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Module 1 General microbiology, immunology and virology
Text test questions
1. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes?
A. Cholera and dysentery vaccines.
B. Measles and Solk polio vaccines.
C. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines.
D. All of the above.
E. *BCG and oral polio vaccines
2. Plasma cells are:
A. mature T cells
B. immature macrophages
C. mature macrophages
D. immature T cells
E. *antibody-producing cells
3. Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. *Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. Parvoviridae
E. Rhabdoviruses
4. The smallest known viruses are the:
A. *Picornavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
5. All of the following viruses contain lipid EXCEPT:
A. herpesviruses
B. *papillomaviruses
C. poxviruses
D. togaviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
6. All of the following viral genomes are replicated in the cytoplasm EXCEPT:
A. poxviruses
B. reoviruses
C. picornaviruses
D. *herpesviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
7. All of the following viruses are replicated in the nucleus EXCEPT:
A. *poxviruses
B. papovaviruses
C. adenoviruses
D. herpesviruses
E. parvoviruses
8. Parvovirus genome:
A. dsDNA, small, complex symmetry
B. *ssDNA, small, icosahedral symmetry
C. ssDNA, small, helical symmetry
D. ssRNA, large, helical symmetry
E. dsRNA, middle-sized, icosahedral symmetry
9. The nucleocapsid refers to:
A. *the complete viral particle
the viral genetic material
the viral proteins only
the viral genetic material and associated lipids
the viral genetic material and associated proteins
Polymerases are encoded on the genomes of:
A. all viruses
B. all DNA viruses
C. *all RNA viruses
D. only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and Poxviruses)
E. no viruses, because viruses do not encode polymerases
Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. *Parvoviridae
E. Orthomyxoviruses
What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell?
A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase
B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor
C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell
D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes
E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments
What is one component of all mammalian viruses?
A. the envelope
B. the polymerase
C. the icosahedral capsid
D. the lipid
E. *the nucleic acid
What is the role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. *initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
Which of the following host proteins is the first to rise to high titer, in response to viral infection?
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Complement
C. *Interferon
D. Anti-idiotype antibody
E. Interleukin 1
The characteristic cytophatologic effect (CPE) that viruses cause in cells include:
A. vacuolation
B. necrosis
C. cell lysis
D. syncytia formation
E. *all of the above
The main use of embryonated eggs in virology is the:
A. detection of cytopathic effect
B. production of interferon
C. production of vaccines
D. *observation of viral growth
E. production of lysozym
The following test determines the presence of infectious virus in a sample:
B.
C.
D.
E.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
*Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
Neutralization Tests (NT)
Complement Fixation Test (CF)
ELISA
The following test reveals the intracellular location of viral antigens:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. ELISA
The following test uses a solid phase coated with antibody (or antigen) to capture antigen (or
antibody) from the patient's specimen:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. *ELISA
RS virus causes:
A. destruction of tissue culture
B. *formation of syncytio in tissue cultures
C. death of chicken embryo
D. hemagglutination of red cells
E. hemolysis.
Which of the following vaccine is attenuated?
A. Dysentery vaccines.
B. Cholera vaccines
C. Diphtheria vaccines.
D. Solk polio vaccines.
E. *BCG
Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens?
A. lipids
B. DNA
C. fatty acids
D. sugars
E. *proteins
Which of the following substances are antigens?
A. DNA
B. carbohydrates.
C. lipids
D. sugars
E. *proteins
Which part of the antibody molecule reacts with the antigenic determinants of the antigen?
A. H chains
B. L chains
C. constant parts of the H and L chains
D. hinge
E. *variable parts of the H and L chains
?When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be
made only if
A. the acute titer is less than 10
B. the convalescent titer is greater than 20
C. there is a twofold rise in titer
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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20.
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25.
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D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer
E. there is no change in titer
27. The function of a viral capsid is/are:
A. it protects the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction
B. it provides binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host
cell
C. it serves as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another
D. It consists of proteins
E. *all of the above
28. Enveloped viruses have a shape
A. Icosahedral
B. Helical
C. Hexagonal
D. *Roughly spherical
E. Complex
29. Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA?
A. Phage structural proteins
B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure
C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
30. 5. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called, which can directly disrupt cell
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
structure
A. Prokaryotes
B. Chromosomal disruptions
C. *Inclusion bodies
D. Cytocidal bodies
E. All of the above
Icosachedral viruses have sides
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. *20
E. 48
?Large granular lymphocytes which can kill virus-infected cells as part of innate immunity are called:
A. neutrophils
B. *natural killer cells
C. monocytes
D. lymphocytes
E. mast cells
Interferon action is:
A. *primarily antiviral
B. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes
C. to protect primary infected cells
D. found in high levels in phagocytic granules
E. kill cells infected by viruses
Match the following phrases concerning the classical complement pathway.
A. C4b2b
B. C1
C. C3
D. C9
E. CbBb
Primary lymphoid organ/s are:
thymus
bursa of Fabricius.
bone marrow.
*all of the above are correct
E all of the above are false
Natural killer cells are involved in:
A. allograft rejection.
B. tumour rejection.
C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells.
D. type II of allergy
E. *E all of the above.
C3 is cleaved to form C3a and C3b by C3-convertase. C3b is involved in all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. *altering vascular permeability
B. promoting phagocytosis
C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase
D. forming C5 convertase.
E. E can bind to macrophages
Each of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:
A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C. They are codominantly expressed
D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. E They are absent onto red blood cells
CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by:
A. *T cells.
B. В cells.
C. monocytes.
D. granulocytes.
E. mast cells
AT helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if the
antigen is associated with:
A. HLA class I antigen.
B. Surface immunoglobulin.
C. *HLA class II antigen.
D. CD 8 antigen.
E. All of the above.
T-killer cells are important in controlling
A. *virus infections
B. allergy
C. autoimmunity
D. antibodies synthesis
E. all of these
An antigen is
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
antibodies
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies
The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with
A. antigen
B. factor B
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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38.
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C. *antigen-IgG complexes
D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
E. E factor D and I
44. Natural killer cells are:
A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. T?? cells
45. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-5
D. Interleukin-6
E. bradikidin
46. All of the following are organs of immune system, except:
A. GALT
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. *thyroid gland
E. tonsil gland
47. An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. *lysozyme in saliva
E. all of these
48. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. *complement factor C9
49. Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells?
A. because inhibits protein synthesis
B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes
C. because inhibits mRNA
D. *because attacks of peptidoglycan
E. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes
50. Which of the following pairs is mismatched
A. vagina --- lactobacilli
B. eye --- lysozyme
C. oropharynx --- anaerobes
D. mucus --- lactoferrin
E. *skin --- Gram negative
51. Primary defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract include all except:
A. *lysozyme
B. secretory IgA
C. mucus
D. bile
E. acidity in stomach
52. Lysozyme:
A. aggregates bacteria
captures free iron
*breaks down the bacterial cell wall
enhances phagocytosis
is antiviral
Stem cells arise from:
A. yolk sac.
B. foetal liver.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above.
E. all of the above are wrong
An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for the:
A. CD 38 marker.
B. CD 25 marker.
C. CD 4 marker.
D. CD 3 marker
E. *CD 19 marker.
Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic
C. *Helper
D. Natural killer
E. K cells
Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:
A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells
B. They have a high degree of polymorphism
C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages
D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins
E. They are main in succefull transplantation
Find the correct statements concernin haptens:
A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody
B. A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to
be able to induce antibody
C. Haptens are big molecules of protein
D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic
E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic
Antigen-presenting cells (had activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their
surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
Match the following phrases concerning the classical complement pathway.
A. C4b2b
B. C1
C. C3
D. C9
E. C7
Natural killer cells are
A. cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
B.
C.
D.
E.
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55.
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59.
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E. opsonissed phagocytes
61. The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with:
A. *antigen-antibody complex
B. factor B
C. antigen-IgA complexes
D. bacterial capsula
E. endotoxin
62. Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
A. *Alpha interferon
B. Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-2
D. Interleukin-4
E. lymphotoxin
63. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue?
