action C. Hystotoxic action D. Hemolytic action E. Proliferative action Degenerative changes in the cell cultures under the action of viruses have name: A. Histotoxic action B. Cytotoxic action C. *Cytopathic action D. Hemolytic action E. All answers are correct During lysogeny there is: B. C. D. E. 1012. 1013. 1014. 1015. 1016. 1017. 1018. 1019. 1020. complete lysis of bacteria deletion of phage from bacteria *integration of phage genome in the cell genome All answers are correct No correct answer During phage conversion properties of ________ are changed: A. *bacteria B. phages C. both bacteria and phages D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer During reproduction stages the viruses is covered with envelope. The origin of it is: A. viral B. from the cells of macroorganism C. bacterial D. *partially viral and partly host’s cell E. No correct answer During what stage of reproduction does virus get an envelope? A. penetration B. synthesis of protein C. uncoating D. assembly E. *release from the cell Early methods of diagnosis of viral diseases are used for examination of: A. presence of antibodies B. toxin production C. *family and species of viruses D. increase of antibodies titer in the patient’s serum E. All answers are correct Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with material from _______ lesions. A. Smallpox B. Avianpox C. *Cowpox D. Chickenpox E. Dogpox Enveloped viruses have a ______ shape A. Icosahedral B. Helical C. Hexagonal D. *Roughly spherical E. Complex Find a method by which it is possible to find the presence of virus in the infected cell cultures? A. cytopathic action B. ability of red cells to adsorb on the cell membrane of infected cells C. examination of viral of viral proteins in the monolayer of the infected cells with immunofluorescence test D. use of an electron microscopy E. *All answers are correct Find the most favorite type of packing of capsomeres in a nucleocapsid: A. hexahedral B. octahedral C. pehtahedral D. *icosahedral A. B. C. D. E. 1021. 1022. 1023. 1024. 1025. 1026. 1027. 1028. E. All answers are сorrect 1029. For an isolation and identification of viruses such animals are utilized: A. suckling mice B. ferrets C. rabbits D. monkeys E. *all answers are correct 1030. For cultivating of viruses continuous cell cultures are used. Specify the origin of KB cell culture: A. *Carcinoma of oral cavity B. Carcinoma of human larynx C. Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus D. Kaposi’s sarcoma E. Myelogenic cells 1031. For cultivating of viruses virologist utilize the cell cultures. What is continuous cell line? A. RD B. Vero C. Hep-2 D. HeLa E. *All answers are correct 1032. For establishment of type of virus, which causes disease such test is utilized: A. Agglutination test B. Indirect haemagglutination test C. *Hemagglutination inhibition test D. Haemagglutination test E. Hemadsorption test 1033. For examination of phage titer in liquid nutrient medium such method is utilized: A. Gracia B. *Appelman C. Pasteur D. Koch E. Zdrodovsky 1034. For examination of phages titer in agar such method may be used: A. Appelman’s B. *Gracia’s C. Pasteur’s D. Koch’s E. Zdrodovsky’s 1035. For isolation of neurotropic viruses it is necessary to make _______ inoculation: A. enteral B. intravenous C. *intracerebral D. intranasal E. intramuscular 1036. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used: A. Latex-agglutination test B. CFT C. *Hemadsorbtion test D. Coagglutination test E. Agglutination test 1037. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used: A. Latex-agglutination test B. *Haemagglutination test C. Ring precipitation test D. Coagglutination test E. Agglutination test 1038. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used: A. *Inoculation of laboratory animal B. CFT C. IHAT D. Coagglutination test E. Agglutination test 1039. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used: A. Latex-agglutination test B. CFT C. Coagglutination test D. *Inoculation of chicken embryos E. Agglutination test 1040. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used: A. Latex-agglutination test B. CFT C. Indirect haemagglutination test D. Coagglutination test E. *Inoculation of cell culture 1041. For the isolation of viruses in chicken we can inject the tested material into/on: A. Chorioallantoic membrane B. Amniotic cavity C. Allantoic cavity D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1042. Hemadsorption test is used in virology. It is necessary to have such ingredients for this test: A. Antiviral antibodies, cell cultures, red cells B. Sheep’s red cells, virus, cell cultures C. Cell cultures, antiviral antibodies, electrolyte D. *Virus, cell cultures, chicken red cells, electrolyte E. Red cells, viral diagnosticum, cell cultures 1043. Holes produced in bacterial “lawns” by viruses are called A. Colonies B. *Plaques C. Patches D. Lysis E. Clearance 1044. How are viruses divided depending on a presence of nucleic acids in their genome? A. simple and complex ones B. *RNA- and DNA-containing ones C. pathogenic and non-pathogenic ones D. icosahedral and spiral ones E. rod-shaped and spherical ones 1045. How to examine the number of bacteriophages in the tested material? A. *By titration according to Gracia’s or Appelman’s technique B. Neutralization test or IFT C. Haemagglutination test or haemadsorption test D. CFT or ELISA E. Haemagglutination inhibition test or haemadsorption inhibition test 1046. Icosachedral viruses have ……… sides A. 6 B. 10 C. 12 D. *20 E. 48 1047. Immunologic tests, which need the presence of antibodies, are utilized in virology for: A. Examination of antibodies titer in paired patient’s sera B. Examination of unknown viruses C. Examination of antiviral antibodies D. Identification of virus E. *All answers are correct 1048. In a sick woman the doctor suspected measles. What family does Measles virus belong to? A. *Paramyxoviridae B. Orthomyxoviridae C. Rhabdoviridae D. Picornaviridae E. No correct answer 1049. In medicine bacteriophages may be used for: A. Phage indication B. Phage typing C. Phage therapy D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1050. In the cell culture there may be cytopathic effect under the influence of viruses. Show such effect: A. *Syncitium formation B. Protoplasts formation C. Heteroplasts formation D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1051. In the structure of some bacteriophages there may be such structural parts: A. hexagonal head B. shrunken sheath of the process C. basal plate with fibrils D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1052. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can directly disrupt cell structure. A. Procaryotes B. Chromosomal disruptions C. *Inclusion bodies D. Cytocidal bodies E. All of the above 1053. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can directly disrupt cell structure. A. Procaryotes B. Chromosomal disruptions C. *Inclusion bodies D. Cytocidal bodies E. All of the above 1054. Microbiologist can use bacteriophages in different direction, except: A. Treatment of illnesses. B. Prophylaxis of diseases. C. Indications of microorganisms. D. *Examination of phagocytosis activity. E. Bacteria typing. 1055. Morphology of viruses has certain features. The structural unit of capsid is: A. peplomere B. *capsomere C. haemagglutinin D. spikes E. neuramonidase 1056. Name the sources of primary cultures obtaining for cultivating of viruses. A. Kidneys of human embryo B. Kidneys of pig embryo C. Fibroblasts of chicken embryos D. Kidneys of monkeys E. *All answers are correct 1057. Parvovirus genome: A. dsDNA, small, complex symmetry B. *ssDNA, small, icosahedral symmetry C. ssDNA, small, helical symmetry D. ssRNA, large, helical symmetry E. dsRNA, middle-sized, icosahedral symmetry 1058. Phage conversion in bacteria may be accompanied by the changes of: A. Bacterial toxigenicity B. Bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics C. Bacterial enzyme activity D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1059. Phages can be isolated from the patients: A. at the beginning of illness B. at the middle of disease C. at the end of illness D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1060. Polymerases are encoded on the genomes of: A. all viruses B. all DNA viruses C. *all RNA viruses D. only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and Poxviruses) E. no viruses, because viruses do not encode polymerases 1061. Reproduction of viruses differs from bacteriophages reproduction by the following stage: A. adsorption B. *penetration C. release of viral particles from a cell D. the synthesis of nucleic acids E. uncoating 1062. Retrospective diagnostics of measles and mumps includes: A. *HIT with paire serums; B. CFT with pair serums; C. HIT with specific serums; D. rhinocytoscopy E. ELISA 1063. Revertase is encoded on the genomes of: A. all viruses B. all DNA viruses C. all RNA viruses D. *all retroviruses E. all bacteriophages 1064. RS virus causes: A. destruction of tissue culture B. *formation of syncytio in tissue cultures C. death of chicken embryo D. hemagglutination of red cells E. hemolysis. 1065. Show a mechanism of penetration of viruses in the host cell. A. phagоcytosis B. pinocytosis C. *endocytosis D. proteolisis E. All answers are correct 1066. Show function of viral capsid in naked viruses: A. protects the viral genome from the action of environmental factors B. provides the adsorption of virion on the surface of the cell C. provides penetration of viruses into the cell by cooperation with cell receptors D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1067. Show spermatozoid-shaped viruses: A. *Bacteriophages B. Influenza viruses C. Rhabdobiruses D. Herpesviruses E. Yellow fever viruses 1068. Show the components of haemadsorption test: A. Serum of patient, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte B. *Viral material, tissue culture, chicken red cells, electrolyte C. Specific antibodies, viral material, cell cultures, electrolyte D. Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte E. Cell cultures, sheep’s red cells, patient’s serum, electrolyte 1069. Show the method of cultivation of viruses. A. Special nutrient media B. In chicken embryos C. In laboratory animals D. In cell cultures E. *All answer are correct, except using of nutrient media 1070. Show the types of viral infections: A. latent B. persistence C. abortive D. productive E. *All answers are correct 1071. Show the viruses, which are susceptible to low concentration of hydrogen ions (acidic рН)? A. *Rhinoviruses B. Hepatitis A viruses C. Polyoviruses D. ECHO viruses E. Coxsackie viruses 1072. Show what is the structural unit of envelope in complex viruses? A. capsomere B. *peplomere C. spike D. lipid E. nucleic acid 1073. Show, which from these signs do form the basis of classification of viruses? A. presence of envelope B. contents of certain nucleic acid C. pathogenicity for human D. type of symmetry E. *All answers are correct 1074. Simple viruses contain a capsid only. Specify that is the morphologic unit of a capsid? A. *spike B. peplomere C. capsomere D. DNA E. RNA 1075. Some bacteriophages are tadpole-shaped. The head of phage contains ______ acid: A. olein B. *nucleic C. palmitic D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1076. Specify among listed viruses those ones, which have envelope: A. Hepatitis B viruses B. Flu viruses C. Measles viruses D. Herpesviruses E. *All answers are correct 1077. Specify the source of formation of Hep-2 cell culture:. A. Carcinoma of oral cavity B. *Carcinoma of human larynx C. Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus D. Kaposi’s sarcoma E. Myelogenic cells 1078. Specify what viral infections do have latent form? A. *Herpes B. Poliomyelitis C. Influenza D. Epidemic parotitis E. Rubella 1079. The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell receptor site. A. Pili B. Fimbriae C. Flagellae D. *Hemagluttinin E. Neuraminidase 1080. The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell receptor site. A. Pili B. Fimbriae C. Flagellae D. *Hemagluttinin E. Neuraminidase 1081. The appearance of a group of viruses under the light micoscope within cells is termed the : *inclusion viroid colony cytopathic effect plaque The characteristic cytophatologic effect (CPE) that viruses cause in cells include: A. vacuolation B. necrosis C. cell lysis D. syncytia formation E. *all of the above The chicken embryos are most frequently utilized for cultivation of viruses. Show the age of such ones: A. 1-7 days B. *5-14 days C. 5-6 weeks D. 7-8 weeks E. 9-10 days The cubic type of symmetry in viruses is characterized that capsomeres form . The most frequent polyhedron is: A. *polyhedron with 8 faces B. polyhedron with 16 faces C. polyhedron with 20 faces D. polyhedron with 32 faces E. No correct answers The enzyme that enhances the respiratory penetration on the orthomyxovirus is: A. hemagglutinin B. hemolysin C. lipoprotein D. *neuraminidase E. hyaluronidase The feature of viral genome is: A. *Presence of one type of nucleic acid B. Presence of two nucleic acids simultaneously C. Presence RNA “-“ and RNA”+” D. absence of nucleic acids E. No correct answer The following test determines the presence of infectious virus in a sample: A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) B. *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA) C. Neutralization Tests (NT) D. Complement Fixation Test (CF) E. ELISA The following test reveals the intracellular location of viral antigens: A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) B. *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA) C. Neutralization Tests (NT) D. Complement Fixation Test (CF) E. ELISA The following test uses a solid phase coated with antibody (or antigen) to capture antigen (or antibody) from the patient's specimen: A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) B. Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA) A. B. C. D. E. 1082. 1083. 1084. 1085. 1086. 1087. 1088. 1089. C. Neutralization Tests (NT) D. Complement Fixation Test (CF) E. *ELISA 1090. The function/s of a viral capsid is/are: A. it protects the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction. B. it provides binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell. C. it serves as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another. D. It consists of proteins E. *all of the above. 1091. The main component of all viruses is A. the envelope B. the polymerase C. the icosahedral capsid D. the lipid E. *the nucleic acid 1092. The main use of embryonated eggs in virology is the: A. detection of cytopathic effect B. production of interferon C. production of vaccines D. *observation of viral growth E. production of lysozym 1093. The most popular indirect method of counting virus particles is A. Microscopically B. By hemagglutination assay C. By plaque-assay D. *By counting plaque-forming units E. By colony counting 1094. The nucleocapsid refers to: A. *the complete viral particle B. the viral genetic material C. the viral proteins only D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins 1095. The nucleocapsid refers to: A. *the complete viral particle B. the viral genetic material C. the viral proteins only D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins 1096. The process by which phage reproduction is initiatied in lysogenized culture is called A. Infection B. Integration C. Repression D. *Induction E. Enhancement 1097. The protein coat that envelopes the viral genetic material is known as a: A. Virion B. Case C. Viroid D. *Capsid E. Spikes 1098. The release of animal viruses from their host occur in: assembly endocytosis maturation *exocytosis eclipse The replication of double-stranded DNA-containing viruses from: A. synthesis of мRNA B. synthesis of complementary thread of DNA C. *DNA despiralization D. synthesis of complementary thread of RNA E. synthesis of RNA molecule The replication of RNA-containing viruses, which have reverse transcriptase begin from synthesis of: A. mRNA B. *complementary DNA C. protein D. complementary RNA E. viral lipids The role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus? A. initiation and regulation of virus replication B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope The smallest known viruses are the: A. *Picornavirus B. Adenovirus C. Enterovirus D. Orthomyxovirus E. Paramyxovirus The smallest known viruses are the: A. *Picornavirus B. Adenovirus C. Enterovirus D. Orthomyxovirus E. Paramyxovirus The Smallpox viruses and Herpesviruses cause the formation on chorioallantoic membrane …: A. complete destruction of cells B. syncitium formation C. *plaque formation D. nuclei pyknosis E. stimulate cellular proliferation The stages of reproduction of viruses are divided into early and late. The last stages of reproduction of viruses is: A. attachment B. penetration C. *morphogenesis and release D. deproteinization E. synthesis of nucleic acids The titer of phages according to Gracia’s technique is determined: A. *by the number of plaques in agar, which is multiplied on the dilution of phages B. by the number of plaques, which appeared after Staphylococci inoculation C. by the number of plaques in agar, which is divided into dilution of phages A. B. C. D. E. 1099. 1100. 1101. 1102. 1103. 1104. 1105. 1106. D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1107. The viruses can have such shape: A. *spherical B. cone-shaped C. dumb-bell-shaped D. helical E. all answers are wrong 1108. The viruses have all properties, except: A. They are noncellular living system. B. *They contain DNA and RNA simultaneously. C. They have very small sizes. D. They have no their own system for protein synthesis and generation of energy E. They are obligate intracellular parasites. 1109. ?The viruses have some distinctive features from bacteria. Show the feature of viral pathogen? A. Viruses pass through bacterial filter B. They have one type of nucleic acid: or DNA or RNA C. They are resistant to antibacterial preparations D. They are obligate intracellular parasites E. *All answers are correct 1110. The way of laboratory animals inoculation for isolation of viruses depends on: A. the sizes of viruses B. the presence of envelope C. *the viral tropism D. the type of nucleic acid E. the presence of enzymes 1111. There are such viruses, which are included into Picornaviridae: A. *Polyoviruses B. Parainfluenza viruses C. Rubella viruses D. Hepatitis C E. Sindbis virus 1112. There are such serologic (late) methods of laboratory diagnosis of viral infection: A. *Complement fixation test with paired sera B. Neutralization test, color test C. Haemagglutination test with paired sera D. Hemadsorption test E. Indirect haemagglutination test, haemagglutination inhibition test 1113. There may be such shape in viruses: A. hexagonal B. *rod-shaped C. pyramid-shaped D. cone-shaped E. All answers are correct 1114. There may be such way/s of laboratory animal inoculation for isolation of viruses: A. enteric B. intravenously C. intracerebral D. intranasal E. *All answers are correct 1115. Under the action of viruses there may be such type of cytopathic effect in cell cultures: A. complete degeneration of cells B. syncitium formation C. rounding of the cells D. chromosomal аbberation E. *all answers are correct 1116. Under the bentonit coverage there may be such phenomenon in consequence of viral action: A. *Plaques formation B. Ring formation C. Cluster formation D. Haemagglutination E. All answers are correct 1117. Vibrios are characterized the presence of different types of symmetry. The type of symmetry 1118. 1119. 1120. 1121. 1122. 1123. 1124. depends on: A. *type of nucleic acid localization B. the number of capsomeres C. the number of peplomeres D. type of nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) E. All answers are correct Viral DNA is replicated in the host cell A. Cytoplasmic matrix B. *Nucleus C. Wall D. Mitochondria E. Lysozomes Viral proteins are divided on: A. Capsid ones B. Envelope ones C. Matrix ones D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer Viral RNA is replicated in the host cell A. *Cytoplasmic matrix B. Nucleus C. Wall D. Mitochondria E. Lysozomes Virions consist of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates. How many proteins are there in the virion? A. 40 – 50 % B. *70 – 90 % C. 10 – 20 % D. 20 – 30 % E. 50-60 % Virions consist of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates. How many carbohydrates are there in the virion? A. 1 – 2 % B. *3,5 – 9 % C. 10 – 12 % D. 15 – 20 % E. 25-35 % Virions consist of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates. How many lipids are there in the virion? A. 5-7 % B. 8-12 % C. *15-35 % D. 40-50 % E. 60-70 % Virologist can isolate phages from: antibiotic resistant cultures *corresponding bacteria boiled bacteria autoclaved bacteria prions Virologist can use phage typing for examination of: A. the mechanism of diseases development B. *the sources of infection C. the way of diseases transmission D. the method of treatment E. chromosomes structure Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but not A. Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis B. Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis C. Inhibit host cell protein synthesis D. *Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis E. Degrade host cell DNA Virulent phages cause ________ in bacteria: A. phenomenon of lysogenicity B. *complete lysis of cell C. growth of bacteria increase D. appearance of resistant forms of cells E. dissociation Viruses – causative agents of infectious diseases can penetrate into human body by such way: A. by injection B. due to exocytosis C. by pili D. *by receptor-mediated endocytosis. E. by vector Viruses are cultivated by different methods, except: A. in chicken embryos B. in cell cultures C. *in nutrient media with protein D. In laboratory animals E. All answers are correct Viruses are intracellular obligate parasites, which means that they cannot reproduce or express their genes without A. enzymes B. *a host cell C. another virus D. a cell wall E. nutrience media Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. What do we use for viruses cultivation? A. chicken embryos B. laboratory animals C. cell cultures D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer Viruses can be cultivated by all methods, except: A. In laboratory animals B. *In nutrient media C. In chicken embryos D. In the continuous cell culture. A. B. C. D. E. 1125. 1126. 1127. 1128. 1129. 1130. 1131. 1132. E. In diploid cells 1133. Viruses can be effectively deactivated in blood transfusion preparation treated with A. heat B. interferon C. ampicillin D. acyclovir E. *radiation 1134. Viruses can be susceptible or non-susceptible to an ether. What viruses are susceptible to ether: A. RNA-containing ones B. DNA-containing ones C. Naked ones D. *Complex ones E. No correct answer 1135. Viruses contain all components, except: A. *Spores B. RNA C. Capsid D. DNA E. Envelope 1136. Viruses require ______ for growth. A. Plants B. Animals C. Bacteria D. *Living cells E. Fungi 1137. Viruses will have their lipoprotein during what stage of viral reproduction? A. *during release from the cell B. during uncoating C. during endocytosis D. during replication of nucleic acid E. All answers are correct 1138. We can make identification of unknown viruses when we use: A. *neutralization test B. haemadsorption test C. haemagglutination test D. agglutination test E. No correct answer 1139. We can use virologic (early) methods of diagnosis for examination of : A. *presence of viruses B. a presence of antibodies against the viruses C. increase of antibodies titer in patients serum D. presence of viral toxins E. All answers are correct 1140. What are the differences between lysogenic bacteria and non-lysogenic ones? A. Lysogenic bacteria have ability to product virulent bacteriophages. B. Lysogenic bacteria have changed susceptibility to antibiotics. C. *Lysogenic bacteria have ability to product the moderate bacteriophages. D. Lysogenic bacteria have decreased virulence. E. Lysogenic bacteria have enhanceable virulence. 1141. What are the main characteristics of diploid cell culture, which are utilized for cultivating of viruses? A. They may give about 100 passages B. They have diploid number of chromosomes C. They are free from contamination by mycoplasma D. high-stable E. *All answers are correct 1142. What do non-structural viral proteins provide? A. *regulate expression of viral genome, inhibit cellular biosynthesis B. protect RNA outside the cells C. provide penetration of virus into a cell D. they are present in mature viruses E. All answers are correct 1143. What is a virus that infects bacteria called? A. Virophage B. *Bacteriophage C. T Cell D. B Cell E. Macrophage 1144. What is a way for Retrovirus replication? A. DNA > RNA. B. *RNA > DNA > RNA. C. RNA > DNA. D. RNA > mRNA > DNA. E. DNA >RNA > DNA. 1145. What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell? A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments 1146. What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell? A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments 1147. What is cytopathic action of viruses? A. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their penetration in a cell. B. *Any degenerative changes of cells under the influence of viruses. C. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their release from a cell. D. Formation of multinuclear cells as a result of viral penetration. E. Formation of intranuclear or intracytoplasm bodies in the cell after viral penetration. 1148. What is one component of all mammalian viruses? A. the envelope B. the polymerase C. the icosahedral capsid D. the lipid E. *the nucleic acid 1149. What is phage conversion? A. The changes of biological properties bacteriophages as a result of their penetration in bacterial B. C. D. E. cell. Transformation of moderate phages into virulent ones. *The change of biological properties of bacterial cell in consequence of bacteriophages genes expression. The changes of cell susceptibility to antibiotics. Transformation of virulent bacteriophages into moderate ones. 1150. What is productive type of viral infection? A. Integration of viruses into cell genome. B. *Reproduction of viruses in a cell with formation of new generation of virulent viruses. C. A blockade of reproduction of viruses in a cell. D. Ability of viruses to attach to the cell surface. E. Features of reproduction of viral nucleic acids. 1151. What is prophage? A. Bacteriophage in the cell cytoplasm B. A cell, which is a predecessor of phagocyte C. *Phage, which is integrated with bacterial chromosome D. Autonomous state of phage DNA E. An intermediate form of phage before replication of DNA. 1152. What is the function of “F” viral protein? A. *Provides fusion of viral shell with the cell. B. Provides replication of DNA. C. Provides replication of RNA. D. Provides the release of viruses from a cell. E. Provides translation. 1153. What is the function of viral carbohydrates, which are parts of glycoproteins and glycolipids? A. *provide protection of molecules from the action of proteases B. execute a supporting function C. have virulent properties D. have aggressive functions E. All answers are correct 1154. What is the origin of HeLa cell culture? A. Carcinoma of oral cavity B. Carcinoma of human larynx C. *Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus D. Kaposi’s sarcoma E. Myelogenic cells 1155. What is the principle difference in the structure of simple and complex viruses? A. Presence of capsid. B. Presence of hemagglutinin. C. Presence of neuraminidase D. *Presence of envelope. E. Different types of symmetry. 1156. What is the role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus? A. *initiation and regulation of virus replication B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope 1157. What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays? A. Mouse B. Rat C. Cat D. Dog E. *Chicken 1158. What method can be used for examination of structures of viruses? A. *electron microscopy B. Serologic C. Biologic D. Gram’s staining E. Loeffler’s staining 1159. What method is it possible use for examination of antigen structure of viruses? A. electron microscopy B. *Serologic C. Biological D. After cultivation on solid nutrient media E. Gram’s technique 1160. What structure of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell 1161. 1162. 1163. 1164. 1165. 1166. 1167. receptor site. A. Pili B. Fimbriae C. Flagellae D. *Hemagluttinin E. Neuraminidase What type of cytopathic effect do oncogenic viruses cause in the cell cultures? A. destructive B. *proliferative C. symplast formation D. formation of specific inclusions in cytoplasm E. formation of specific inclusions in cell nucleus What types of symmetry do the viruses have according to the classification? A. helical B. icosahedral C. combined D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong What types of viral infections do you know? A. productive B. abortive C. Lysogeny D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer What virion? A. virus which penetrated into the cell B. virus which reproducts inside the cell C. *complete virus particle D. virus in a chicken embryo E. virus in the organism of laboratory animal What viruses are bullet-shaped? A. Herpesvirus B. *Rhabdovirus C. Ebola virus D. Hepatitis B virus E. Influenza virus What viruses are rod-shaped? A. Epidemic parotitis virus B. *Tobacco mosaic disease viruses C. Herpes virus D. Adenovirus E. Hepatitis C virus What viruses do cause haemagglutination of red cells? A. Influenza viruses B. Tick-born encephalitis viruses C. Rubella viruses D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1168. What viruses do have haemagglutinin and neuramonidase? A. *Influenza viruses B. Polioviruses C. Human immunodeficiency viruses D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 1169. What was the first virus shown to cause disease? A. Polio B. Hepatitis C. Tobacco mosaic virus D. Potato blight E. Influenza 1170. When an animal virus becomes integrated into the host's chromosome it is then called a A. prophage B. *provirus C. vegetative virus D. temperate virus E. temperate phage. 1171. When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be 1172. 1173. 1174. 1175. 1176. made only if A. the acute titer is less than 10 B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20 C. there is a twofold rise in titer D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer E. there is no change in titer When virus replicates in the cell it receives its shell during the following stage of the reproduction: A. penetration B. lysis C. synthesis D. uncoating E. *Assembly Which is not true of virions? A. Contain DNA B. Contain RNA C. Are extracellular D. Reproduce independently E. *Induce host metabolism Which of the following host proteins is the first to rise to high titer, in response to viral infection? A. Immunoglobulin B. Complement C. *Interferon D. Anti-idiotype antibody E. Interleukin 1 Which of the following is caused by a viral infection? A. Botulism B. Salmonellosis C. Anthrax D. *Chicken Pox E. Tetanus Which of the following is not a single-stranded RNA virus? *Herpes Rhinovirus Influenza Rabies Virus echovirus Which of the following is not found in all viruses A. protein B. enzymes C. nucleic acid D. *a capsid E. an envelope Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid) cell line? A. *WI-38. B. HeLa. C. HEp-2. D. KB. E. Detroid 5 Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s? A. HeLa. B. HEp-2. C. KB. D. Detroit 5 E. *All of the above Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA? A. Phage structural proteins B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release D. *All of the above E. None of the above Which of the following viruses can incorporate the molecule serving as mRNA into its capsid? A. herpesvirus B. rhabdovirus C. poxvirus D. *picornavirus E. measles Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template? A. poxvirus B. retrovirus C. *picornavirus D. herpesvirus E. adenovirus Which of these diseases is not caused by a virus? A. AIDS B. Measles C. *Flesh Eating Bacteria D. Rabies E. Mumps Which one of the viral components is smallest? A. *capsomers B. capsid C. nucleocapsid D. virion E. envelope A. B. C. D. E. 1177. 1178. 1179. 1180. 1181. 1182. 1183. 1184. 1185. Which structure of viruses is synthesized from late mRNA? A. *Phage structural proteins B. DNA polymerase C. Early proteins D. All of the above E. None of the above 1186. Which viruses are least accurate? A. Temperate virus B. Naked virus C. Virion D. *RNA phage E. DNA phage 1187. ?Which viruses replicate in the nucleus? A. *Poxviruses B. Paramyxoviruses C. Picornaviruses D. Parvoviridae E. Rhabdoviruses 1188. Which viruses replicate in the nucleus? A. Poxviruses B. Paramyxoviruses C. Picornaviruses D. *Parvoviridae E. Orthomyxoviruses 1189. Which wirus has a naked nucleocapsid? A. herpes virus B. mumps C. influenza D. chicken pox E. *picorna virus 1190. Who has described the viruses? A. L. Pasteur B. *D. Ivanovsky C. R. Koch D. A. Leeuwenhoek E. D. Bergey 1191. A characteristic of Streptococcus mutans that allows it to initiate dental plaque and dental caries is: A. the ability to attach specifically to the pellicle of the tooth B. the ability to utilize sucrose as a source of carbon and energy C. the ability to produce a dextran capsule D. *the ability to produce lactic acid E. all of the above 1192. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by A. edema without a cellular infiltrate B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers 1193. A hypersensitive reaction occurs A. during the first exposure to an antigen. B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system. C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen. D. during autoimmune diseases. E. in immunologically-deficient individuals. 1194. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that A. a humoral immune response has occurred B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred C. both the T and B cell systems are functional D. only the B cell system is functional E. a humoral immune response has decreased 1195. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A. *delayed-type allergy B. acute contact dermatitis C. autoimmunity D. eczema E. atopy 1196. About complement (everything is true,except): A. the nonspecific factor of immunity B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of 1197. 1198. 1199. 1200. 1201. 1202. an eye C. termolabile D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing All listed bacteria are members of normal microflora of oral cavity of mouth, except: A. streptococci B. actinomycetes C. *gonococci D. veilonella E. fusobacteria All of following are the factors of transmission of an infection except: A. water B. *bacterium carrier C. dirty hand D. polluted foodstuff E. soil All of the following are organs of immune system, except: A. GALT B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. *thyroid gland E. tonsil gland All the following are the factors of virulens, except: A. aggressins; B. hyaluronidase C. fibrinolysin D. lecithinasae E. *flagella All the following bacteria are considered to be an indicator organism for fecal contamination in soil, exept: A. S. faecalis, B. E. coli, C. C. perfrіngens, D. *C. albicans; E. termophylic bacteria Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by A. *sensitized T cells. IgG antibodies. IgE antibodies. basophils and mast cells. sensitized macrophages. An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for the: A. CD 38 marker. B. CD 25 marker. C. CD 4 marker. D. CD 3 marker E. *CD 19 marker. An antigen is A. a hapten that combines with an antibody B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies C. a small molecule that attaches to cells D. a carbohydrate E. a protein that combines with antibodies An aspiration method is used for research of air microflora of ___ A. maternity hall B. operating-room C. manipulation room D. *all are correct E. drugstore An attenuated vaccine is composed of A. killed microorganisms. B. *living, weakened microorganisms. C. inactivated bacterial toxins. D. purified macromolecules. E. recombinant vectors. An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n) A. immunodeficiency B. precipitation C. histamine. D. *hypersensitivity. E. allergen An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is: A. NK cells B. unbroken skin C. cilia in trachea D. *lysozyme in saliva E. all of these An example of a type III immune complex disease is A. *serum sickness B. contact dermatitis C. graft rejection D. atopy E. asthma Antibiotic altering enzymes commonly cause resistance to which of the following? A. Vancomycin B. Trimethoprim C. *Aminoglycosides D. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) E. All are correct B. C. D. E. 1203. 1204. 1205. 1206. 1207. 1208. 1209. 1210. 1211. Antibiotic resistance to which of the following is caused by a by-pass mechanism (an alternative 1212. 1213. 1214. 1215. 1216. 1217. 1218. 1219. dihydrofolate reductase)? A. Erythromycin B. *Trimethoprim C. Tetracycline D. Ciprofloxacin E. All are correct Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except? A. cytotoxic reactions B. anaphylaxis C. *tuberculin reactions D. immune-complex rection E. atopy reaction Antigen-presenting cells (had activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. Class III MHC antigens Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to? A. B-cells B. T-killers C. NK-cells D. Mast cells E. *T-helpers Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except): A. viruses B. *corpuscular C. haptens D. high-grade E. soluble APC express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. Class III MHC antigens AT helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if the antigen is associated with: A. HLA class I antigen. B. Surface immunoglobulin. C. *HLA class II antigen. D. CD 8 antigen. E. All of the above. At research of pair serums criterion of estimation CFT at serological diagnosis of bacterial infections: A. norm of controls B. full absence of hemolysis C. partial hemolysis D. diagnostic titer E. *Increase of a titer of antibodies in 2 and more times B cells are responsible for which allergies? asthma anaphylaxis serum sickness atopy *all of the above Bacteriemia is: A. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism; B. *a presence of viable bacteria blood; C. a state, when there are toxins of bacteria in the blood. D. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism; E. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents. Bacteriolysis test: A. it is not specific B. comes to an end phagocytosis C. *comes to an end lysis D. comes to an end hemolysis E. it is possible only in vitro BCG vaccine is a: A. *live attenuated preparation. B. killed preparation. C. toxoid preparation. D. recombinant preparation. E. vector vaccine BCG vaccine is used for prevent: A. diphtheria B. *tuberculosis C. botulism D. brucelosis E. Q fever Besides coliforms, which other bacteria can serve as indicator organism/s of fecal pollution of water? A. *Clostridium perfringens B. Bacillus subtilis C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Streptococcus viridans E. All are correct Besides coliforms, which other bacteria can serve as indicator organism/s of fecal pollution of soil? A. *Clostridium perfringens B. Bacillus subtilis C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Streptococcus viridans E. All are correct Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem? A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease B. high risk of T cell leukemia C. inability to use a live donor D. delayed hypersensitivity E. autoimmune reaction C3 is cleaved to form C3a and C3b by C3-convertase. C3b is involved in all of the following EXCEPT: A. *altering vascular permeability B. promoting phagocytosis C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase A. B. C. D. E. 1220. 1221. 1222. 1223. 1224. 1225. 1226. 1227. D. forming C5 convertase. E. E can bind to macrophages 1228. C3a and C5a can cause A. A bacterial lysis B. *B vascular permeability C. C phagocytosis of IgE coated bacteria D. D aggregation of C4 and C2 E. E activate protein synthesis 1229. C3b is involved in all of the following EXCEPT: A. *altering vascular permeability B. promoting phagocytosis C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase D. forming C5 convertase. E. can bind to macrophages 1230. CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by: A. *T cells. B. В cells. C. monocytes. D. granulocytes. E. mast cells 1231. CD8 surface antigen is present in: A. helper Т cells. B. *cytotoxic Т cells. C. NK cells D. both of the above. E. none of the above. 1232. CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except): A. a syphilis B. gonorrhoeas C. rickettsiosis D. virus infections E. *dysbacteriosis 1233. CFT it is based on activation: A. antigenes B. antibodies C. red blood cells D. hemolysin E. *complement 1234. CFT was discovered: A. L.Pasteur B. L.A.Zilber C. A.P.Vasserman D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu E. I.I.Mechnikov 1235. Choose species of streptococci which have selected from mucus membrane of oral cavity often: A. S. mitis B. S. haemolyticus, S. mutans C. S. sanguis, S. viridans D. S. salivarius E. *all are correct 1236. Choose a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection: A. NK cells B. unbroken skin C. cilia in trachea D. *lysozyme in saliva E. all of these 1237. Choose among given microorganisms which occupy a skin: A. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum B. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonades C. Clostridium, Staphylococcus aureus, Micrococcus roseus, D. Staphylococcus, Propionobacterium, Peptococcus E. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Neisseria 1238. ?Choose among listed microorganisms which occupy soil: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus B. Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes C. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum D. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium E. Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira 1239. Choose among listed microorganisms which occupy water basins. A. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans B. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium C. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Micrococcus roseus, Pseudomonas E. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum 1240. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system: A. GALT, spleen B. *thymus, bone marrow C. lymph nodes, thymus, D. thyroid gland, tonsil gland E. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow 1241. Choose among the listed drugs eubiotics: A. Bacteriocines B. Antibiotics C. Bificol D. Lysozim E. interferon 1242. Choose among the microorganisms of a colon given the basic kinds: A. Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Lactobacillus B. Staphylococci, streptococci, Proteus C. Clostridium, peptococci, esherichia D. Candida, spirochetes, micrococci E. Diphtheroides, spirillum, fungi 1243. Choose an optimum medium for the isolation of streptococci from clinical material: A. MPB B. Yolk salt agar C. Bile MPB D. MPA E. *Blood MPA 1244. Choose cocci which are members of normal oral microflora: A. *S. salivarium, S. mutans| B. S. pyogenes C. S. haemolyticus D. S. viridans E. All at list 1245. Choose diseases which can be transmitted through air often? A. AIDS, hepatitis B dysentery, typhoid fever tetanus, salmonelosis *flu, measles, diphtheria cholera Choose drugs which are used for treatment dysbacteriosis: A. Penicillinum, Cephalosporinum B. Antimicrobic serums and immunoglobulines C. Vitamins and hormones D. Lysozym and interferon E. Colibacterin, bifidobacterin Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect: A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells C. They are codominantly expressed D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. They are absent onto red blood cells Choose methods of research of microflora of air: A. Membranes filters B. Pasteur's C. Sedementative D. Fortner's E. Quantitative Choose primary lymphoid organ/s: A. thymus B. bursa of Fabricius. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above are correct E. all of the above are false Choose secondary immunodeficiency A. DiGeorge's syndrome B. *AIDS C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D. Ataxia-telangiectasia E. Chronic granulomatous disease Choose the factors of transmission of an infection A. sick human B. bacterium carrier C. sick animal D. *polluted foodstuff E. bacterial capsule Choose the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria: A. endotoxin B. hyaluronidase C. *plasmocoagulase D. aggressins E. haemolysin Choose the basic group of bacteria which lives on mucus membrane of oral cavity? A. *streptococci B. micrococci C. neisseria D. hemophilic microorganisms E. enterobacteria Choose the correct sentence according antigen: B. C. D. E. 1246. 