A. spleen
B. *thyroid gland
C. lymph nodes
D. GALT
E. tonsil gland
64. Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. *lysozyme in saliva
D. cilia in trachea
E. all of these
65. Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. *cascade reaction
D. complement factor C5
E. complement factor C1
66. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody
B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4
C. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present
D. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway
E. C3bBb presents
67. C3a and C5a can cause
A. A bacterial lysis
B. *B vascular permeability
C. C phagocytosis of IgE coated bacteria
D. D aggregation of C4 and C2
E. E activate protein synthesis
68. The most common type of circulating white cell is the:
A. *neutrophil
B. lymphocyte
C. basophil
D. eosinophil
E. monocyte
69. The following is not part of the defense mechanisms of the neutrophil:
A. lactoferrin
B. superoxide anion
C. *lysozyme
D. free radicals
E. hydrogen peroxide
70. Interferon action is:
A. *primarily antiviral
B. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes
C. to protect primary infected cells
D. found in high levels in phagocytic granules
E. kill virus direct
71. CD8 surface antigen is present in:
A. helper Т cells.
B. *cytotoxic Т cells.
C. NK cells
D. both of the above.
E. none of the above.
72. The earliest stages of B cell differentiation
A. Occur in the embryonic thymus
B. Require the presence of antigen
C. Involve rearrangement of K chain gene segments
D. Involve rearrangement of surrogate light chain gene rearrangement
E. *Involve rearrangement of heavy chain gene segments
73. Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to?
A. B-cells
B. T-killers
C. NK-cells
D. Mast cells
E. *T-helpers
74. Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are:
A. lymph nodes.
B. spleen.
C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.
D. GALT
E. *all of the above
75. Natural killer cells take part in:
A. allograft rejection.
B. tumour rejection.
C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells.
D. cytothoxic and cytolytic reactions
E. *all of the above
76. Human T lymphocytes:
A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.
B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.
C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
77. Individuals of blood group type AB
A. are Rh(D)-negative
B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions
C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
D. . have the same haplotype
E. are "universal donors" of transfusions
78. The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the
A. specific receptor
B. *epitope
C. antibody determinant.
D. active center.
E. antigen binding place.
79. Complement lyses cells by
A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B. activation of adenylate cyclase
C. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
D. inhibition of elongation factor 2
E. production of lysozyme
80. Cytotoxic cells (NK) are
A. B cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. *able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization
D. able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production
E. macrophages
81. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells?
A. ? interferon
B. ? interferon
C. TNF
D. *Interleukin-6
E. serotonin
82. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. GALT, spleen
B. *thymus, bone marrow
C. lymph nodes, thymus,
D. thyroid gland, tonsil gland
E. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow
83. Monocytes are_ leukocytes that develop into
A. *granular, phagocytes
B. agranular, macrophages
C. agrunular, mast cells
D. granular, T cells
E. granular, B cells
84. Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement
system?
A. properdin
B. *membrane attack complex
C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
D. complement factor C4
E. complement factor C5
85. Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity?
A. complement
B. collagenase
C. *C. interferon
D. lysozyme
E. lysosome
86. Lymphocytes which can kill tumor cells, virus-infected cells as part of innate immunity are called:
A. *mast cells
B. monocytes
C. neutrophils
D. lymphocytes
E. natural killer cells
87. Which is action of ? and ? interferons:
*A.. activate antiviral enzymes in cells infected by viruses
disrupt cytoplasmic membranes
protect primary infected cells
found in high levels in phagocytic granules
stimulate production by infected cells syntetaise and proteinkinase
Find a convertase enzyme that acts on classical complement pathway.
A. C1
B. *C4b2b
C. C3
D. C9
E. CbBb
Choose primary lymphoid organ/s:
A. thymus
B. bursa of Fabricius.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above are correct
E. all of the above are false
What is function of natural killer?
A. Inhibit macrophages.
B. Activates B-cells.
C. *Kill tissue cells infected by viruses
D. take part in type I of allergy
E. all of the above.
C3b is involved in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. *altering vascular permeability
B. promoting phagocytosis
C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase
D. forming C5 convertase.
E. can bind to macrophages
Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect:
A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C. They are codominantly expressed
D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. They are absent onto red blood cells
What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen:
A. *T cells.
B. В cells.
C. monocytes.
D. granulocytes.
E. mast cells
What is function of T-killer cells?
A. *take part in antiviral immunity
B. allergy
C. autoimmunity
D. antibodies synthesis
E. all of these
Choose the correct sentence according antigen:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
antibodies.
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
D. a carbohydrate
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
E. a protein that combines with antibodies.
96. Cl must interact in the classic complement pathway with:
A. antigen
B. factor B
C. *antigen-IgG complexes
D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
E. factor D and I
97. NK cells are:
A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. T cells
98. Which substances can produce Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-5
D. Interleukin-6
E. bradikidin
99. What of the following are not organs of immune system?
A. *thyroid gland
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. GALT
E. tonsil gland
100. Choose a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. *lysozyme in saliva
E. all of these
101. Indicate the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. *complement factor C9
102. What is the point of action of lysozyme?
A. inhibition of protein synthesis
B. activation of lysosome’s enzymes
C. inhibition of mRNA
D. *destroing of peptidoglycan
E. stimulation of proteolytic enzymes
103. Defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract are all except:
A. bile
B. secretory IgA
C. mucus
D. *lysozyme
E. acidity in stomach
104. The main function of lysozyme:
A. aggregates bacteria
B. captures free iron
C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall
D. enhances phagocytosis
E. is antiviral
105. Which part of the immunoglobulin binds with the antigen?
A. Fc fragment
B. H chains
C. L chains
D. constant parts of the H and L chains
E. *variable parts of the H and L chains
106. Which part of the antibody can binds antigenic determinants of the antigen?
A. H chains
B. Hinge
C. Fc fragment
D. L chains
E. *Fab fragments
107. Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins can cross the placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
108. What classes of immunoglobilins contain J chain?
A. IgG and IgE
B. IgA and IgG
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgM and IgE
E. *IgM and IgA
109. Which of the following classes of antibodies does newborn obtain from mother?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
110. Choose among the listed immunoglobulins that contain SP component:
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG1
D. IgE
E. *SIgA
111. Choose antibody production cells:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. T helpers
D. Macrophages
E. *Plasma cells
112. All Antigen-presenting cells contain?
A. IgM
B. TNF
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Gamma inlerferonv
E. *Class II MHC antigens
113. A toxoid is a(n):
A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin
B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins
C. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis
D. type of virus
E. *inactivated toxin
114. For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses:
A. specific antibodies,
B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins
C. IgM
D. Bacteriophages
E. *toxoids
115. Which of the following are antigen presenting cells?
A. Plasma cells
B. Cytotoxic cells and nurse cells
C. *Macrophages and B cells
D. NK cells and mast cels
E. Th and Tk
116. The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to:
A. make antibody
B. lyse virus-infected target cells
C. activate cytotoxic T cells.
D. produce interleukins
E. *process antigen and present it
117. A condition in which toxin circulate in blood is known as:
A. bacteraemia
B. septicaemia
C. pyaemia
D. viraemia
E. *toxaemia
118. Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes:
A. precipitation
B. complement fixation
C. agglutination
D. lysis
E. *degranulation
119. After formation of IgE-allergen complex on the surface of the mast cells occur:
A. precipitation
B. complement fixation
C. agglutination
D. toxin production
E. *degranulation
120. Cell wall is lacking in:
A. Actinomyces
B. Corynebacterium
C. Brucella
D. Spirocheates
E. *Mycoplasma
121. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hypersensitivity reaction) indicates that:
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. both the T and B cell systems are functional
C. only the B cell system is functional
D. B cells are activated
E. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
122. Cell wall is absent in:
A. Actinomyces
Brucella
Corynebacterium
Spirocheates
*Mycoplasma
A patient with a central nervous system disorder is maintained on the drug methyldopa; Hemolytic
anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an
example of:
A. atopic hypersensitivity
B. immune-complex hypersensitivity
C. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
D. delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
BCG vaccine is a:
A. killed preparation
B. toxoid preparation
C. recombinant preparation
D. vector vaccine
E. *live attenuated preparation
Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST
probably an example of:
A. autoimmune diseases
B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
C. immune-complex hypersensitivity
D. atopic hypersensitivity
E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
BCG vaccine is used for prevent:
A. diphtheria
B. botulism
C. brucelosis
D. Q fever
E. *tuberculosis
For an establishment of a kind of the pure culture of bacteria serological identification has crucial
mportance.