1247. 1248. 1249. 1250. 1251. 1252. 1253. 1254. A. a hapten that combines with an antibody, B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these 1255. 1256. 1257. 1258. 1259. 1260. 1261. 1262. antibodies. C. a small molecule that attaches to cells. D. a carbohydrate E. a protein that combines with antibodies. Choose the correct statements concerning haptens: A. A hapten is complex antigen-antibody B. *A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to induce antibody C. Haptens are big molecules of protein D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic Choose the factors of invasion: A. urease B. *lecithinasae C. bacterial capsule D. aggressins; E. fibrinolysin Choose the factors of invasion: A. urease B. *lecithinasae C. bacterial capsule D. aggressins; E. fibrinolysin Choose the main ability of Natural killer cells: A. They can kill cells by complement depending lysis B. They are cytotoxic T cells C. Their level increases by immunization D. *They able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization E. They opsonisses phagocytes Choose the main properties of bacterial endotoxins: A. proteins. B. *lipopolysaccharide complex C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom D. have a tissue tropism E. thermolabile Choose the main properties of bacterial exotoxins: A. *proteins. B. lipopolysaccharide complex C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom D. have no a tissue tropism E. thermostabile Choose the mechanism of complement lyses cells A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane B. activation of adenylate cyclase C. production of lysozyme D. inhibition of elongation factor 2 E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane Choose the method of air microflora research: A. membrane filters B. Paster’s C. *Sedimentation D. Fortner’s E. Quantitative 1263. Choose the source of an infection A. soil B. *sick person C. dirty hand D. mosquitoes E. louses 1264. Choose the third - fourth degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically: A. The subacidic pH, the low contents of glycogen , single Dodderlein’s lactic acid bacilli B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli C. The alkalescent pH, epitelial cells, single leukocytes D. The alkaline pH, staphyloco-and streptococci, leukocytes E. The subacidic pH, presence of glucose, single lactic acid bacilli 1265. Choose waterborn bacteria that cause gastroenteritidis. A. *Escherihia coli B. Bacillus subtilis C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Streptococcus viridans E. Staphylococcus aureus 1266. Choose waterborn viruses that cause gastroenteritidis. A. flu virus, B. measles virus C. pox virus, D. varicella-zoster virus E. *rotavirus 1267. Cl must interact in the classic complement pathway with: A. antigen B. factor B C. *antigen-IgG complexes D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides E. factor D and I 1268. Complement fixation refers to A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells E. the binding of complement components by bacteria 1269. Complement lyses cells by A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane B. activation of adenylate cyclase C. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane D. inhibition of elongation factor 2 E. production of lysozyme 1270. Complement(everything is true, except): A. stimulates phagocytosis B. possesses antigenic properties C. *possesses oncogenic properties D. Defines bactericidal action of serum E. Possesses cytolytic activity 1271. Components of a membrane attack complex of complement: A. С1С4С2С3 B. С1С4С2С3С5 C. *С5С6С7С8С9 D. С3С5С6С7С8 E. С6С7С8С9 1272. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except): A. sheep red blood cells B. complement C. immune serum D. *patient’s serum E. hemolysin 1273. Criterion of negative CFT: A. hemolysis absence B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++ C. *full hemolysis of red cells D. precipitate formation E. agglutinate formation 1274. Cytotoxic cells (NK) are A. B cells B. cytotoxic T cells C. *able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization D. able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production E. macrophages. 1275. Defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract are all except: A. bile B. secretory IgA C. mucus D. *lysozyme E. acidity in stomach 1276. Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT: A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells B. They have a high degree of polymorphism C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins E. They are main in succefull transplantation 1277. Each of the following statements concerning a hybridoma cell is correct EXCEPT; A. The spleen cell component provides the ability to form antibody B. The myeloma cell component provides the ability to grow indefinitely C. *The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is IgM, because heavy-chain switching does not occur D. The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is homogeneous; ie, it is directed against a single epitope E. The hybridoma cells formed by fussion of myeloma cell and plasma cell 1278. Farmer's lung is the result of A. sensitized T cells B. *immune complex reactions C. type I hypersensitivity. D. cytotoxic reactions E. urticaria 1279. Find a convertase enzyme that acts on classical complement pathway. A. C1 B. *C4b2b C. C3 D. C9 E. CbBb 1280. Find the correct statements concernin haptens: A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody B. A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to induce antibody C. Haptens are big molecules of protein D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic 1281. For the first - second degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically: A. The alkaline pH, is not enough glicogen and glucose B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli C. The alkalescent pH, leukocytes, staphylococci D. The alkaline pH, staphylo-and streptococci, leukocytes E. The alkaline pH, presence of proteins, single cocci 1282. For the third - fourth degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically: A. The subacidic pH, the low contents of glycogen , single Dodderlein’s lactic acid bacilli B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli C. The alkalescent pH, epitelial cells, single leukocytes D. The alkaline pH, staphyloco-and streptococci, leukocytes E. The subacidic pH, presence of glucose, single lactic acid bacilli 1283. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms? A. an estimation of the immune status B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency C. *serological identification of microorganisms D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases E. definition of group of blood 1284. Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by A. allergens. B. macrophages. C. humoral antibodies. D. antigens E. *T cells 1285. Frequently oral streptococci cause ______ . A. otitis of middle ear B. sinusitis C. pharyngites D. pneumonia E. *endocardites 1286. From which factors is composition of the microbes of the air depend? A. mineral and organic suspensions, B. on the temperature, C. ainfall and humidity D. locality, E. all are correct 1287. Gnotobiology is a science which studies: A. Microflora of the person B. Microflora of experimental animals C. Life of the microbe-free animals D. Microflora of different parts of an organism E. Influence of various factors on normal microflora 1288. Grafts between geneticully identical individuals (ie, identical twins) A. are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibilily antigens B. are subject to hyperacute rejection C. *are not rejected, even without immunosuppression D. are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected E. are rejected slowly as a result of minor A, B, O antigens 1289. Hemolysin is: A. patient’s serum B. hemolysed blood C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells D. serum of guine pig E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells 1290. Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST 1291. 1292. 1293. 1294. 1295. 1296. 1297. probably an example of A. autoimmune diseases B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity C. immune-complex hypersensitivity D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity E. atopic hypersensitivity Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus. B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus C. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus D. AB mother carries an 0 fetus. E. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. How are microorganisms in air controlled? A. Settle plate method B. Fortner's C. Membrane's filters D. Fortner’s E. Drigalsky's How are microorganisms in water controlled? A. Settle plate method B. Fortner's C. Membrane's filters D. Fortner’s E. Drigalsky's How can the virulence be increased? A. *Transformation B. disinfectant C. antimicrobial preparation D. immune sera E. all are correct How do bacteria get in air? A. from soil, water B. from people and animals C. from food products D. from plants E. *all are correct Human T lymphocytes: A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node. B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen. C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is A. NK cells unbroken skin *lysozyme in saliva cilia in trachea all of these Hypersensitivity to penicillin and bypersensitivity to poison oak are both A. mediated by IgE antibody B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody C. *initiated by haptens D. initiated by Th-2 cells E. initiated by proteins Hypersensitivity to pollen is A. *mediated by IgE antibody B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody C. initiated by haptens D. initiated by Th-2 cells E. initiated by Th-1 cells If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG and IgM E. *IgM and IgA Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose: A. definitions of group of blood B. *titrations of complement C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells D. serological identification of microorganisms E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies B. development of suppressor T cells . C. saturation of IgE antibodies. D. All of the above are correct E. All of the above are not correct In operation theatres, bacterial count of air shoud not exseed: A. 100 per foot3 B. 50 per foot3 C. *10 per foot3 D. 5 per foot3 E. 1 per foot3 In presumptive coliform count of water, it is considered satisfactory if the count is: A. 0 B. *1-3 C. 4-10 D. 10-15 E. 15-20 In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the following? A. neurons B. *DNA C. RNA D. blood cells B. C. D. E. 1298. 1299. 1300. 1301. 1302. 1303. 1304. 1305. E. derm 1306. Indicate the factors of transmission of an infection A. sick human B. bacterium carrier C. sick animal D. *polluted foodstuff E. bacterial capsule 1307. Indicate the end product of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. cascade reaction D. complement factor C1 E. *complement factor C9 1308. Indicate the source of an infection A. soil B. *sick person C. dirty hand D. mosquitoes E. louses 1309. indicator system of CFT contains: A. complement+hemolysin B. *red cells and hemolysin C. patient’s serum D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin E. specific antigen 1310. Individuals of blood group type AB A. are Rh(D)-negative B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies D. . have the same haplotype E. are "universal donors" of transfusions 1311. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have A. decreased resistance to viral infections B. increased hypersensitivity reactions C. increased frequency of cancer D. *decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia E. increased frequency of fungi infections 1312. Infection diseases are transmitted from its source. Choose the source of an infection A. polluted foodstuff B. different objects C. *sick animal D. mosquitoes E. fly 1313. Interferon action is: A. *primarily antiviral B. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes C. to protect primary infected cells D. found in high levels in phagocytic granules E. kill cells infected by viruses 1314. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called A. hay fever B. asthma C. shock. D. *hives E. rashes 1315. Lysozyme: A. aggregates bacteria B. captures free iron C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall D. enhances phagocytosis E. is antiviral 1316. Macrophages develop from: A. phagocytes B. monocytes C. *mast cells D. T cells E. B cells 1317. Match the types of immunity after administration antitoxic serum: A. innate B. naturally acquired active C. naturally acquired passive D. artificially acquired active E. *artificially acquired passive 1318. Match the types of immunity after recovery from disease: A. innate B. *naturally acquired active C. naturally acquired passive D. artificially acquired active E. artificially acquired passive 1319. Match the types of immunity after transfer of immunity from mother to fetus: A. innate B. naturally acquired active C. *naturally acquired passive D. artificially acquired active E. artificially acquired passive 1320. Match the types of immunity after vaccination: A. Innate B. naturally acquired active C. naturally acquired passive D. *artificially acquired active E. artificially acquired passive 1321. Match the types of immunity of humans to cat and dog distemper: A. *innate B. naturally acquired active C. naturally acquired passive D. artificially acquired active E. artificially acquired passive 1322. Monocytes are_ leukocytes that develop into A. *granular, phagocytes B. agranular, macrophages C. agrunular, mast cells D. granular, T cells E. granular, B cells 1323. Name human pathogens that are transmissible in water: A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Bacillus subtilis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis. E. *Salmonella paratyphi 1324. Name the typical bacteria of water: A. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans B. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium C. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Micrococcus roseus, Pseudomonas E. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum 1325. Natural killer cells are A. cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells C. increased by immunization D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization E. opsonissed phagocytes 1326. Natural killer cells are involved in: A. allograft rejection. B. tumour rejection. C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells. D. type II of allergy E. *E all of the above. 1327. Natural killer cells are: A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells C. increased by immunization D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization E. T?? cells 1328. Natural killer cells take part in: A. allograft rejection. B. tumour rejection. C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells. D. cytothoxic and cytolytic reactions E. *all of the above 1329. NK cells are: A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells C. increased by immunization D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization E. T?? cells 1330. One of the following does not take part in the defense mechanisms of the neutrophil: A. lactoferrin B. superoxide anion C. *lysozyme D. free radicals E. hydrogen peroxide 1331. Pair serums: A. monozygotic twins’ serums B. dizygotic twins’ serum C. serums taken from different veins D. serums of two patients with same diseases E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics 1332. Penicillin G remains highly active against which of the following? A. Enterococcus Staphylococcus aureus *Neisseria meningitidis (meningococci) Escherichia coli All are correct Penicillin inhibits bacteria because it: A. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in ribosomes. B. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in cell wall peptidoglycan precursors. C. *Resembles D-alanyl-D-alanine and binds to cell wall synthesis enzymes. D. Disrupts the inner membrane. E. All answers are right Persistence is the state of: A. *an occult form of disease without clinical sings; B. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism; C. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents. D. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism; E. a presence of viable bacteria blood; Persons of blood group type AB A. are Rh(D)-negative B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies D. have the same haplotype E. are "universal donors" of transfusions Physiological value of normal microflora of human are _______, EXEPT: A. Stimulates secretory activity of a gastroenteric path B. Activates growth of pathogenic flora C. Raises a vascular tone and stimulates work of secretory system D. Stimulates all kinds of a metabolism, immunity, synthesizes a number of vitamins E. Synthesizes a number of antimicrobic substances, influences synthesis of hormones Pollen is which type of allergen? A. contactant B. ingestant C. injectant D. *inhalant E. insectant Primary defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract include all except: A. *lysozyme B. secretory IgA C. mucus D. bile E. acidity in stomach Primary lymphoid organ/s are: A. thymus B. bursa of Fabricius. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above are correct E. E all of the above are false Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes A. precipitation . B. complement fixation . C. *degranulation. D. agglutination E. asthma Reinfection is: B. C. D. E. 1333. 1334. 1335. 1336. 1337. 1338. 1339. 1340. 1341. A. *a repeated infection by the same species of microorganisms responsible for the disease which terminated in convalescence; a repeated infection of an organism, when main disease has not ended; a state, when an infectious disease is spread to entire countries or continents a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism; a presence of viable bacteria blood; Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except): A. *red blood cells - hemolysis B. an antigene - hemolysis C. serum– hemolysis D. complement- hemolysis absence E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles B. autoimmune disease, nerves C. allergy, cartilage D. *autoimmune disease, joints E. autoimmune disease, bones Sanitary - exponential microorganisms of soil are, EXEPT: A. S. faecalis, B. coli, C. perfrіngens, D. tetanі; E. termophylic bacteria Sanitary – indicative microorganisms of water are: A. M. candіcans, B. M. roseus, C. E. colі, D. S. faecalіs; E. C. perfrіngens Sanitary–indicative microorganisms of air are: A. S. typhi B. S. typhimurium, C. S. aureus, D. S. epidermidis. E. S. paratyphi Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are: A. lymph nodes. B. spleen. C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. D. GALT E. *all of the above Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection? A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack the donor cells B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection E. all are correct Show what is necessery for activation complement system by classic pathway? A. factor B B. *antigen-antibody complex B. C. D. E. 1342. 1343. 1344. 1345. 1346. 1347. 1348. 1349. C. antigen-IgA complexes D. bacterial capsula E. endotoxin 1350. Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely to 1351. 1352. 1353. 1354. 1355. 1356. 1357. 1358. be caused by A. interleukin-2 B. interleukin-10 C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) D. serotonin E. bradykinin Stem cells arise from: A. yolk sac. B. foetal liver. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above. E. all of the above are wrong T-killer cells are important in controlling A. *virus infections B. allergy C. autoimmunity D. antibodies synthesis E. all of these Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it. A. serotonin B. ? interferon C. *Interleukin-6 D. TNF E. ? interferon. Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it. A. serotonin B. ? interferon C. *Interleukin-6 D. TNF E. ? interferon. The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following? A. DiGeorge syndrome B. *severe combined immunodeficiency C. rheumatoid arthritis D. leukemia E. agammaglobulinemia The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out: A. at participation of antibodies B. *at participation of LPS C. without formation membrane attack complex D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the A. Flagellum B. Endotoxin C. *Pilus D. Peptidoglycan E. Cell wall The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the Flagellum Endotoxin *Pilus Peptidoglycan Cell wall The beta-lactamase of Staphylococcus aureus inactivates which of the following? A. Oxacillin B. Methicillin C. *Ampicillin D. Vancomycin E. Vancomycin The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with A. antigen B. factor B C. *antigen-IgG complexes D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides E. E factor D and I The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with: A. *antigen-antibody complex B. factor B C. antigen-IgA complexes D. bacterial capsula E. endotoxin The Classical way of activation complement is carried out: A. without participation of antibodies B. at participation properdin C. without formation membrane attack complex D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex E. at formation L-transformations The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the A. sensiling dose B. degranulation dose C. *provocative dose D. desensitizing dose E. inhibition dose The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle B. the allergen on B lymphocytes C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils D. IgE on smooth muscle E. the allergen on mast cells The earliest stages of B cell differentiation A. Occur in the embryonic thymus B. Require the presence of antigen C. Involve rearrangement of K chain gene segments D. Involve rearrangement of surrogate light chain gene rearrangement E. *Involve rearrangement of heavy chain gene segments The first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement system is (are): A. C3 B. C5 C. properdin D. *C1q, C1r, C1s complex E. membrane attack complex A. B. C. D. E. 1359. 1360. 1361. 1362. 1363. 1364. 1365. 1366. 1367. The following is not part of the defense mechanisms of the neutrophil: A. lactoferrin B. superoxide anion C. *lysozyme D. free radicals E. hydrogen peroxide 1368. The greatest amount of microbes (1 000000 per cm3) is found in the top layer of soil at a depth ____ 1-2 мм| 1-5 cm *10-15 cm 4-5 m 1-2 km The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by A. edema without a cellular infiltrate B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils E. cellular infiltration The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that A. it can be administered orally B. *it provides antibody more rapidly C. antibody persists for a longer period D. it contains primarily IgM E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies The main function of lysozyme: A. aggregates bacteria B. captures free iron C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall D. enhances phagocytosis E. is antiviral The most common type of circulating white cell is the: A. *neutrophil B. lymphocyte C. basophil D. eosinophil E. monocyte The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the A. specific receptor B. *epitope C. antibody determinant. D. active center. E. antigen binding place. The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is A. *the class (isotype) of antibody B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed C. the participation of macrophages D. the participation of T cells E. correct all The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity is A. the class (isotype) of antibody B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed A. B. C. D. E. 1369. 1370. 1371. 1372. 1373. 1374. 1375. C. the participation of complement D. the participation of T cells E. interraction between antigen and antibody 1376. The subcomponents of complement C3a and C5a can cause A. bacterial lysis B. *vascular permeability C. phagocytosis of IgE coated bacteria D. aggregation of C4 and C2 E. activate protein synthesis 1377. The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to A. *an inflammatory response B. histaminesies. C. autoimmune antigens. D. IgE. E. autoimmune antibodies 1378. The term “disbacteriosis” means ___ A. Reduction of quantity of the anaerobic bacteria of the colon. B. Infringements of balance between microbes of the small intestine and the colon. C. Quantitative and qualitative infringements of balance between microbic populations in structure of microflora D. Increases of quantityof pathogenic microorganisms at surfaces of a skin E. Condition of microflora of the experimental animal, caused by intervention of the 1379. 1380. 1381. 1382. 1383. experimenter The titer of complement: A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis The working doze of complement above its titer on: A. 60-70 % B. 50-60 % C. 40-50 % D. 30-40 % E. *20-30 % The Working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT is equal: A. 1 : 3600 B. *1 : 400 C. 1 : 200 D. 1 : 100 E. 1 : 50 Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity. A. natural active B. artificial passive C. *artificial active D. natural passive E. antitoxic passive Vaccines are available for all of the following except: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. *Hepatitis C D. Tetanus E. Measles 1384. Vancomycin inhibits bacteria because it: A. *binds to peptidoglycan precursors ending in D-alanine-D-alanine B. binds to ribosomal subunits ending in D-alanine-D-alanine C. inhibits protein synthesis D. disrupts the inner membrane E. all are correct 1385. Virulence can be decreased by all ways, except: A. transduction B. disinfectant C. lysogenic conversion D. antimicrobial preparation E. high temperatures 1386. Virulence can be increased by A. *Transformation B. Disinfectant C. antimicrobial preparation D. immune sera E. all are correct 1387. What anaerobic microorganisms do prevail in human intestinal microflora? A. Fusobacteria B. Clostridia C. *Bifidobacteria D. Laktobacteria E. Enterococcci 1388. What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen: A. *T cells. B. В cells. C. monocytes. D. granulocytes. E. mast cells 1389. What diseases can be transferred through water more often? A. Tuberculosis, tetanus B. Typhoid fever, dysentery, hepatites A C. Anthrax, plagues, tularemia D. Flu, measles, diphtherias E. Botulism, gas gangren infections, tetanus 1390. What diseases can be transmitted through water? A. Tuberculosis, actinomycosis B. *Typhoid, dysentery, hepatitis A C. Antrax, plague D. Flu, measles, diphtheria E. Gas anaerobic infection, tetanus 1391. What diseases should bacteroides cause? A. appendicitis, B. septicaemia of different aetiology, C. postoperative infectious complications in the peritoneal cavity, D. inflammatory processes of the gastrointestinal tract, E. *all are correct 1392. What human pathogens are found in air? A. *flu virus, measles virus| B. clostridia C. pox virus, varicella-zoster virus D. hepatitis A virus E. enterovirus, rotavirus 1393. What human pathogens are found in soil? A. Lactobacteria B. Bifidumbacteria C. Thermophylic bacteria D. Candida spp. E. Clostridia 1394. What index is used for the sanitary-hygenic estimation of soil? A. titre of enterobacteria B. titres of enterococci and С. perfringens C. titre of thermophylic bacteria D. *all are correct E. all are incorrect 1395. What is disbacteriosis? A. Reduction of quantity of the anaerobic bacteria of the colon. B. Infringements of balance between microbes of the small intestine and the colon. C. Quantitative and qualitative infringements of balance between microbic populations in structure of microflora D. Increases of quantityof pathogenic microorganisms at surfaces of a skin E. Condition of microflora of the experimental animal, caused by intervention of the 1396. 1397. 1398. 1399. 1400. 1401. experimenter What is function of natural killer? A. Inhibit macrophages. B. Activates B-cells. C. *Kill tissue cells infected by viruses D. take part in type I of allergy E. all of the above. What is function of T-killer cells? A. *take part in antiviral immunity B. allergy C. autoimmunity D. antibodies synthesis E. all of these What is the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria: A. endotoxin B. hyaluronidase C. *plasmocoagulase D. aggressins E. haemolysin What is the colonizatin resistance? A. The ability of members of the normal flora to limit the growth of pathogenes B. Ability of the microbes given biotope to be distributed to other sites of an organism C. Resistance of the microbes of biotope to action of an antibacterial drugs D. Invariance of the quantitative and qualitative characteristic of the microbes of biotope E. Influence of the microbes of the separate biotope on a line located biotopes What is the main properties of bacterial exotoxins: A. lipids. B. lipopolysaccharide complex C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom D. *have a tissue tropism E. thermostabile What is the mechanism of action of second type hypersensitivities? A. IgE reacting with mast cells activation of cytotoxic T cells IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues *complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies activation of natural killer cells What is the point of action of lysozyme? A. inhibition of protein synthesis B. activation of lysosome’s enzymes C. inhibition of mRNA D. *destroing of peptidoglycan E. stimulation of proteolytic enzymes What is the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection? A. They are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack the donor cells B. *They are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells C. They induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft D. They induce IgE which mediates graft rejection E. They induce complement depended cytolysis of the graft What is toxoid? A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin, B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis. C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins, D. type of virus. E. *inactivated toxin. What medicine are used for treatment of disbacteriosis? A. Bacteriocines B. Antibiotics C. Bificol D. Lysozim E. Interferon What microorganism is major cause of gastritis and peptic and duodenal ulcer disease? A. Helicobacter pylori B. Escherichia coli C. Proteus species D. Providencia species E. Klebsiella species What microorganisms are associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis? A. Lactobacillus B. Staphylococcus C. Bacteroides D. Streptococcus E. Treponema What microorganisms are not members of normal flora of Digestive system? A. Lactobacillus B. Penicilinum C. Bacteroides D. Fusobacterium E. Treponema What microorganisms do cause teeth demineralization? A. *streptococci B. staphylococci C. leptotrichia D. veilonella B. C. D. E. 1402. 1403. 1404. 1405. 1406. 1407. 1408. 1409. E. actinomycetes 1410. What microorganisms do have anticarious action? A. *Veillonella B. Streptococcus C. Treponema D. Lactobacilli E. Enterobacteria 1411. What microorganisms is it possible to find in a throat in a norm? A. gamma-hemolytic streptococci. B. Coagulase-negative staphylococci. C. Haemophilus haemolyticus. D. Neisseria E. *All are correct. 1412. What of following is considered to be an indicator organism for fecal contamination in water. A. S. viridans, B. E. coli, C. C. albicans, D. C. tetanі; E. termophylic bacteria 1413. What of the following are not organs of immune system? A. *thyroid gland B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. GALT E. tonsil gland 1414. What part of respiratory system is essentially sterile? A. lower respiratory system B. the bronchial tubes C. the throat D. upper respiratory system E. oral cavity 1415. What physiological value of normal microflora of human? A. Stimulates secretory activity of a gastroenteric path B. All are true C. Raises a vascular tone and stimulates work of secretory system D. Stimulates all kinds of a metabolism, immunity, synthesizes a number of vitamins E. Synthesizes a number of antimicrobic substances, influences synthesis of hormones 1416. What soils do contain richest of microflora? A. sandy B. clayey podsol C. *arable D. forest E. loose sand 1417. What subject are studied by gnotobiology? A. Microflora of the person B. Microflora of experimental animals C. Life of the microbe-free animals D. Microflora of different parts of an organism E. Influence of various factors on normal microflora 1418. What viral diseases can transmite by water often? A. flu, measles B. herpes-, adenoinfections C. pox D. hepatitis C E. *enteroviruss, rotaviruses 1419. What viruses do often occur in water? A. flu virus, measles virus| B. rabies virus, herpes virus C. pox virus, varicella-zoster virus D. *hepatitis A virus E. enterovirus, rotavirus 1420. When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, 1421. 1422. 1423. 1424. 1425. 1426. damage to the membrane is caused mainly by A. gamma interferon B. phagocytosis C. cytotoxic T cells D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells E. natural killers Where do human T lymphocytes locate: A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node. B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen. C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. Which allergies are T-cell mediated? A. type I B. type II C. type III D. *type IV E. all are correct ?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility? A. Atopic or anaphylactic B. *Cytotoxic C. Immune complex D. Delayed E. Autoimmune Which cells do antigen-presenting cells process antigen need to activation? A. B-cells B. T-killers C. NK-cells D. Mast cells E. *T-helpers Which do from following cell markers belong for B lymphocyte? A. CD 38 marker. B. CD 25 marker. C. CD 4 marker. D. CD 3 marker E. *CD 19 marker. Which do one of the following substances released by activated helper T cells can activate T killers? A. trasfer factor B. *Gamma interferon C. Interleukin- 6 D. Interleukin-4 E. lymphotoxin 1427. Which do T cells activate the functions of B cells and other T cells. A. Sensitized B. *Helper C. Cytotoxic D. Natural killer E. K cells 1428. Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells. A. Sensitized B. Cytotoxic C. *Helper D. Natural killer E. K cells 1429. Which does not provide long term immunity? A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity D. All of the above E. None of the above 1430. Which drugs are used for treatment dysbacteriosis? A. Penicillinum, Cephalosporinum B. Antimicrobic serums and immunoglobulines C. Vitamins and hormones D. Lysozym and interferon E. Colibacterin, bifidobacterin 1431. Which eubiotic is used for the correction of disbacteriosis of oral microflora? A. *aerococci B. bifidobacteria C. lactobacilli D. peptostreptococci E. escherihii 1432. Which factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection has antiviral activity: A. *NK cell B. unbroken skin C. lysozyme in saliva D. cilia in trachea E. all of these 1433. Which lymphocytes have CD8 surface antigen on their surface: A. helper Т cells. B. *cytotoxic Т cells. C. NK cells D. all of the above. E. none of the above. 1434. Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans? A. Capsular polysaccharides B. Recombinant surface antigens C. Inactivated exotoxins D. *DNA-based E. All of the above 1435. Which microorganisms are occupy a skin: A. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum B. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonades C. Clostridium, Staphylococcus aureus, Micrococcus roseus, D. Staphylococcus, Propionobacterium, Peptococcus E. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Neisseria 1436. Which of followinf is the source of an infection? A. soil B. *sick person C. dirty hand D. mosquitoes E. louses 1437. Which of following bacterial structures are known to formation drug resistance? A. bacterial enzymes B. *plasmids C. bacterial chromosome D. cytoplasm E. ribosome 1438. Which of following is/are soil bacteria? A. Bacillus subtilis B. Enterobacer aerogenes C. Bacillus mycoides D. *All are correct E. All are incorrect 1439. Which of following is/are water-born pathogens? A. Hepatitis A virus B. Vibrio cholerae C. Entamoeba histolytica D. *All are correct E. All are incorrect 1440. Which of following organisms can serve as indicator/s of fecal pollution of drinking water? A. *Escherihia coli B. Bacillus subtilis C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Streptococcus viridans E. Influenza virus 1441. Which of following organisms can serve as indicator/s of fecal pollution of soil? A. *Escherihia coli B. Bacillus subtilis C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Streptococcus viridans E. Influenza virus 1442. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with DNA replication? A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides) B. sulfonamides C. *Fluoroquinolones D. Pyrimethamine E. Penicillin 1443. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis? A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides) B. sulfonamides C. penicillins D. pyrimethamine E. *Cephalosporins 1444. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis? A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin) B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) C. Rifampin D. *Tetracyclines E. All are correct 1445. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with folic acid synthesis? A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin) B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) C. *Sulfonamides D. Rifampin E. Cephalosporins 1446. Which of the following are narrow spectrum drugs? A. Vancomycin and Cephalosporins B. Cephalosporins and Aztreonam C. *Aztreonam and Vancomycin D. Tetracycline and Vancomycin E. All are correct 1447. Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections? A. Complement proteins B. ABO antibodies C. *MHC antigens D. MHC antibodies E. Mast cells 1448. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue? A. spleen B. *thyroid gland C. lymph nodes D. GALT E. tonsil gland 1449. Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. *cascade reaction D. complement factor C1 E. complement factor C5 1450. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. cascade reaction D. complement factor C1 E. *complement factor C9 1451. Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement system? A. properdin B. *membrane attack complex C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex D. complement factor C4 E. complement factor C5 1452. Which of the following is the first product of the activation of the complement system? A. properdin B. membrane attack complex C. cascade reaction D. *complement factor C1(C1q,C1r,C1s) E. complement factor C5 1453. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production? A. *An adjuvant A hapten Antiserum Purified antigen Crude antigen Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity? A. complement B. collagenase C. *C. interferon D. lysozyme E. lysosome Which of the following pairs is mismatched A. vagina --- lactobacilli B. eye --- lysozyme C. oropharynx --- anaerobes D. mucus --- lactoferrin E. *skin --- Gram negative Which of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is noncorrect: A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells B. They have a high degree of polymorphism C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins E. They are main in succefull transplantation Which of the following substances has antiviral activity? A. *interferon B. collagenase C. complement D. lysozyme E. lysosome Which of the following vaccine is attenuated? A. Dysentery vaccines. B. Cholera vaccines C. *BCG D. Diphtheria vaccines. E. Solk polio vaccines. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes? A. *BCG and oral polio vaccines. B. Cholera and dysentery vaccines. C. Measles and Solk polio vaccines. D. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines. E. All of the above. Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity? A. hayfever B. *allergic contact dermatitis C. glomerulonephritis D. penicillin reaction E. blood transfusion reaction Which one of the following has little if any activity against Gram-negative bacilli? A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole B. Fluoroquinolone C. *Vancomycin D. Cephalosporin E. Aztreonam Which one of the following is true regarding the alternative complement pathway? B. C. D. E. 1454. 1455. 1456. 1457. 1458. 1459. 1460. 1461. 1462. It can be triggered by infectious agents in presence of antibody *It does not require C1,C2, or C4 It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already absent It has the different terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway C4a2b presents Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway? A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4 C. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present D. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway E. C3bBb presents Which one of the following is the BEST method of reducing the effect of graft-versus-host disease in a bone marrow recipient? A. Matching the complement components of donor and recipient B. Administering alpha interferon C. *Removing mature T cells from the graft D. Removing pre-B cells from the graft E. Using monoclonal antibodies Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells? A. Alpha interferon B. *Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-5 D. Interleukin-6 E. bradikidin Which species of microbes in the intestine are the vitamins essential for the human body (B1, B2, B12, K) produce? A. Staphylococcus epidermidis. B. Candida spp. C. Streptococcus viridans. D. *Escherihia coli. E. Streptococcus mutans Which substances can produce Th1 cells? A. Alpha interferon B. *Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-5 D. Interleukin-6 E. bradikidin Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn? A. emergence of forbidden clones of B-cells B. *production of antibodies against sequestered tissues C. infection-induced change in receptors D. hapten (chemical) induced change of tissue antigens E. all of these are possible Who did coin the term vaccine? A. Edward Jenner. B. Kitasato. C. Ehrlich. D. *Louis Pasteur, E. Robert Koch. Who did consider some species of intestinal bacteria to be harmful, causing chronic intoxications? A. Metchnikoff B. Pasteur C. Koch A. B. C. D. E. 1463. 1464. 1465. 1466. 1467. 1468. 1469. 1470. D. Erlich E. Fleming 1471. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885? A. *Louis Pasteur. B. Semple. C. Edward Jenner D. Paul Ehrlich. E. Wasserman. 1472. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox? A. Louis Pasteur. B. *Edward Jenner. C. Paul Ehrlich. D. John Hunter. E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. 1473. Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells? A. because inhibits protein synthesis B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes C. because inhibits mRNA D. *because attacks of peptidoglycan E. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes 1474. You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to 1475. 1476. 1477. 1478. 1479. hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis? A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells Your patient is a child who has no detectable T cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in A. *the thymus B. the bursal equivalent C. bone marrow D. T cell-B cell interaction E. stem cells originating in the bone marrow A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to: A. other APCs B. B lymphocytes C. *Th lymphocytes D. Neutrophils E. NK cells A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to: A. other APCs B. B lymphocytes C. *Th lymphocytes D. Neutrophils E. NK cells A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express: A. *the TcR B. CD4 C. Class II MHC D. membrane Ig E. the BcR According to antigene of precipitation test(everything is true, except): urine centrifugate lysed microbial cells an extract of foodstuff bacterial toxins *suspension of bacteria According to antigene of precipitation test(everything is true, except): A. urine centrifugate B. lysed microbial cells C. an extract of foodstuff D. bacterial toxins E. *suspension of bacteria All of the following are organs of immune system, except: A. GALT B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. *thyroid gland E. tonsil gland An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for the: A. CD 38 marker. B. CD 25 marker. C. CD 4 marker. D. CD 3 marker E. *CD 19 marker. An antibody directed against the idiotypic determinants of a human IgG antibody would react with A. The Fc part of the IgG B. *An IgM antibody produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG C. All human kappa chains D. All human gamma chains E. The hinge region An antibody directed against the idiotypic determinants of a human IgG antibody would react with A. The Fc part of the IgG B. *An IgM antibody produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG C. All human kappa chains D. All human gamma chains E. The hinge region An antigen is A. a hapten that combines with an antibody B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies C. a small molecule that attaches to cells D. a carbohydrate E. a protein that combines with antibodies An immunoglobulin is a A. protein. B. carbohydrate. C. *glycoprotein. D. fatty acid. E. nucleic acid. An immunoglobulin is a A. protein. B. carbohydrate. C. *glycoprotein. D. fatty acid. A. B. C. D. E. 1480. 