A. t is serological identification? Choose the true answer
B. Examination of a kind of bacteria on biochemical properties
C. Examination of ability to decompose the curtailed serum
D. Examination of a kind of bacteria on ability to reduce the certain dyes
E. *Examination of genome structure of bacteria's nucleoid
An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. all of these
E. *lysozyme in saliva
What is serological identification?
A. Examination of morphological properties
B. Examination of reducing properties
C. Examination of biochemical properties
D. Examination of tinctorial properties
E. *Examination of antigenic properties
Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
B.
C.
D.
E.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
C. cilia in trachea
D. all of these
E. *lysozyme in saliva
131. What morphological structure is responsible for bacterial motility?
A. Pilli
B. Fimbria
C. Capsule
D. LPS
E. *Flagella
132. Choose among the following humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection:
A. macrophages
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in intestine
D. Hydrochloric acid of stomach
E. *complement
133. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation?
A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
B. For examinate biochemical properties
C. For study morphology of bacteria
D. For study cultural properties of bacteria
E. *For study motility of bacteria
134. Monocytes are leukocytes that develop into:
A. agranular, macrophages
B. agrunular, mast cells
C. granular, T cells
D. granular, B cells
E. *granular, phagocytes
135. Macrophages are leucocytes that develop from:
A. thymocytes
B. mast cells
C. T cells
D. B cells
E. *monocytes
136. What is the value of a wet-mount preparation?
A. For study cultural properties of bacteria
B. For study morphology of bacteria
C. For examinate biochemical properties
D. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
E. *For study motility of bacteria
137. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. *complement factor C9
138. What is meant by the term colonial morphology?
A. Ability of microorganisms to colonize some tissues
B. Structure of bacteria inside the colony
C. Ability of microorganisms grow separatly
D. Characteristics by which bacterial colonies may be distinguished.
E. *A visible aggregate of bacteria
139. Why can a single colony on a plate be used to start a pure culture?
A. because it contains a large number of microbes
because colony contains different kinds of bacteria
because only colony can grow onto solid nutrients media
because colonies of different bacteria are similar
*because colony represents the growth of one bacterial species
Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. cascade reaction
C. complement factor C1
D. complement factor C5
E. *membrane attack complex
Choose the nutrient medium for obtaining the separate colonies:
A. Meat-pepton broth
B. Sugar broth
C. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
D. Alkaline pepton water
E. *Meat-pepton agar
Choose among listed nutrients media for study of proteolytic properties of bacteria:
A. Meat - pepton agar
B. Sugar agar
C. Blood agar
D. Blood agar
E. *The curtailed serum
Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement
system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. complement factor C4
D. complement factor C5
E. *C1q, C1r, C1s complex
It is possible to obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms with help:
A. Fortner's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Paster's method
D. Loeffler's method
E. *Veinberg's method
Choose among the following the convertase of classic pathway of activation of the complement
system?
A. C4b2a5b
B. membrane attack complex
C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
D. C3bBb
E. *C4b2a
We can obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms with help:
A. Fortner's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Paster's method
D. Loeffler's method
E. *Veinberg's method
Which of the following is the convertase of alternative pathway of activation of the complement
system?
A. C4b2a5b
B. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
C. C4b2a
B.
C.
D.
E.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
D. membrane attack complex
E. *C3bBb
148. Choose among these bacteria obligate aerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
149. Choose among these bacteria obligate anaerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
E. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
150. Immunological memory refers to the ability of the immune system to:
A. recognize millions of different antigens
B. migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues
C. react with millions of different antigens
D. activate T cells
E. *recall a previous immune response
151. The second stage of obtaining of pure culture of aerobes will be:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification
C. Biochemical and serological identification
D. Microscopic examination of a material
E. *Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
152. Immunological memory develops after:
A. injection of antibodies
B. activation of NK cells
C. stimulation of macrophages
D. activation of T cells
E. *injection of the antigen
153. T killer cells are important in controlling:
A. allergy
B. autoimmunity
C. production of antibodies
D. all of these
E. *virus infections
154. T killers can kill all infected cells, which contain:
A. MHC II class antigens
B. receptors to Fc fragment of antibody
C. receptors to C3b component of complement
D. all of these
E. *MHC I class antigens
155. What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid?
A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Using alcohol
C. Staining by mеthylene blue
D. Using iodine solution
E. *Washing with water
156. Spores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Defence from acid in stomack
E. *Survival in an external environment
157. Vaccination is synonymous with immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. natural passive
D. antitoxic passive
E. *artificial active
158. Endospores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Defence from acid in stomack
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Survival into human and animal’s organism
E. *Survival in an external environment
159. B cells are responsible for which allergies?
A. reumatic feber
B. anaphylaxis
C. tuberculin reactions
D. delay hypersensitivity
E. *hemolytic disease
160. Anaerobic conditions can be created with using:
A. Zoessler's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Veinberg's method
D. Paster's method
E. *Fortner's method
161. Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except?
A. cytotoxic reactions
B. anaphylaxis
C. immune-complex rection
D. atopy reaction
E. *tuberculin reactions
162. Choose method of creating of anaerobic conditions:
A. Koch’s method
B. Loeffler’s method
C. Shukevich's method
D. Shukevich's method
E. *Fortner's method
163. An example of a type III immune complex disease is:
A. graft rejection
B. contact dermatitis
C. atopy
D. asthma
E. *serum sickness
164. Choose method of obtaining pure culture of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Shukevich's method
B. Koch’s method
C. Fortner's method
D. Paster's method
E. *Zoessler's method
165. Choose the nutrients media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat pepton agar, meat pepton broth
The curtailed serum, meat-pepton gelatin
Blood agar, serum agar
Endo's and Lewin's media
*Sugar blood agar Zoessler, Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
Choose among the following immune-complex disease:
A. asthma
B. atopy
C. contact dermatitis
D. graft rejection
E. *serum sickness
Specify the nutrients media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat pepton agar, meat pepton broth
B. medium Endo's and Lewin's media
C. The curtailed serum, meat pepton gelatin
D. Blood agar, serum agar
E. *Zoessler, Kitt-Tarozzi's
Which of the following is immune-complex disease:
A. graft rejection
B. contact dermatitis
C. atopy
D. asthma
E. *serum sickness
Peptolytic properties of bacteria we can study by detection in tubes:
A. Carbonic acids and waters
B. Glucose and lactoses
C. Carbonic acids and nitrogen
D. Mannitol and metanol
E. *Indol and hydrogen sulphide
For obtaining separated colony of anaerobic microorganisms we use one of next nutrient media:
A. Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
B. Hiss media
C. Endo's medium
D. Ploskirev medium
E. *. Sugar blood Zoessler's agar
The third stage of selecting of pure culture of aerobic microorganisms is:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Microscopic examination of a material
C. Microscopy of smear
D. Studying of isolated colonies and Inoculating on the slant agar
E. *Biochemical and serological identification
Which of the following nonspecific substances is a normal component of serum?
A. lysozyme
B. interferon
C. collagenase
D. lysosome
E. *complement
Resistance of bacteria to acid depends from present in cytoplasm:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. acetylglucosamine
C. diaminopimelic acid
D. polyphosphates
E. *fatty waxes, fatty acid
Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity?
B.
C.
D.
E.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
complement
collagenase
lysozyme
lysosome
*interferon
Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. acetylglucosamine
C. diaminopimelic acid
D. polyphosphates
E. *fatty waxes, fatty acid
Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells?
A. because inhibits protein synthesis
B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes
C. because inhibits mRNA
D. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes
E. *because attacks of peptidoglycan
Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of:
A. thin monolayer peptidoglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. outer membrane
E. *polilayer peptidoglycan
Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contain all, except:
A. thin monolayer peptidоglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. outer membrane
E. *polilayer peptidoglycan
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an:
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. AB mother carries an 0 fetus
D. Two of the above are correct
E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
Which with these substances can damage bacteria cell wall :
A. sulphonamides
B. interferone
C. alcohol
D. streptomycin
E. *lysozyme
Choose among the listed when hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs:
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. AB mother an 0 fetus
D. B mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
Lysozyme can damage bacteria cell because bacteria contain:
A. outer membrane
B. lipopolysaccharides
C. lipoproteins
D. carbohydrates
E. *peptidoglycan
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183. Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. by intracellular parasite
C. by tinctorial properties
D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
E. *by absence of cell wall
184. Which of the following are reservoirs for human infections.
A. food and water
B. humans
C. animals
D. All of the above are reservoirs for human infections
E. *Only b and c are reservoirs
185. Mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. by toxin production
C. by tinctorial properties
D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
E. *by absence of cell wall
186. Choose among the listed reservoirs for human infections
A. food
B. water
C. sick animals, snsects
D. fly
E. *sick humans, cariers
187. Which concentration of ethyl alcohol would is the most effective disinfectant?
A. 100%
B. 60%
C. 50%
D. 30%
E. *70%
188. Plasma cells are:
A. mature T cells
B. immature macrophages
C. mature macrophages
D. immature T cells
E. *antibody-producing cells
189. At the classic complement pathway Cl must bind with:
A. antigen-IgA complexes
B. hapten
C. red blood cells
D. bacteria
E. *antigen-IgG complexes
190. Choose among the listed cells plasma cells:
A. immature macrophages.
B. mature T cells.
C. immature T cells.
D. vmature macrophages.
E. *antibody-producing cells
191. Which one of the following is true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in presence of antibodies
B. It requires C1,C2, or C4
C. C4b2a presents
D. components B and properdin are not necessery
E. *C3bBb presents
192. Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens?
A. lipids
B. glucose
C. fatty acids
D. sugars
E. *proteins
193. Choose among the listed substances the antigen:
A. sugars
B. fatty acids
C. glucose
D. lipids
E. *proteins
194. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody
B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4
C. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway
D. C3bBb presents
E. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present
195. Which of the following antibodies can pass through the placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. *IgG
196. Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal
197.
198.
199.
200.
antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is:
A. IgA antibody
B. SIgA antibody
C. IgE antibody
D. IgM antibody
E. *IgG antibody
Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue?
A. spleen
B. lymph nodes
C. GALT
D. tonsil gland
E. *thyroid gland
Type II hypersensitivities are due to:
A. IgE reacting with mast cells
B. IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues
C. activation of cytotoxic T cells
D. activation of NK
E. *complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies
All of the following are organs of immune system, except:
A. GALT
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. tonsil gland
E. *thyroid gland
Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. GALT, spleen
B. lymph nodes, thymus,
C. thyroid gland, tonsil gland
D. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow
E. *thymus, bone marrow
201. Which type of cells actually secretes antibodies?
A. T cells
B. macrophages
C. monocytes
D. NK cells
E. *plasma cells
202. The greatest concentration of antibodies is found in the fraction of the serum is:
A. albumin
B. alpha globulin
C. beta globulin
D. crioglobuline
E. *gamma globulin
203. Antibodies are found in one of next fraction of the serum:
A. crioglobuline
B. beta globulin
C. alpha globulin
D. albumin
E. *gamma globulin
204. If we don’t detect in child T and B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
defect in:
A. the thymus
B. T cell-B cell interaction
C. phagocytosis
D. the bursal equivalent
E. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow
Where active center of antibody is located?
A. in Fc part of antibody
B. in H chains
C. between constant part of the H and L chains
D. in L chains
E. *between variable parts of the H and L chains
If we don’t detect in child B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in:
A. the thymus
B. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
C. T cell-B cell interaction
D. phagocytosis
E. *the bursal equivalent
Choose among the listed secretory immunoglobulins:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. *IgA
If we don’t detect in child T cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in:
A. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
B. T cell-B cell interaction
C. phagocytosis
D. the bursal equivalent
E. *the thymus
If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that:
A. it can be administered orally
B. antibody persists for a longer period
C. it contains primarily IgM
D. it contains primarily IgG
E. *it provides antibody more rapidly
Which type of hypersensitivities is T-cell mediated?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type VI
E. *type IV
Endotoxins have such properties:
A. are found in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.
B. are part of the Gram-positive cell wall only.
C. are heat labile.
D. are proteins.
E. *all have the same effect,
What does Kingdom Prokaryotae include:
A. protozoa
B. fungi
C. viruses
D. all of the above.
E. *bacteria
Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?
A. Treponema
B. Slaphylococcus
C. Klebsiella
D. Ricketsia
E. *Mycoplasma
When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but
permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as:
A. basal media.
B. enrichment medium
C. enriched medium
D. differential medium
E. *selective medium
Which of the following bacteria don’t contain cell wall?
A. Klebsiella
B. Ricketsia
C. Slaphylococcus
D. Treponema
E. *Mycoplasma
Peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall of:
A. gram-negative bacteria.
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. none of the above
E. *gram-positive bacteria
218. Choose among listed where peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall:
A. gram-negative bacteria
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. none of the above
E. *gram-positive bacteria
219. Lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall in:
A. gram-positive bacteria
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. none of the above
E. *gram-negative bacteria
220. Choose among listed where lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall:
A. gram-positive bacteria
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. none of the above
E. *gram-negative bacteria
221. Sterols are present in the cytoplasmic membrane of:
A. Bacillus
B. Clostridium
C. Proteus
D. Ricketsia
E. *Mycoplasma
222. Which from following microorganisms does contain sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane?
A. Bacillus
B. Clostridium
C. Proteus
D. Ricketsia
E. *Mycoplasma
223. Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to:
A. lysosomes of eukaryotes.
B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes.
C. polyribosomes of eukaryotes
D. none of the above
E. *mitochondria of eukaryotes.
224. What analogous structures of eukaryotes are bacteria mesosomes?
A. lysosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. polyribosomes
D. endosomes
E. *mitochondria
225. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous
B. lophotrichous
C. amphitrichous
D. bitrichous
E. *peritrichous
226. When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous
B. amphitrichous
C. peritrichous
D. bitrichous
E. *lophotrichous
227. When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as:
A. basal media.
B. enrichment medium.
C. enriched medium.
D. differential medium.
E. *selective medium.
When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous
B. lophotrichous
C. peritrichous.
D. bitrichous
E. *amphitrichous
When a substance is added to a liquid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria and
favours the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as:
A. selective medium
B. enriched medium
C. differential medium
D. basal media
E. *enrichment medium
Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are:
A. Bacterium
B. Corynebacterium
C. Mycobacterium
D. Micrococcus
E. *Bacillus
Endo medium is an example of:
A. transport medium.
B. enrichment medium.
C. enriched medium.
D. selective medium
E. *differential medium.
Levin’s medium (EMB) is an example of:
A. transport medium
B. enrichment medium
C. enriched medium.
D. selective medium
E. *differential medium
Choose among listed bacteria which produce endospores:
A. Bacterium
B. Corynebacterium
C. Mycobacterium
D. Micrococcus
E. *Bacillus
Bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C are known as:
A. psychrophiles.
B. thermophiles.
C. heterophiles.
D. none of the above
E. *mesophiles
235. Who was father of microbiology?
A. Robert Koch
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
C. Edward Jenner
D. John Hunter
E. *LouisPasteur
236. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C:
A. heterophiles
B. psychrophiles
C. thermophiles
D. none of the above
E. *mesophiles
237. Who was father of antiseptic surgery?
A. Ferdinand Cohn
B. John Needham.
C. Karl Landsteiner
D. Robert Koch
E. *Joseph Lister
238. The construction and use of the compound microscope is attributed to:
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Koch.