1481. 1482. 1483. 1484. 1485. 1486. 1487. E. nucleic acid. 1488. Antibody-secreting cells are called: A. *plasma cells B. T cell blasts C. macrophages D. B lymphoblasts E. pre-B lymphocytes 1489. Antibody-secreting cells are called: A. *plasma cells B. T cell blasts C. macrophages D. B lymphoblasts E. pre-B lymphocytes 1490. Antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. Class III MHC antigens 1491. Antigen-presenting cells (had activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on 1492. 1493. 1494. 1495. 1496. their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. Class III MHC antigens Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to? A. B-cells B. T-killers C. NK-cells D. Mast cells E. *T-helpers Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper Tcells must express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. gM Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper Tcells must express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. gM APC express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. Class III MHC antigens are primarily responsible for such specificity? Cytotoxic T cells *Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells The major histocompatibility complex Specific T cell receptors Memory cells B-cells do which of the following? A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies C. Act as antigen-processing cells D. *All of the above E. None of the above B-cells do which of the following? A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies C. Act as antigen-processing cells D. *All of the above E. None of the above CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by: A. *T cells. B. В cells. C. monocytes. D. granulocytes. E. mast cells ?CD4 and CD8 both: A. bind to Class II MHC B. function in signal transduction C. bind to B7 D. *T cells E. B1 and B2 cells ?CD4 and CD8 both: A. bind to Class II MHC B. function in signal transduction C. bind to B7 D. *T cells E. B1 and B2 cells CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface molecules? A. ICAM B. TcR C. *CD40L D. CD16 E. CD8 CD8 is a glycoprotein found on: A. all lymphocytes B. B cells C. *cytotoxic T cells D. helper T cells E. NK cells CD8 is a glycoprotein found on: A. all lymphocytes B. B cells C. *cytotoxic T cells D. helper T cells E. NK cells A. B. C. D. E. 1497. 1498. 1499. 1500. 1501. 1502. 1503. 1504. 1505. CD8 surface antigen is present in: A. helper Т cells. B. *cytotoxic Т cells. C. NK cells D. both of the above. E. none of the above. 1506. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system: A. GALT, spleen B. *thymus, bone marrow C. lymph nodes, thymus, D. thyroid gland, tonsil gland E. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow 1507. Choose correct statement about important function of antibody in a host defense from the next: A. Activation of lysozyme that degrades the cell wall B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins C. *Facilitation of phagocytosis D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis E. Inhibition of bacterial metabolism 1508. Choose correct statement about important function of antibody in a host defense from the next: A. Activation of lysozyme that degrades the cell wall B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins C. *Facilitation of phagocytosis D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis E. Inhibition of bacterial metabolism 1509. Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect: A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells C. They are codominantly expressed D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. They are absent onto red blood cells 1510. Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect: A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells C. They are codominantly expressed D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. They are absent onto red blood cells 1511. Choose primary lymphoid organ/s: A. thymus B. bursa of Fabricius. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above are correct E. all of the above are false 1512. Choose the correct sentence according antigen: A. a hapten that combines with an antibody, B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies. C. a small molecule that attaches to cells. D. a carbohydrate E. a protein that combines with antibodies. 1513. Choose the correct statements concerning haptens: A. A hapten is complex antigen-antibody B. *A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to induce antibody C. Haptens are big molecules of protein D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic 1514. Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the 1515. 1516. 1517. 1518. 1519. 1520. 1521. following types of cells? A. epithelial cells B. *macrophages C. nerve cells D. basophils E. all of the above Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the following types of cells? A. epithelial cells B. *macrophages C. nerve cells D. basophils E. all of the above Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response A. *has a longer lag phase. B. has a more rapid log phase. C. persists for a longer plateau period. D. attains a higher IgG titer. E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen. Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue? A. Lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. Basophils D. *All of the above E. None of the above Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue? A. Lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. Basophils D. *All of the above E. None of the above Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called: A. perforations B. *perforins C. perforinse D. performins E. perporins Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called: A. perforations B. *perforins C. perforinse D. performins E. perporins Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill A. target cells from the same host .infected with any virus B. *infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells C. infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells D. infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells E. infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells 1522. Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill A. target cells from the same host .infected with any virus B. *infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells C. infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells D. infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells E. infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells 1523. During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the A. *mu chain B. B gamma chain C. epsilon chain D. alpha chain E. kappa chain 1524. During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the A. *mu chain B. B gamma chain C. epsilon chain D. alpha chain E. kappa chain 1525. Each of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT: A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells C. They are codominantly expressed D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. E They are absent onto red blood cells 1526. Find the correct sentence according antigen: A. a hapten that combines with an antibody B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these 1527. 1528. 1529. 1530. antibodies. C. a small molecule that attaches to cells. D. a carbohydrate E. a protein that combines with antibodies. Find the correct statements concernin haptens: A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody B. A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to induce antibody C. Haptens are big molecules of protein D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic Human T lymphocytes: A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node. B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen. C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. Idiotypic determinants are located within A. *Hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains B. Constant regions of light chains C. Constant regions of heavy chains D. The hinge region E. Constant regions of light and heavy chains Idiotypic determinants are located within A. *Hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains B. Constant regions of light chains C. Constant regions of heavy chains D. The hinge region E. Constant regions of light and heavy chains 1531. If art individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be 1532. 1533. 1534. 1535. 1536. 1537. 1538. affected? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG and IgM E. *IgM and IgA If art individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG and IgM E. *IgM and IgA Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the following types of cells? A. *B lymphocytes B. Monocytes C. T lymphocytes D. both a & c E. NK cells Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the following types of cells? A. *B lymphocytes B. Monocytes C. T lymphocytes D. both a & c E. NK cells In the immune response to a hapten-protein conjugate, in order to get artti-hapten antibodies it is essential that A. the hapten be recognized by helper T cells B. *the protein be recognized by helper T cells C. the protein be recognized by B cells D. the hapten be recognized by suppressor T cells E. the hapten be recognized by natural killers In the immune response to a hapten-protein conjugate, in order to get artti-hapten antibodies it is essential that A. the hapten be recognized by helper T cells B. *the protein be recognized by helper T cells C. the protein be recognized by B cells D. the hapten be recognized by suppressor T cells E. the hapten be recognized by natural killers Individuals of blood group type AB A. are Rh(D)-negative B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies D. . have the same haplotype E. are "universal donors" of transfusions Isotypes refer to variations in the A. light chain variable region. light chain constant region. heavy chain variable region. *heavy chain constant region. Any of the above. Isotypes refer to variations in the A. light chain variable region. B. light chain constant region. C. heavy chain variable region. D. *heavy chain constant region. E. Any of the above. Isotypes refer to variations in the A. light chain variable region. B. light chain constant region. C. heavy chain variable region. D. *heavy chain constant region. E. Any of the above. Macrophage as antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. *Class II MHC antigens E. Class III MHC antigens Membrane bound Ig is just one part of a complex known as the B cell receptor complex.Additional accessory proteins are termed: A. *Ig? and Ig? B. CD4 and CD8 C. Ca and Cb D. CD3 and TcR E. Cq and Cr Monoclonal antibodies are produced by A. lymphocytes. B. myeloma cells. C. *hybridomas. D. spleen cells. E. plasma cells. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT A. the typing of tissue. B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms. C. the identification of tumor antigens. D. the classification of leukemias. E. *the manipulation of the immune response. Opsonization refers to A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation. B. aglutination of red blood cells. C. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement. D. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells. E. antibody mediated viral inactivation. Persons of blood group type AB A. are Rh(D)-negative B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies D. have the same haplotype E. are "universal donors" of transfusions B. C. D. E. 1539. 1540. 1541. 1542. 1543. 1544. 1545. 1546. 1547. Primary lymphoid organ/s are: A. thymus B. bursa of Fabricius. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above are correct E. E all of the above are false 1548. Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as: A. A poptos B. a poptosis C. a pop tosis D. apopstasis E. *apoptosis 1549. Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as: A. A poptos B. a poptosis C. a pop tosis D. apopstasis E. *apoptosis 1550. Regarding Th-1 and Th-2 cells, which one ofthe following is LEAST accurate? A. Th-1 cells produce gamma interferon and promote cell-mediated immunity B. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-4 and -5 and promote antibody-mediated immunity C. Both Th-1 and Th-2 cells have both CD3 and CD4 proteins on their outer cell membrane D. *Before naive Th cells differentiate into Th-1 or Th-2 cells, they are, double- positives; ie, they produce both gamma interferon and intefleukin-4 E. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-10 and inhibit activity of Th-2 cells 1551. Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are: A. lymph nodes. B. spleen. C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. D. GALT E. *all of the above 1552. Shoose correct answer according the primary immune response A. *has a longer lag phase. B. has a more rapid log phase. C. persists for a longer plateau period. D. attains a higher IgG titer. E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen. 1553. Shoose correct answer according the primary immune response A. *has a longer lag phase. B. has a more rapid log phase. C. persists for a longer plateau period. D. attains a higher IgG titer. E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen. 1554. Show a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection: A. NK cells B. unbroken skin C. cilia in trachea D. *lysozyme in saliva E. all of these 1555. Show primary lymphoid organ/s: A. thymus B. bursa of Fabricius. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above are correct E. all of the above are false 1556. Stem cells arise from: A. yolk sac. B. foetal liver. C. bone marrow. D. *all of the above. E. all of the above are wrong 1557. structure? A. *The amino acid sequence variation of the heavy chains is different than that observed in light chains B. In humans, there are approximately twice as many Ig molecules with H ?and L chains C. In the three-dimensional structure of Ig, there is little, if any, flexibility in the hinge region 1558. 1559. 1560. 1561. 1562. 1563. 1564. between the Fc and two Fab portions D. IgM is a monomeric structure E. Ig structural studies have been difficult because there is no readily available model protein T-killer cells are important in controlling A. *virus infections B. allergy C. autoimmunity D. antibodies synthesis E. all of these TcRs are present in the cell membrane of: A. all mature null cells B. all mature lymphocytes C. *all mature T lymphocytes D. all mature monocytes E. all mature K cells TcRs are present in the cell membrane of: A. all mature null cells B. all mature lymphocytes C. *all mature T lymphocytes D. all mature monocytes E. all mature K cells Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it. A. serotonin B. ? interferon C. *Interleukin-6 D. TNF E. ? interferon. The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by A. The constant regions of H and L chains B. *The hypervariable regions of H and L chains C. The hypervariable regions of H chains D. The variable regions of H chains E. The variable regions of L chains The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by A. the constant regions of H and L chains B. *the hypervariable regions of H and L chains C. the hypervariable regions of H chains D. the variable regions of M chains E. the variable regions of L chains The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by The constant regions of H and L chains *The hypervariable regions of H and L chains The hypervariable regions of H chains The variable regions of H chains The variable regions of L chains The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to: A. the constant regions of the light chains B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains C. the variable regions of the heavy chains D. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains E. the constant regions of the heavy chains The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to: A. the constant regions of the light chains B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains C. the variable regions of the heavy chains D. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains E. the constant regions of the heavy chains The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on'the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue section is the A. precipitin test B. complement fixation test C. agglutination test D. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test E. coagglutination test The CD4 glycoprotein is found: A. on all Tc lymphocytes B. only on Th1 lymphocytes C. *on all Th lymphocytes D. on all NK cells E. on all B lymphocytes The CD4 glycoprotein is found: A. on all Tc lymphocytes B. only on Th1 lymphocytes C. *on all Th lymphocytes D. on all NK cells E. on all B lymphocytes The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human is A. *IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE The class of immunoglobullin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is A. *IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE The earliest stages of B cell differentiation A. Occur in the embryonic thymus B. Require the presence of antigen C. Involve rearrangement of K chain gene segments D. Involve rearrangement of surrogate light chain gene rearrangement A. B. C. D. E. 1565. 1566. 1567. 1568. 1569. 1570. 1571. 1572. E. *Involve rearrangement of heavy chain gene segments 1573. The effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the following EXCEPT: A. Lysis of gram-negative bacteria in conjunction with complement B. Enhancement of phagocytosis C. *Inhibition of bacterial metabolism D. Inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces E. Neutralization of toxins 1574. The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to A. host tissue. B. various cells of the immune system. C. some phagocytic cells. D. lysosomes. E. *antigen. 1575. The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to A. host tissue. B. various cells of the immune system. C. some phagocytic cells. D. lysosomes. E. *antigen. 1576. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies specifically on A. combinatorial joinings. B. somatic mutations. C. variations in the splicing process. D. *B-cell clones. E. T-cell clones. 1577. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies specifically on A. combinatorial joinings. B. somatic mutations. C. variations in the splicing process. D. *B-cell clones. E. T-cell clones. 1578. The fragment required for an IgG molecule to bind complement is A. Fab B. *Fc C. Variable part of a L-chain D. Variable part of a H-chain E. Constant parts of the L-chains 1579. The fragment required for an IgG molecule to bind complement is A. Fab B. *Fc C. Variable part of a L-chain D. Variable part of a H-chain E. Constant parts of the L-chains 1580. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is: A. the spleen B. the thymus C. *the bone marrow D. the appendix E. GALT 1581. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is: A. the spleen B. the thymus C. *the bone marrow D. the appendix E. GALT 1582. The main function of lysozyme: A. aggregates bacteria B. captures free iron C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall D. enhances phagocytosis E. is antiviral 1583. The MAIN host defense against bacterial exotoxins is A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies C. Helper T cells D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies 1584. The MAIN host defense against bacterial exotoxins is A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies C. Helper T cells D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies 1585. The membrane IgM and IgD on the surface of an individual B cell A. have identical heavy chains but different light chains B. *are identical except for their CH regions C. are identical except for their VH regions D. have different VH and VL regions E. are identical in the hinge region 1586. The membrane IgM and IgD on the surface of an individual B cell A. have identical heavy chains but different light chains B. *are identical except for their CH regions C. are identical except for their VH regions D. have different VH and VL regions E. are identical in the hinge region 1587. The most common type of circulating white cell is the: A. *neutrophil B. lymphocyte C. basophil D. eosinophil E. monocyte 1588. The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the A. specific receptor B. *epitope C. antibody determinant. D. active center. E. antigen binding place. 1589. The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies A. antibodies. B. *antigen. C. immune complexes. D. cytokines. E. All of the above. 1590. The TcR is found on: A. all mature lymphocytes B. *all mature T lymphocytes C. all mature B lymphocytes D. all NK cells E. all monocytes 1591. The TcR is found on: A. all mature lymphocytes B. *all mature T lymphocytes C. all mature B lymphocytes D. all NK cells E. all monocytes 1592. The thymus is considered to be: A. *a primary lymphoid organ B. a secondary lymphoid organ C. a reticuloendothelial organ D. a specialized lymph node E. a complement producing organ 1593. The thymus is considered to be: A. *a primary lymphoid organ B. a secondary lymphoid organ C. a reticuloendothelial organ D. a specialized lymph node E. a complement producing organ 1594. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter E A. Light chain B. Variable region C. Disulphide bonds D. Complement binding region E. *Receptor for placental passage 1595. What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen: A. *T cells B. В cells C. monocytes D. granulocytes E. mast cells 1596. What is function of T-killer cells? A. *take part in antiviral immunity B. allergy C. autoimmunity D. antibodies synthesis E. all of these 1597. What of the following are not organs of immune system? A. *thyroid gland B. spleen C. lymph nodes D. GALT E. tonsil gland 1598. Where do human T lymphocytes locate: A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node. B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen. C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. 1599. Which do from following cell markers belong for B lymphocyte? A. CD 38 marker. CD 25 marker. CD 4 marker. CD 3 marker *CD 19 marker. Which do T cells activate the functions of B cells and other T cells. A. Sensitized B. *Helper C. Cytotoxic D. Natural killer E. K cells Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells. A. Sensitized B. Cytotoxic C. *Helper D. Natural killer E. K cells Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent? A. IgA B. IgD C. *IgE D. IgG E. IgM Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent? A. IgA B. IgD C. *IgE D. IgG E. IgM Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent? A. IgA B. IgD C. *IgE D. IgG E. IgM Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response? It has four subclasses. A. *IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. IgD Which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital secretions? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. *IgA E. IgD Which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital secretions? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE B. C. D. E. 1600. 1601. 1602. 1603. 1604. 1605. 1606. 1607. D. *IgA E. IgD 1608. Which lymphocytes have CD8 surface antigen on their surface: A. helper Т cells. B. *cytotoxic Т cells. C. NK cells D. all of the above. E. none of the above. 1609. Which of the following are function of B-cells? A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies C. Act as antigen-processing cells D. *All of the above E. None of the above 1610. Which of the following are function of B-cells? A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies C. Act as antigen-processing cells D. *All of the above E. None of the above 1611. Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface? A. follicular dendritic cells B. macrophages C. basophils D. eosinophils E. *all of the above 1612. Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells? A. Class I B. *Class II C. Class III D. Class II & Class III E. Class I & Class III 1613. Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen? A. IL-2 B. *IL-1 C. IL-6 D. TNF-? E. IFN-? 1614. Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen? A. IL-2 B. *IL-1 C. IL-6 D. TNF-? E. IFN-? 1615. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation? A. MHC class I molecules B. MHC class II molecules C. *MHC class III molecules D. All of the above E. None of the above 1616. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation? A. MHC class I molecules B. MHC class II molecules C. *MHC class III molecules D. All of the above E. None of the above 1617. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue? A. spleen B. *thyroid gland C. lymph nodes D. GALT E. tonsil gland 1618. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the 1619. 1620. 1621. 1622. 1623. 1624. 1625. immunoglobulin pool? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. *IgG E. IgM Which of the following is useful to stimulate antibody production? A. *An adjuvant B. A hapten C. Antiserum D. Purified antigen E. Crude antigen Which of the following is useful to stimulate antibody production? A. *An adjuvant B. A hapten C. Antiserum D. Purified antigen E. Crude antigen Which of the following pairs is mismatched A. vagina --- lactobacilli B. eye --- lysozyme C. oropharynx --- anaerobes D. mucus --- lactoferrin E. *skin --- Gram negative Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have antagonistic activities? A. IL-1 and TNF-? B. IL-12 and IFN-? C. *IL-10 and IFN-? D. IL-4 and IL-5 E. IFN-? and IL-2 Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have antagonistic activities? A. IL-1 and TNF-? B. IL-12 and IFN-? C. *IL-10 and IFN-? D. IL-4 and IL-5 E. IFN-? and IL-2 Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have redundant activities? A. IL-1 and TNF-? B. *IL-10 and IFN-? C. IL-1 and IL-3 D. TNF-? and IL-2 E. IFN-? and IFN-? Which of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is noncorrect: *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells They have a high degree of polymorphism They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages They have a binding site for CD4 proteins They are main in succefull transplantation Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes? A. CD2 B. CD3 C. CD4 D. CD5 E. *CD8 Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes? A. CD2 B. CD3 C. CD4 D. CD5 E. *CD8 Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT? A. Allotypes are found only on heavy chains B. Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes C. Allotypes are confined to the variable regions D. *Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species E. Allotypes are found only on light chains Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells? A. *Alpha interferon B. Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-2 D. Interleukin-4 E. Interleukin-10 Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells? A. *Alpha interferon B. Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-2 D. Interleukin-4 E. Interleukin-10 Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells? A. ? interferon B. ? interferon C. TNF D. *Interleukin-6 E. serotonin Which substances can produce Th1 cells? A. Alpha interferon B. *Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-5 D. Interleukin-6 E. bradikidin Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement? A. IgE B. IgG1 C. IgG2 D. IgG3 E. *IgM A. B. C. D. E. 1626. 1627. 1628. 1629. 1630. 1631. 1632. 1633. 1634. Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement? A. IgE B. IgG1 C. IgG2 D. IgG3 E. *IgM 1635. Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement? A. IgE B. IgG1 C. IgG2 D. IgG3 E. *IgM 1636. A certain microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the 1637. 1638. 1639. 1640. 1641. 1642. coagglutination test. Choose him among listed: A. Micrococcus luteus B. *Staphylococcus aureus C. Escherichia coli D. Streptococcus viridans E. Salmonella typhi A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by A. *IgE antibody B. IgG .antibody C. sensitized T cell D. complement E. IgM antibody A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by A. edema without a cellular infiltrate B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers A hypersensitive reaction occurs A. during the first exposure to an antigen. B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system. C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen. D. during autoimmune diseases. E. in immunologically-deficient individuals. A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST likely to be caused by A. interleukin-2 B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) C. serotonin D. bradykinin E. ?-interferon A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that A. a humoral immune response has occurred B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred C. both the T and B cell systems are functional D. only the B cell system is functional E. level of antibodies to tuberculin is normal A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that A. a humoral immune response has occurred *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred both the T and B cell systems are functional only the B cell system is functional a humoral immune response has decreased A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A. *delayed-type allergy B. acute contact dermatitis C. autoimmunity D. eczema E. atopy A simple radial immunodiffusion allows to define the amount of immunoglobulins of different classes in a serum. It is necessary for this purpose: A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around and bring in the different types of antibodies into them E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel A titre of agglutination test is accepted as: A. the least dillution of antigen B. *maximum dillution of serum, which resuts positivly with the specific antigen C. minimum dillution of serum, which results positivly with an antigen D. minimum dillution of antibody E. maximum dillution of antigen About complement (everything is true,except): A. the nonspecific factor of immunity B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of an eye C. termolabile D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing About complement (everything is true,except): A. the nonspecific factor of immunity B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of an eye C. termolabile D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing All immunologic tests are based on: A. process of recognition of antigen by the receptors of macrophage B. co-operating of antigen with dendritic cells C. recognition of antibody by antigen’s epitopes D. *co-operating of antigen with an antibody E. all of assertions are true Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by A. *sensitized T cells. B. IgG antibodies. C. IgE antibodies. D. basophils and mast cells. E. sensitized macrophages. An attenuated vaccine is composed of A. killed microorganisms. B. *living, weakened microorganisms. B. C. D. E. 1643. 1644. 1645. 1646. 1647. 1648. 1649. 1650. C. inactivated bacterial toxins. D. purified macromolecules. E. recombinant vectors. 1651. An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n) A. immunodeficiency B. precipitation C. histamine. D. *hypersensitivity. E. allergen 1652. An example of a type III immune complex disease is A. *serum sickness B. contact dermatitis C. graft rejection D. atopy E. asthma 1653. Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except? A. cytotoxic reactions B. anaphylaxis C. *tuberculin reactions D. immune-complex rection E. atopy reaction 1654. Antigen composition of bacteria has a crucial value : A. At the cultivation of bacteria B. For the study of their biological properties C. *For establishing of the bacteria type D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance E. At determining of toxigenic properties 1655. Antigen structure of bacteria has a crucial value : A. At the cultivation of bacteria B. For the study of their biological properties C. *For establishing of the bacteria type D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance E. At determining of toxigenic properties 1656. Antigenes of precipitation test: A. corpuscular B. are absent C. *molecular D. only hapten E. antigens are not solubile 1657. Antigens used for the precipitation test can be: A. serum’s proteins B. liquid and transparent C. lysed bacteria D. the extracts of microorganisms E. *all of the above is true 1658. Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except): A. viruses B. *corpuscular C. haptens D. high-grade E. soluble 1659. Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except): A. viruses *corpuscular haptens high-grade soluble As an investigated material for serological diagnostics (definition of a level of antibodies) use: A. pus B. sputum C. urine D. *serum of blood E. liquor At O-agglutination bacteria stick together: A. By flagellas B. *By bodies C. By capsules D. By hairs E. By proteins At research of pair serums criterion of estimation CFT at serological diagnosis of bacterial infections: A. norm of controls B. full absence of hemolysis C. partial hemolysis D. diagnostic titer E. *Increase of a titer of antibodies in 2 and more times B cells are responsible for which allergies? A. asthma B. anaphylaxis C. serum sickness D. atopy E. *all of the above Bacteria stick together at O-agglutination: A. By flagellas B. *By bodies C. By capsules D. By hairs E. By proteins Bacteriolysis test: A. it is not specific B. comes to an end phagocytosis C. *comes to an end lysis D. comes to an end hemolysis E. it is possible only in vitro Bacteriolysis test: A. it is not specific B. comes to an end phagocytosis C. *comes to an end lysis D. comes to an end hemolysis E. it is possible only in vitro BCG vaccine is a: A. *live attenuated preparation. B. killed preparation. C. toxoid preparation. D. recombinant preparation. E. vector vaccine B. C. D. E. 1660. 1661. 1662. 1663. 1664. 1665. 1666. 1667. 1668. BCG vaccine is used for prevent: A. diphtheria B. *tuberculosis C. botulism D. brucelosis E. Q fever 1669. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem? A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease B. high risk of T cell leukemia C. inability to use a live donor D. delayed hypersensitivity E. autoimmune reaction 1670. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem? A. *Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease B. High risk of T cell leukemia C. Inability to use a live donor D. Delayed hypersensitivity E. High risk of immunodeficiency 1671. CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except): A. a syphilis B. gonorrhoeas C. rickettsiosis D. virus infections E. *dysbacteriosis 1672. CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except): A. a syphilis B. gonorrhoeas C. rickettsiosis D. virus infections E. *dysbacteriosis 1673. CFT it is based on activation: A. antigenes B. antibodies C. red blood cells D. hemolysin E. *complement 1674. CFT it is based on activation: A. antigenes B. antibodies C. red blood cells D. hemolysin E. *complement 1675. CFT was discovered: A. L.Pasteur B. L.A.Zilber C. A.P.Vasserman D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu E. I.I.Mechnikov 1676. CFT was discovered: A. L.Pasteur B. L.A.Zilber C. A.P.Vasserman D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu E. I.I.Mechnikov 1677. Choose functions, not incident to the antibodies among listed: A. neutralize bacteria B. neutralize exotoxin C. opsonizate bacteria D. activate cytotoxic cells absorbing on the affected cells E. *stimulate the synthesis of interferon 1678. Choose secondary immunodeficiency A. DiGeorge's syndrome B. *AIDS C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D. Ataxia-telangiectasia E. Chronic granulomatous disease 1679. Choose the components of indirect immunofluorescence among the resulted ingredients : A. antigen and patient’s serum B. serum and diagnosticum C. antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies D. *antigen, antibody, fluorescein-tagget antihuman gammaglobulin E. antigen, antibody, комплемент 1680. Complement fixation refers to A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells E. the binding of complement components by bacteria 1681. Complement fixation refers to A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells E. the binding of complement components by bacteria 1682. Complement(everything is true, except): A. stimulates phagocytosis B. possesses antigenic properties C. *possesses oncogenic properties D. Defines bactericidal action of serum E. Possesses cytolytic activity 1683. Complement(everything is true, except): A. stimulates phagocytosis B. possesses antigenic properties C. *possesses oncogenic properties D. Defines bactericidal action of serum E. Possesses cytolytic activity 1684. Components of a membrane attack complex of complement: A. С1С4С2С3 B. С1С4С2С3С5 C. *С5С6С7С8С9 D. С3С5С6С7С8 E. С6С7С8С9 1685. Components of a membrane attack complex of complement: A. С1С4С2С3 B. С1С4С2С3С5 C. *С5С6С7С8С9 D. С3С5С6С7С8 E. С6С7С8С9 1686. Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except): A. complement B. patient’s serum C. specific antigen D. hemolytic system E. *immune serum 1687. Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except): A. complement B. patient’s serum C. specific antigen D. hemolytic system E. *immune serum 1688. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except): A. sheep red blood cells B. complement C. immune serum D. *patient’s serum E. hemolysin 1689. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except): A. sheep red blood cells B. complement C. immune serum D. *patient’s serum E. hemolysin 1690. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except): A. complement B. *patient’s serum C. investigated culture D. hemolytic system E. immune serum 1691. Criteria of positive agglutination test: A. partial hemolysis B. *agglutination with intensity ++++, +++, ++ C. a phenomenon of spontaneous agglutination D. sedementation of erythrocytes E. Full hemolysis of erythrocytes 1692. Criterion of negative CFT: A. hemolysis absence B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++ C. *full hemolysis of red cells D. precipitate formation E. agglutinate formation 1693. Criterion of negative CFT: A. hemolysis absence B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++ C. *full hemolysis of red cells D. precipitate formation E. agglutinate formation 1694. Difference between precpitation and agglutination tests: A. *an antigene - molecular B. an antigene – corpuscular C. antibodies – monoclonal D. Antibodies – polyclonal E. Antibodies – blocking 1695. Direct immunofluorescence tests use a labelled antibody to identify. A. *an unknown microbe B. an unknown antibody C. fixed complement D. precipitins E. level of immunoglobulines in serum 1696. Farmer's lung is the result of A. sensitized T cells B. *immune complex reactions C. type I hypersensitivity. D. cytotoxic reactions E. urticaria 1697. Fine-grained sediment resulting from agglutination reaction implies: A. co-operation takes a place between flagella antigens and antibodies B. *somatic antigens co-operate with antibodies C. sediment has visen up in 18-24 hours D. sediment has visen up in 2-4 hours E. negative result 1698. For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses A. specific antibodies, B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins, C. *toxoids, D. IgM, E. bacteriophages 1699. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum? A. an estimation of the immune status B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency C. serological identification of microorganisms D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases E. definition of group of blood 1700. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms? A. an estimation of the immune status B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency C. *serological identification of microorganisms D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases E. definition of group of blood 1701. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum? A. an estimation of the immune status B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency C. serological identification of microorganisms D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases E. definition of group of blood 1702. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms? A. an estimation of the immune status B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency C. *serological identification of microorganisms D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases E. definition of group of blood 1703. Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by A. allergens. macrophages. humoral antibodies. antigens *T cells Hemagglutination inhibition test is often used for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the components of this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics. A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums Hemolysin is: A. patient’s serum B. hemolysed blood C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells D. serum of guine pig E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells Hemolysin is: A. patient’s serum B. hemolysed blood C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells D. serum of guine pig E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an example of A. autoimmune diseases B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity C. immune-complex hypersensitivity D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity E. atopic hypersensitivity Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus. B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus C. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus D. AB mother carries an 0 fetus. E. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. Hypersensitivity to pollen is A. *mediated by IgE antibody B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody C. initiated by haptens D. initiated by Th-2 cells E. initiated by Th-1 cells If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything, except): A. an antigen B. patient’s serum C. hemolytic system D. immune serum E. *complement If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything, except): A. an antigen B. patient’s serum B. C. D. E. 1704. 1705. 1706. 1707. 1708. 1709. 1710. 1711. C. hemolytic system D. immune serum E. *complement 1712. If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be 1713. 1714. 1715. 1716. 1717. 1718. 1719. affected? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG and IgM E. *IgM and IgA Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by A. *allergens B. macrophages C. humoral antibodies D. antigens E. T cells Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose: A. definitions of group of blood B. *titrations of complement C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells D. serological identification of microorganisms E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils Immunoglobulin chemical structure is: A. protein. B. carbohydrate. C. *glycoprotein. D. lipid E. nucleic acid. Immunological test for serologic diagnostics are directed to the detection of: A. Unknown bacteria B. *level of serum specific antibodies C. Level of complement D. Level of lysosyme E. All of the is true Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies B. development of suppressor T cells . C. saturation of IgE antibodies. D. All of the above are correct E. All of the above are not correct Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of A. IgG antibodies B. antihistamine. C. IgE antibodies. D. *offending antigen E. offending antibody In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the following? A. neurons B. *DNA C. RNA D. blood cells E. derm 1720. In the structure of viruses antigens can be represented by all, EXCEPT FOR: A. Capsid’s proteins B. Internal proteins C. Nucleoproteins D. *Nucleic acid E. Glycoproteins of supercapsid 1721. indicator system of CFT contains: A. complement+hemolysin B. *red cells and hemolysin C. patient’s serum D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin E. specific antigen 1722. indicator system of CFT contains: A. complement+hemolysin B. *red cells and hemolysin C. patient’s serum D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin E. specific antigen 1723. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have A. decreased resistance to viral infections B. increased hypersensitivity reactions C. increased frequency of cancer D. *decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia E. increased frequency of fungi infections 1724. Isoantigens are possessed by: A. Antigens which all of representatives of this kind have. B. *Antigens whichare possessed by some representatives of this kind. C. Antigens which are possessed by all of representatives of different kinds. D. Antigens which are possessed by some representatives of different kinds. E. Antigens which are possessed by a certain person. 1725. Kinds of agglutination tests(everything is true, except): A. detailed B. indirect hemagglutination C. *precipitation D. on glass-slide E. coagglutination 1726. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called A. hay fever B. asthma C. shock. D. *hives E. rashes 1727. Mechanism of precipitation test: A. hydrophobic interactions B. *connection of the active centers of antibodies and determinant groups of antigenes C. Van-Der Waalse interactions D. Brown movement E. electrostatic interaction 1728. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by A. lymphocytes. B. myeloma cells. C. *hybridomas. D. spleen cells. E. plasma cells. 1729. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by A. lymphocytes. B. myeloma cells. C. *hybridomas. D. spleen cells. E. plasma cells. 1730. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT A. the typing of tissue. B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms. C. the identification of tumor antigens. D. the classification of leukemias. E. *the manipulation of the immune response. 1731. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT A. the typing of tissue. B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms. C. the identification of tumor antigens. D. the classification of leukemias. E. *manipulation of the immune response. 1732. Negative result of indirect hemagglutination test looks like: A. *sediment of red cells as a "button" B. flocculation C. luminescence D. sediment of red cells as a "umbrella" E. sediment of red cells in the test tube 1733. Negative result of slide-agglutination looks like: A. sediment B. discoloration C. *even dimness D. flocculation E. gasification 1734. of the following? A. *Recognition of epitopes presented with major histocompatibility complex molecules on all surfaces B. Complement fixation C. Phagocytosis D. Production of antibodies E. Take part in atopic reaction 1735. One of the disadvantages of ring precipitation test is: A. Performing the test in a liquid environment B. use of transparent antigens C. *impossibility to set the amount of different antigens D. the colloid particles of protein take part in the reaction E. all of above are incorrect 1736. Opsonization refers to A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation. B. aglutination of red blood cells. C. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement. D. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells. E. antibody mediated viral inactivation. 1737. Pair serums: A. monozygotic twins’ serums B. dizygotic twins’ serum C. serums taken from different veins D. serums of two patients with same diseases E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics 1738. Pair serums: A. monozygotic twins’ serums B. dizygotic twins’ serum C. serums taken from different veins D. serums of two patients with same diseases E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics 1739. Pollen is which type of allergen? A. contactant B. ingestant C. injectant D. *inhalant E. insectant 1740. Precipitated anthrax serum contains: A. the causative agent of anthrax B. anthrax toxins C. spores of bacillus anthracis D. *antibodies to a specific antigene of bacillus anthracis E. normal antibodies 1741. Precipitation serum: A. receive from donor blood B. use for therapy C. *use for serological identifying of microorganisms D. use for serological diagnosis of infectious diseases E. contains monoclonal antibodies 1742. Precipitation test is (true everything, except): A. reaction of sedimentation of a soluble antigene B. interaction an antigene-antibody C. serological test D. *the mechanism of realization of cellular immunity E. passes in a solution of electrolit 1743. Precipitation test use (correct all,except): A. in diagnostics of Anthrax B. for definition toxigenity of diphtheritic cultures C. *for definition of groups of blood D. In forensic medicine E. for definition of class Ig 1744. Precipitation test uses for definition toxin production of diphtheritic cultures: A. ring precipitation B. *in gel C. on glass-slide D. detailed E. indirect 1745. Reaction of agglutination is a reaction: A. sedimentation of a soluble antigene B. *sedimentation of a corpuscular antigene C. linkages complement D. Immune hemolysis E. Immune sticking 1746. Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes A. precipitation . complement fixation . *degranulation. agglutination asthma Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except): A. *red blood cells - hemolysis B. an antigene - hemolysis C. serum– hemolysis D. complement- hemolysis absence E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except): A. *red blood cells - hemolysis B. an antigene - hemolysis C. serum– hemolysis D. complement- hemolysis absence E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles B. autoimmune disease, nerves C. allergy, cartilage D. *autoimmune disease, joints E. autoimmune disease, bones Select the protein among listed the bacterial antigens: A. K B. O C. Vi D. *H E. B Set the components of ring precipitation test: A. antigen and patient’s serum B. antigen, antibody, complement C. precipitated serum and bacteria D. antigen and tanned red blood cell diagnosticum E. *patient’s serum and molecular antigen Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection? A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack the donor cells B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection E. all are correct ?Specificity of antibody is directly related to the active center which is located in the molecule of immunoglobulin: A. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains C. Between the constant parts of Н-chains D. In the joint region of immunoglobuline E. *Between the variable parts of H- and L- chains Specificity of antigen is determined by: A. Chemical structure B. Foreignness C. *Epitopes B. C. D. E. 1747. 1748. 1749. 1750. 1751. 1752. 1753. 1754. D. In size electric charge E. Size of molecular weight 1755. Specificity of antigen is predefined: A. By a chemical nature B. Foreignness C. *Determination groups D. In size of electric potential E. By size of molecular weight 1756. Specify, why IgG and IgM is able to activate complement. A. Because they have complement binding point in the Fab fragment B. Because their third domain adsorbs C2 and C4 C. *Because there is a place for attachment of C1 in a joint region D. Because only their light chains are able to fix complement E. Because there is similarity between their disulphide bridge and C1-C4 1757. Structurally the molecule of immunoglobulin (IgМ) consists of: A. one monomer B. two monomers C. three monomers D. four monomers E. *five monomers 1758. The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following? A. DiGeorge syndrome B. *severe combined immunodeficiency C. rheumatoid arthritis D. leukemia E. agammaglobulinemia 1759. The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out: A. at participation of antibodies B. *at participation of LPS C. without formation membrane attack complex D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms 1760. The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on'the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue section is the A. precipitin test B. complement fixation test C. agglutination test D. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test E. coagglutination test 1761. The Classical way of activation complement is carried out: A. without participation of antibodies B. at participation properdin C. without formation membrane attack complex D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex E. at formation L-transformations 1762. The Classical way of activation complement is carried out: A. without participation of antibodies B. at participation properdin C. without formation membrane attack complex D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex E. at formation L-transformations 1763. The components of hemagglutination test(HA) are: A. Specific serum, sheep red blood cells *Viral material, red blood cells Unknown antibodies, chicken red blood cells Virus, sheep red blood cells Pair serums, viral diagnosticum The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the A. sensiling dose B. degranulation dose C. *provocative dose D. desensitizing dose E. inhibition dose The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle B. the allergen on B lymphocytes C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils D. IgE on smooth muscle E. the allergen on mast cells The isotypes of immunoglobulins are divided into the varieties in: A. Variable region of light chain. B. Constant region of light chain C. Variable region of heavy chain D. *Constant region of of heavy chain E. Any area The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by A. edema without a cellular infiltrate B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils E. cellular infiltration The level of immunoglobulins in the patient’s serum is determined by the Manchini test. How does the positive result of this reaction look ? A. sediment B. discoloration C. even dimness D. *formation of rings precipitation E. gasification The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that A. it can be administered orally B. *it provides antibody more rapidly C. antibody persists for a longer period D. it contains primarily IgM E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies The material from patient for statement agglutination reaction with the purpose serodiagnostic is: A. *serum B. diagnosticum C. culture D. agglutinated serum E. physiological solution The molecule of immunoglobulin ( IgG) consists of: A. *2th H and 2th L chains B. 2th H-chains C. 2th L- chains D. 4th H-chains E. 4th L-chains B. C. D. E. 1764. 1765. 1766. 1767. 1768. 1769. 1770. 1771. 1772. The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is A. *the class (isotype) of antibody B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed C. the participation of macrophages D. the participation of T cells E. correct all 1773. The purpose of the use of immunological reactions for serum authentication is determination of : A. *Unknown bacteria B. A level of specific antibodies is in a serum C. Level of complement D. Level of lysozymes E. All of the above-mentioned right 1774. The role of antigen in the Askoli’s thermoprecipitin test is playd by: A. bacteria B. virus C. levage of the surface of the tested object D. *thermoextract animal’s skin E. patient’s blood 1775. The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies A. antibodies. B. *antigen. C. immune complexes. D. cytokines. E. All of the above. 1776. The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to A. *an inflammatory response B. histaminesies. C. autoimmune antigens. D. IgE. E. autoimmune antibodies 1777. The titer of complement: A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis 1778. The titer of complement: A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis 1779. The working doze of complement above its titer on: A. 60-70 % B. 50-60 % C. 40-50 % D. 30-40 % E. *20-30 % 1780. The working doze of complement above its titer on: A. 60-70 % B. 50-60 % C. 40-50 % D. 30-40 % E. *20-30 % 1781. The Working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT is equal: A. 1 : 3600 B. *1 : 400 C. 1 : 200 D. 1 : 100 E. 1 : 50 1782. The Working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT is equal: A. 1 : 3600 B. *1 : 400 C. 1 : 200 D. 1 : 100 E. 1 : 50 1783. Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity. A. natural active B. artificial passive C. *artificial active D. natural passive E. antitoxic passive 1784. Vaccines are available for all of the following except: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. *Hepatitis C D. Tetanus E. Measles 1785. Viruses antigens can be all, EXCEPT: A. Capsid’s proteins B. Internal sproteins C. Nucleoproteins D. *Nucleic acid E. Glycoproteins of envelope 1786. What among transferred does relate to the indirect hemagglutination test? A. bacterial diagnosticum and patient’s serum B. *patient’s serum and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum C. antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies D. antigen and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum E. antigen, antibody, complement 1787. What from next molecules are the best antigens? A. Lipid B. Glucose C. Fat acids D. *Proteins E. Carbonhydrates 1788. What is difference between precpitation and agglutination tests: A. *an antigene - molecular B. an antigene – corpuscular C. antibodies – monoclonal D. Antibodies – polyclonal E. Antibodies – blocking 1789. What is toxoid? A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin, B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis. C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins, D. type of virus. E. *inactivated toxin. 1790. What reaction does enable to set the antigen identity, simirality or dissimilarity? A. The radial immunodiffusion of Manchini B. The single dimension immunodiffusion in one dimension (Oudin procedure) C. *The double immunodiffusion in two dimension (Ouchterlony) D. The double diffusion in one dimension (Oakley-Fulthorpe) E. The ring precipitation 1791. What structural parts of immunoglobulins are used for their division into the classes? A. Light chains B. Heavy chains C. Domains D. Fc- fragment E. Fab-fragments 1792. What structures are primarily responsible for such specificity? A. Cytotoxic T cells B. *Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells C. The major histocompatibility complex D. Specific T cell receptors E. Memory cells 1793. What structures of antigens are responsible for their variety? A. Amino acid B. Polysaccharidess C. *Epitope D. Protein E. Porin 1794. Which does not provide long term immunity? A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity D. All of the above E. None of the above 1795. Which ingredient among listed can be included into indicator system of the CFT? A. Specific antibody and complement B. Specific antigen and complement C. *Sheep red blood cells and hemolysin D. Inactivated by temperature patient’s serum E. Serum of guinea-pig 1796. Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans? A. Capsular polysaccharides B. Recombinant surface antigens C. Inactivated exotoxins D. *DNA-based E. All of the above 1797. Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections? A. Complement proteins B. ABO antibodies C. *MHC antigens D. MHC antibodies E. Mast cells 1798. Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant? A. *MHC class I molecules B. MHC class II molecules C. MHC class III molecules D. All of the above E. None of the above 1799. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production? A. *An adjuvant B. A hapten C. Antiserum D. Purified antigen E. Crude antigen 1800. Which of the following vaccine is attenuated? A. Dysentery vaccines. B. Cholera vaccines C. *BCG D. Diphtheria vaccines. E. Solk polio vaccines. 1801. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes? A. *BCG and oral polio vaccines. B. Cholera and dysentery vaccines. C. Measles and Solk polio vaccines. D. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines. E. All of the above. 1802. Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity? A. hayfever B. *allergic contact dermatitis C. glomerulonephritis D. penicillin reaction E. blood transfusion reaction 1803. Which of the listed techniques of antibodies detection is the most sensitive? A. Agglutination test B. Precipitation test C. Radial immunodiffusion test D. *Radioimmune test E. Immunoelectrophoresis 1804. Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT? A. Allotypes are found only on heavy chains B. Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes C. Allotypes are confined to the variable regions D. *Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species E. Allotypes are found only on light chains 1805. Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn? A. emergence of forbidden clones of B-cells B. *production of antibodies against sequestered tissues C. infection-induced change in receptors D. hapten (chemical) induced change of tissue antigens E. all of these are possible 1806. Who did coin the term vaccine? A. Edward Jenner. B. Kitasato. C. Ehrlich. D. *Louis Pasteur, E. Robert Koch. 1807. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885? A. *Louis Pasteur. Semple. Edward Jenner Paul Ehrlich. Wasserman. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox? A. Louis Pasteur. B. *Edward Jenner. C. Paul Ehrlich. D. John Hunter. E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. Wright’s agglutination test is used for serological diagnostic of special dangerous infections. Select such an ilness among listed? A. *brucellosis B. cholera C. tularemia D. typhoid E. anthrax Н-agglutination a bacterium stick together: A. *By flagellas B. By bodies C. By capsules D. By hairs E. By proteins A hypersensitive reaction occurs A. during the first exposure to an antigen. B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system. C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen. D. during autoimmune diseases. E. in immunologically-deficient individuals. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that A. a humoral immune response has occurred B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred C. both the T and B cell systems are functional D. only the B cell system is functional E. level of antibodies to tuberculin is normal A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A. *delayed-type allergy B. acute contact dermatitis C. autoimmunity D. eczema E. atopy A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A. *delayed-type allergy B. acute contact dermatitis C. autoimmunity D. eczema E. atopy Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by A. *sensitized T cells. B. IgG antibodies. C. IgE antibodies. D. basophils and mast cells. E. sensitized macrophages. B. C. D. E. 1808. 1809. 1810. 1811. 1812. 1813. 1814. 1815. 1816. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high 1817. 1818. 1819. 1820. 1821. 1822. 1823. 1824. proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is A. viral antigen B. *carcinoembryonic antigen C. alpha-fetoprotein D. heterophil antigen E. Forsman antigen An attenuated vaccine is composed of A. killed microorganisms. B. *living, weakened microorganisms. C. inactivated bacterial toxins. D. purified macromolecules. E. recombinant vectors. An attenuated vaccine is composed of A. killed microorganisms. B. *living, weakened microorganisms. C. inactivated bacterial toxins. D. purified macromolecules. E. recombinant vectors. An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n) A. immunodeficiency B. precipitation C. histamine. D. *hypersensitivity. E. allergen An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n) A. immunodeficiency B. precipitation C. histamine. D. *hypersensitivity. E. allergen An example of a type III immune complex disease is A. *serum sickness B. contact dermatitis C. graft rejection D. atopy E. asthma An example of a type III immune complex disease is A. *serum sickness B. contact dermatitis C. graft rejection D. atopy E. asthma Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except? A. cytotoxic reactions B. anaphylaxis C. *tuberculin reactions D. immune-complex rection E. atopy reaction Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except): A. viruses B. *corpuscular C. haptens D. high-grade E. soluble 1825. B cells are responsible for which allergies? A. asthma B. anaphylaxis C. serum sickness D. atopy E. *all of the above 1826. B cells are responsible for which allergies? A. asthma B. anaphylaxis C. serum sickness D. atopy E. *all of the above 1827. Bacteriolysis test: A. it is not specific B. comes to an end phagocytosis C. *comes to an end lysis D. comes to an end hemolysis E. it is possible only in vitro 1828. BCG vaccine is a: A. *live attenuated preparation. B. killed preparation. C. toxoid preparation. D. recombinant preparation. E. vector vaccine 1829. BCG vaccine is a: A. *live attenuated preparation. B. killed preparation. C. toxoid preparation. D. recombinant preparation. E. vector vaccine 1830. BCG vaccine is used for prevent: A. diphtheria B. *tuberculosis C. botulism D. brucelosis E. Q fever 1831. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem? A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease B. high risk of T cell leukemia C. inability to use a live donor D. delayed hypersensitivity E. autoimmune reaction 1832. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem? A. *Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease B. High risk of T cell leukemia C. Inability to use a live donor D. Delayed hypersensitivity E. High risk of immunodeficiency 1833. CFT it is based on activation: A. antigenes B. antibodies C. red blood cells D. hemolysin E. *complement 1834. Choose examination which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative); B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood; C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins; D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes. E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+) 1835. Choose secondary immunodeficiency A. DiGeorge's syndrome B. *AIDS C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D. Ataxia-telangiectasia E. Chronic granulomatous disease 1836. Choose test which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative); B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood; C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins; D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes. E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+) 1837. Chronic granulomatous disease is due to deficiency of: A. NADPH oxidase. B. MPO. C. G6PD. D. No correct answer. E. all answers are true 1838. Complement fixation refers to A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells E. the binding of complement components by bacteria 1839. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except): A. sheep red blood cells B. complement C. immune serum D. *patient’s serum E. hemolysin 1840. Controllable properties of components of CFT (everything is true,except): A. osmotic stability of red cells B. anticomplementary activity of patient’s serum C. anticomplementary activity of an antigen D. *isotonity of saline solution E. anticomplementary activity of a hemolysin 1841. DiGeorge's syndrome is due to: A. T cell defect. B. В cell defect. C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Chronic granulomatous disease E. AIDS 1842. Due to the deficiency of secretory IgA, infections occur predominantly in: A. respiratory tract. gastrointestinal tract. urogenital tract. all answers are true No correct answer Each of the following statements concerning a hybridoma cell is correct EXCEPT; A. The spleen cell component provides the ability to form antibody B. The myeloma cell component provides the ability to grow indefinitely C. *The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is IgM, because heavy-chain switching does not occur D. The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is homogeneous; ie, it is directed against a single epitope E. The hybridoma cells formed by fussion of myeloma cell and plasma cell Farmer's lung is the result of A. sensitized T cells B. *immune complex reactions C. type I hypersensitivity. D. cytotoxic reactions E. urticaria Farmer's lung is the result of A. sensitized T cells B. *immune complex reactions C. type I hypersensitivity. D. cytotoxic reactions E. urticaria For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses A. specific antibodies, B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins, C. *toxoids, D. IgM, E. bacteriophages For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum? A. an estimation of the immune status B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency C. serological identification of microorganisms D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases E. definition of group of blood Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by A. allergens. B. macrophages. C. humoral antibodies. D. antigens E. *T cells Grafts between geneticully identical individuals (ie, identical twins) A. are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibilily antigens B. are subject to hyperacute rejection C. *are not rejected, even without immunosuppression D. are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected E. are rejected slowly as a result of minor A, B, O antigens Hemolysin is: A. patient’s serum B. hemolysed blood C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells D. serum of guine pig B. C. D. E. 1843. 1844. 1845. 1846. 1847. 1848. 1849. 1850. E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells 1851. Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST 1852. 1853. 1854. 1855. 1856. 1857. 1858. probably an example of A. autoimmune diseases B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity C. immune-complex hypersensitivity D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity E. atopic hypersensitivity Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is A. IgE antibody B. *IgG antibody C. IgM antibody D. IgA antibody E. IgD antibody Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus. B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus C. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus D. AB mother carries an 0 fetus. E. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. Hypersensitivity to penicillin and bypersensitivity to poison oak are both A. mediated by IgE antibody B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody C. *initiated by haptens D. initiated by Th-2 cells E. initiated by proteins Hypersensitivity to pollen is A. *mediated by IgE antibody B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody C. initiated by haptens D. initiated by Th-2 cells E. initiated by Th-1 cells If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG and IgM E. *IgM and IgA If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA ' D. IgG and IgM E. IgM and IgA Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by A. *allergens B. macrophages C. humoral antibodies D. antigens E. T cells 1859. Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by A. *allergens B. macrophages C. humoral antibodies D. antigens E. T cells 1860. Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose: A. definitions of group of blood B. *titrations of complement C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells D. serological identification of microorganisms E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils 1861. Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose: A. definitions of group of blood B. *titrations of complement C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells D. serological identification of microorganisms E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils 1862. Immunodeficiency with elevated IgM results in: A. recurrent viral infections. B. autoimmune disorders. C. AIDS D. No correct answer E. all answers are true 1863. Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are: A. methotrexate. B. cyclosporine. C. anti-lymphocytic serum. D. No correct answer E. all answers are true 1864. Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are: A. methotrexate. B. cyclosporine. C. anti-lymphocytic serum. D. No correct answer E. all answers are true 1865. Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are: A. methotrexate. B. cyclosporine. C. anti-lymphocytic serum. D. No correct answer E. all answers are true 1866. Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies B. development of suppressor T cells . C. saturation of IgE antibodies. D. All of the above are correct E. All of the above are not correct 1867. Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of A. IgG antibodies B. antihistamine. C. IgE antibodies. D. *offending antigen E. offending antibody 1868. indicator system of CFT contains: A. complement+hemolysin B. *red cells and hemolysin C. patient’s serum D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin E. specific antigen 1869. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have A. decreased resistance to viral infections B. increased hypersensitivity reactions C. increased frequency of cancer D. *decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia E. increased frequency of fungi infections 1870. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have A. decreased resistance to viral infections B. increased hypcrsensitivity reactions C. increased frequency of cancer D. decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia E. all answers are true 1871. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have A. decreased resistance to viral infections B. increased hypcrsensitivity reactions C. increased frequency of cancer D. decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia E. all answers are true 1872. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called A. hay fever B. asthma C. shock. D. *hives E. rashes 1873. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called A. hay fever B. asthma C. shock. D. *hives E. rashes 1874. Myeloperoxidase deficiency is a defect of: A. B cells. B. Т cells. C. Complement. D. Phagocytes E. both В and Т cell defects. 1875. Myeloperoxidase deficiency is a defect of: A. B cells. B. Т cells. C. Complement. D. Phagocytes E. both В and Т cell defects. 1876. Name the secondary immunodeficiency A. DiGeorge's syndrome B. *AIDS C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D. Ataxia-telangiectasia E. Chronic granulomatous disease 1877. Pair serums: A. monozygotic twins’ serums B. dizygotic twins’ serum C. serums taken from different veins D. serums of two patients with same diseases E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics 1878. Patient has the Ataxia-Telangiectasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 1879. Patient has the Ataxia-Telangiectasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 1880. Patient has the Chidiak-Higashi Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 1881. Patient has the DiGeorge's Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 1882. Patient has the Hereditary Angloedema. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 1883. Patient has the Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 1884. Patient has the Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 1885. Patient has the X-Linked Hypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia). What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. Т cell defect. both В and Т cell defects. Complement deficiency. Phagocyte Deficiencies Patients with severely reduced C3 levels tend to have A. increased numbers of severe viral infections B. increased numbers of severe bacterial infections C. low gamma globulin levels D. frequent episodes of hemolytic anemia E. all answers are true Pollen is which type of allergen? A. contactant B. ingestant C. injectant D. *inhalant E. insectant Polymorphonuclear leucocytes in patients with which condition possess large lysosomes? A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome. B. Chronic granulomatous disease. C. Myeloperoxidase deficiency. D. Leucocyte G6PD deficiency. E. Agammaglobulinemia Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes A. precipitation . B. complement fixation . C. *degranulation. D. agglutination E. asthma Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except): A. *red blood cells - hemolysis B. an antigene - hemolysis C. serum– hemolysis D. complement- hemolysis absence E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles B. autoimmune disease, nerves C. allergy, cartilage D. *autoimmune disease, joints E. autoimmune disease, bones Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles B. autoimmune disease, nerves C. allergy, cartilage D. *autoimmune disease, joints E. autoimmune disease, bones Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection? A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack the donor cells B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection B. C. D. E. 1886. 1887. 1888. 1889. 1890. 1891. 1892. 1893. E. all are correct 1894. Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection? A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack the donor cells B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection E. all are correct 1895. Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely to 1896. 1897. 1898. 1899. 1900. 1901. be caused by A. interleukin-2 B. interleukin-10 C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) D. serotonin E. bradykinin Swiss-type agammaglobulinaemia is due to: A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with deficiency of: A. Cl, C4 B. B cells C. Т cells D. No correct answer E. Phagocyte Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with deficiency of: A. Cl, C4 B. B cells C. Т cells D. No correct answer E. Phagocyte The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out: A. at participation of antibodies B. *at participation of LPS C. without formation membrane attack complex D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms The child, 1,5 years old, is in the hospital with tetany symptom. Due to the anamnesis of his disease he has had recurrent severe viral, fungal infections. A. X-linked agammaglobulinemia B. SCID C. ADA deficiency D. DiGeorge syndrome E. Immunodeficiency of IgA The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the A. sensiling dose B. degranulation dose C. *provocative dose D. desensitizing dose E. inhibition dose 1902. The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the A. sensiling dose B. degranulation dose C. *provocative dose D. desensitizing dose E. inhibition dose 1903. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle B. the allergen on B lymphocytes C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils D. IgE on smooth muscle E. the allergen on mast cells 1904. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle B. the allergen on B lymphocytes C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils D. IgE on smooth muscle E. the allergen on mast cells 1905. The first level tests for assessment of immune status includes all of the following determinations, 1906. 1907. 1908. 1909. 1910. ECXEPT: A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative); B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood; C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins; D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes. E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+) The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by A. edema without a cellular infiltrate B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils E. cellular infiltration The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that A. it can be administered orally B. *it provides antibody more rapidly C. antibody persists for a longer period D. it contains primarily IgM E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is A. *the class (isotype) of antibody B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed C. the participation of macrophages D. the participation of T cells E. correct all The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity is A. the class (isotype) of antibody B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed C. the participation of complement D. the participation of T cells E. interraction between antigen and antibody The second level tests for assessment of immune status (analytical) includes all of the following determinations, ECXEPT: A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+); B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test; C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast 1911. 1912. 1913. 1914. 1915. 1916. 1917. 1918. transformation test); D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity; E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood The second level tests for assessment of immune status (analytical) includes all of the following determinations, ECXEPT: A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+); B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test; C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test); D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity; E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to A. *an inflammatory response B. histaminesies. C. autoimmune antigens. D. IgE. E. autoimmune antibodies The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to A. *an inflammatory response B. histaminesies. C. autoimmune antigens. D. IgE. E. autoimmune antibodies The titer of complement: A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity. A. natural active B. artificial passive C. *artificial active D. natural passive E. antitoxic passive Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity. A. natural active B. artificial passive C. *artificial active D. natural passive E. antitoxic passive Vaccines are available for all of the following except: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. *Hepatitis C D. Tetanus E. Measles What does a positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicate ? A. a humoral immune response has occurred B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred C. both the T and B cell systems are functional D. only the B cell system is functional E. a humoral immune response has decreased 1919. What does immunodeficiency with elevated IgM result in: A. recurrent pyogenic infections. B. AIDS C. All answers are correct. D. No correct answer E. recurrent fungal infections 1920. What does immunodeficiency with elevated IgM result in: A. recurrent pyogenic infections. B. AIDS C. All answers are correct. D. No correct answer E. recurrent fungal infections 1921. What examination is not used for the first level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative); B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood; C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins; D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes. E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+) 1922. What examination is not used for the first level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative); B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood; C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins; D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes. E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+) 1923. What examination is not used for the second level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+); B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test; C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test); D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity; E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood 1924. What examination is not used for the second level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+); B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test; C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test); D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity; E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood 1925. What examination which is not used for the second level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+); B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test; C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test); D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity; E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood 1926. What examination which is not used for the second level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+); B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test; C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test); D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity; E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood 1927. What examination which is not used for the second level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+); B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test; C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test); D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity; E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood 1928. What is DiGeorge's syndrome? A. *T cell defect. B. В cell defect. C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Chronic granulomatous disease E. AIDS 1929. What is the mechanism of action of second type hypersensitivities? A. IgE reacting with mast cells B. activation of cytotoxic T cells C. IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues D. *complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies E. activation of natural killer cells 1930. What is the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection? A. They are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack 1931. 1932. 1933. 1934. the donor cells B. *They are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells C. They induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft D. They induce IgE which mediates graft rejection E. They induce complement depended cytolysis of the graft What is toxoid? A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin, B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis. C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins, D. type of virus. E. *inactivated toxin. What is toxoid? A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin, B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis. C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins, D. type of virus. E. *inactivated toxin. What kind of immundeficiency is chronic granulomatous? A. NADPH oxidase. B. MPO. C. G6PD. D. No correct answer. E. *all answers are true When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, damage to the membrane is caused mainly by A. gamma interferon B. phagocytosis C. cytotoxic T cells D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells E. natural killers 1935. Which allergies are T-cell mediated? A. type I B. type II C. type III D. *type IV E. all are correct 1936. ?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by 1937. 1938. 1939. 1940. 1941. 1942. 1943. Rh incompatibility? A. Atopic or anaphylactic B. *Cytotoxic C. Immune complex D. Delayed E. Autoimmune Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. Complement deficiency. D. Phagocyte Deficiencies E. No correct answer Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. Complement deficiency. D. Phagocyte Deficiencies E. No correct answer Which does not provide long term immunity? A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity D. All of the above E. None of the above Which does not provide long term immunity? A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity D. All of the above E. None of the above Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans? A. Capsular polysaccharides B. Recombinant surface antigens C. Inactivated exotoxins D. *DNA-based E. All of the above Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans? A. Capsular polysaccharides B. Recombinant surface antigens C. Inactivated exotoxins D. *DNA-based E. All of the above Which major problem do immunocompromised patients with bone marrow transplantation have? A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease B. high risk of T cell leukemia C. inability to use a live donor D. delayed hypersensitivity E. autoimmune reaction 1944. Which of following is secondary immunodeficiency A. DiGeorge's syndrome B. *AIDS C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D. Ataxia-telangiectasia E. Chronic granulomatous disease 1945. Which of following tests are/is not used for the first level of immune status assessment? A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative); B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood; C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins; D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes. E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+) 1946. Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections? A. Complement proteins B. ABO antibodies C. *MHC antigens D. MHC antibodies E. Mast cells 1947. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production? A. *An adjuvant B. A hapten C. Antiserum D. Purified antigen E. Crude antigen 1948. Which of the following vaccine is attenuated? A. Dysentery vaccines. B. Cholera vaccines C. *BCG D. Diphtheria vaccines. E. Solk polio vaccines. 