C. Ferdinand Cohn
D. Paul Ehrlich
E. *Antony van Leeuwenhoek
239. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C
A. heterophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. none of the above
E. *psychrophiles
240. The first techniques of pasteriation were introduced by:
A. Robert Koch.
B. Ferdinand Cohn.
C. John Needham.
D. Gerhardt Domagk
E. *Louis Pasteur
241. Who did first discovere of Salvarsan?
A. Karl Landsteiner.
B. Gerhardt Domagk
C. Howard Florey.
D. Arthur Fleming
E. *Paul Ehrlich
242. Who was the founder of scientific microbiology?
A. Robert Koch
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
C. Edward Jenner
D. Paul Ehrlich
E. *Louis Pasteur
243. Who did coin the term vaccine?
A. Edward Jenner
B. Kitasato
C. Ehrlich
D. Robert Koch
E. *Louis Pasteur
244. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. Semple
B. Edward Jenner
C. Paul Ehrlich
D. Wasserman
E. *Louis Pasteur
245. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Paul Ehrlich
C. John Hunter
D. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
E. *Edward Jenner
246. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C:
A. heterophiles
B. psychrophiles
C. thermophiles
D. none of the above
E. *mesophiles
247. Who of the following scientists proposed side chain theory of antibody production in 1898?
A. Elie Metchnikoff
B. John Hunter.
C. Edward Jenner
D. Ivanowsky
E. *Paul Ehrlich
248. Generation time of Escherichia coli is:
A. 20 seconds
B. 20 minutes
C. 20 days
D. none of the above
E. *20 hours
249. Generation time of Salmonella typhy is:
A. 20 seconds
B. 20 hours.
C. 20 days.
D. none of the above
E. *20 minutes
250. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C:
A. heterophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. none of the above
E. *psychrophiles
251. The period between inaculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning of multiplication is
known as:
A. log phase
B. stationary phase
C. decline phase
D. maximum phase
E. *lag phase
252. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by
Rh incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
Autoimmune
Delayed
Immune complex
*Cytotoxic
AIDS is caused by a human retrovirus that kills:
A. B lymphocytes
B. lymphocyte stem cells
C. CD8-positive T lymphocytes
D. NK cells
E. *CD4-positive T lymphocytes
Choose secondary immunodeficiency:
A. DiGeorge's syndrome
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Ataxia-telangiectasia
D. Chronic granulomatous disease
E. *AIDS
A lymphokine that stimulates the activity of B and T cells is:
A. interleukin-2
B. г interferon
C. TNF
D. lymphotoxin
E. *interleukin-1
The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with:
A. antigen
B. factor B
C. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
D. endotoxin
E. *antigen-IgG complexes
T cells which assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells are:
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic
C. Natural killer
D. T killer
E. *Helper
The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with:
A. factor B
B. antigen-IgA complexes
C. bacterial capsula
D. endotoxin
E. *antigen-antibody complex
Natural killer cells are:
A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. Tгл cells
E. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
T cells that activate B cells and other T cells are?
A. Natural killer
B. Cytotoxic
C. Sensitized
D. T killer
E. *Helper
Cytotoxic cells (NK) are:
B.
C.
D.
E.
253.
254.
255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
B cells
cytotoxic T cells
able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production
macrophages.
*able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization
An antigen is:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. a small molecule that attaches to cells
C. a carbohydrate
D. a protein that combines with antibodies
E. *a substance that incites an antibody respons and can combine
Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
A. Gamma interferon
B. Interleukin-2
C. Interleukin-4
D. lymphotoxin
E. *Alpha interferon
Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. Interleukin-5
C. Interleukin-6
D. bradikidin
E. *Gamma interferon
Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells?
A. б interferon
B. в interferon
C. TNF
D. serotonin
E. *Interleukin-6
The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of:
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. lgE on smooth muscle
D. lymphotoxin on mast cells
E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on
their surfaces:
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. IgM
E. *Class II MHC antigens
Antigen-presenting cells must express on their surfaces:
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Gamma interferon
E. *Class II MHC antigens
The first, direct symptoms of anaphylaxis are associated with action of:
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. lymphotoxin on mast cells
D. lgE on smooth muscle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
262.
263.
264.
265.
266.
267.
268.
269.
E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
270. All bacteria that inhabit the human body are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
271. Choose among listed the period between inoculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning
272.
273.
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
of multiplication:
A. log phase
B. stationary phase
C. decline phase
D. maximum phase
E. *lag phase
All microorganisms that live in the human body are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
Choose among listed the period of microbial growth curve when microorganisms are growing and
dividing at the maximal rate:
A. lag phase
B. stationary phase
C. decline phase
D. maximum phase
E. *log phase
Bacteria which cause illnesses at people are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
Agar is used for solidifying culture media because:
A. it does not add to the nutritive properties of the medium
B. it is not affected by the growth of bacteria
C. the melting and solidifying points of agar solution are not the same
D. it does not contain toxic substances
E. *all of the above.
Choose among listed the period of microbial growth curve when balance between cell division and
cell death occurs:
A. lag phase
B. log phase
C. decline phase
D. maximum phase
E. *stationary phase
Exponential phase of growth curve of bacteria is of limited duration because of:
A. exhaustion of nutrients
B. accumulation of toxic metabolites
C. rise in cell density
D. limiting of O2
E. *all answer is correct
The process of freeing of an article from living organisms including bacterial and fungal spores and
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viruses is known as:
A. disinfection
B. antisepsis
C. asepsis
D. pasteurisation
E. *sterilization
Peptone water and nutrient broth are:
A. enriched media
B. selective media
C. enrichment media
D. differential medium
E. *basal media
The process of killing all microorganisms and their spores and viruses is known as:
A. antisepsis
B. asepsis
C. disinfection
D. pasteurisation
E. *sterilization
Destruction or inhibition of microorganisms in living tissues is known as:
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. asepsis
D. pasteurisation
E. *antisepsis
Killing of microorganisms in living tissues is:
A. pasteurisation
B. asepsis
C. disinfection
D. sterilization
E. *antisepsis
Incineration is an efficient method for:
A. sterilizing points of forceps
B. sterilizing scalpel blades
C. sterilizing all-glass syringes
D. sterilizing needles
E. *destroying contaminated materials
Heat of flame is used for sterilization of:
A. all-glass syringes
B. glass slides
C. soiled dressings
D. scalpel blades
E. *inoculating wires and loops
Heating in a hot air oven at 160°C for one hour is used for sterilization of:
A. all-glass syringes
B. oils and jellies
C. swab sticks
D. petri dishes and pipets
E. *all of the above
Choose among listed method of sterilization of all-glass syringes:
A. . autoclaving
B. heating in a hot air oven at 160°C
C. gamma rays
D. . boiling
E. *using chemicals
287. In holder method of pasteurization, milk and butter are kept at:
A. 72°C for 20 seconds
B. . 63°C for 60 minutes
C. 72°C for 30 seconds
D. 90°C for 30 seconds
E. *63°C for 30 minutes
288. Exposure of material to steam at 100°C for 20 minutes on three consecutive days is known as:
A. autoclaving
B. inspissation
C. pasteurization
D. none of the above
E. *tyndallization
289. Which of the following articles can be sterilized in an autoclave?
A. Dressing material
B. Gloves
C. Culture media
D. Meat-pepton broth
E. *All of the above
290. Biological control used in an autoclave is:
A. Fungy
B. Ricketsia
C. E. colli
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. *Spores of bacillus
291. Which of the following organisms is retained in the fluids filtered by Seitz filter?
A. Proteus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Clostridium
D. Micrococcus
E. *None of the above.
292. Which of the following microbes don’t pass through the Seitz filter?
A. Proteus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Clostridium
D. Micrococcus
E. *None of the above
293. Phenol is bactericidal at a concentration of:
A. 0.1%
B. 0.25%
C. 0.3%
D. 0,75%
E. *1%
294. Which class of immunoglobulins activate the complement cascade most effectively?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. *IgM
295. Which of the following is not a form of hypersensitivity?
A. immediate
B. immune complex
C. cytotoxic
D. delayed
E. *instantaneous
296. Which of the following is the main preformed mediator released from cytoplasmic granules in mast
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299.
300.
301.
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cells upon secondary exposure?
A. prostaglandins
B. interferon
C. complement
D. leukotrienes
E. *histamine
If a person were rushed to the hospital in anaphylactic shock from a bee sting, which antibodies
would be found in the highest amount?
A. IgD
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgM
E. *IgE
Which of the following hypersensitivities is mismatched?
A. immediate--caused by insect allergies
B. cytotoxic--occurs when the wrong blood type is received
C. immune complex--elicited by antigens on vaccine or microorganisms
D. cell-mediated--from exposure to foreign antigen, like tissue transplant
E. *delayed--caused by allergies to pollens
Which of the following is the only treatment intended to cure an allergy type I?
A. antiinflammatories
B. corticosteroids
C. denatured allergens
D. topical ointments
E. *antihistamines
If you are of a particular blood type, that means that you have no antibodies against the antigens
present on your blood cells. What kind of antibodies are you missing?
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgD
D. IgA
E. *IgM
Which of the following is a major sign of transfusion reactions?
A. fever
B. inflammation
C. anaphylaxis
D. wheal and flare reaction
E. *tissue damage
Which of the following causes immune complex hypersensitivity?
A. Antigen-antibody complex formation
B. phagocytosis of immune complexes
C. formation of antigen-specific antibody
D. destruction of immune complexes
E. *persisting antigen-antibody complexes
Which of the following is not an example of an immune complex disorder?
A. systemic lupus erythematosus
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. serum sickness
D. acute glomerulonephritis
E. *hemolytic disease
304. In allergic reactions, sensitization refers to
A. administering increasing doses of allergen to a patient to produce blocking antibodies
B. the degranulation of mast cells and basophils with release of mediators
C. the capillaries becoming more permeable and undergoing dilation
D. IgG reacting to cell-surface antigens perceived as foreign
E. *the initial recognition of an allergen and production of specific IgE
305. In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the
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308.
309.
310.
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312.
following?
A. neurons
B. RNA
C. blood cells
D. dermis
E. *DNA
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity sometimes develops in health workers who handle drugs?
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type I
D. all of the above
E. *Type IV
The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following?
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. leukemia
D. agammaglobulinemia
E. *severe combined immunodeficiency
If you were assaying serum for the presence of several antigens in the blood, which of the
following methods would you choose?
A. agglutination
B. neutralization reactions
C. precipitin test
D. antibody titer
E. *immunoelectrophoresis
A positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test is a classic example of
A. an anaphylactic reaction
B. degranulation and release of mediators
C. a humoral immune response
D. an IgG-complement mediated reaction
E. *a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Antigenic mimicry, genetic factors, viral components in cell membranes and other factors may
explain:
A. allergic reactions
B. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
C. symptoms of AIDS
D. tumor formation
E. *the development of autoimmune disease
Which of the following does not pertain to serological tests?
A. they are used to detect seroconversion in a patient
B. the reactions can be detected by the formation of a precipitate or agglutination
C. hey can use enzymes, fluorescent dyes and radioactive substances to help detect antigenantibody reactions
D. they can be used to diagnose of various diseases
E. *they can detect antibodies but not antigens
Which of the following pertains to a patient infected with HIV?
the risk of sexual transmission of the virus is eliminated by using a condom
decreasing cytokine levels affect macrophage and cytotoxic T cell activity
if the patient doesn't have symptoms, the virus cannot be transmitted to others
the patient will always have detectable serum antibodies
*the progress of the infection depends on the infective dose of the virus and how often the
exposure is repeated
All of the following pertain to "tagged" serological tests except:
A. enzymes, radioactive material, and fluorescent dyes serve as tags
B. these are among the most sensitive immunologic tests
C. the tag allows detection of the antigen-antibody
D. they often detect nanogram quantities of an antibody or antigen
E. *they rely on precipitation or agglutination reactions
An anamnestic response involves a/an:
A. intense response.
B. effector response
C. high intensity.
D. rapid memory.
E. *all of the above
Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. *Artificially acquired passive immunity
An epitope is:
A. a T-cell.
B. a B-cell.
C. an antibody.
D. a hapten.
E. *the antigen determinant site
Cell-associated differentiation antigens (CDs) are functional cell surface proteins or receptors that
can be measured in situ.
A. In normal individuals the concentration of these molecules in serum is always low.
B. Thousands of CDs have been characterized.
C. All of the above are true.
D. None of the above are true.
E. *Detecting these soluble molecules may help in the management of disease.
An immunoglobulin is a:
A. protein
B. carbohydrate.
C. fatty acid.
D. nucleic acid.
E. *glycoprotein
The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to:
A. host tissue
B. various cells of the immune system
C. some phagocytic cells
D. lysosomes
E. *antigen
Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the
immunoglobulin pool?
A. IgA
B. IgD
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
321. Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. *IgE
322. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies SPECIFICALLY on:
A. combinatorial joinings.
B. somatic mutations
C. variations in the splicing process
D. T-cell clones
E. *B-cell clones
323. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?
A. A hapten
B. Antiserum
C. Purified antigen
D. Crude antigen
E. *An adjuvant
324. Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response:
A. has a more rapid log phase
B. persists for a longer plateau period
C. attains a higher IgG titer
D. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen
E. *has a longer lag phase
325. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:
A. lymphocytes
B. myeloma cells.
C. spleen cells.
D. plasma cells.
E. *hybridomas.
326. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. the typing of tissue
B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms
C. the identification of tumor antigens
D. the classification of leukemias
E. *the manipulation of the immune response
327. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation?
A. MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. *MHC class III molecules
328. Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant?
A. MHC class II molecules
B. MHC class III molecules
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. *MHC class I molecules
329. B-cells do which of the following?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
Respond to antigens by making antibodies
Act as antigen-processing cells
None of the above
*All of the above
Which of the following is NOT a T-dependent antigen?
A. Bacteria
B. Foreign red blood cells
C. Certain proteins
D. Hapten-carrier combinations
E. *Viruses
Opsonization refers to:
A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation
B. agglutination of red blood cells
C. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells
D. antibody mediated viral inactivation
E. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement
Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?
A. IgE
B. IgG1
C. IgG2
D. IgG3
E. *IgM
Which of the following best describes type I hypersensitivities?
A. The reaction of TDTH cells, cytokines, and macrophages
B. The formation of immune complexes that are deposited on basement membranes
C. Complement-dependent lysis of cells
D. Overreaction of the immune system
E. *The release of physiological mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils
An attenuated vaccine is composed of:
A. killed microorganisms
B. inactivated bacterial toxins
C. purified macromolecules
D. recombinant vectors
E. *living, weakened microorganisms
Passive immunization is routinely administered to individuals exposed to certain microbial
pathogens that cause diseases, EXCEPT:
A. Botulism
B. Diphtheria
C. Hepatitis А
D. Rabies
E. *Chicken pox
Vaccines are available for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Measles
E. *Hepatitis C
Which is considered the "gold standard" of existing vaccines?
A. Purified proteins
B. DNA-based
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. Capsular polysaccharides
E. *Whole-organism
B.
C.
D.
E.
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331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338. Which macromolecule is currently NOT being used as a vaccine in humans?
A. Capsular polysaccharides
B. Recombinant surface antigens
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. All of the above
E. *DNA-based
339. In type I hypersensitivity, which of the following DOES NOT happen upon second exposure to the
340.
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
antigen?
A. Degranulation of sensitized mast cells
B. Histamine release
C. Smooth muscle contraction
D. Vasodilation
E. *IgE binds to Fc receptors of mast cells
Respiratory impairment during systemic anaphylaxis is PRIMARILY due to
A. arteriole dilation
B. reduced blood pressure
C. increased capillary permeability
D. circulatory shock
E. *smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles
Desensitization to an allergen involves injection of the allergen beneath the skin to induce
production of which of the following immunoglobulins?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
Attenuated viral vaccines:
A. are viable
B. *are nonpathogenic
C. infect cells
D. produce antigens in the context of MHC I
E. All of the above
Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Basophils
D. None of the above
E. *All of the above
Which of the following assays is currently being used for the detection of HIV?
A. Agglutination
B. Complement fixation
C. Immunodiffusion
D. Flow cytometry
E. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
A chromogen may be used in which of the following assays?
A. Direct immuonsorbent assay
B. Indirect immunosorbent assay
C. Western blotting
D. None of the above
E. *All of the above
The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies:
A. antibodies
B. immune complexes
C. cytokines
D. All of the above
E. *antigen
347. Which of the following involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion and
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349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
precipitation?