1949. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes? A. *BCG and oral polio vaccines. B. Cholera and dysentery vaccines. C. Measles and Solk polio vaccines. D. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines. E. All of the above. 1950. Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity? A. hayfever B. *allergic contact dermatitis C. glomerulonephritis D. penicillin reaction E. blood transfusion reaction 1951. Which one of the following is the BEST method of reducing the effect of graft-versus-host disease in a bone marrow recipient? A. Matching the complement components of donor and recipient B. Administering alpha interferon C. *Removing mature T cells from the graft D. Removing pre-B cells from the graft E. Using monoclonal antibodies 1952. Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci? *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue 1953. Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn? A. emergence of forbidden clones of B-cells B. *production of antibodies against sequestered tissues C. infection-induced change in receptors D. hapten (chemical) induced change of tissue antigens E. all of these are possible 1954. Who did coin the term vaccine? A. Edward Jenner. B. Kitasato. C. Ehrlich. D. *Louis Pasteur, E. Robert Koch. 1955. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885? A. *Louis Pasteur. B. Semple. C. Edward Jenner D. Paul Ehrlich. E. Wasserman. 1956. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox? A. Louis Pasteur. B. *Edward Jenner. C. Paul Ehrlich. D. John Hunter. E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. Situation tasks 1. A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had become very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the hospital. Later that day she developed rash, at first petechial and then pupuric. Gram stain of CSF showed many white cells and Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism is most likely to be the cause of her infection? A. Escherichia coli. B. Haemophilus influenzae. C. *Neisseria meningitidis. D. Streptococcus agalactiae. E. Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had become very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the hospital. Later that day she developed rash, first petechial and then pupuric. Her white count was 26,000/ull, with 80% neutrophils and 10% 'bands'. Gram stain of CSF showed many white cells and numerous bacteria. If the pathogen is Neisseria meningitidis, how would you expect it to appear on Gram stain? A. Gram-positive cocci, many in pairs. B. Gram-positive cocci, many in clusters. C. Isolated Gram-positive cocci. D. *Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. E. Gram-negative cocci, many in clusters. 3. An elderly man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Gram stain of sputum contains many neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci, in pairs. Blood and sputum cultures reveal Gram-positive cocci, A. B. C. D. E. ?-hemolytic on sheep blood agar, and catalase-negative. What microorganism is the most likely to cause the disease? A. Staphylococcus epidermidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. *Streptococcus pneumoniae. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae. 4. At staining by Gram’s method after flooding the slide with iodine solution preparation is treated by: A. Fuchsine B. Washing with water C. Crystal violet D. *Alcohol E. Sulphuric acid 5. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are: A. *Bacillus. B. Bacterium. C. Corynebacterium D. Mycobacterium E. Micrococcus 6. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are: . A. *Bacillus. B. Bacterium. C. Corynebacterium D. Mycobacterium E. Micrococcus 7. Cells that do not have a membrane separating their nuclear material from their cytoplasm are called A. heterozygous. B. *prokaryotic C. homozygous. D. eukaryotic. E. viruses. 8. Each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is correct EXCEPT: A. It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine B. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve D-alanine C. *It is thinner in gram-positive than in gram-negative cells D. It can be degraded by lysozyme E. It has tetramers of aminoacids 9. Each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is correct EXCEPT: A. It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine B. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve D-alanine C. *It is thinner in gram-positive than in gramnegative cells D. It can be degraded by lysozyme E. No non correct answer 10. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT: A. *Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity B. They are formed by gram-positive rods C. C. They can be killed by being heated to 121 °C for 15 minutes D. They contain much less water than bacterial cells E. All of the above. 11. Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct EXCEPT: A. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer B. Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue be cause it has a thick peptidoglycan layer C. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae isn't visible in the Gram stain because it doesn't have a cell wall E. Salmonella typhi stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer 12. Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct EXCEPT: A. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium B. Polysaccharide capsules retard phagocytosis C. Both gram-negative rods and cocci have lipopolysaccharide ("endotoxin") in their cell wall D. *Bacterial flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they closely resemble human flagella in chemical composition E. None of the above 13. Fixation is the process by which the structures of the cells are preserved and fixed in position. An advantage of chemical fixation over heat fixation is that it A. magnifies the specimen B. *does not destroy internal structures C. uses simple chemical substances D. can make during short time E. kills bacteria 14. In bacterial cells, ribosomes are packed into the cytoplasmic matrix and also loosely attached to the plasma membrane. What is the function of ribosomes? A. Site of energy production B. *Site of protein synthesis C. Site of genetic reproduction D. Site of toxin production E. Site of lipopolysaccharide production 15. Lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall in: A. gram-positive bacteria. B. *gram-negative bacteria. C. fungi. D. protozoa. E. none of the above 16. Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using A. fluorescent microscopy B. transmission electron microscopy C. *phase contrast microscopy D. Scan. Electron microscopy E. light microscopy 17. Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscopes. Light of which color below would give you the best resolution? A. Red B. Orange C. Green D. *Blue E. Brown 18. Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because A. they are inherited from one generation to the next. B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage. C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant. D. they may carry genes that code sugarlytic enzymes E. *all of the above. 19. Resistance of bacteria to acid depends from present in cytoplasm A. lipopolysaccharides B. *oxyacid, fatty acid C. acetylglucosamine D. diaminopimelic acid E. poliphosphates 20. Resolution is the ability of a lens to distinguish between small objects close together. What approximate resolution can be obtained with a light microscope A. *0.1 ?m B. 0.3 ?m C. 0.5 ?m D. 0.8 ?m E. 1,0 ?m 21. The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is important in each of the following aspects EXCEPT: A. exocytosis of proteins B. cell wall synthesis C. *location of lipopolysaccharide D. oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport E. active transport of nutrients 22. The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is important in each of the following aspects EXCEPT: A. exocytosis of proteins B. cell wall synthesis C. *location of lipopolysaccharide D. oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport E. active transport of nutrients 23. The Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls generally differ in that the Gram-positives exclusively possess: A. carbohydrates B. *teichoic acids C. peptides D. lipid E. none of the above 24. The LPS or lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of: A. *peptidoglycan B. lipid A C. core polysaccharide D. O-antigen E. aeny of the above 25. The LPS or lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of: A. *peptidoglycan B. lipid A C. core polysaccharide D. O-antigen E. any of the above 26. The major defining difference(s) between a PROKARYOTIC and a EUKARYOTIC cell is/are…: A. *The absence of membrane-bound organelles in prokaryotes. B. The absence of membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes. C. The lack of photosynthesis by prokaryotic cells. D. The use of ATP as an energy source by the more complex eukaryotic cells. E. The absence of chromosomes in prokaryotes. 27. The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term describing this shape is A. *coccus B. bacillus C. pleomorphic D. vibrio E. spirochete 28. The most important role of the prokaryotic cell wall is to A. *maintain the shape of the cell. B. protect the cell from osmotic pressures. C. prevent ions from diffusing away from the cell. D. block the effects of antibiotics like penicillin. E. protect cell from oxygen 29. The original distinction between the two types of cells, prokaryotic and eukaryotic, was made on the basis of the A. structure of the cell wall B. absence or presence of mitochondria. C. *absence or presence of a nuclear membrane. D. absence or presence of ribosomes E. structure of the cell membrane. 30. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in: A. Clostridium perfringens. B. C. tetani. C. *С. botulinum. D. C. histolyticum. E. C. difficilae 31. Upon staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after treating with sulphuric acid the preparation is necessary ussing A. Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine B. Alcohol C. Меthylene blue D. *Washing with water E. iodine solution 32. Upon staining spores by Auesko’s method after treating with hydrochloric acid and heating the preparation: A. is staining with mеthylene blue B. is washing with water and drying out C. *is staining with Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine D. is treating with sulphuric acid E. is staining with crystal violet 33. Upon staining spores by Auesko’s method after treating with hydrochloric acid and heating the preparation: A. is staining with mеthylene blue B. is washing with water and drying out C. *is staining with Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine D. is treating with sulphuric acid E. is staining with crystal violet 34. What color has mycobacterim tuberculosis after staining by Ziehl-Neelsen technique A. blue B. violet C. *red D. brown E. green 35. What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid? A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine B. Using alcohol C. Staining by mеthylene blue D. *Washing with water E. Using iodine solution 36. When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous. B. *lophotrichous. C. amphitrichous. D. peritrichous. E. bitrichous 37. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous. B. lophotrichous. C. amphitrichous. D. *peritrichous. E. bitrichous 38. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous. B. lophotrichous. C. amphitrichous. D. *peritrichous. E. polytrichous 39. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous. B. lophotrichous. C. *amphitrichous. D. peritrichous. E. polytrichous 40. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as: A. monotrichous. B. lophotrichous. C. *amphitrichous. D. peritrichous. E. bitrichous 41. Which from following microorganisms does contain sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane? A. *Mycoplasma. B. Bacillus. C. Clostridium. D. Proteus. E. Ricketsia 42. Which of the following components are most found in the Gram-negative cell wall? A. *lipopolysaccharides B. peptidoglycan C. teichoic acid D. N-acetyl muramic acid E. amino acids 43. Which of the following components are not found in the Gram-positive cell wall? A. *lipopolysaccharides B. peptidoglycan C. teichoic acid D. N-acetyl muramic acid E. amino acids 44. Which of the following statements is the most correct about the differential Gram stain? A. Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive cells. B. Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram positive cells. C. *Etanol differentially destains Gram negative cells. D. Saffron red differentially stains Gram negative cells. E. Etanol fixes Gram negative cells 45. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox? A. Louis Pasteur. B. *Edward Jenner. C. Paul Ehrlich. D. John Hunter. E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. 46. Who was this scientist? He was originally trained as a chemist, but his studies on fermentation led him to take interest in microorganisms. His discoveries revolutionized medical practice, although he never studied medicine. A. Robert Koch. B. *Louis Pasteur. C. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. D. Edward Jenner. E. Paul Ehrlich. 47. A degree of heterotrophy may be different. The highest heterotrophy have prokaryotic organisms that are able to live only inside the living cells. They are: A. staphylococci and streptococci B. escherichia and salmonellas C. mycobacteria and bordetella D. *rickettsia and chlamidia E. vibrios and treponema 48. A nurse has to sterilize surgical instruments for an operation. What most effective method can you offer? A. fractional sterilization B. sterilization by pressed steam C. boiling D. *by dry heat E. ionizing radiation 49. After finishing the experience in students’ laboratory it’s necessary to disinfect the workplace. What chemicals can be used? A. ether B. hydrochloric acid C. formalin D. chloroform E. *Chloraminum 50. After inoculation of Escherichia coli on Ploskirev’s medium the growth of bacteria is inhibited. What chemical does predetermine this phenomenon? A. oxalic acid B. sodium sulphite C. *brilliant green D. Bismuth salts E. fuchsin 51. After inoculation of the patient’s feces on Endo’s medium there were grown two types of colonies: one – red with metallic hue, other - colorless. What group of nutrient media does Endo’s medium belong to? A. *Differential diagnostic B. Elective C. Enriching media D. Universal E. Selective 52. After practical classes it is necessary to kill bacterial cultures that were used by students. Choose optimum regime of sterilization in an autoclave: A. *134 °С 40 minutes B. 120 °С 20 minutes C. 112 °С 15 minutes D. 134 °С 10 minutes E. 127 °С 30 minutes 53. Colonies of bacteria that grow on solid nutrient media can be differentiated according to: A. consistencies B. density C. color D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 54. Constructive and power metabolisms are closely connected, sometimes their ways coincide, and the same substrates are utilized for different necessities. Such ways are called: A. metabolic B. *amphibolic C. associative D. dissociative E. polybolic 55. During the evolution bacteria produced the ways of energy reception. There are: A. fermentation B. respiration C. photosynthesis D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 56. During the stationary phase of population growth the reason of bacterial death is: A. diminishing amount of nutrients B. changes of medium рН C. toxic action of appearing substances D. *all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 57. Efficiency of sterilization at heating is characterized the D index. What is it? A. *time (minutes) which is necessary at certain temperature to get the tenfold diminishing the bacterial population B. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature to get twofold diminishing the bacterial population C. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature, to get fourfold diminishing the bacterial population D. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature, to get fivefold diminishing the bacterial population E. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature to destroy all bacteria 58. Energy which is generated by a cell exists in the form of electrochemical transmembrane gradient of hydrogen ions - ?µН+ or in ATP molecules. What is the mechanism of transformation of one type of energy into another? A. electronic ATF-synthesizing complex B. *proton ATF-synthesizing complex C. molecular ATF-synthesizing complex D. all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 59. For biological control of sterilization quality microorganisms are used. What important feature do they have? A. gram-positive B. gram-negative C. form capsules D. *form spores E. form pili 60. For checking the quality of filters in an experiment a fluid containing test-microbe was filtered. Later a filter was laid on the surface of nutrient medium and put into the incubator. How much time is it necessary to hold it on medium to give a final answer about its quality? A. 1 day at an optimum temperature B. optimum temperature, 2 days C. optimum temperature, 3 days D. optimum temperature, 4 days E. *at an optimum temperature, 5 day 61. For examination of lipolytic properties of microbes lipids and lipid-like substances – tweens – are supplemented into the medium. According to what signs is it possible to check the lipolytic activity of bacteria? A. The colonies of bacteria lose their typical form B. *Bacteria form iridescent halos round the colonies C. The colonies of bacterium are painted in the color of indicator D. The colonies of bacteria become semilucent E. If microbes lipolytic properties they do not grow on an medium 62. For sterilization of glassware utilize a heat oven is used. Choose the best regime of sterilization: A. 180 C, 15-30 minutes B. 180 1C, 120 minutes C. *180 1, 45-60 D. 160 1, 45-60 minutes E. 160 1, 15-30 63. For verifying the peptolytic properties of bacteria what substances are examined in nutrient medium? A. carbon acid and water B. glucose and lactose C. carbon acid and nitrogen D. mannitol and methanol E. *indole and hydrogen sulphide 64. From patient with gas anaerobic infection it is necessary to select the culture of causative agents. What medium can be chosen? A. Leffler’s medium B. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium C. Petrov’s medium D. Makkoy-Chepin’s medium E. Petranyani’s medium 65. How is it possible to carry out control of sterility of nutrient media after their preparing? A. By keeping in incubator at 37 °С for a few hours. B. By keeping in incubator at a temperature 42 °С for a few hours C. By keeping at 18-20 °С. For a few hours D. *By keeping in incubator for a few days at 37 °С. E. Right answer is not present 66. How is it possible to increase the phase of exponential growth and M-concentration artificially ? A. by the renewing of nutrient medium B. additional aeration (for aerobes) C. it is impossible to do it D. a right answer is not present E. *right answers A and B 67. How much time is it necessary to cultivate the bacteria on Bismuth-sulfite agar for final evaluation of growth? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 36 hours D. *48 hours E. 96 hour 68. In a bacteriological laboratory it is necessary to nutrient media, which contain matters, changing at a temperature higher then 100 °С (urea, carbohydrates, proteins). What method of sterilization can you offer? A. *by live steam B. autoclave, pressed steam C. boiling D. tindalization E. pasteurization 69. In a hospital chief of department decided to check the quality of instruments sterilization in an autoclave by biological method. What bacteria can be used for this test? A. Pathogenic B. Capsule-forming C. Acid fast D. *Spore-forming E. Thermophilic 70. In a laboratory for acceleration of sterilization of media with sugar by live steam this procedure was made in one day: in the morning, in the day-time and in the evening for 30 min. How to sterilize these media correctly? A. To sterilize 1 hour B. To sterilize 15 minutes C. To sterilize 45 minutes D. *To sterilize three times with 24 hour interval E. To sterilize twice for a days 71. In a medium with gelatin it is possible to verify the proteolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the positive results? A. *liquefacience of gelatin column B. compression of gelatin column C. discoloration of gelatin column D. appearance of dark precipitate in gelatin column E. brightening of gelatin column. 72. In a pharmacy it is necessary to sterilize the small bottles with physiological sodium chloride solution for injection. What method is it necessary to apply for their sterilization? A. *in an autoclave, 2 atmospheres B. in an autoclave by fluid steam C. in a heat oven D. by X-ray E. by ultraviolet light 73. In an autoclave at 112 °С nutrient media were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to utilize for sterilization control? A. Bacillus cereus B. Bacillus subtilis C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile E. *Clostridium sporogenes 74. In an autoclave at 121 °С nutrient media were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to utilize for sterilization control? A. Bacillus cereus B. Bacillus subtilis C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile E. *Bacillus steatothermophilus 75. In heat oven at 160 C Petry’s palates were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to use for sterilization control? A. Bacillus cereus B. *Bacillus subtilis C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile E. Proteus vulgaris 76. In MPB it is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. How is it possible to prove, if microbes produce the hydrogen sulphide? A. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its color, it becomes red B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its color, it becomes dark blue C. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its color, it becomes black D. the color of medium becomes greyish E. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; the hydrogen sulphide is changed by its color, it becomes black 77. In MPB it is necessary to verify the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the positive results – indole production? A. to insert the indicator, saturated with a litmus; an indole is changed its color, it becomes red B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; an indole is changed its color, it becomes dark blue C. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a litmus; a indole is changed its color, it becomes dark blue D. the color of medium becomes rose E. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; a indole is changed by its color, it becomes rose 78. In Olkenitsky’s medium Escherichia coli was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a medium, which will confirm utilization of glucose and lactose? A. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow in the column of agar B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of slant surface of agar C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of slant surface of agar D. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and slant surface of agar E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar 79. In Olkenitsky’s medium microorganism which products an urea was inoculated. What changes here will be observed in a medium? A. *all will become red B. appearance of red precipitate in the column of agar C. appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar D. to fix the urease production in this medium is impossible E. appearance of brightly-violet precipitate in the column of agar 80. In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which decomposes glucose to acid was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a medium, which certify utilization of glucose? A. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow the slant surface of agar C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red the slant surface of agar D. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and the slant surface of agar E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar 81. In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which forms the hydrogen supplied was inoculated. What changes will be in a medium in this case? A. To fix the hydrogen sulphide production in this medium is impossible B. *appearance of black precipitate in the column of agar C. appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar D. appearance of bright red precipitate in the column of agar E. all medium will be black 82. At what period after finishing the disinfections is it recommended to collect the control samples? A. not before, than in 10-15 min B. not before, than in 15-20 min C. not before, than in 20-30 min D. *not before, than in 30-45 min E. not before, than in 60-90 min 83. At what phases of growth are microorganisms most physiologically and functionally active? A. initial and exponential B. *exponential and stationary C. stationary and death D. initial and stationary E. exponential and death 84. It is necessary to verify the hemolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient media will you recommend? A. simple MPA B. simple MPB C. Endo’s medium D. *blood MPA E. serum MPA 85. It is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient medium will you recommend? A. MPA B. Endo’s medium C. Ru’s medium D. 1 % alkaline peptone water E. *MPB 86. It is necessary to check the quality of antibacterial filters. What microorganism is it possible to choose as a test-object? A. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Salmonella schottmuelleri C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Bordetella pertussis E. Mycobacterium kansassii 87. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 121 °С. What chemical indicator of sterilization effectiveness may be used? A. benzonaphtolum B. antipyrine C. sulphur D. *benzoic acid E. urea 88. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 110 °С sterilization. What chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized? A. *benzonaphtolum B. antipyrine C. sulphur D. benzoic acid E. urea 89. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 115 °С. What chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized? A. benzonaphtolum B. *antipyrine C. sulphur D. benzoic acid E. urea 90. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 132 °С. What chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized? A. benzonaphtolum B. antipyrine C. sulphur D. benzoic acid E. *urea 91. It is necessary to create anaerobic conditions for cultivation of proper bacteria by biological method. What method could you propose? A. Zeissler’s method B. Shukevich’s method C. Veynberg’s method D. *Fortner’s method E. Pasteur’s method 92. It is necessary to examine the carriage of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by the child. What nutrient medium is elective for Corynebacterium diphtheriae? A. Levenshteyn-Yensen’s medium B. Ploskirev’s medium C. *Ru’s medium D. Ol'kenickiy’s medium E. Endo’s medium 93. It is necessary to examine the carriage of vibrios by group of persons in the infection focus of cholera. What medium is elective for Vibrio cholerae? A. MPB B. Ploskirev’s medium C. *1 % alkaline peptone water D. Serum MPB E. Ascitic agar 94. It is necessary to make biochemical identification and examine saccharolytic properties of bacteria. What media could you offer? A. Veynberg’s medium B. Zeissler’s medium C. *Giss’s media D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium E. Milk 95. It is necessary to prepare a coagulated serum for isolation of culture of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. How can you do serum coagulation? A. 80-90 °С during 10 min B. 70-80 °С during 30 min C. 50-60 °С during 30 min D. 90-100 °С during 30 min E. *80-90 °С during 1 hour. 96. It is necessary to sterilize an object that destroys at 100 °С . Choose the comfortable regime of tyndalization: A. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other B. single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 10 min C. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 3-4 days one after the other D. *sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other E. sterilization by water bath at 80-90 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other 97. It is necessary to sterilize material that contains the spore-forming bacteria by live steam. Choose the regime of sterilization: A. single sterilization during 10 min. B. single sterilization during 20 min. C. fractional sterilization – three times one after the other during one day, 30 min. D. fractional sterilization – 2 days one after the other, 30 min. E. *fractional sterilization – 3 days one after the other, 30 min. 98. It is necessary to sterilize the dressing material. Choose optimum regime of sterilization in an autoclave: A. 110 °С during 20 minutes B. 127 °С during 20 minutes C. 134 °С during 40 minutes D. *120 °С during 20 minutes E. 100 °С during 20 minutes 99. It is necessary to study ability of microbes to utilize glucose, saccharose, lactose, production of hydrogen sulphide and utilization of urea. What nutrient media will you recommend? A. Ru’s medium B. Leffler’s medium C. Endo’s medium D. Ploskirev’s medium E. *Olkenitsky’s medium 100. It is necessary to study bacterial peptolytic properties. Indicate the proper medium: A. Meat-peptone agar B. Sugar MPA C. Coagulated serum D. *Meat-peptone broth E. gelatin 101. Laboratory diagnosis of tetanus was made in the laboratory. What method of sterilization is it necessary to use for killing the selected cultures? A. *Autoclaving B. Boiling C. Tindalizatio D. In the heat oven E. Pasteurization 102. Material from a patient suspected in typhoid fever was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colonies of lactosonegative Salmonella typhi have? A. dark blue B. *colorless C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 103. Material from a patient suspected in dysentery was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colonies of lactosonegative Shigella have? A. dark blue B. green C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. *colorless 104. Material from a patient suspected in an intestinal infection was inoculated on the Ploskirev’s medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have? A. B. C. D. E. dark blue colorless *rose brown green 105. Material from a patient with suspicion on colienteritis was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have? A. blue B. colorless C. *red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 106. Material from a patient with suspicion on shigellosis (dysentery) was inoculated on the Ploskirev’s medium. What color do colonies of lactose-negative Shigella have? A. dark blue B. green C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. *colorless 107. Material from a sick woman must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium for diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis. Indicate this medium? A. Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. *Saburo’s medium 108. Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. *Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 109. Microorganisms that are used as an energy source chemical reaction in the medium belong to: A. heterotrophs B. autotrophs C. lithotrophs D. organotrophs E. *chemotrophs 110. On the Endo’s medium colonies Escherichia and Salmonella were isolated. According to what signs is it possible to make differentiation between them? A. sizes B. character of the edges C. character of surfaces D. consistency E. *color 111. On the mucous membranes of human there are corynebacteria. What selective medium for their cultivation? A. Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. *Agar with furazolidonum and tween E. Saburo’s medium 112. Some microorganisms lost their capacity for a synthesis of some necessary growth factors, therefore they do not can grow on minimum nutrient media. They are called: A. *auxotrophs B. paratrophs C. prototrophs D. myxotrophs E. oligotrophs 113. The pure culture of microorganisms grows and develops at presence of an atmosphere oxygen (no less what 20 % oxygen). What group of microorganisms according to their respiration does this culture belong to? A. *Obligate aerobes B. Obligate anaerobes C. Facultative anaerobes D. Microaerophilic bacteria E. Capneic bacteria 114. The wild bacteria are able to synthesize all necessary for them substances from a limited number of organic compounds, for example, from glucose and ammonium salts. They are called: A. auxotrophs B. paratrophs C. *prototrophs D. myxotrophs E. oligotrophs 115. Wares from rubber and polymeric materials may be sterilized by immersing them in: A. 3 % hydrogen peroxide, 6 hours at 18 °С B. 6 % hydrogen peroxide, 12 hours at 18 °С C. 6 % hydrogen peroxide on 1 hour at 18 °С D. *6 % hydrogen peroxide on 6 hours at 18 °С E. 6 % hydrogen peroxide on 2 hour at 18 °С 116. What microorganisms can be used for quality control of sterilization by filtration? A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella typhi C. *Serratia mаrcescens D. Clostridium perfringens E. Corynebacterium xerosis 117. What chemicals can be added into of nutrient media for cultivation of anaerobes, because they have oxygen-fixing effect? A. Calcium gluconate B. Potassium permanganate C. Iron sulfate D. Aluminium hydroxide E. *Sodium hydrosulphite 118. What color does acquire the semi-solid Giss’s media with the indicators water blue and rosolic acid there is sugar utilization? A. red B. green C. *dark blue D. brown E. a color does not change 119. What enzyme of aerobic bacteria does provide neutralization of hydrogen peroxide toxic effect? A. lipase B. protease C. hydrolase D. *catalase E. urease 120. What groups of methods for creation of anaerobic conditions for anaerobic bacteria cultivation do you know ? A. mechanical B. physical C. chemical D. biological E. *all answers are correct 121. What is the main demand for any nutrient medium for the primary selection of microorganisms? A. To be solid B. To be liquid C. *To be sterile D. To contain vitamins E. To contain growth factors 122. What microorganisms can produce such enzymes, as fibrinolysin, streptodornase, streptokinase, which are used for patients’ treatment? A. staphylococci B. *streptococci C. neisseria D. branchamella E. Gemella 123. With the purpose of increase of boiling temperature and removal of water hard during sterilization by boiling it is necessary to add: A. *1 % sodium bicarbonate B. 1 % potassium permanganate C. 1 % magnesium sulfate D. 1 % ether E. 1 % alcohol 124. A degree of heterotrophy may be different. The highest heterotrophy has prokaryotic organisms that are able to live only inside the living cells. There are: A. staphylococci and streptococci B. escherichia and salmonellas C. mycobacteria and bordetella D. *rickettsia and chlamidia E. vibrios and treponema 125. According to the types of bacterial respiration such groups of bacteria may exist: A. obligate aerobes B. obligate anaerobes C. facultative anaerobes D. capneic E. *all answers are correct 126. After finishing the experience in students’ laboratory it’s necessary to disinfect the workplace. What chemicals can be used? A. ether B. hydrochloric acid C. formalin D. chloroform E. *Chloraminum 127. After inoculation of Escherichia coli on Ploskirev’s medium the growth of bacteria is inhibited. What chemical does predetermine this phenomenon? A. oxalic acid B. C. D. E. sodium sulphite *brilliant green Bismuth salts fuchsine 128. After inoculation of the patient’s faces on Endo’s medium there were grown to types of colonies: one – red with metallic hue, other - colorless. To what group of nutrient media does Endo’s medium belong to? A. *Differential diagnostic B. Elective C. Enriching media D. Universal E. Selective 129. After inoculation of the patient’s faces on Levin’s medium there were grown to types of colonies: one – blu with metallic sheine, other - colorless. To what group of nutrient media does Levin’s medium belong to? A. *Differential diagnostic B. Elective C. Enriching media D. Universal E. Selective 130. After practical classes it is necessary to kill bacterial cultures that were used by students. Choose optimum regime of sterilization in an autoclave: A. *134 °С 40 minutes B. 120 °С 20 minutes C. 112 °С 15 minutes D. 134 °С 10 minutes E. 127 °С 30 minutes 131. At what advantage of Koch’s method in comparing Pasteur’s one for isolation of pure cultures? A. Enables to examine antibiotics susceptibility B. Enables to examine biochemical properties of microbes C. *Enables to obtain the isolated colonies D. Enables to examine antigen properties of microbes E. Has no substantial advantage 132. Because of ill-timed treatment of pulpitis lower jaw osteomyelitis has developed in patient. What examination is it necessary to carry out for identification of causative agents and to choose effective preparation for treatment? A. Complex serological examination B. To examine the presence of proper antibodies C. Microscopic examination of the pus D. To examine bacterial antigens E. *To isolate bacterial pure culture and examine its susceptibility to antibiotics 133. Choose the method of inoculation of bacteria, based on mechanical principle? A. Ru’s method B. Gram’s method C. Inoculation by a needle D. *Drigalsky’s method E. Morozov’s method 134. Constructive and power metabolisms are closely connected, sometimes their ways coincide, and the same substrates are utilized for different necessities. Such ways are called: A. metabolic B. *amphibolic C. associative D. dissociative E. polybolic 135. During the isolation of pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms the isolated colony is inoculated on/in: A. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium B. Giss’s medium C. Zeissler’s medium D. Endo’s medium E. Ploskirev’s medium 136. Energy which is generated by a cell exists in the form of electrochemical transmembrane gradient of hydrogen ions - ?µН+ or in ATP molecules. What is the mechanism of transformation of one type of energy into another? A. electronic ATF-synthesizing complex B. *proton ATF-synthesizing complex C. molecular ATF-synthesizing complex D. all answers are correct E. all answers are wrong 137. Escherichia coli was inoculated in Ressel’s medium. What changes will be observed in nutrient medium, which verify utilization of glucose and lactose? A. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar B. Changes of the color from pinky to dark blue of the slant surface of agar C. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the slant surface of agar D. *Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar and slant surface of agar E. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar 138. For abolition of bacteria in the air of operating room such methods may be used: A. gamma-rays B. X-ray C. *ultraviolet Light D. gamma-rays E. gas method 139. For biological control of sterilization quality microorganisms are used. What important feature do they have? A. gram-positive B. gram-negative C. form capsules D. *form spores E. form pili 140. For checking the quality of filters in an experiment a fluid containing test-microbe was filtered. Later a filter was laid on the surface of nutrient medium and put into the incubator. How much time is it necessary to hold it on medium to give a final answer about its quality? A. 1 day at an optimum temperature B. optimum temperature, 2 days C. optimum temperature, 3 days D. optimum temperature, 4 days E. *at an optimum temperature, 5 day 141. For examination of lipolytic properties of microbes lipids and lipid-like substances – tweens – are supplemented into the medium. According to what signs is it possible to check the lipolytic activity of bacteria? A. The colonies of bacteria lose their typical form B. *Bacteria form iridescent halos round the colonies C. The colonies of bacterium are painted in the color of indicator D. The colonies of bacteria become semilucent E. If microbes lipolytic properties they do not grow on an medium 142. For inoculation of microbes according to Drigalsky’s method we can use: A. Bacteriological loop B. *Spatula C. Bacteriological needle D. Jar E. All answers are correct 143. For the selection of pure cultures the proper methods are used. Choose one of inoculation technique: A. Fortner’s method B. *Drigalsky’s method C. Membrane filters’ method D. Gins’s method E. Leffler’s method 144. For verifying the peptolytic properties of bacteria what substances are examined in nutrient medium? A. carbon acid and water B. glucose and lactose C. carbon acid and nitrogen D. mannitol and methanol E. *indole and hydrogen sulphide 145. From patient with gas anaerobic infection it is necessary to select the culture of causative agents. What medium can be chosen? A. Leffler’s medium B. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium C. Petrov’s medium D. Makkoy-Chepin’s medium E. Petranyani’s medium 146. From patient’s blood the culture Salmonella paratyphi A was isolated. What cultural properties characterize this microbe? A. *Formation of colorless or pinky colonies on Endo’s and Ploskirev’s nutrient media B. Formation of red colonies with metallic hue on Endo’s medium C. Formation of colorless colonies on Bismuth-sulfite agar D. Formation of haemolysis on a blood agar E. Formation of tender pellicle on alkaline peptone water 147. From patient’s blood the culture Salmonella paratyphi B was isolated. What cultural properties characterize this microbe? A. *Formation of colorless or pinky colonies on Endo’s and Ploskirev’s nutrient media B. Formation of red colonies with metallic hue on Endo’s medium C. Formation of colorless colonies on Bismuth-sulfite agar D. Formation of haemolysis on a blood agar E. Formation of tender pellicle on alkaline peptone water 148. From patient’s blood the culture Salmonella typhi was isolated. What cultural properties characterize this microbe? A. *Formation of colorless or pinky colonies on Endo’s and Ploskirev’s nutrient media B. Formation of red colonies with metallic hue on Endo’s medium C. Formation of colorless colonies on Bismuth-sulfite agar D. Formation of haemolysis on a blood agar E. Formation of tender pellicle on alkaline peptone water 149. Growth of what microorganisms does not inhibit furasolidon, added into nutrient medium in certain concentrations? A. *Micrococci and Corynebacteria B. E. coli and Bacillus spp. C. Clostridium spp. and Branhamella spp. D. Streptococci and Gemella spp. E. Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. 150. How is it possible to divide microorganisms according to spore formation for isolation of pure culture? A. To cool the tested material before inoculation, as spores are insusceptible to the action of low temperatures B. *To heat the tested material before inoculation, as spores are heat stable C. To inoculate tested material and cultivate it in anaerobic conditions D. To inoculate tested material, which contains spore forming bacilli in laboratory animals E. To separate microorganisms according to their spore formation is impossible 151. How is it possible to increase the phase of exponential growth and M-concentration artificially ? A. by the renewing of nutrient medium B. additional aeration (for aerobes) C. it is impossible to do it D. a right answer is not present E. *right answers A and B 152. How is it possible to verify the motility of bacteria which form colony? A. Staining according to Leffler’s technique B. Staining according to Gram’s technique C. *By «hanging» drop technique D. By electron microscope E. By «lying» drop technique 153. How much time is it necessary to cultivate the bacteria on Bismuth-sulfite agar for final evaluation of growth? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 36 hours D. *48 hours E. 96 hour 154. In a bacteriological laboratory it is necessary to nutrient media, which contain matters, changing at a temperature higher then 100 °С (urea, carbohydrates, proteins). What method of sterilization can you offer? A. *by live steam B. autoclave, pressed steam C. boiling D. tindalization E. pasteurization 155. In a hospital chief of department decided to check the quality of instruments sterilization in an autoclave by biological method. What bacteria can be used for this test? A. Pathogenic B. Capsule-forming C. Acid fast D. *Spore-forming E. Thermophilic 156. In a laboratory for acceleration of sterilization of media with sugar by live steam this procedure was made in one day: in the morning, in the day-time and in the evening for 30 min. How it was necessary to sterilize these media correctly? A. To sterilize 1 hour B. To sterilize 15 minutes C. To sterilize 45 minutes D. *To sterilize three times with 24 hour interval E. To sterilize twice for a days 157. In a medium with gelatin it is possible to verify the proteolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the positive results? A. *liquefacience of gelatin column B. compression of gelatin column C. discoloration of gelatin column D. appearance of dark precipitate in gelatin column E. brightening of gelatin column. 