A. Flow cytometry
B. Double diffusion immunoassay
C. Direct immunosorbent assay
D. Indirect immunosorbent assay
E. *Immunoelectrophoresis
What is a plasmid?
A. Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA
B. A bacterial chromosome
C. Bacterial inclusion
D. Part of the ribosome
E. *Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA
Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscopes.
Light of which color below would give you the best resolution?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. *Blue
Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because:
A. they are inherited from one generation to the next
B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage
C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant
D. they may carry genes that code sugarlytic enzymes
E. *All of the above
Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells:
A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain
B. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain
C. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet
D. have monolayers of peptidoglycan
E. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain
Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers?
A. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall
B. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells
C. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages
D. They help bacteria survive inside organism
E. *They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture
Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in:
A. eucaryotes only
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. both procaryotes and eucaryotes
E. *procaryotes only
All of the following are true about agar except it:
A. liquefies at 100°C
B. is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga
C. Solidifies at approximately 40°C
D. facilitates obtaining pure cultures
E. *is metabolized by many bacteria
355. Which of the following procedures can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacteriam from a
356.
357.
358.
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
mixture more freguently?
A. dilution in liquid medium
B. dilution plating
C. enrichment culture
D. sedementation method
E. *streak plating
Which of the following uses radiant energy as their energy source?
A. Auxotroph
B. Autotroph
C. Heterotroph
D. Lithotroph
E. *Phototroph
Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of organic chemicals?
A. Autotroph
B. Heterotroph
C. Lithotroph
D. Phototroph
E. *Chemotroph
Addition of blood to a culture medium only allows the hemolytic bacteria that grow on the plate to
be picked out. This is an example of a:
A. Chemically defined media
B. Complex media
C. Liquid media
D. Selective media
E. *Differential media
An organism is completely dependant on atmospheric O2 for growth. This organism is a(n):
A. acidophile
B. aerotolerant anaerobe
C. facultative anaerobe
D. osmotolerant
E. *obligate aerobe
The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that:
A. doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it
B. is killed by oxygen
C. prefers to grow without oxygen
D. requires less oxygen than is present in air
E. *uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent
Which of the following does not kill endospores?
A. Autoclave
B. Incineration
C. Hot air sterilization
D. All of these processes kill endospores
E. *Pasteurization
Mutations that arise without exposure to external agents are called:
A. induced mutations
B. analogous mutations
C. specific mutations
D. nonsens mutations
E. *spontaneous mutations
An enzyme that is always produced, regardless of the presence of substrates or the end products, is
called:
A. an allosteric enzyme
an isoenzyme
a repressible enzyme
a regulator enzyme
*a constitutive enzyme
A mutagen is:
A. an enzyme that repairs mutations
B. a molecule which stabilizes DNA thus prevents mutations from occurring
C. a chemical agent which changes strucrure of protein
D. an enzyme which inhibits division of cell
E. *a chemical or physical agent that induces mutations
A mutation that affects only a single nucleotide is called:
A. a regional mutation
B. a site mutation
C. nonsens mutation
D. analogous mutation
E. *a point mutation
The transfer of genetic material between bacteria in direct physical contact is called:
A. transformation
B. transduction
C. reparation
D. recombination
E. *conjugation
The transfer of a naked fragment of DNA between bacteria is called:
A. conjugation
B. transduction
C. general transduction
D. recombinationECT
E. *transformation
Complement lyses cells by:
A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B. activation of adenylate cyclase
C. inhibition of elongation factor 2
D. enzymatic digestion of LPS
E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of:
A. autoimmunity
B. eczema
C. acute contact dermatitis
D. immune-complex reaction
E. *delayed-type allergy
Complement kills different cells by:
A. . activation of adenylate cyclase
B. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
C. apoptosis mechanism
D. inhibition of elongation factor 2
E. *insertion of complement proteins into the
A tuberculin test often use for detect one of the next types of:
A. autoimmunity
B. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
C. anaphylactic hypersensitivity
D. immune-complex reaction
E. *delayed-type allergy
A condition in which bacteria circulate in blood without multiplication is known as:
B.
C.
D.
E.
364.
365.
366.
367.
368.
369.
370.
371.
372.
septicaemia
pyaemia
endotoxaemia
viraemia
*bacteraemia
The transport of bacterial DNA to other bacteria via bacteriaphages is called:
A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. recombination
D. reparationCT
E. *transduction
F factor plasmids play a major role in what bacterial process?
A. transduction
B. replication
C. transformation
D. reparation
E. *conjugation
This type of plasmid makes the host more pathogenic:
A. metabolic plasmid
B. F factors
C. R factor
D. F plasmid
E. *virulence plasmid
This type of plasmid carries genes encoding enzymes that degrade substances such as aromatic
compounds, pesticides or sugar:
A. virulence plasmid
B. F factors
C. R factor
D. Hly plasmid
E. *metabolic plasmid
Mobile genetic elements that carry the genes required for integration into host chromosomes:
A. plasmids
B. replicon
C. F factors
D. Hly plasmid
E. *transposons
Which of the following are true in regards to F+ x F- cooperation?
A. DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells
B. No DNA is transferred because F- cells are unable to perform conjugation
C. F+ transmit to F- cells information about toxin production
D. DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells only in death phase of growth curve of bacteria
E. *DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells
A bacterial cell that is able to take up naked DNA is said to be
A. liable
B. infected
C. sensitive
D. resistent
E. *competent
In which type of transduction does the transducing particle carry only specific portions of the
bacterial genome?
A. general transduction
B. abortive transduction
C. reverse transduction
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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D. incomplete transduction
E. *specialized transduction
381. These are bacterial proteins that destroy other bacteria:
A. viruses
B. transposable elements
C. в-lactamaze
D. exotoxin
E. *bacteriocins
382. Which property(ies) or structure(s) is shared by all extrachromosomal plasmids in bacteria?
A. Self-transmissibility from one bacterial cell to another
B. Genes that impart resistance to antibiotics
C. Genes that allow utilization of organic compounds
D. Genes that produce toxins
E. *An origin for autonomous replication
383. Which of the following processes contribute to the appearance of mutations in genes?
A. Chemicals that damage bases
B. Mistakes made by the DNA polymerase during replication
C. Movement of transposons around the genome
D. Formation of deletions in directly repeated DNA sequences
E. *All of the above
384. The process by which bacteriophage P1 packages random phage-genome-sized pieces into phage
385.
386.
387.
388.
heads and thereby allows transfer of pieces of the bacterial chromosomal DNA between bacteria is
called:
A. Nongeneral transposition
B. Specialized transduction
C. High-frequency recombination
D. Reverse conjugation
E. *Generalized transduction
Which of the following is/are genotypic, not phenotypic, properties?
A. Aerotolerance
B. Spore formation
C. Cellular staining characteristics in the light microscope
D. Colony morphology.
E. *Chromosomal G+C content of different bacterial species
Transformation is important in bacterial pathogenicity because:
A. It kills recipient cells and prevents future cell invasion
B. It enhances site-specific recombination that turns on virulence factor genes
C. It causes transpositions to occur at high frequency that can kill virulent bacteria.
D. It activates production of enzymes of resistant to antibiotics
E. *It allows uptake of DNA that can homologously recombine into the bacterial chromosome
and change virulence characteristics.
Which of the following processes allow(s) the transfer of bacterial DNA between different
individual cells:
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Generalized transduction
D. None of the above
E. *All of the above
Which of the following characteristics are possessed by the antibiotic-resistance conferring R
plasmids?
A. They contain tra genes that mediate self transmissibility
B. They contain an origin of replication
C. They are present in very low copy numbers
D. Depending on the plasmid, they can confer resistance to more than one antibiotic
E. *All of the above
389. Which of the following is contained in all plasmids, irrespective of size or source?
A. Genes that impart antibiotic resistance to bacterial cells
B. The tra genes that allow conjugation
C. Genes that allow bacterial hosts to act as pathogens to mammalian cells
D. All of the above
E. *An autonomous origin of replication
390. Transformation is the genetic process by which:
A. Bacteriophage attach to bacterial cells
B. Bacterial genes acquire mutations and variants
C. Bacterial DNA is carried by bacteriophage between different bacteria
D. None of the above
E. *Pieces of free DNA or free plasmids are taken up by bacterial cells
391. Which of the following is an example of a genotypic property?
A. Growth rate in liquid medium
B. MIC antibiotic resistance in broth tubes
C. Permeability property of bacterial cell walls to antibiotics
D. Size and shape of bacterial cells in media containing a sublethal dose of antibiotics
E. *Sequence of missense mutations in genes that impart antibiotic resistance
392. Targeting antibiotic therapy against the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria is advantageous because
393.