158. In a pharmacy it is necessary to sterilize the small bottles with physiological sodium chloride solution for injection. What method is it necessary to apply for their sterilization? A. *in an autoclave, 2 atmospheres B. in an autoclave by fluid steam C. in a heat oven D. by X-ray E. by ultraviolet light 159. In MPB it is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. How is it possible to prove, if microbes produces the hydrogen sulphide? A. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its color, it becomes red B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its color, it becomes dark blue C. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed its color, it becomes black D. the color of medium becomes greyish E. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; the hydrogen sulphide is changed by its color, it becomes black 160. In MPB it is necessary to verify the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the positive results – indole production? A. to insert the indicator, saturated with a litmus; an indole is changed its color, it becomes red B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; an indole is changed its color, it becomes dark blue C. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a litmus; a indole is changed its color, it becomes dark blue D. the color of medium becomes rose E. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; a indole is changed by its color, it becomes rose 161. In MPB it is necessary to verify the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the positive results – indole production? A. to insert the indicator, saturated with a litmus; an indole is changed its color, it becomes red B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; an indole is changed its color, it becomes dark blue C. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a litmus; a indole is changed its color, it becomes dark blue D. the color of medium becomes rose E. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; a indole is changed by its color, it becomes rose 162. In Olkenitsky’s medium Escherichia coli was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a medium, which will confirm utilization of glucose and lactose? A. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow in the column of agar B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of slant surface of agar C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of slant surface of agar D. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and slant surface of agar E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar 163. In Olkenitsky’s medium microorganism which products an urea was inoculated. What changes here will be observed in a medium? A. *all will become red B. appearance of red precipitate in the column of agar C. appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar D. to fix the urease production in this medium is impossible E. appearance of brightly-violet precipitate in the column of agar 164. In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which decomposes glucose to acid was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a medium, which certify utilization of glucose? A. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow the slant surface of agar C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red the slant surface of agar D. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and the slant surface of agar E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar 165. In what color does rezazurin stain nutrient medium if its redox potential increases? A. Yellow B. Green C. Brown D. Dark blue E. *Pink 166. In what nutrient media for cultivation of bacteria 7,5-10 % chloride of sodium may be added? A. Yolk-salt agar B. Buchin’s medium C. Mannitol-salt agar D. Blood-sugar agar E. *Right answers A and C 167. In what period after finishing the disinfections is it recommended to collect the control samples? A. not before, than in 10-15 min B. not before, than in 15-20 min C. not before, than in 20-30 min D. *not before, than in 30-45 min E. not before, than in 60-90 min 168. In what phases of growth are microorganisms most physiologically and functionally active? A. initial and exponential B. *exponential and stationary C. stationary and death D. initial and stationary E. exponential and death 169. It is necessary to verify the hemolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient media will you recommend? A. simple MPA B. simple MPB C. Endo’s medium D. *blood MPA E. serum MPA 170. It is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient medium will you recommend? A. MPA B. Endo’s medium C. Ru’s medium D. 1 % alkaline peptone water E. *MPB 171. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 115 °С. What chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized? A. benzonaphtolum B. *antipyrine C. sulphur D. benzoic acid E. urea 172. It is necessary to choose the medium for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria: A. Endo’s and Levin’s media B. Meat-peptone agar, meat-peptone broth C. *Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar, Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium D. Coagulated serum, мeat-peptone gelatin E. Ascitic agar, serum agar 173. It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of juice. Choose its optimum mode: A. 70 °С during 5-10 min B. 70 °С during 30 min C. 80 °С during 60 min D. 80 °С during 30 min E. *80 °С during 5-10 min 174. It is necessary to create anaerobic conditions for cultivation of proper bacteria by biological method. What method could you propose? A. Zeissler’s method B. Shukevich’s method C. Veynberg’s method D. *Fortner’s method E. Pasteur’s method 175. It is necessary to examine the carriage of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by the child. What nutrient medium is elective for Corynebacterium diphtheriae? A. Levenshteyn-Yensen’s medium B. Ploskirev’s medium C. *Ru’s medium D. Ol'kenickiy’s medium E. Endo’s medium 176. It is necessary to examine the carriage of vibrios by group of persons in the infection focus of cholera. What medium is elective for Vibrio cholerae? A. MPB B. Ploskirev’s medium C. *1 % alkaline peptone water D. Serum MPB E. Ascitic agar 177. It is necessary to examine the carriage of vibrios by group of persons in the infection focus of cholera. What medium is elective for Vibrio cholerae? A. MPB B. Ploskirev’s medium C. *1 % alkaline peptone water D. Serum MPB E. Ascitic agar 178. It is necessary to make biochemical identification and examine saccharolytic properties of bacteria. What media could you offer? A. Veynberg’s medium B. Zeissler’s medium C. *Giss’s media D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium E. Milk 179. It is necessary to prepare a coagulated serum for isolation of culture of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. How can you do serum coagulation? A. 80-90 °С during 10 min B. 70-80 °С during 30 min C. 50-60 °С during 30 min D. 90-100 °С during 30 min E. *80-90 °С during 1 hour. 180. It is necessary to study ability of microbes to utilize glucose, saccharose, lactose, production of hydrogen sulphide and utilization of urea. What nutrient media will you recommend? A. Ru’s medium B. Leffler’s medium C. Endo’s medium D. Ploskirev’s medium E. *Olkenitsky’s medium 181. Laboratory diagnosis of tetanus was made in the laboratory. What method of sterilization is it necessary to use for killing the selected cultures? A. *Autoclaving B. Boiling C. Tindalizatio D. In the heat oven E. Pasteurization 182. Material from a patient with suspicion on typhoid fever was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colony of lactosonegative Salmonella typhi have? A. dark blue B. *colorless C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 183. Material from a patient with suspicion on typhoid fever was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colony of lactosonegative Salmonella typhi have? A. dark blue B. *colorless C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 184. Material from a patient with suspicion on dysentery was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colony of lactosonegative Shigella have? A. dark blue B. green C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. *colorless 185. Material from a patient with suspicion on an intestinal infection was inoculated on the Ploskirev’s medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have? A. dark blue B. colorless C. *rose D. brown E. green 186. Material from a patient with suspicion on colienteritis was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have? A. blue B. colorless C. *red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 187. Material from a patient with suspicion on colienteritis was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have? A. blue B. colorless C. *red with metallic hue D. brown E. green 188. Material from a patient with suspicion on shigellosis (dysentery) was inoculated on the Ploskirev’s medium. What color do colonies of lactose-negative Shigella have? A. dark blue B. green C. red with metallic hue D. brown E. *colorless 189. Material from a sick woman must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium for diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis. Indicate this medium? A. Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. *Saburo’s medium 190. Material from patient with cholera must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. Mueller’s medium B. *1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 191. Material from patient with diphtheria must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. *Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 192. Material from patient with dysentery must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. *Ploskirev’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 193. Material from patient with escherichiosis must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. *Endo’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 194. Material from patient with gas gangrene must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. *Kitt-Tarozzi medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 195. Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. *Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 196. Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. *Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. Saburo’s medium 197. Material from patient with vaginal candidiasis must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: A. Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. Blood agar E. *Saburo’s medium 198. Microorganisms that are used as an energy source chemical reaction in the medium belong to: A. heterotrophs B. autotrophs C. lithotrophs D. organotrophs E. *chemotrophs 199. Microorganisms that require the high concentrations of salts for their cultivation are called: A. Acidophilic B. *Halophilic C. Oxyphilic D. Mesophilic E. Osmiephilic 200. Microorganisms, which are able to cause diseases in human, belong to: A. chmemoorganoautotrophs B. *chemoorganoheterotrophs C. chemolithoheterotrophs D. chemolithoautotrophs E. heterophotoorganotrophs 201. Morphological identification is examination of bacterial species according to: A. character of colonies B. *morphological signs C. character of staining D. character of motility E. biochemical properties 202. On the Endo’s medium colonies Escherichia and Salmonella were isolated. According to what signs is it possible to make differentiation between them? A. sizes B. character of the edges C. character of surfaces D. consistency E. *color 203. On the mucous membranes of human there are corynebacteria. What selective medium for their cultivation? A. Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. *Agar with furazolidonum and tween E. Saburo’s medium 204. On the sputum of human there are mycobacteria. What selective medium for their cultivation? A. Mueller’s medium B. 1 % alkaline peptone water C. Ru’s medium D. *Loevenstein-Jensen’s medium E. Saburo’s medium 205. Salmonella typhi, which utilizes glucose to acid was inoculated in Ressel’s medium. What changes will be observed in nutrient medium, which verify utilization of glucose? A. *Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar B. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue of the slant surface of agar C. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the slant surface of agar D. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar and slant part of agar E. Changes of the color from a pinky to red in the column of agar 206. Some microorganisms lost their capacity for a synthesis of some necessary growth factors, therefore they do not can grow on minimum nutrient media. They are called: A. *auxotrophs B. paratrophs C. prototrophs D. myxotrophs E. oligotrophs 207. Specify, to what pressure in an autoclave a temperature 100 °С corresponds: A. *0 аtm. B. 0,5 аtm. C. 1 аtm. D. 1,5 аtm. E. 2 аtm. 208. Taking into consideration the features of fermenting type of anaerobe bacteria metabolism they require: A. More rich for nutrients medium B. More rich for vitamins nutrient medium C. Obligatory addition of bacterial growth factors in nutrient medium D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong 209. The pure culture of microorganisms grows and develops at presence of an atmosphere oxygen (no less what 20 % oxygen). What group of microorganisms according to their respiration does this culture belong to? A. *Obligate aerobes B. C. D. E. Obligate anaerobes Facultative anaerobes Microaerophilic bacteria Capneic bacteria 210. The wild bacteria are able to synthesize all necessary for them substances from a limited number of organic compounds, for example, from glucose and ammonium salts. They are called: A. auxotrophs B. paratrophs C. *prototrophs D. myxotrophs E. oligotrophs 211. To Chlorine which are used for disinfection, belong all preparation, EXCEPT: A. 0,2-1,0 % solutions of Chloramin B. B. 5 % water solutions of calcium hypochloride. C. 0,05-0,1 % solution of trichloroisocyanuric acid. D. 0,1-0,2 % sulfochlorantine solution E. *3-5 % solution of carbolic acid. 212. To the universal nutrient mediums belong: A. serum MPA and serum MPB. B. Endo’s medium and Ploskirev’s medium C. *MPA and MPB D. Blood MPA and TCBS medium E. Yolk salt agar and Ascitic agar 213. What actions are necessary to do during І stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes? A. To study the features of the tested material B. To study the morphological features of possible causative agent C. To choose necessary nutrient medium for inoculation D. To inoculate tested material for obtaining the isolated colonies E. *All answers are correct 214. What antibiotic is it necessary to add into nutrient medium for inhibition of fungi growth? A. Penicillin B. Streptomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. *Nistatin E. Mitomicin C 215. What antigens can be found in Enterobacteriaceae during serological identification? A. O B. H C. K D. *All answers are correct E. All answers are wrong 216. What can be the form of rough surfaces of colonies of R-form of bacteria? A. *wrinkled B. gyrose C. warty D. rosette-shaped E. all answers are correct 217. What chemicals can be added into of nutrient media for cultivation of anaerobes, because they have oxygen-fixing effect? A. Calcium gluconate B. Potassium permanganate C. Iron sulfate D. Aluminium hydroxide E. *Sodium hydrosulphite 218. What chemicals can you offer for separation of staphylococci and bacilli from other microbes according to biological principle? A. magnesium sulfate B. aluminium nitrate C. ascetic lead D. oxalic acid E. *7,5-10 % sodium chloride 219. What color does acquire the semi-solid Giss’s media with the indicators water blue and rosolic acid there is sugar utilization? A. red B. green C. *dark blue D. brown E. a color does not change 220. What color does acquire the semi-solid Giss’s media with the indicators water blue and rosolic acid there is sugar utilization? A. red B. green C. *dark blue D. brown E. a color does not change 221. What color does non-inoculated Olkenitsky’s medium have? A. bright red B. *pink C. yellow D. greenish E. violet 222. What component is it necessary to take for carrying out presumptive agglutination test for examination of bacterial antigens? A. Precipitating serum B. *Agglutinating serum C. Neutralizing serum D. Hemolytic serum E. Right answer is not present 223. What elements can form macroergic bounds? A. phosphorus B. sulfur C. selenium D. *right answers A and B E. right answers A, B, C 224. What finished products do appear in the liquid Giss’s media after decomposition of sugars? A. acid B. alkali C. gas D. *acid and gas E. fixing the finished goods is not succeeded 225. What groups of methods for creation of anaerobic conditions for anaerobic bacteria cultivation do you know ? A. mechanical B. physical C. chemical D. biological E. *all answers are correct 226. What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen? A. Andrede B. Neutral red C. *Phenol red D. Bromthymol blue E. Thymol blue 227. What indicator may be added into nutrient medium for cultivation of anaerobes, which can testify expedience of its use for inoculation of tested material? A. Fuchsine B. Brilliant green C. Methylene green D. *Methylene blue E. Fenolrot 228. What is advantage of Koch’s, Drigalsky’s and streak’s techniques above the Pasteur’ method? A. Enable to study biochemical properties of bacteria B. Enable to study antigen properties of bacteria C. Enable to obtain a pure culture D. *Enable to obtain the isolated colonies E. Right answer is not present 229. What is it necessary to take into consideration during collection of tested material for isolation of anaerobic causative agents? A. Warning neutralizing effect of antibodies B. *Warning toxic effect of oxygen C. Warning influence of disinfectants D. Warning changes of tinctorial properties E. Warning changes of serologic properties 230. What microorganisms can produce such enzymes, as fibrinolysin, streptodornase, streptokinase, which are used for patients’ treatment? A. staphylococci B. *streptococci C. neisseria D. branchamella E. Gemella 231. What substance is it necessary to add to peptone water for creation the optimum conditions for the isolation of cholerae vibrio? A. 1 % sodium sulfate B. 1 % acids C. *1 % alkali D. 1 % iron sulfate E. 1 % sodium chloride 232. What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil C. use the high column of nutrient medium D. *right answers B and C. E. right answers A, B and C 233. What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation? A. use of Gas generating box B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil C. use the high column of nutrient medium D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation E. a right answer is not present 234. What way does glycerin penetrate in a bacterial cell? A. Translocation of radicals B. Active transport C. Diffusion D. *Ionic transport E. Facilitated diffusion 235. With the purpose of increase of boiling temperature and removal of water hard during sterilization by boiling it is necessary to add: A. *1 % sodium bicarbonate B. 1 % potassium permanganate C. 1 % magnesium sulfate D. 1 % ether E. 1 % alcohol 236. A patient has common cold, cough, catarrhal phenomena, fever, and weakness. There may be viral infection. What test can we use for indication of viruses in pathological material? A. *Haemagglutination test B. Indirect haemagglutination test C. CFT D. Neutralization test E. All answers are correct 237. A patient with hepatitis B was admitted to the hospital. For diagnosis of disease serologic test which is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically bound with peroxydase or alkaline phosphatase was carried out. What is the name of this test? A. *ELISA B. Radioimmune assay C. Immunofluorescence test D. Complement fixation test E. Immobilisation test 238. After identification of viruses in pathological material viruses from Orthomyxoviridae were revealed. What virus from this family may be found in this tested material? A. Poliovirus B. *Influenza virus C. Hepatitis B virus D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 239. After inoculation of cell culture with viral material it is necessity for the indication of virus in there. We can use such test: A. Presence of cytophathic effect B. Haemagglutination test C. Haemadsorption test D. "colour test" E. *All answers are corrects 240. After inoculation of chicken embryo with tested material from a patient with initial diagnosis of Flu it is necessary to detect the presence of viruses in there. What test of indication may be used? A. neutralization test in the cell culture B. plaques formation phenomenon in gel C. neutralization test in laboratory animals D. precipitation test E. *haemagglutination test 241. All viruses according to their structure are divided into naked and complex. Complex ones contain an envelope. What RNA-containing viruses do have envelope? A. picornaviruses B. *togaviruses C. reoviruses D. caliciviruses E. All answers are correct 242. Among reactions, which are widely applied for indication of viruses haemagglutination test, is used. What is haemagglutination unit? A. Maximal dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells. B. *Minimum dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells. C. Maximal dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present. D. Minimum dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present. E. No correct answer. 243. Before making Complement fixation test patients serum must be heated at 56 °С for 30 min. Why should we done it? A. For elimination of heterophilic antibodies B. For diminution of properdin activity C. For decrease of lysozyme activity D. *For elimination of complement E. For suppression of normal antibodies 244. Chicken embryos were inoculated with patients throat swab. How is it possible to find viruses in an embryo? A. Haemadsorption inhibition test B. Haemagglutination inhibition test C. *Haemagglutination test D. Agglutination test E. RIA 245. Choose the components of Haemagglutination inhibition test for serologic diagnosis of viral infection. A. Specific sera, viral antigen, chicken red cells, electrolyte B. Viral diagnosticum, serum of patient, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte C. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, chicken red cells, electrolyte D. Viral antigen, specific sera, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, paired sera, electrolyte 246. Complement fixation test was utilized for serologic diagnosis of measles. Show sequence of necessary components among listed ones: A. Complement, specific serum, chicken red cells, virus B. Hemolytic system, serum of patient, complement C. Complement, hemolytic system, specific serum, viral diagnosticum D. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system E. Paired patient’s sera, viral material, complement, specific serum, hemolytic system. 247. Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with material from _______ lesions. A. Smallpox B. Avianpox C. *Cowpox D. Chickenpox E. Dogpox 248. For identification of viruses it is possible to utilize reverse indirect haemagglutination test. What are components of this test? A. Red cell diagnosticum and serum of patient, electrolyte B. *Diagnosticum from red cells, which are covered with known antibodies, unknown antigen, electrolyte C. Red cells, unknown virus, specific serum, electrolyte D. Red cells, serum of patient, specific antigen, electrolyte E. White cells, unknown virus, electrolyte, 249. For making of indirect haemagglutination test for serologic diagnosis of infectious disease, the followings components are needed: A. *Paired patient’s sera, erythrocytes viral diagnosticum, electrolyte B. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum from red cells, electrolyte C. Viral material, patient’s serum, chicken red cells D. Virus, specific serum, chicken red cells, electrolyte E. Patient’s serum, erythrocytes viral diagnosticum, electrolyte 250. For serologic diagnosis of poliomyelitis neutralization test in cell culture is used. Show the positive result of this test when we use paired patient’s sera? A. Increase of antibodies titer in 2 times B. *Increase of antibodies titer in 4 times C. Decrease of antibodies titer in 2 times D. Decrease of antibodies titer in 4 times E. No correct answer 251. For serologic diagnosis of viral infection Haemagglutination inhibition test is utilized. Choose useless component of this test A. Patient’s serum at the beginning of disease B. *Medium 199 C. Patient’s serum which was is taken in 2 weeks of disease D. Chicken red cells E. Viral diagnosticum 252. For the examination of viruses in the sections of tissues immunologic methods are utilized. Choose such method among listed ones: A. RIA B. ELISA C. CFT D. *IFT E. Haemagglutination inhibition test 253. For the indication of virus haemagglutination test is utilized. What are the components of this test? A. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, chicken red cells C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells D. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells E. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells 254. For the indication of viruses in the tested material haemagglutination test is utilized. There are such components of haemagglutination test: A. specific serum, sheep’s red cells B. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte C. Unknown antibodies, red cells of hen, electrolyte D. Virus, sheep’s red cells E. Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, chicken red cells 255. For the specific prophylaxis of some infectious diseases utilize bacteriophages are utilized. Show disease, where bacteriophages may be used: A. tuberculosis and brucellosis B. *shigellosis and typhoid fever C. Tetanus and botulism D. Tularemia and anthrax E. gas gangrene and plague 256. For virologic (early) diagnosis of viral infections haemagglutination inhibition test is utillized. What are components of this test? A. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, cell cultures B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, chicken embryos D. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, complement E. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific sera, chicken red cells. 257. From a sick dog saliva was taken for virologic examination and isolation of viruses. What virus does represent Rhabdoviridae? A. Hepatitis A virus B. Influenza virus C. *Rabies virus D. Epidemic parotitis virus E. Rubella virus 258. Identification of Influenza virus was made in a virologic laboratory. In the first well the culture of virus mixed with type A specific serum, in the second – with type B diagnostic serum. After incubation there were two types of sediment: "umbrella-shaped" and "button-shaped". What immune reaction was used? A. *Haemagglutination inhibition test B. Indirect haemagglutination test C. Complement fixation test D. Neutralization test E. ELISA 259. Immune reactions are widely utilized in laboratory practice. When do we use theses methods in virology? A. For authentication of virus B. For serologic diagnosis C. For the examination of antiviral antibodies D. All answers are correct E. *No correct answer 260. In a child D., 7 years old there are signs of intoxication, fever 39 IС, catarrhal phenomena oropharynx. A doctor diagnosed flu. What family does Influenza virus include? A. Paramyxoviridae B. *Orthomyxoviridae C. Rhabdoviridae D. Picornaviridae E. Togaviridae 261. In a sick dog there are salivation, anxiety, causeless excitation. A veterinary doctor suspected hydrophobia (rabies) in it. Specify what family do rabies virus belong to: A. Paramyxoviridae B. Orthomyxoviridae C. *Rhabdoviridae D. Picornaviridae E. No correct answer 262. In a virologic laboratory there is swab from the nose of the patient with flu. It is necessary to examine strain specificity of the viruses. What test may be used? A. Rhinocytoscopy B. According to character of cytopathic effect of viruses C. *Haemagglutination inhibition test with specific sera D. Haemagglutination test E. Hemadsorbtion test 263. In laboratory practice cultivation of viruses in cell cultures is widely utilized. What is first stage of co-operation of viruses and susceptible? A. *Adsorption B. Penetration C. Liberation of nucleic acid D. integration of viral DNA in the genome of cell E. Assembly 264. In the patient N. with a viral infection in 7 days after beginning of disease a cough with sputum, rale in the lungs appeared. After X-ray examination diagnosis of pneumonia was confirmed. Why there may be secondary bacterial infection in patients with viral diseases? A. viruses cause the death of mucus membrane cells in respiratory tract B. viruses alter the cilia epithelium C. viruses decrease the immune reactivity of the body D. viruses are favorable for penetration of secondary microflora E. *All answers are correct 265. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can directly disrupt cell structure. A. Procaryotes B. Chromosomal disruptions C. *Inclusion bodies D. Cytocidal bodies E. All of the above 266. It is known that viruses have a different susceptibility to the action of environment factors. Specify what does it influence to the susceptibility viruses to X-ray and ultraviolet radiation first of all? A. *size of viral genome B. presence of envelope C. size of virus D. the presence of lipoproteins E. All answers are correct 267. One test, which is utilized in virology, does not need antigens and antibodies. Find it among listed tests. A. *Haemagglutination test B. Complement fixation test C. Haemagglutination inhibition test D. Indirect haemagglutination test E. ELISA 268. Orthomyxoviridae can cause the most frequent disease of viral etiology in human. Show the viruses, which belong to this family: A. *Influenza virus B. Poliovirus C. Rabies virus D. HIV E. Herpesvirus 269. Pathological material (discharges of mucus membranes from the nose) from patient P. was transported to the laboratory. What express method may be used for examination of specific viral antigen in this tested material? A. Direct and indirect ELYSA B. Haemagglutination inhibition test C. *Direct and indirect immune fluorescence tests D. Reversed indirect haemagglutination test E. Agglutination test 270. Patient A. was admitted to the clinic during the first days of illness with diagnosis of Influenza. What can we examine by the early methods of virologic diagnosis? A. toxins of viruses B. presence of antibodies against the viruses C. increase of antibodies titer in patient’ serum D. *presence of viral antigens E. All answers are correct 271. Prions are differed from viruses according to their morphology and biological signs. Causative agents of what diseases are prions? A. Kuru B. Scrapie C. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia E. *All answers are correct 272. Proteins are represented in the viruses. Show the main groups of proteins according to their localization and function: A. *structural and non-structural B. internal and external C. complex and simple D. pathogenic and non-pathogenic E. All answers are correct 273. Show components which are needed for the examination of viral antigen in patient’s tested material by ELISA. A. Patient’s serum, viral antigen, antiglobulin serum serum, substrate B. *Specific antibodies, tested viral antigen, antiglobulin serum, conjugated with an enzyme, substrate C. Tested virus, antigen, antispecies serum with an enzyme, substrate D. Viral antigen, patient’s serum, specific serum with an enzyme, substrate E. Antispecies serum, specific serum, enzyme, substrate 274. Show necessary components for carrying out direct immunofluorescence test for examination of viruses: A. unknown antibody and antigen marked with fluorochrome B. specific serum, antigen, dye C. *unknown virus, a specific serum, which is bound with fluorochrome D. antigen, specific serum, antiglobulin fluorescent serum E. unknown virus, serum of patient, antiglobulin fluorescent serum 275. Show the sequence of early stages of viral reproductions: 1. Synthesis of protein. 2. Penetration. 3. Attachment of viruses to the cell surface. 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids. 5. Uncoating. A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 3, 2, 4, 5 D. 4, 2, 3, 5 E. *3, 2, 5 276. Sometime it is necessary to make express Diagnosis of viral disease. What express methods could you propose? A. Inoculation of chicken embryos B. Inoculation of laboratory animals C. Inoculation of cell culture D. *Immunofluorescence test, Chain polymerase reaction E. All answers are correct 277. Specify the components of Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of viral infection: A. Serum of patient, viral material, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte B. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte C. Viral diagnosticum, paired patient’s sera, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte D. Virus, specific serum, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, hemolytic system, electrolyte 278. Student H. has to describe during final lesson a virus from Paramyxoviridae. What viruses do belong this family to? A. Rhabdoviruses B. *Measles virus C. Yellow fever viruses D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 279. ?Taking into consideration the features of viral structure, they can be susceptible or nonsusceptible to an ether. What viruses are susceptible to ether: A. naked ones B. *complex ones C. viruses with a cubic type of symmetry D. bacteriophages E. No correct answer 280. The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell receptor site. A. Pili B. Fimbriae C. Flagellae D. *Hemagluttinin E. Neuraminidase 281. The following test uses a solid phase coated with antibody (or antigen) to capture antigen (or antibody) from the patient's specimen: A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) B. Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA) C. Neutralization Tests (NT) D. Complement Fixation Test (CF) E. *ELISA 282. The haemagglutination test is utilized for the indication of virus. What does testify the positive haemagglutination test? A. Absence of sedimentation of red cells B. Haemolysis of red cells C. *Umbrella-shaped sediment of red cells D. adsorption of red cells on the cell culture E. absence of adsorption of red cells is on the cell culture 283. The immunofluorescence test is widely utilized for express diagnosis of a lot of viral infections. Choose a necessary condition for reading the results of this test: A. presence of light microscope B. presence of electron microscope C. *presence of ultraviolet microscope D. presence of phase-contrast microscope E. a presence of light microscope is with dark field illumination 284. The neutralization test in cell culture is used for identification of viruses. Show the sequence of necessary ingredients for making this test( V - virus, PS – patient’s serum, SS - specific serum, CC – cell culture). A. CC + PS to wait + SS B. CC + V to wait + CC C. *V + SS to wait + CC D. SS + CC to wait + V E. CC + PS + SS to wait + V 285. The phenomenon of cells lysis by bacteriophages is widely utilized in clinical practice. Who did describe the bacteriophages first? A. L. Pasteur and R. Koch B. *M. Gamaliya and F. D’Herelle C. F. Twort and Roux D. D. Ivanovsky and E. Jenner E. S. Vinogradsky and J. Schoenlein 286. The positive result of neutralization test in cell culture (colour test) for serologic diagnosis of viral infection is: A. Sedimenta in wells B. **Liquid of yellow color in the experimental test tubes C. Sediment of red cells in test tubes D. Liquid of pink color in the experimental test tubes E. Presence of cytopathic effect 287. The strategy of viral genome includes: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3. Release of viruses from the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Deproteinization: A. 1, 2, 5 B. *4, 1 C. 2, 3, 4, 5 D. 2, 3, 5 E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 288. The viruses of flu are cultivated in 10-11 daily chicken embryos. What is the best way of there inoculation? A. on chorioallantoic membrane B. in аmniotic cavity C. in yolk sac D. in the body of embryo E. *in allantoic cavity 289. There are head, shrunken sheath of the process, basal plate, core and fibrils in structures of the phage. A There is such important enzyme in the phages: A. phosphatase B. lipase C. *lisozyme D. proteases E. revertase 290. There are less according to their sizes as compared with viruses pathogens in nature. Choose them among listed causative agents: A. *Viroid and prions B. Bacteroids and vibrios C. Plasmids and transposones D. Erhlichia and plasmids E. All answers are correct 291. There are such early stages of viral reproductions: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3. Attachment of viruses to the surface of the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Uncoating A. 1, 2, 5 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 2, 3, 4, 5 D. *2, 3, 5 E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 292. There are such methods of viral cultivation: 1. On nutrient media; 2. In chicken embryos; 3. In laboratory animals; 4. In cell cultures. Choose correct combination of answers: A. 1, 2 B. 1, 2,3 C. *2, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 E. All of answers are incorrect 293. There are viruses with RNA”+” genome. They execute all the followings functions during reproduction of viruses, except: A. This mRNA causes synthesis of structural proteins B. This RNA “+” is matrix for RNA “-“ synthesis C. They are packed in a capsid during formation of new viral particles D. This RNA “+” causes translation E. *It is a matrix for the synthesis of mRNA 294. There is tested material in virologic laboratory with minimum concentration of viral particles. What modern method may be used for examination of this tested material? A. Polymerase chain reaction B. ELISA C. A method is with the use of monoclonal antibodies D. Radioimmune assay E. *All answers are correct 295. There was a necessity to examine the presence of antibodies against Hepatitis B virus in the patient’s serum. ELISA was utilized. Show necessary components: A. Serum of patient, conjugated with an enzyme, specific antigen B. Specific serum, virus, antigen, antiglobulin serum C. Virus, antigen in the wells, specific serum, substrate D. *Viral antigen in the wells, patient’s serum, antiglobulin serum conjugated with an enzyme, substrate E. Patient’s serum, viral antigen, antiprotein serum, conjugated with an enzyme 296. Virologist can cultivate viruses in the cell cultures, chicken embryos, and in the laboratory animals. Choose the most accessible and cheap type of their cultivation:. A. *In chicken embryos B. In cell culture C. In laboratory animals D. All answers are correct E. No correct answer 297. Virologist infected cell cultures by tested material from the patient. What changes may appear in the cells? A. Symplast formation B. Syncitia formation C. Intracellular bodies formation D. Complete degeneration of the cells E. *All answers are correct 298. Viruses are intracellular obligate parasites, which means that they cannot reproduce or express their genes without A. enzymes B. *a host cell C. another virus D. a cell wall E. nutrience media 299. Viruses without haemagglutination activity were isolated from a patient. What test can be utilized for identification of virus? A. Haemagglutination test B. Kumbs’s test C. *Complement fixation test D. Haemagglutination inhibition test E. Indirect haemagglutination test 300. Viruses, which have availability to penetrate into bacteria cells, and reproduce inside them causing their lysis are: A. lysins B. *bacteriophages C. macrophages D. phagosomes E. lysosomes 301. We can not use for cultivation of viruses nutrient media. We can utilize cell cultures. What diploid cell line do you know? A. *WI-38 B. HeLa C. Hep-2 D. KB E. BNK-32 302. What structure of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell receptor site. A. Pili B. Fimbriae C. Flagellae D. *Hemagluttinin E. Neuraminidase 303. When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be made only if A. the acute titer is less than 10 B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20 C. there is a twofold rise in titer D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer E. there is no change in titer 304. When virologist makes titration of viruses (quantitative examination of viruses in the tested material) he examines: A. In cells – Cytopathic dose 50 (CPD50) B. In animals – Lethal dose (LD50) C. In chicken embryos – the number of haemagglutination units (HAU) D. *All answers are correct E. No correct answer 305. When we want to carry out Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of disease it is necessary to make some preparatory stages. What preparatory stages do we do? A. Diminution of activity of precipitating antibodies B. *Titration of components of hemolytic system and complement C. Oppression of activity of heterophilic antibodies D. Diminution of activity of antistreptolysins E. Oppression of activity of transferrin. 306. A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes, manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to A. *systemic anaphylaxis B. serum sickness C. an Arthus reaction D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity E. endotoxic shock 307. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by A. *IgE antibody B. IgG .antibody C. sensitized T cell D. complement E. IgM antibody 308. A convertase enzyme that acts on C3 the central component of the complement cascade makes up most of the membrane attack complex activated by antibody binding to antigen A. *C4b2b B. C1 C. C3 D. C9 E. C7 309. A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically, the reaction site would MOST probably show A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils C. *Helper T cells and macrophages D. B cells E. NK cells 310. A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103 F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever B. a different infectious disease C. an IgE response to penicillin D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin 311. A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST likely to be caused by A. interleukin-2 B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) C. serotonin D. bradykinin E. ?-interferon 312. A previously healthy 8-year old presents with a large boil (carbuncle) at the back of his neck. Gram stain from incision and drainage reveals sheets of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and grampositive cocci in clusters. Pending susceptibility testing in the laboratory, which of the following would be the most appropriate antimicrobial therapy? A. *Oxacillin B. Penicillin G C. Tetracycline D. Gentamicin E. Aztreonam 313. A women with rheumatic heart disease has tonsillitis. From the sputum beta-hemolytic streptococci are obtained. The patient is treatment with penicillin, and the tonsillitis resolves within several days. However, 8 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 39°C, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This most probably resulted from A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever B. a different infectious disease C. an IgE response to penicillin D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin 314. After filtration of 2 l water onto filter grew 4 grey and 6 red colonies of bacteria. What are coli-titre and coli-index of such water. Choose the correct answer: A. 50 and 20 B. 125 and 8 C. 250 and 4 D. 330 and 3 E. 500 and 2 315. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is A. viral antigen B. *carcinoembryonic antigen C. alpha-fetoprotein D. heterophil antigen E. Forsman antigen 316. Bacteriological examination of air is essential in which of following conditions? A. Surgical operation theatre B. Premises where pharmaceutical preparations are made C. In hospital wards in which there is an outbreak of cross-infection D. All are corect E. *All are incorect 317. Beta-lactamase production is a common mechanism of resistance to penicillin in which of the following organisms? A. Group A streptococci B. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Both D. Neither E. Neisseria spp. 318. Choose a method of research of amount of bacteria of group of an E. coli in water. A. Sedementative B. Fortner's C. Membrane's filters D. Fortner’s E. Drigalsky's 319. Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except): A. complement B. patient’s serum C. specific antigen D. hemolytic system E. *immune serum 320. Controllable properties of components of CFT (everything is true,except): A. osmotic stability of red cells B. anticomplementary activity of patient’s serum C. anticomplementary activity of an antigen D. *isotonity of saline solution E. anticomplementary activity of a hemolysin 321. Doctor prescribes the patient drug to prevent intestinal disbacteriosis when receiving antibiotic therapy. What drugs is used to save normal microflora? A. Sulphanilamides B. *Eubiotics C. Interferon D. Antifungal E. Nitrophuranes. 322. For pregnant bacterial disbacteriosis of vagina is diagnosed. What medicine does it follow to choose in this case? A. Bacteriophage. B. Antibiotic C. Interferon D. *Eubiotic. E. Vitamines. 323. For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses A. B. C. D. E. specific antibodies, type of enzyme that destroys toxins, *toxoids, IgM, bacteriophages 324. Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is A. IgE antibody B. *IgG antibody C. IgM antibody D. IgA antibody E. IgD antibody 325. How the causative agents of influenza, measles, scarlet fever, diphtheria can be transmitted through the air? A. together with droplets of mucus and sputum, B. during sneezing, C. during coughing, D. during talking. E. all are correct 326. If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything, except): A. an antigen B. patient’s serum C. hemolytic system D. immune serum E. *complement 327. Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by A. *allergens B. macrophages C. humoral antibodies D. antigens E. T cells 328. Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of A. IgG antibodies B. antihistamine. C. IgE antibodies. D. *offending antigen E. offending antibody 329. In air of a maternity hall of a maternity hospital be agrees to sanitary-and-hygienic specifications should not microbes more: A. 50 B. 100 C. 500 D. 1000 E. 2000 330. In bacteriological laboratory in the patient’s feces with a acute intestinal infection gammahemilytic streptococcus, Shigella sonne and nontoxigenic strain of E. coli were founded. What diagnosis can be proposed as a result of research? A. *Bacterial dysentery. B. Escherihiosis. C. Disbacteriosis. D. Scarlet fever. E. Typhoid. 331. In operation theatre for neurosurgery, bacterial count of air shoud not exseed: A. 100 per foot3 B. 50 per foot3 C. 10 per foot3 D. 5 per foot3 E. *1 per foot3 332. In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator erylhrocytes.) A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait 333. ?Large granular lymphocytes which can kill virus-infected cells as part of innate immunity are called: A. neutrophils B. *natural killer cells C. monocytes D. lymphocytes E. mast cells 334. Name the typical bacteria of soil: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus B. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum C. Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes D. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium E. Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira 335. On the membrane filter after through it have filtered 2 l waters, 4 grey and 6 red colonies have grown. Calculate a coli - subtypes and coli- index. Choose the true answer. A. 50 and 20 B. 125 and 8 C. 250 and 4 D. 330 and 3 E. 500 and 2 336. One of the first step in the process of many infections is adherence of bacteria to mucous membranes. The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the A. *Pilus B. Peptidoglycan C. Flagellum D. Endotoxin E. Exotoxin 337. PBP2a, the penicillin-binding protein which causes methicillin-resistance in Staphylococcus aureus, causes this resistance because it: A. blocks entry of methicillin into cells B. hydrolyzes (inactivates) methicillin C. *helps synthesize cell wall in the presence of methicillin D. binds methicillin and prevents it from reaching its target site(s) E. by any way 338. Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time, with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later? A. Penicillin B. C. D. E. cephalosporins Penicillin bound to egg albumin Egg albumin *bovine serum albumin 339. Research of drinking-water quality is conducted in a bacteriological laboratory. The general microbal number appeared near to 100. What microorganisms were taken into account here? A. Enteropatogenic bacteria and viruses. B. Colibacilli. C. Pathogenic for people and animals bacteria. D. Nonpathogenic microorganisms. E. All of bacteria which grew onto medium 340. Resistance to many antibiotics is carried on: A. *R factor plasmids. B. sex pili. C. enzymes. D. chromosomes. E. A factor plasmids. 341. Resistance to which of the following has been shown to result from enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic by the bacteria? A. *chloramphenicol B. sulfonamides C. ciprofloxacin D. trimethoprim E. ofloxacin 342. Resistance to which of the following is caused by a "by-pass" mechanism (that is, the synthesis of an alternative target site)? A. gentamicin B. rifampin C. *vancomycin D. ciprofloxacin E. ofloxacin 343. Ribosomal resistance is a cause of resistance to: A. *Streptomycin B. Vancomycin C. Sulfonamides D. Imipenem E. All are correct 344. Specify sanitary - indicative microbes of air. A. Neisseria, Streptococcus haemolyticus B. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens C. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus haemolyticus D. Sarcina luteae, Actynomycetes E. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae 345. Targeting antibiotic therapy against the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria is advantageous because the wall is: A. chemically vulnerable B. mechanically accessible C. synthetically complex D. *unique to the bacterium E. None of the above 346. The air condition of in an operating-room before an operation is examinate by sedimentation method. 5 rounded colonies with the hemolytic zone round them were visible. What medium is used? A. *Blood MPA B. C. D. E. MPA Endo YSA Levin’s 347. The antiphagocytic factors of bacteria is A. endotoxin; B. *bacterial capsule C. hyaluronidase; D. plasmocoagulase; E. haemolysin 348. The coli-titer of drinking water should be: A. not less than 500 ml, B. not less than 100 ml, C. not less then 333 ml; D. not more then 333 ml; E. not less then 3 l. 349. The general microbe amount in water is determined by: A. sowing of 1 ml of water into the cooled agar B. sowing of 1 ml of water into MPB C. membrane filters D. all of answers are incorrect E. sowing of 1 ml of water onto YSA 350. The human microflora includes different biotopes with various species of microbes. Where are Doderlayn’s bacilli founded? A. on mucus of GT B. on mucus of stomach. C. on mucus of upper respiratory tract D. on a skin. E. *on mucus of vagine 351. The proportion of antibiotic resistant bacteria has increased along with the widespread use of antibiotics. This is due to the fact that antibiotics: A. are unstable in vivo. B. *act as agents of selection for resistant organisms. C. are mainly bacteriostatic in vivo. D. are powerful mutagens. E. All are correct 352. The resident microflora of large intestine of man include ________: A. peptococci, streptococi B. *bifidobacteria, bacteroides, clostridia. C. vibrio, chlamidia D. spirochetes, staphylococci E. enterococci, viruses. 353. The sanitary - bacteriological investigation of water includes _________ A. determination of total number of microbes in 1 ml of water, B. determination of a coli-index or coli-titer, C. detection of pathogenic microbes, their toxins D. Е. соli bacteriophages E. All are correct 354. What bacteria are a sanitary-indicative microorganisms of water? A. collibacillus B. streptococcus C. staphylococcus D. diphtheroid E. mycobacterium 355. What diseases are transmitted by air often? A. gas anaerobic infection B. hepatitis A C. *scarlet fever, flu D. candidosis, mycosis E. dysentery 356. What does mean ‘inhibitory concentration (MIC)’? A. *Most concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen. B. Lowest drug concentration that kills the pathogen C. Lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen. D. Drug concentration required for clinical treatment of a particular infection E. Most drug concentration that kills the pathogen 357. What from the given parameters of the common microbic number of air in operational answer sanitary specifications? A. Before operation 1800, after operation - 4200, single staphylococci B. Before operation 500, after operation - 950, staphylococci are absent C. Before operation 1000, after operation - 1500,staphylococci are absent D. Before operation 500, after operation - 1000, single staphylococci E. Before operation 500, after operation - 2000, staphylococci are absent 358. What from the listed microorganisms can exist long time in soil? A. Typhoid fever and dysentery B. Tuberculosis and diphtheria C. Virus hepatites A and B D. Hemophylus influenzea and streptococus pneumonias E. Anthrax and a botulism 359. What groups of microorganisms were taken into account at determination of microbial number of air in an operating-room? A. Bacteria and viruses are causative agents of infections of respiratory tract. B. *All of bacteria which grew on a medium. C. Staphylococci and hemolytic streptococci. D. Causative agents of hospital infections. E. All pathogenic bacteria. 360. What human pathogens are found in water? A. *collibacillus B. streptococcus C. staphylococcus D. diphtheroid E. mycobacterium 361. What is normal concentration of Bifidobacteria (an amount of microbal cells in 1 g of feces) in feces? A. 104 B. 105 C. 106 D. *107 E. 1010 362. What is ratio between aerobic and anaerobic microflora of the human intestinal microbiocenesis in normal? A. 1:1 B. 10:1 C. *1:100 D. 1:1000 E. 100:1 363. A. B. C. D. E. 364. A. B. C. D. E. 365. A. B. C. D. E. 366. A. B. C. D. E. 367. A. B. C. D. E. 368. A. B. C. D. E. 369. A. B. C. D. E. 370. A. B. C. D. E. 371. A. B. C. D. What microbes can cause formation of teeth pigment spots? *Porfyromonas, Prevotella Streptococcus, Veillonella Fusobacterium, Treponema Peptostreptococcus, Leptotrichia Treponema, Veillonella What microorganism is considered major contributor to caries? Fusobacterium Staphylococcus Bacteroides Streptococcus Treponema What microorganisms are prevail in oral microflora? mycoplasma fungi *bacteria chlamydia viruses What normal kinds of microorganisms are found in soil? Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira What of following are considered to be an indicator organism for air polution. Neisseria, Streptococcus haemolyticus Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus haemolyticus Sarcina luteae, Actynomycetes Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae What species of microorganisms are not member of nasal mucus obligate microflora? Staphylococcus saprophyticus Streptococcus viridans *Streptococcus pyogenes Nonpathogenic Nesseria Staphylococcus epidermidis What species of microorganisms can cause infectious endocarditis? Staphylococcus epidermidis. Candida spp. *Streptococcus viridans. E. coli. S. mutans Which microorganisms is unaffected by these antibacterial antibiotics? *C. albicans С. perfringens S. dysentery S. viridans C. tetani ?Which of the following has little if any activity against gram-negative bacteria? ampicillin aminoglycosides cephalosporins *oxacillin E. chloramphenical 372. Which of the following is considered a beta-lactam? A. vancomycin B. *imipenem C. azithromycin D. pyrimethamine E. All are correct 373. Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci? A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue 374. Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells? A. *Alpha interferon B. Gamma interferon C. Interleukin-2 D. Interleukin-4 E. lymphotoxin 375. A primary immune response in an adult human requires approximately how much time to produce detectable antibody levels in the blood? A. 12 hours B. 3 days C. *1 week D. 3 weeks E. 1 month 376. A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express: A. *the TcR B. CD4 C. Class II MHC D. membrane Ig E. the BcR 377. AT helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if the antigen is associated with: A. HLA class I antigen. B. Surface immunoglobulin. C. *HLA class II antigen. D. CD 8 antigen. E. All of the above. 378. CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface molecules? A. ICAM B. TcR C. *CD40L D. CD16 E. CD8 379. Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response A. *has a longer lag phase. B. has a more rapid log phase. C. persists for a longer plateau period. D. attains a higher IgG titer. E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen. 380. Each of the following statements concerning the variable regions of heavy chains and the variable regions of light chains in a given antibody molecule is correct EXCEPT: A. *They have the same amino acid sequence B. They define the specificity for antigen C. They are encoded on different chromosomes D. They contain the hypervariable regions E. They bind with epitop 381. Each of the following statements concerning the variable regions of heavy chains and the variable regions of light chains in a given antibody molecule is correct EXCEPT: A. *They have the same amino acid sequence B. They define the specificity for antigen C. They are encoded on different chromosomes D. They contain the hypervariable regions E. They bind with epitop 382. Membrane bound Ig is just one part of a complex known as the B cell receptor complex.Additional accessory proteins are termed: A. *Ig? and Ig? B. CD4 and CD8 C. Ca and Cb D. CD3 and TcR E. Cq and Cr 383. Regarding Th-1 and Th-2 cells, which one ofthe following is LEAST accurate? A. Th-1 cells produce gamma interferon and promote cell-mediated immunity B. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-4 and -5 and promote antibody-mediated immunity C. Both Th-1 and Th-2 cells have both CD3 and CD4 proteins on their outer cell membrane D. *Before naive Th cells differentiate into Th-1 or Th-2 cells, they are, double- positives; ie, they produce both gamma interferon and intefleukin-4 E. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-10 and inhibit activity of Th-2 cells 384. The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human is A. *IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE 385. The class of immunoglobullin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is A. *IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE 386. The effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the following EXCEPT: A. Lysis of gram-negative bacteria in conjunction with complement B. Enhancement of phagocytosis C. *Inhibition of bacterial metabolism D. Inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces E. Neutralization of toxins 387. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter E A. Light chain B. Variable region C. Disulphide bonds D. Complement binding region E. *Receptor for placental passage 388. A. B. C. D. E. Which cells do antigen-presenting cells process antigen need to activation? B-cells T-killers NK-cells Mast cells *T-helpers Which do one of the following substances released by activated helper T cells can activate T 389. killers? A. trasfer factor B. *Gamma interferon C. Interleukin- 6 D. Interleukin-4 E. lymphotoxin 390. Which immunoglobulin has no known function, but is present on the surface of B lymphocytes? It may function as an antigen receptor. A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. *IgD 391. Which immunoglobulin has no known function, but is present on the surface of B lymphocytes? It may function as an antigen receptor. A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. *IgD 392. Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response? It has four subclasses. A. *IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. IgD 393. Which immunoglobulin mediates immediate hypersensitivity and is involved in immune response to parasitic infections? A. IgG B. IgM C. *IgE D. IgA E. IgD 394. Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface? A. follicular dendritic cells B. macrophages C. basophils D. eosinophils E. *all of the above 395. Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells? A. Class I B. *Class II C. Class III D. Class II & Class III E. Class I & Class III 396. Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion of IgG or IgM? A. C1s B. C9 C. *C1q D. C3 E. C5 397. Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion of IgG or IgM? A. C1s B. C9 C. *C1q D. C3 E. C5 398. Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that is initially seen on the primary immune response? It is present as a monomer on B cell surfaces but as a pentamer in serum. A. IgG B. *IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. IgD 399. Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that is initially seen on the primary immune response? It is present as a monomer on B cell surfaces but as a pentamer in serum. A. IgG B. *IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. IgD 400. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. *IgG E. IgM 401. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. *IgG E. IgM 402. Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant? A. *MHC class I molecules B. MHC class II molecules C. MHC class III molecules D. All of the above E. None of the above 403. Which of the following tests depends on the presence of protein A on certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus? A. Latex agglutination (LA) B. C. D. E. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT) Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE) *Coagglutination (COA) 404. Which of the following tests is used extensively to detect microbial antigens rapidly (5 min or less)? Inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody. A. *Latex agglutination (LA) B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT) D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE) E. Coagglutination (COA) 405. Which of the following tests is used extensively to detect microbial antigens rapidly (5 min or less)? Inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody. A. *Latex agglutination (LA) B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT) D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE) E. Coagglutination (COA) 406. Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the heavy-chain constant region? A. Ability to cross the placenta B. Isotype (class) C. Ability to fix complement D. *Ability to bind antigen E. Ability to opsonization 407. Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the heavy-chain constant region? A. Ability to cross the placenta B. Isotype (class) C. Ability to fix complement D. *Ability to bind antigen E. Ability to opsonization 408. Which one of the immunoglobulins BEST fits the following description: It is found in plasma as a dimer with a J chain. As it passes through mucosal cells, it acquires a secretory piece that protects it from degradation by proteases. A. IgM B. IgG C. *IgA D. IgD E. IgE 409. Which one of the immunoglobulins BEST fits the following description: It is found in plasma as a dimer with a J chain. As it passes through mucosal cells, it acquires a secretory piece that protects it from degradation by proteases. A. IgM B. IgG C. *IgA D. IgD E. IgE 410. Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement? A. IgE B. IgG1 C. IgG2 D. IgG3 E. *IgM 411. Your patient became ill 10 days ago with a viral disease. Laboratory examination reveals that the patient's antibodies against this virus have a high ratio of IgM to IgG. What is your conclusion? A. *It is unlikely that the patient has encountered this organism previously B. The patient is predisposed to IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions C. The patient has encountered this organism previosly D. It is likely that the patient has an autoimmune disease E. The patient has chronic viral disease 412. Your patient became ill 10 days ago with a viral disease. Laboratory examination reveals that the patient's antibodies against this virus have a high ratio of IgM to IgG. What is your conclusion? A. *It is unlikely that the patient has encountered this organism previously B. The patient is predisposed to IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions C. The patient has encountered this organism previosly D. It is likely that the patient has an autoimmune disease E. The patient has chronic viral disease 413. A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes, manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to A. *systemic anaphylaxis B. serum sickness C. an Arthus reaction D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity E. endotoxic shock 414. A direct immunofluorescence which is used for the pathogenic microorganisms detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein can be binded to: A. microorganism B. the sheep red blood cells C. specific antibody against the human globulins D. *specific antibody against a microorganism E. specific antibody against complement 415. A latex-agglutination test is one of variants of indirect agglutination which is widely used for the diagnostics of bacterial meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc. What can it find out by this test? A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine B. autoantibodies in serum C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF. D. incomplete antibodies in serum E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells 416. A patient is hospitalized with a tentative diagnosis "Hepatitis B". Serologic test is used for the diagnostics. It is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically related to peroxydase. What name does this test have? A. *ELISA B. RIA C. Immunofluorescence test D. CFT E. Immobilization test 417. A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically, the reaction site would MOST probably show A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils C. *Helper T cells and macrophages D. B cells E. NK cells 418. A patient suspected on anthrax is admitted to hospital. For express diagnostics the direct immunofluorescense method was utillized. What ingredient is used for these diagnostics? A. Toxoid B. Immune antibacterial serum C. Immune antitoxic serum D. *Specific fluorescent serum E. Protective antigen 419. A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103 F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever B. a different infectious disease C. an IgE response to penicillin D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin 420. A preliminary conclusion about the selected pure culture allows to do presumptive agglutination test. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test: A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies 421. A primary immune response arises up at the first contact with an antigen. Which Ig class is the most rapidly synthesized and bind the antigen? A. IgD B. *IgM C. IgG D. IgA E. IgE 422. A women with rheumatic heart disease has tonsillitis. From the sputum beta-hemolytic streptococci are obtained. The patient is treatment with penicillin, and the tonsillitis resolves within several days. However, 8 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 39°C, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This most probably resulted from A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever B. a different infectious disease C. an IgE response to penicillin D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin 423. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is A. viral antigen B. *carcinoembryonic antigen C. alpha-fetoprotein D. heterophil antigen E. Forsman antigen 424. Binding of antibody to epitopes of antigen is provided by active center of immunoglobuline which is placed: A. Between the constant parts of Н-chains B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains C. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains D. *Between the variable parts of H- and L-chains E. In the variable parts of immunoglobuline 425. Causative agent of the acute gastroenteritis was isolated from the patient’s organism. It is necessary to identify him after the detection of an antigen structure. What serologic reaction can be used for this purpose? A. *Agglutination test B. Complement fixation test C. Neutralization test D. Precipitation test E. Opsonization test 426. Certain substances must be utilized for processin of the red blood cells for absorption of antigen on RBC in the IHT. Specify one of these substances among listed. A. Formalin B. Lysozyme C. Inulin D. *Tanninum E. Ksantin 427. Diagnosticum at statement indirect (passive) hemagglutination test with the purpose serological diagnostic: A. Patient’s serum B. Red blood cells with antibodies surface C. Nonsensitized erythrocytes D. *Red blood cells with antigen surface E. Suspension of the killed microorganisms 428. Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is A. IgE antibody B. *IgG antibody C. IgM antibody D. IgA antibody E. IgD antibody 429. HIT is often used in medical practice for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the components of this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics. A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums 430. In antibodies which occure in the organism under such diseases as brucellesis, autoimmune diseases, etc. one of the active centres is blocked. An idirect Coombs test is used for their detection. Specify that can be defined by this reaction. A. incomplete antibodies on the red blood cells B. deficient antigens on the red blood cells C. *incomplete antibodies in the blood serum D. incomplete antibodies on the platelets E. haptens on the red blood cells 431. In direct immunofluorescence test using for the pathogenic microorganisms detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein must be binded to: A. microorganism B. the sheep red blood cells C. specific antibody against the human globulins D. *specific antibody against a microorganism E. specific antibody against complement 432. In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator erylhrocytes.) A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait 433. In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator erylhrocytes.) A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait 434. Neutralization test be used for virus identification. Specify, the sequence of bringing in its components (virus- V, patient’s serum - PS., specific serum - SS., cell culture – CC). A. SS + V to expect > CC B. CC + V to expect > SS C. *V + SS to expect >CC D. SS + CC to expect >V E. CC + PS to expect >V 435. One of the active centres of antibodies which present in the organism under such diseases as brucellesis, autoimmune diseases, etc. is blocked. An idirect Coombs test is used for their detection. Specify that can be defined by this reaction. A. incomplete antibodies on the red blood cells B. deficient antigens on the red blood cells C. *incomplete antibodies in the blood serum D. incomplete antibodies on the platelets E. haptens on the red blood cells 436. One of variants of indirect agglutination which is widely used for the diagnostics of bacterial meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc is latex-agglutination test. What can detect by this test? A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine B. autoantibodies in serum C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF. D. incomplete antibodies in serum E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells 437. Patient’s immune status examination reveals altered classic pathway of complement activation. Which Ig are responsible for the activation of the comlement? A. *Ig M, Ig G B. Ig A, Ig M C. Ig D, Ig G D. Ig E, Ig A E. Ig M, Ig D 438. Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time, with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later? A. Penicillin B. cephalosporins C. Penicillin bound to egg albumin D. Egg albumin E. *bovine serum albumin 439. Presumptive agglutination test allows to do a preliminary conclusion about selected pure culture. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test: A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies 440. Shoes of person accused of murder is stained with blood. How is it possible to determine, whether this blood is human? A. using the immunofluorescence test. B. using the agglutination test. C. using the Coombs test D. *using the precipitation test. E. using the latex-agglutination test 441. Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely to be caused by A. interleukin-2 B. interleukin-10 C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) D. serotonin E. bradykinin 442. The amount of immunoglobulins of different classes in blood serum we can define by a simple radial immunodiffusion test. It is necessary for this purpose: A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around and bring in the different types of antibodies into them E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel 443. The immune response of organism is activared with recognition of foreign antigen. Which of the listed proteins are able to recognize an antigen? A. beta-globulins B. Albumens C. Glycoproteins D. *Immunoglobulins E. a-fetoprotein 444. The person’s clothes with brown spots defined tham as blood is delivered to the forensic medical examination laboratory. An expert defined them as tracks of blood. What test does need to should be used to confirm this blood belonging to human? A. Complement fixation test B. *Ring precipitation test C. Flocullation test D. ELISA E. Agglutination test 445. The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity is A. the class (isotype) of antibody B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed C. the participation of complement D. the participation of T cells E. interraction between antigen and antibody 446. There was a necessity to probe the presence of antibodies against the hepatitis B virus in the patient’s serum. A ELISA is used. Specify necessary components: A. Patient’s serum labeled with an enzyme, specific antigen B. Specific serum, virus, antigen, antiglobulin serum C. Virus, antigen in wells, specific serum, substance D. *Viral antigen in wells, patient’s serum, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme, substance E. Patient’s serum in wells, viral antigen, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme 447. What from the next classes of immunoglobuline is the most numerous and able to be passed from the mother to the child? A. *IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE E. IgA 448. What microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the coagglutination test. Choose him among listed: A. Micrococcus luteus B. *Staphylococcus aureus C. Escherichia coli D. Streptococcus viridans E. Salmonella typhi 449. What modern immunological methods do serve for the detection of the minimum concentration of viral antigens? A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B. ELISA C. Method with the use of monoclonal antibodies D. Radioimmune method (RIA) E. *All of transferred 450. What purpose necessary to heat up the patient’s serum at 56 °С – 30 min. for before performing of the CFT ? A. For elimination of heterophiles antibodies B. For diminishing of properdin’s activity C. For the decline of lysozymes’ activity D. *For elimination of complement E. For oppressing of normal antibodies 451. ?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility? A. Atopic or anaphylactic B. *Cytotoxic C. Immune complex D. Delayed E. Autoimmune 452. Which of the following involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion and precipitation? A. Flow cytometry B. Double diffusion immunoassay C. *Immunoelectrophoresis D. Direct immunosorbent assay E. Indirect immunosorbent assay 453. Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the heavy-chain constant region? A. Ability to cross the placenta B. C. D. E. Isotype (class) Ability to fix complement *Affinity for antigen Ability to opsonization 454. Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci? A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue 455. Which two classes of immunoglobulins are synthesized almost simultaneously under the influence of foreign agent, Although one of these classes increases in number and decreases in concentration more quickly? A. *IgM and IgG B. Ig M and IgD C. IgG and IgD D. Ig An and IgD E. IgA and IgG 456. You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis? A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells 457. A 2-year-old child suffers of recurrent staphylococcal infections arrives at the emergency department at the local hospital. His neutrophils show normal chemotaxis, degranulation, and phagocytosis. However, intracellular killing of staphylococci by the neutrophils is severely impaired. Myeloperoxidase activity of his neutrophils is normal. The child has no history of streptococcal infection. Which of the following is the most likely disease affecting this patient? A. rheumatoid arthritis B. Graves disease C. *chronic granulomatous disease D. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) E. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) 458. A 20-year-old girl suddenly experiences severe dyspnea after the consumption of fish at a local restaurant. Upon arrival at the local emergency room she is found to be severely hypotensive and in respiratory distress.Urticarial wheals are also noted all over her body. As the resident physician you quickly realize this to be a hypersensitivity reaction.Physical examination reveals severe laryngeal edema resulting in a marked hoarseness when the 20-year-old girl attempts to speak. Also,her lips and tongue show significant swelling.Which of the following chemicals most likely caused this edematous swelling? A. corticosteroids B. cromolyn sodium C. epinephrine D. *histamine E. 5-lipoxygenase 459. A 25-year-old female presents to her doctor’s office with a rash over the malar eminences of her face, sparing the nasolabial folds; a skin rash due to exposure to sunlight; and painless nasopharyngeal ulcers. Suspecting an autoimmune disorder, her physician obtains an anti-nuclear antibody test of her blood and finds high titers of anti-ouble-stranded DNA anti-bodies. Which one of the following diseases is most likely responsible for this immunological reaction? A. B. C. D. E. Goodpasture syndrome multiple sclerosis myasthenia gravis rheumatoid arthritis *systemic lupus erythematosus 460. A 27-year-old man was treated with penicillin for gonorrhea. Thirty-five days later he was reinfected with the same germ, and his physician administered an intramuscular dose of penicillin. Two minutes following the injection of penicillin, the patient experienced hypoten-sion and shock and became unconscious. This reaction was most likely mediated by which of the following? A. activation of the alternate complement pathway B. activation of the classical complement C. IgD D. *IgE E. IgG 461. A 3-year-old child with a history of recurrent staphylococcal infections arrives at the emergency department at the local hospital. His neutrophils show normal chemotaxis, degranulation, and phagocytosis. However, intracellular killing of staphylococci by the neutrophils is severely impaired. Myeloperoxidase activity of his neutrophils is normal. The child has no history of streptococcal infection. Which of the following is the most likely disease affecting this patient? A. *chronic granulomatous disease B. Graves disease C. rheumatoid arthritis D. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) E. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) 462. A 34-year-old female patient is sneezing and has a runny nose and watery eyes every summer. Her physician is convinced that the patient is suffering from an allergy and performs some skin tests. The results of these test sare shown below: Allergen used Response to allergen for testing(wheal diameter in mm) cat dander 1, house dust 4, Kentucky blue grass13, pollen7, fungal spores 6, solventonly control 5. Which of the following test allergens is most likely to be inducing the patient’s symptoms? A. cat dander B. house dust C. *Kentucky blue grass D. mold E. pollen 463. A 35-year-old male with end-stage renal disease must undergo a kidney transplant. Which of the following is true of immunologic suppression for transplantation? A. *It can occur by antilymphocyte globulin. B. It cannot be achieved by cyclosporine administration. C. It cannot occur by lymphoid irradiation. D. It is facilitated by gamma interferon administration. E. It is not likely to respond to steroid administration. 464. A 35-year-old male with end-stage renal disease must undergo a kidney transplant. Which of the following is true of immunologic suppression for transplantation? A. *It can occur by antilymphocyte globulin. B. It cannot be achieved by cyclosporine administration. C. It cannot occur by lymphoid irradiation. D. It is facilitated by gamma interferon administration. E. It is not likely to respond to steroid administration. 465. A 35-year-old woman suffers of severe muscular weakness. Antibodies against acetylcholine neural receptors were measured in a woman and are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of which of the following A. acute idiopathic polyneuritis B. C. D. E. Guillain-Barr syndrome *myasthenia gravis multiple sclerosis postpericardiotomy syndrome 466. A 45-year-old male was admited to hospital with a rash over the malar eminences of his face, sparing the nasolabial folds; a skin rash due to exposure to sunlight; and painless nasopharyngeal ulcers. Suspecting an autoimmune disorder, his physician obtains an anti-nuclear antibody test of his blood and finds high titers of anti-ouble-stranded DNA anti-bodies. Which one of the following diseases is most likely responsible for this immunological reaction? A. *systemic lupus erythematosus B. multiple sclerosis C. myasthenia gravis D. rheumatoid arthritis E. Goodpasture syndrome 467. A 5-month-old baby presents to the local community clinic with noted oral candidiasis, chronic diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an overall failure to thrive. Previously this infant has been seen for multiple severe, recurrent infections from viruses, fungi, bacteria, and protozoa. Chest x-ray reveals an absent thymic shadow. Which of the following immunodeficiencies best explains this baby’s recurrent infections? A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia B. deficiencies in the C5–C8 components of complement C. deficiency in neutrophil NADPH oxidase D. DiGeorge syndrome E. *severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID) 468. A 6-month-old girl has severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID). Which of the following can most likely restore the immunological competency of this 6-month-old girl? A. administration of purine nucleosidephosphorylase B. B-cell supplementation C. T-cell treatment D. injection of adenosine deaminase E. *compatible bone marrow transplantation 469. A 7-month-old boy suffers of candidiasis, chronic diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an overall failure to thrive. Previously this infant has been seen for multiple severe, recurrent infections from viruses, fungi, bacteria, and protozoa. Chest x-ray reveals an absent thymic shadow. Which of the following immunodeficiencies best explains this baby’s recurrent infections? A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia B. deficiencies in the C5–C8 components of complement C. *severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID) D. DiGeorge syndrome E. deficiency in neutrophil NADPH oxidase 470. A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes, manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to A. *systemic anaphylaxis B. serum sickness C. an Arthus reaction D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity E. endotoxic shock 471. A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes, manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to A. *systemic anaphylaxis B. serum sickness C. an Arthus reaction D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity E. endotoxic shock 472. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by A. *IgE antibody B. IgG .antibody C. sensitized T cell D. complement E. IgM antibody 473. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by A. *IgE antibody B. IgG .antibody C. sensitized T cell D. complement E. IgM antibody 474. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by A. *IgE antibody B. IgG .antibody C. sensitized T cell D. complement E. IgM antibody 475. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by A. edema without a cellular infiltrate B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers 476. A girl has a genetic defect and cannot produce the J chain which is important in the strucure of some immunoglobulin molecules.Which of the following will most likely be observed in this individual? A. *a decrease in serum IgM B. a decrease in mature T lymphocytes C. a decrease in mature B cells D. an increase in IgA in the intestine E. an increase in serum IgM 477. A high school student while on a field trip encounters poison ivy and develops a severe contact dermatitis, which is classified as type IV hypersensitivity. Contact dermatitis is differentiated from type III hypersensitivity by which of the following facts? A. It is associated with cell bound antigens of human erythrocytes. B. It is associated with cytotoxic reactions. C. It is encountered in atopic individuals. D. It is mediated by antigen-antibody complexes. E. *It is mediated by cellular immunity. 478. A little boy presents to the local community clinic with noted oral candidiasis, chronic diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an overall failure to thrive. Previous diagnosis is severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID). Which of the following can most likely restore the immunological competency of this 5-month-old baby? A. administration of purine nucleosidephosphorylase B. B-cell supplementation C. *compatible bone marrow transplantation D. injection of adenosine deaminase E. T-cell treatment 479. A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically, the reaction site would MOST probably show A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils C. *Helper T cells and macrophages D. B cells E. NK cells 480. A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103 F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever B. a different infectious disease C. an IgE response to penicillin D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin 481. A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103 F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever B. a different infectious disease C. an IgE response to penicillin D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin 482. A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST likely to be caused by A. interleukin-2 B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) C. serotonin D. bradykinin E. ?-interferon 483. ?A student has a genetic defect and cannot produce the J chain which is important in the strucure of some immunoglobulin molecules.Which of the following will most likely be observed in this individual? A. a decrease in mature B cells B. a decrease in mature T lymphocytes C. *a decrease in serum IgM D. an increase in IgA in the intestine E. an increase in serum IgM and decrease in IgE 484. A women with rheumatic heart disease has tonsillitis. From the sputum beta-hemolytic streptococci are obtained. The patient is treatment with penicillin, and the tonsillitis resolves within several days. However, 8 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 39°C, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This most probably resulted from A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever B. a different infectious disease C. an IgE response to penicillin D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin 485. A young girl was treated with penicillin for gonorrhea. Twenty-two days later she was reinfected with the same germ, and his physician administered an intramuscular dose of penicillin. Two minutes following the injection of penicillin, the patient experienced hypotension and shock and became unconscious. This reaction was most likely mediated by which of the following? A. activation of the alternate complement pathway B. activation of the classical complement C. IgD D. IgG E. *IgE 486. A young housworker suffers of systemic lupus erythematosus. Administration of which one of the following substances is likely to be most beneficial to this patient? A. gamma interferon B. interleukin-1 C. plasmapheresis D. *prednisone E. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) 487. A young infant suffers of recurrent pyogenic infections. Low low levels of all immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE) are found in young infant. He has which of the following diseases? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Goodpasture syndrome C. Graves disease D. *Bruton disease E. Addison disease 488. ?According an anamesis of this disease patient has been very susceptible to opportunistic bacterial and fungal infections. This disease is due to a defect in the intracellular microbicidal activity of neutrophils as a result of a lack of NADPH oxidase activity (or similar enzymes). What immunodeficiency disease does patient have? A. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD) B. Hereditary Angloedema C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia D. Agammaglobulinemia E. HIV-infection 489. ?According an anamesis of this disease patient has been very susceptible to opportunistic bacterial and fungal infections. This disease is due to a defect in the intracellular microbicidal activity of neutrophils as a result of a lack of NADPH oxidase activity (or similar enzymes). What immunodeficiency disease does patient have? A. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD) B. Hereditary Angloedema C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia D. Agammaglobulinemia E. HIV-infection 490. ?According an anamesis of this disease patient has been very susceptible to opportunistic bacterial and fungal infections. This disease is due to a defect in the intracellular microbicidal activity of neutrophils as a result of a lack of NADPH oxidase activity (or similar enzymes). What immunodeficiency disease does patient have? A. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD) B. Hereditary Angloedema C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia D. Agammaglobulinemia E. HIV-infection 491. An 8-month old boy presents to the emergency room in respiratory distress from a recurrent upper respiratory tract bacterial infection. Labsreveal low levels of IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM. Suspecting an immune deficiency disorder, genetic testing reveals a defect in a tyrosinekinase gene. Which of the following would be seen in patients with this immune deficiency disorder? A. B. C. D. E. particular susceptibility to viral and fungal infections profound deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity depletion of lymphocytes in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes normal numbers of B lymphocytes *very low quantities of immunoglobulinin their serum 492. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is A. viral antigen B. *carcinoembryonic antigen C. alpha-fetoprotein D. heterophil antigen E. Forsman antigen 493. An immune deficiency disorder, genetic testing reveals a defect in a tyrosinekinase gene. Which of the following would be seen in patients with this immune deficiency disorder? A. particular susceptibility to viral and fungal infections B. *very low quantities of immunoglobulinin their serum C. depletion of lymphocytes in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes D. normal numbers of B lymphocytes E. profound deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity 494. Antibodies against acetylcholine neural receptors were measured in a 35-year-old woman and are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of which of the following A. acute idiopathic polyneuritis B. Guillain-Barr syndrome C. multiple sclerosis D. *myasthenia gravis E. postpericardiotomy syndrome 495. Blood analysis of the patient reveals decreased levels of C4 and decreased levels of C1 inhibitor. This complement deficiency is likely to lead to which of the following conditions? A. bacteremia B. an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections C. *angioedema D. decreased production of anaphylatoxins E. enhancement of antibody production 496. Child, 7 mounth old, has bleeding and eczema. Recurrent pyogenic infections occur frequency. What immunodeficiency does child have? A. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome B. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD) C. Hereditary Angloedema D. Ataxia-Telangiectasia E. Agammaglobulinemia 497. Child, 9 mounth old, has recurrent pyogenic infections and bleeding. What immunodeficiency does child have? A. Combined B Cell and T Cell Deficiencies B. B cell defect. C. Т cell defect. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 498. ?Following the consumption of fish at a local restaurant, a 17-year-old girl suddenly experiences severe dyspnea. Upon arrival at the local emergency room she is found to be severely hypotensive and in respiratory distress.Urticarial wheals are also noted all over her body. As the resident physician you quickly realize this to be a hypersensitivity reaction.To which of the following immunoglobulins does the allergen bind rapidly during the activation stage of mast cells? A. IgA B. C. D. E. IgD *IgE IgG IgM 499. Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is A. IgE antibody B. *IgG antibody C. IgM antibody D. IgA antibody E. IgD antibody 500. In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator erylhrocytes.) A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait 501. In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the following? A. neurons B. *DNA C. RNA D. blood cells E. derm 502. Kentucky blue grass induces the patient’s symptoms. Which of the following substances is most likely to prevent the attachment of the mold allergen to the sensitized mast cells in this patient? A. complement B. corticosteroids C. cromolyn sodium D. epinephrine E. *IgG anti-mold 503. Patient has the Chidiak-Higashi Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 504. Patient has the Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD). What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 505. Patient has the Hereditary Angloedema. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 506. Patient has the Thymic Aplasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 507. Patient has the X-Linked Hypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia). What deficiency of immune system has this patient? A. B cell defect. B. Т cell defect. C. both В and Т cell defects. D. Complement deficiency. E. Phagocyte Deficiencies 508. Patients with severely reduced C3 levels tend to have A. increased numbers of severe viral infections B. increased numbers of severe bacterial infections C. low gamma globulin levels D. frequent episodes of hemolytic anemia E. all answers are true 509. Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time, with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later? A. Penicillin B. cephalosporins C. Penicillin bound to egg albumin D. Egg albumin E. *bovine serum albumin 510. Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time, with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later? A. Penicillin B. cephalosporins C. Penicillin bound to egg albumin D. Egg albumin E. *bovine serum albumin 511. Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely to be caused by A. interleukin-2 B. interleukin-10 C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) D. serotonin E. bradykinin 512. The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following? A. DiGeorge syndrome B. *severe combined immunodeficiency C. rheumatoid arthritis D. leukemia E. agammaglobulinemia 513. The first level tests for assessment of immune status includes all of the following determinations, ECXEPT: A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative); Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood; Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins; Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+) 514. This electrophoretic pattern of serum proteins was likely to be obtained from a 6-month-old infant suffering from recurrent pyogenic infections. Very low levels of all immunoglobulins are found in young infant. He has which of the following diseases? A. Addison disease B. *Bruton disease C. Graves disease D. Goodpasture syndrome E. Myasthenia gravis 515. When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, damage to the membrane is caused mainly by A. gamma interferon B. phagocytosis C. cytotoxic T cells D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells E. natural killers 516. ?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility? A. Atopic or anaphylactic B. *Cytotoxic C. Immune complex D. Delayed E. Autoimmune 517. Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for passing the placental barrier and attacking the Rh + fetal red blood cells in hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. *IgG E. IgM 518. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the type IV hypersensitivity reaction in the school pupil? A. expression of antigen epitopes on B cells B. expression of allergen epitopes on CD8 +T cells C. IgE reaction with mast cells D. reaction of allergen with the Ti and CD4 markers of B cells E. *T helper cell reaction with the antigen epitope 519. Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci? A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue 520. While on a wilderness vacation, a banker develops extensive skin lesions noted for their varying degrees of erythema, edema, and vesiculations. His physician tells him that these lesions are due to delayed type hypersensitivity. If this is actually the case, which of the following statements is accurate? A. *Delayed-type hypersensitivity can be transferred passively to volunteers by sensitized lymphocytes. B. C. D. E. B. C. D. E. Delayed-type hypersensitivity is suppressed by antihistaminic drugs. This allergy does not cause tissue damage. This allergy is due to IgE absorbed on mast cells. This type of allergy usually occurs after inhalation of grass pollens. 521. You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis? A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells 522. You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis? A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells 523. Your patient is a child who has no detectable T cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in A. *the thymus B. the bursal equivalent C. bone marrow D. T cell-B cell interaction E. stem cells originating in the bone marrow 524. Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in A. the thymus B. the bursal equivalent C. T cell-B cell interaction D. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow E. gene encoding tyrosin kinase Test’s questions to figures 1. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 1 A. Hans Jansen B. Zacharian Jansen C. E. *Duclaux D. Louis Pasteur E. *Antony van Leeuwenhoek 2. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 2 A. Zacharian Jansen B. E. *Duclaux C. Edward Jenner D. Robert Koch E. *Louis Pasteur 3. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 3 A. Zacharian Jansen B. Louis Pasteur C. E. *Duclaux D. Edward Jenner E. *Robert Koch 4. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 4 A. Louis Pasteur B. E. *Duclaux C. Edward Jenner D. Robert Koch E. *I. Metchnikov 5. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 5 A. I. Metchnikov B. Louis Pasteur C. E. *Duclaux D. Robert Koch E. *D. Ivanovsky 6. What microbes are there in figure? Fig. 6 A. Staphylococci B. Streptococci C. Vibrios D. Pneumococci E. *Micrococci 7. What microbes are there? Fig. 7 A. Micrococci B. Staphylococci C. Streptococci D. Tetracocci E. *Diplococci 8. What microbes are there? Fig. 8 A. Micrococci B. Diplococci C. Streptococci D. Tetracocci E. *Staphylococci 9. What microbes are there? Fig. 9 A. Micrococci B. Diplococci C. Staphylococci D. Tetracocci E. *Streptococci 10. What microbes are there? Fig. 10 A. Micrococci B. Staphylococci C. Streptococci D. Tetracocci E. *Sarcina 11. What microbes are there? Fig. 11 A. Monobacilli B. Diplobacteria C. Streptobacteria D. Streptobacilli E. *Monobacteria 12. What microbes are there? Fig. 12 A. Streptobacilli B. Streptobacteria C. Diplobacteria D. Monobacteria E. *Monobacilli 13. What microbes are there ? Fig. 13 A. Streptobacilli B. Diplobacteria C. Monobacilli D. Monobacteria E. *Streptobacteria 14. What microbes are there ? Fig. 14 A. Streptobacteria B. Diplobacteria C. Monobacilli D. Monobacteria E. *Streptobacilli 15. What microbes are there ? Fig. 15 A. Streptobacteria B. Diplobacteria C. Monobacilli D. Monobacteria E. *Streptobacilli 16. What microbes are there ? Fig. 16 A. Treponema B. Borrelia C. Leptospira D. Spirilla E. *Vibrio 17. What microbes are there ? Fig. 17 A. Treponema B. Borrelia C. Leptospira D. Vibrio E. *Spirilla 18. What microbes are there ? Fig. 18 A. Treponema B. Leptospira C. Spirilla D. Vibrio E. *Borrelia 19. What microbes are there ? Fig. 19 A. Treponema B. Borrelia C. Spirilla D. Vibrio E. *Leptospira 20. What microbes are there ? Fig. 20 A. Borrelia B. Leptospira C. Spirilla D. Vibrio E. *Treponema 21. There is the staining of volutin granules according to: Fig. 21 A. Grey’s technique B. Ziehl-Neelsen’s technique C. Peshkov’s technique D. Gram’s technique E. *Loeffler’s technique 22. There is the structure of: Fig. 22 A. Gram-negative cell wall B. Inner membrane C. Correct all D. No correct answer E. *Gram-positive cell wall 23. There are bacteria with: Fig. 24 A. Nucleoids B. Spores C. Volutine granules D. No correct answer E. *Capsules 24. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (a)? Fig. 26 A. Lophotrichous B. Amphitrichous C. Peritrichous D. No correct answer E. *Monotrichous 25. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (b)? Fig. 26 A. Monotrichous B. Amphitrichous C. Peritrichous D. No correct answer E. *Lophotrichous 26. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (c)? Fig. 26 A. Monotrichous B. Lophotrichous C. Peritrichous D. No correct answer E. *Amphitrichous 27. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (d)? Fig. 26 A. Monotrichous B. Lophotrichous C. Amphitrichous D. No correct answer E. *Peritrichous 28. What is there in the figure? Fig. 27 A. Bacterial mesosome B. Bacterial capsules C. Correct all D. No correct answer E. *Bacterial spore 29. What type of the spore localization is in this figure? Fig. 15 A. Terminal B. Subterminal C. Correct all D. No correct answer E. *Central 30. What type of the spore localization is in this figure? Fig. 29 A. Central B. Subterminal C. Correct all D. No correct answer E. *Terminal 31. What type of the spore localization is in this figure? Fig. 30 A. Central B. Terminal C. Correct all D. No correct answer E. *Subterminal 32. There is such spore localization: Fig. 31 A. Terminal B. Central C. Correct all D. No correct answer E. *Subterminal 33. What microbes are there? Fig. 32 A. Treponema B. Borrelia C. Leptospira D. Staphylococci E. *Actinomycetes 34. What microbes are there in the cell? Fig. 33 A. Treponema B. Staphylococcus C. Leptospira D. Actinomycetes E. *Chlamidia 35. What microbes are there? Fig. 34 A. Staphylococci B. Streptococci C. Sarcina D. Micrococci E. *Candida 36. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 35 A. Aspergillus B. Penicillium C. Trichophyton D. Microsporum E. *Mucor 37. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 36 A. Penicillium B. Mucor C. Trichophyton D. Microsporum E. *Aspergillus 38. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 37 A. Penicillium B. Mucor C. Trichophyton D. Microsporum E. *Aspergillus 39. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 38 A. Aspergillus B. Mucor C. Trichophyton D. Microsporum E. *Penicillium 40. What equipment is shown in this figure? Fig. 39 A. autoclave B. serum coagulator C. thermostat D. sterilizer E. *heat oven 41. What equipment is shown in this figure? Fig. 40 A. serum coagulator B. thermostat C. sterilizer D. dry-heat closet E. *autoclave 42. That equipment is shown in figure? Fig. 41 A. autoclave B. thermostat C. sterilizer D. dry-heat closet E. *serum coagulator 43. For what purpose can we use this device? Fig. 42 A. for study of bacterial adhesive properties B. for sterilization by gases C. for sterilization by live steam D. for control of sterilization by pressed steam E. *for sterilization by filtration 44. For what purpose can this test-system be used? Fig. 43 A. for in a heat oven sterilization control B. for mechanical sterilization control C. for gas sterilization control D. for control of ultraviolet rays sterilization E. *for control of sterilization by autoclaving 45. What method is shown in the figure? Fig. 44 A. inoculation by a spatula B. by serial dilution in solid nutrient media C. by a tampon D. none of offered E. *inoculation by streaks technique 46. How can we use this test-system? Fig. 45 A. for verification of sterilization B. for identification of bacteria C. for phage typing D. for bacteria staining E. *for creation of anaerobic condition 47. How can we use this jar? Fig. 46 A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria B. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria C. for sterilization of Petry’s plate with microbes D. for cultivation of aerotolerant bacteria E. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria 48. Which bacteria properties you can find on this medium? Fig. 47 A. cultural B. serological C. sugarlytic D. biological E. *hemolytic 49. What sign does show the presence of growth in the left test tube? Fig. 48 A. formation of sediment B. formation of pellicle C. growth in the left test tube is absent D. formation of «stalactites» E. *formation of diffuse turbidity 50. What property of bacteria is tested on the Endo’s medium? Fig. 13 A. ability of glucose utilization B. ability of saccharose utilization C. ability of maltose utilization D. ability of mannitol utilization E. *ability of lactose utilization 51. What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium (blood agar)? Fig. 49 A. saccharolytic B. lipolytic C. proteolytic D. reductive E. *hemolytic 52. There is yolk agar on the picturE. *What property of bacteria is it possible verify? Fig. 50 A. proteolytic B. hemolytic C. gelatin hydrolysis D. saccharolytic E. *lecithinase production 53. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the name of the phase that is marked as number 1. Fig. 25 A. phase of negative acceleration B. Log- phase C. Stationary D. Decline E. *Lag- phase 54. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the name of the phase that is marked as number 2. Fig. 25 A. Lag- phase B. Decline C. Stationary D. Phase of negative acceleration E. *Log- phase 55. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the name of the phase that is marked as number 3. Fig. 25 A. Log- phase B. Lag- phase C. Decline D. Phase of negative acceleration E. *Stationary 56. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the name of the phase that is marked as number 4. Fig. 25 A. Lag- phase B. Log- phase C. Stationary D. Phase of negative acceleration E. *Decline 57. Different types of bacterial colonies are produced on solid nutrient medium when dissociation occurs. What type of colonies do these ones belong to? Fig. 51 A. S B. D C. M D. P E. *R 58. Oral cavity normal microflora is represented in the figurE. *What microorganisms not belong to its? Fig. 54 A. streptococci B. actinomycetes C. veilonella D. fusobacteria E. *gonococci 59. What is presented in the figure? Fig. 57 A. Structure of F factors B. Structure of S factors C. Structure of T factors D. No correct answer E. *Structure of R factors 60. What is there in the figure? Fig. 58 A. Bacterial cell B. Protozoa C. Fungus D. No correct answer E. *Bacteriophage 61. There is scheme of: Fig. 59 A. Transformation B. Transduction C. All are correct D. No correct answer E. *Conjugation 62. What type of recombination is shown in the figure? Fig. 95 A. Transduction B. Transformation C. All are correct D. No correct answer E. *Conjugation 63. What type of conjugation is shown in the figure? Fig. 60 A. Mechanism of F+ x F- Crosses B. Mechanism of F? x F- Crosses C. All are correct D. No correct answer E. *Mechanism of Hfr x F- Crosses 64. What is there in the figure? Fig. 96 A. Antigen structure of bacteria B. Biochemical properties of bacteria C. Chromosome cap D. No correct answer E. *Chromosome map 65. What type of colonies are there in the figure? Fig. 61 A. R B. D C. T D. F E. *S 66. What type of colonies are there in the figure? Fig. 62 A. S B. D C. T D. F E. *R 67. Tooth plague formation is represented in the figurE. *The folloving microflora prevails in the firstday plagues: Fig. 63 A. spirochetes and rods B. rods C. actinomycetes and cocci D. lactobacteria E. *cocci 68. What scientist is there in the figure? Fig. 64 A. P. Ehrlich B. I. Metchnikov C. L. Pasteur D. R. Koch E. *A. Fleming 69. What is there in the figure? Fig. 65 A. Examination of antibiotic susceptility B. Examination of susceptility to phage C. All are correct D. No correct answer E. *Examination of bacterial antagonism 70. What is there in the figure? Fig. 100 A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Aspergillus D. No correct answer E. *Penicillium 71. What is there in the figure? Fig. 66 A. Structure of bacterial inner membrane B. Structure of bacterial outer membrane C. Structure of gram-positive bacterial cell wall D. Structure of bacterial capsule E. *Structure of gram-negative bacterial cell wal 72. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 67 A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique D. No correct answer E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique 73. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 97 A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique D. No correct answer E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique 74. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 98 A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique D. No correct answer E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium 75. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 99 A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique D. No correct answer E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium 76. What type of immune response is shown in this figure? Fig. 23 A. Immediate hypersensitivity B. Delayed hypersensitivity C. Cell mediated immune response D. Cytotoxic rection E. *Humoral immune response 77. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 1? Fig. 23 A. B-lymphocyte B. T-killer C. C. T-helper D. D. Plasma cell E. *Antigen presenting cell 78. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 2? Fig. 23 A. T-killer B. T-helper C. Antigen presenting cell D. Plasma cell E. *B-lymphocyte 79. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 3? Fig. 23 A. B-lymphocyte B. T-killer C. T-helper D. Antigen presenting cell E. *Plasma cell 80. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 4? Fig. 23 A. B-lymphocyte B. T-killer C. Antigen presenting cell D. Plasma cell E. *T-helper 81. When may be all these symptoms take place? Fig. 28 A. This is the result of the anaphylaxis B. These symptoms are associated with autoimmune diseases C. These symptoms are the result of the exotoxin action D. These symptoms belong to the delayed hypersensitivity E. *These symptoms are the result of the endotoxin action 82. What process is shown in this figure? Fig. 74 A. Interaction between the B-cell and T-cell B. Action of the natural killer C. Activation of T-killer by the macrophage D. T-helper stimulates T-killer E. *APC presents antigen for the T-helper 83. What cell is marked by number 1 in this figure? Fig. 74 A. B-lymphocyte B. T-killer C. T-helper 1 D. NK-cell E. *Antigen-presenting cell 84. What cell is marked by number 2 in this figure? Fig. 74 A. Antigen-presenting cell B. B-lymphocyte C. T-killer D. NK-cell E. *T-helper 1 85. What type of immune response is shown in this figure? Fig. 76 A. Humoral immune response B. Immediate hypersensitivity C. Delayed hypersensitivity D. Target cell is destroyed by the natural killer E. *Cell mediated immune response 86. This is the cell mediated immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 1? Fig. 76 A. B-lymphocyte B. T-killer C. NK-cell D. Dendritic cell E. *T-helper-2 87. This is the cell mediated immune response substance released by the cell is marked by number 2? Fig. 76 A. IL-1 B. Perforine C. Granzyme D. TNF E. *Interferon 88. This is the cell mediated immune responsE. *What is the mechanism of target cell killing A. ked by number 4? Fig. 76 B. Apoptosis C. Macrophage digests infected cell D. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity E. *All of the above F. Complement depended cytolysis 89. What type of hypersensitivity is shown in this figure? Fig. 85 A. Immune-complex reaction B. Immediate hypersensitivity C. Cell mediated immune response D. Cytotoxic rection E. *Delayed hypersensitivity 90. What immunological process is demonstrated in this figure? Fig. 88 A. Cytotoxic, cytolytic reaction B. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity C. Atopic reaction D. Delayed hypersensitivity E. *Immune-complex reaction 91. This is an example of one type of allergy.What is marked by number 1? Fig. 88 A. Agglutination reaction B. Precipitation reaction C. Formation of the antibody-antigen-complement complex D. Interaction between the cells and antibodies E. *Immune-complex formation 92. What process is shown in this figure? Fig. 89 A. Anaphylactic reaction B. Cell mediated immune response C. Humoral immune response D. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity E. *Desensitisation 93. This is the scheme of the desensitisation. What is marked by number 1? Fig. 89 A. Antigen-antibody complex B. Immune complex C. IgE binds with allergen D. All of the above E. *blocking antibodies IgG 94. What cell is marked by number 1? Fig. 91 A. B-cell B. T-cell C. T-killer D. T-helper 1 E. *T-helper 2 95. What cell is marked by number 2? Fig. 91 A. B-cell B. T-cell C. T-killer D. T-helper 2 E. *T-helper 1 96. What structure is marked by number 1? Fig. 92 A. Ribosome B. mRNA C. Class I MHC protein D. Epitope E. *Class II MHC protein 97. What formation is marked by number 2? Fig. 92 A. Complex of the IgM and antigen B. Class I MHC protein with the peptide C. Class I MHC protein D. Class II MHC protein E. *Class II MHC protein with the epitope 98. What cell is marked by number 1 in this figure? Fig. 93 A. B-lymphocyte B. T-killer C. T-helper 1 D. NK-cell E. *Target cell 99. What cell is marked by number 2 in this figure? Fig. 93 A. Antigen-presenting cell B. B-lymphocyte C. T-helper 1 D. NK-cell E. *T-killer 100. A. B. C. D. E. 101. A. B. C. D. E. 102. A. B. C. D. E. 103. A. B. C. D. E. 104. A. B. C. D. E. 105. A. B. C. D. E. 106. A. B. C. D. E. 107. A. B. C. D. E. 108. A. B. C. D. Where does the fixation of the complement according to the picture take place? Fig. 86 in a 3-6 test tube in 4-8 test tubes in 9-10 test tubes in the last three test tubes *in the first three test tubes Where does not the fixation of the complement according to the picture take place? Fig. 86 in the first three test tubes in a 3-6 test tube in 9-10 test tubes in the last three test tubes *in 4-8 test tubes How many times did increase of title of antibodies in CFT according to the picture? Fig. 87 in 8 times in 2 times in 6 times growth of title of antibodies did not take a place *in 4 times In which small wells of the first line of test tubes is CFT positive? Fig. 87 in two first in 2-4 small holes in 4 small holes in all of small holes *in the first In which small wells of the first line of test tubes of is CFT negative? Fig. 87 in the first in two first in all of small holes in any small hole *in 2-4 small holes What clinical type of allergic reaction is presented on a picture? Fig. 90 anaphylactic shock hemolytic illness reaction of tuberculine of type delayed type *phenomenon of Artyus Specify, what letter is marked Ig A? Fig. 75 Letter of A Letter of C Letter of D Letter of E *Letter of B Specify, what letter is marked Ig M? Fig. 75 Letter of A Letter of B Letter of D Letter of E *Letter of C Specify, what letter is marked Ig G? Fig. 75 Letter of B Letter of C Letter of D Letter of E 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. E. *Letter of A Specify, what letter is marked Ig E? Fig. 75 A. Letter of A B. Letter of B C. Letter of C D. Letter of D E. *Letter of E What class of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture? Fig. 69 A. Ig G B. Ig D C. Ig E D. Ig A E. *Ig M What class of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture? Fig. 72 A. Ig M B. Ig D C. Ig E D. Ig A E. *Ig G How many active centers do have an immunoglobulin presented on a picture? Fig. 72 A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12 E. *2 Choose from presented, what is marked by letter A. Fig. 71 A. Active center B. Fab- fragment C. Variable region D. Fc-fragment E. *Heavy chain Choose from presented,what is marked by letter B. Fig. 71 A. Active center B. Fab- fragment C. Variable region D. Fc-fragment E. *Stable part of immunoglobuline Choose from presented, what is marked by letter C. Fig. 71 A. Active center B. Stable part of immunoglobuline C. Fab- fragment D. Variable region E. *Fc-fragment Choose from presented, what is marked by letter D. Fig. 71 A. Stable part of immunoglobulin B. Fab- fragment C. Variable region D. Fc-fragment E. *Active center Choose from presented, what is marked by letter E. *Fig. 71 A. Active center B. Stable part of immunoglobulin C. Variable region 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. D. Fc-fragment E. *Fab- fragment The schematic image of what immunoglobulin is presented? Fig. 70 A. Ig G B. Ig M C. Ig D D. Ig E E. *Ig A Choose from presented, what is marked by letter A. Fig. 70 A. Active center B. Heavy chain C. Secretory component D. Fc-fragment E. *J chain Choose from presented, what is marked by letter B. Fig. 70 A. Active center B. Heavy chain C. J chain D. Fc-fragment E. *Secretory component Choose from presented, what is marked by letter C. Fig. 70 A. Heavy chain B. J chain C. Secretory component D. Fc-fragment E. *Active center Choose from presented, what is marked by letter D. Fig. 70 A. Active center B. J chain C. Secretory component D. Fc-fragment E. *Heavy chain What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under a letter A. Fig. 69 A. Active center B. J chain C. Light chain D. Fc-fragment E. *Heavy chain What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter B. Fig. 69 A. Active center B. Heavy chain C. Light chain D. Fc-fragment E. *J chain What structures of immunoglobulin presented on a picture under the letter C. Fig. 69 A. Heavy chain B. J chain C. Light chain D. Fc-fragment E. *Active center What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter D. Fig. 69 A. Active center B. Heavy chain 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. C. J chain D. Light chain E. *Fc-fragment What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter E. *Fig. 69 A. Active center B. Heavy chain C. J chain D. Fc-fragment E. *Light chain What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under a letter A. Fig. 68 A. Light chain B. Disulphide bonds C. Complement binding region D. Receptor for placental passage E. *Variable region What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter B. Fig. 68 A. Variable region B. Disulphide bonds C. Complement binding region D. Receptor for placental passage E. *Light chain What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter C. Fig. 68 A. Light chain B. Variable region C. Complement binding region D. Receptor for placental passage E. *Disulphide bonds What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter D. Fig. 68 A. Light chain B. Variable region C. Disulphide bonds D. Receptor for placental passage E. *Complement binding region What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter E. *Fig. 68 A. Light chain B. Variable region C. Disulphide bonds D. Complement binding region E. *Receptor for placental passage ?Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 31 A. M. tuberculosis B. C. tetani C. S. typhi D. No correct answer E. *C. botulinum Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 11 A. Monobacilli B. Streptobacili C. Streptobakteria D. Diplobacteria E. *Monobacteria Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 11 A. Streptobacili B. C. D. E. Streptobakteria Diplobacteria Monobacilli *Monobacterias 136. Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 12 A. Streptobacili B. Streptobakteria C. Diplobacteria D. Monobacterias E. *Monobacilli 137. Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 12 A. Streptobacili B. Streptobakteria C. Diplobacteria D. Monobacterias E. *Monobacilli 138. Which microbes are there? Fig. 15 A. Streptobakteria B. Diplobacteria C. Monobacilli D. Monobacteria E. *Streptobacili 139. How is it possible to utilize this system? Fig. 46 A. for verification of sterilization B. for identification of bacteria C. for phage typing D. for staining of bacteria E. *for creation of anaerobic condition 140. How can we utilize this system? Fig. 46 A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria B. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria C. for sterilization of double-dish with microbes D. for cultivation of aero tolerant bacteria E. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria 141. Which properties of bacteria are checked up there? Fig. 47 A. Utilization of sugar B. lipolytic C. proteolytic D. peptolytic E. *haemolytic 142. Which properties of bacteria are checked up here? Fig. 50 A. proteolytic B. haemolytic C. hydrolysis of gelatin D. Utilization of sugar E. *formatiin of lecithinase 143. Material from the patient wound was inoculated in a yolk-salt agar. Which sign does display lecithinase activity? Fig. 50 A. Green zone is round colonies B. Opal lees of areas appear round colonies C. Brightening is round colonies D. Opal areas fail to appear round colonies E. *correct answers of B and D 144. A. B. C. D. E. 145. A. B. C. D. E. 146. A. B. C. D. E. 147. A. B. C. D. E. 148. A. B. C. D. E. 149. A. B. C. D. E. 150. A. B. C. D. E. 151. A. B. C. D. E. 152. A. B. C. D. ?What test is there in the figure? Fig. 84 CFT Hemagglutination test Hemagglutination inhibition test ELISA *Indirect Hemagglutination test For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 84 Detection of unknown antigen Identification of viruses Detection the level of immunoglobulines Examination the level of incomplete antibodies *Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum What component of indirect Hemagglutination test is marked by number 1in? Fig. 84 Antigen Complement Immunoglobulin Red blood cell coated with antigen *Patients serum What component of indirect Hemagglutination test is marked by number 2 in? Fig. 84 Antigen Patients serum Complement Immunoglobulin *Red blood cell coated with antigen What is the result marked by number 3 of this test in? Fig. 84 Precipitation Agglutination Coagglutination Latex-agglutination *Hemagglutination What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87 CFT Hemagglutination inhibition test ELISA Indirect Hemagglutination test *Hemagglutination test What does this test help to examine? Fig. 87 identification of viruses ability to cause red cells lysis presence of antibodies in patiences serum No correct answer *presence of viruses What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87 Precipitation Agglutination Coagglutination Latex-agglutination *Hemagglutination What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87 CFT Hemagglutination test ELISA Indirect Hemagglutination test 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. E. *Hemagglutination inhibition test What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87 A. Precipitation B. Agglutination C. Hemagglutination D. Coagglutination E. *Agglutination of red blood cells absent For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 87 A. Detection of unknown antigen B. Identification of viruses C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies E. *Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82 A. Detection of unknown antigen B. Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies E. *Identification of viruses What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86 A. Hemagglutination test B. Hemagglutination inhibition test C. ELISA D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *CFT What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86 A. Hemolysis B. Agglutination C. Hemagglutination D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent E. *Hemolysis absent What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86 A. Agglutination B. Hemagglutination C. Hemolysis D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent E. *Hemolysis absent What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86 A. Hemagglutination test B. Hemagglutination ingibition test C. ELISA D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *CFT For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 86 A. Detection of unknow antigen B. Identification of viruses C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies E. *Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 83 A. Detection of unknow antigen B. Identification of viruses C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum E. *Examination the level of incomplete antibodies For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82 A. Detection of unknow antigen B. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum E. *Identification of virus antigen What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87 A. Western blot B. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test C. ELISA D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *Hemagglutination ingibition test ?What equipment is shown in figure? Fig.39 A. autoclave B. serum coagulator C. thermostat D. sterilizer E. *heat oven That equipment is shown in figure? Fig.40 A. serum coagulator B. thermostat C. sterilizer D. dry-heat closet E. *autoclave That equipment is shown in figure? Fig.41 A. autoclave B. thermostat C. sterilizer D. dry-heat closet E. *serum coagulator How can we use this equipment? Fig.42 A. for study of bacterial adhesive properties B. for sterilization by gases C. for sterilization by live steam D. for control of sterilization by pressed steam E. *for sterilization by filtration 5 How can we use this test-system? Fig.43 A. for control of sterilization in a heat oven B. for control of mechanical sterilization C. for control of sterilization by gas method D. for control of sterilization by ultraviolet rays E. *for control of sterilization by autoclaving What method is shown in figure? Fig.44 A. inoculation by a spatula B. by serial dilution in solid nutrient media C. by a tampon D. none of offered E. *inoculation by streaks technique How can we use this test-system? Fig.45 A. for verification of sterilization B. for identification of bacteria C. for phage typing D. for bacteria staining E. *for creation of anaerobic condition 171. How can we use this jar? Fig.46 A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria B. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria C. for sterilization of Petry’s plate with microbes D. for cultivation of aerotolerant bacteria E. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria 172. Do these microbes have hemolytic properties? Fig.47 A. does not have B. it is hard to make conclusion C. have D. less part of bacteria – has, but mainly – no E. *most bacteria – have, minority – no 173. Are there signs of growth of bacteria in these test tubes? Fig.48 A. there is growth in the right test tube B. there is no growth in the left test tube C. there is no growth in both test tube D. growth is present in both test tubes E. *there is growth in the left test tube 174. What sign does show the presence of growth in the left test tube? Fig.48 A. formation of sediment B. formation of pellicle C. growth in the left test tube is absent D. formation of «stalactites» E. *formation of diffuse turbidity 175. What microorganisms did grow on the Endo’s medium? Fig.49 A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Salmonella typhi D. Salmonella paratyphi A E. *Escherichia coli 176. What property of bacteria is tested on the Endo’s medium? Fig.49 A. ability of glucose utilization B. ability of saccharose utilization C. ability of maltose utilization D. ability of mannitol utilization E. *ability of lactose utilization 177. What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium? Fig.47 A. saccharolytic B. lipolytic C. proteolytic D. reductive E. *hemolytic 178. There is yolk agar on the picturE. *What property of bacteria is it possible verify? Fig.50 A. proteolytic B. hemolytic C. gelatin hydrolysis D. saccharolytic E. *lecithinase production 179. Tested material from the patient’s nose was inoculated onto yolk agar. Do microbes have lecithinase activity? What is its sign on the medium? Fig.50 A. B. C. D. E. Yes The opalescent zones turbidity appear around the colonies Does not have The opalescent zones not appear around the colonies *correct answers A and B 180. Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar Fig.50 A. MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride B. MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride C. MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride D. MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium E. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride 181. What features of bacteria are shown on this picture? Fig.53 A. different types of proteolytic activity B. different types of peptolytic activity C. different types of hemolytic activity D. different types of reductive activity E. *different types of saccharolytic activity 182. There is positive test for checking the indole production. What type of bacterial properties do it confirm? Fig.53 A. proteolytic B. peptolytic C. lipolytic D. reductive E. *saccharolytic 183. Different types of bacterial colonies are produced on solid nutrient medium when dissociation occurs. What type of colonies do these ones belong to? Fig.51 A. S B. D C. M D. P E. *R 184. ?What does this test help to examine? Fig. 87 A. identification of viruses B. ability to cause red cells lysis C. presence of antibodies in patiences serum D. No correct answer E. *presence of viruses 185. What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87 A. Precipitation B. Agglutination C. Coagglutination D. Latex-agglutination E. *Hemagglutination 186. What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87 A. CFT B. Hemagglutination test C. ELISA D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *Hemagglutination inhibition test 187. What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87 A. Precipitation B. Agglutination C. Hemagglutination 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. D. Coagglutination E. *Agglutination of red blood cells absent For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 87 A. Detection of unknown antigen B. Identification of viruses C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies E. *Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82 A. Detection of unknown antigen B. Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies E. *Identification of viruses What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86 A. Hemagglutination test B. Hemagglutination inhibition test C. ELISA D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *CFT What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86 A. Hemolysis B. Agglutination C. Hemagglutination D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent E. *Hemolysis absent What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86 A. Agglutination B. Hemagglutination C. Hemolysis D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent E. *Hemolysis absent What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86 A. Hemagglutination test B. Hemagglutination ingibition test C. ELISA D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *CFT For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 86 A. Detection of unknow antigen B. Identification of viruses C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies E. *Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 83 A. Detection of unknow antigen B. Identification of viruses C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum E. *Examination the level of incomplete antibodies For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82 A. Detection of unknow antigen B. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum E. *Identification of virus antigen What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87 A. Western blot B. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test C. ELISA D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *Hemagglutination ingibition test What is there in the figure? Fig. 81 A. Agglutination B. Hemagglutination C. Coagglutination D. Latex-agglutination E. *Precipitation What test is there in the figure? Fig. 79 A. Western blot B. Hemagglutination ingibition test C. Hemagglutination test D. Indirect Hemagglutination test E. *Indirect fluorescent-antibody test What results of the test are shown in the figure? Fig. 77 A. Hemagglutination test B. Cytopathic effect C. Syncytium formation D. Inclusion bodies E. *Agglutination test What test is there in the figure? Fig. 77 A. Hemagglutination test B. Cytopathic effect C. Syncytium formation D. Inclusion bodies E. *Agglutination test What is there in the figure? Fig. 84 A. Hemadsorption test B. Cytopathic effect C. Syncytium formation D. Inclusion bodies E. *Indirect Hemagglutination test