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the wall is:
A. chemically vulnerable
B. mechanically accessible
C. synthetically complex
D. None of the above
E. *unique to the bacterium
Which of the following drug interferes with folic acid synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)
B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
C. Rifampin
D. Penicillins
E. *Sulfonamides
Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A. actinomycin
B. erythromycins
C. sulfonamides
D. pyrimethamine
E. *Cephalosporins
Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A. tetracyclines
B. erythromycins
C. aminoglycosides
D. Polymixins
E. *Penicillins
Bacterial pili are involved in:
A. Motility
B. Resistance to heat
C. Resistance to phagocytosis
D. Endotoxic activity
E. *Adherence to host cells
Which of the following properties are shared by prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. Ribosome size
Peptidoglycan layer
Mitochondria structure and function
Nuclear envelope
*Chemical nature of genetic material
Which structure is found in all bacteria?
A. Capsular polysaccharide
B. Flagella
C. Pili
D. Outer membrane
E. *Cytoplasmic membrane
Lysozyme produced by humans and other mammalian hosts:
A. Inhibits the addition of amino acids to NAG.
B. Disrupts the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.
C. Destroys lipopolysaccharide.
D. Results in a sterile environment in the mouth.
E. *Cleaves peptidoglycan between N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetyl- muramic acid
(NAM) residues.
The portion of the lipopolysaccharide molecule that varies the most among different bacteria and
thus exhibits antigenic differences is the:
A. Lipid A
B. Core polysaccharide
C. Dipicolinic acid
D. Exotoxin component
E. *Side polysaccharide chain
The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is important in each of the following aspects EXCEPT:
A. exocytosis of proteins
B. cell wall synthesis
C. oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport
D. active transport of nutrients
E. *location of lipopolysaccharide
An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is:
A. the presence of porins in the outer membrane
B. the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes
C. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer
D. the accumulation of dipicolinic acid in the periplasmic space
E. *the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall
The LPS or lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of:
A. lipid A
B. core polysaccharide
C. O-antigen
D. Any of the above
E. *peptidoglycan
The Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls generally differ in that the Gram-positives
exclusively possess:
A. carbohydrates
B. peptides
C. lipid
D. none of the above
E. *teichoic acids
Point the most important feature of all prokaryotes:
A. produce endospores.
B. possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes
C. have inner and outer membranes
B.
C.
D.
E.
398.
399.
400.
401.
402.
403.
404.
405.
D. have cell walls
E. *lack mitochondria
406. Endospore formation is a property of:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. *Clostridium botulinum
407. Resistance to many antibiotics is carried on:
A. sex pili.
B. enzymes
C. chromosomes
D. Col factor plasmids.
E. *R factor plasmids.
408. Thymine dimer formation is the result of exposing DNA to:
A. base analogs
B. transposons
C. X-rays
D. intercalating agents
E. *ultraviolet light
409. An organism which requires a growth factor in order to grow is called a(n):
A. prototroph
B. wild type
C. autotroph
D. heterotroph
E. *auxotroph
410. Which of the following processes does not result in recombination?
A. transformation
B. conjugation
C. transduction
D. Two of the above are correct.
E. *replication
411. Which one of the following agents lacks nucleic acid?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Viroids
D. Protozoa
E. *Prions
412. Which one of the following is not a protist?
A. Algae
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Slime molds
E. *Bacteria
413. Which one of the following agents simultaneously contains both DNA and RNA?
A. Viruses
B. Viroids
C. Prions
D. Plasmids
E. *Bacteria
414. A 65-year-old man develops dementia, progres sive over several months, along with ataxia and
somnolence. An electroencephalographic pattern shows paroxysms with high voltages and slow
waves, suggestive of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. This disease is caused by which of the following
415.
416.
417.
418.
419.
420.
421.
agents?
A. Bacterium
B. Virus
C. Viroid
D. Plasmid
E. *Prion
Which of the following structures is not part of the bacterial cell envelope?
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Capsule
D. S-layer
E. *Flagella
Which of the following transport mechanisms functions without the requirement for energy?
A. Binding protein-dependent
B. Group transiocation
C. Symport
D. Uniport
E. *Facilitated diffusion
22-old man presents with a painless 1-cm ulcer on the shaft of his penis. Inguinal lymphadenopathy
is present. The patient admits trading drugs for sex and has several sexual partners. An RPR test is
positive; however, a Gram stain of a swab specimen from the ulcer shows no bacteria. Treponema
patlidum, the causative agent of syphilis,cannot be visualized by light microscopy because
A. It is transparent
B. It cannot be stained by ordinary stains
C. The wavelength of white light is too long
D. The wavelength of white light is too short
E. *It has a diameter of < 0.2 µm
Which of the following components is present in gram-positive bacteria but not in gram-negative
bacteria?
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Capsule
C. Flagella
D. Pili
E. *Teichoic acid
Eubacteria that lack cell walls and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan are called:
A. Spirochetes
B. Chlamydiae
C. Rickettsiae
D. Bacilli
E. *Mycoplasmas
An unculturable gram-positive microorganism has been visualized in tissue specimens obtained
from patients with a previously undescribed disease. Which of the following techniques would be
most useful in identifying this organism?
A. Serology
B. Multilocus enzyme electrophoresis
C. SDS-polyacrylamide gel etectrophoresis
D. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
E. *PCR amplification and sequencing of rDNA
The DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is an important component of DNA amplification
methods such as the polymerase chain reaction. This organism is capable of growing at temperatures above 100 °C. Organisms that are capable of growth at these temperatures are referred to as:
A. Mesophiles
B. Psychrophiles
C. Halophiles
D. Chemolithotrophs
E. *Thermophiles
422. Most microorganisms pathogenic for humans grow best in the laboratory when cultures are
423.
424.
425.
426.
427.
428.
429.
incubated at:
A. 15-20°C
B. 20-30°C
C. 38-50°C
D. 50-55°C
E. *30-37°C
The synthesis of which of the following cell components is dependent upon a template?
A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Capsular polysaccharide
D. Phospholipids
E. *Deoxyribonucleic acid
The steps leading to the synthesis of peptidoglycan occur in the cytoplasm, on the cytoplasmic
membrane, and extracellularly. Which antibiotic inhibits peptidoglycan biosynthesis?
A. Cycloserine
B. Rifampin
C. Bacitracin
D. Streptomycin
E. *Penicillin
Amino acids are found in the protein, peptidoglycan,and capsule of bacteria. Which of the following amino acids is found only in peptidoglycan?
A. L-Lysine
B. D-Glutamate
C. L-Alanine
D. None of the above
E. *Diaminopimelic acid
Mutations in bacteria can occur by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Deletions
B. Insertions
C. Rearrangements
D. Base substitutions
E. *all answer is correct
The ability to use compounds and ions other than oxygen as terminal oxidants in respiration is a
widespread microbial trait.This capacity is called:
A. Photosynthesis
B. Fermentation
C. Substrate phosphorylation
D. Nitrogen fixation
E. *Anaerobic respiration
The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial
virus is:
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transfection
D. Horizontal transfer
E. *Transduction
The form of genetic exchange in bacteria that is susceptible to the activity of deoxyribonuclease is:
A. Conjugation
B. Transfection
C. Transduction
D. All of the above
E. *Transformation
430. Replication of which of the following requires physical integration with a bacterial replicon?
A. Single-stranded DNA bacteriophage
B. Double-stranded DNA bacteriophage
C. Single-stranded RNA bacteriophage
D. Plasmid
E. *Transposon
431. The formation of a mating pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires:
A. Lysis of the donor
B. Transfer of both strands of DNA
C. A restriction endonuclease
D. Integration of a transposon
E. *A sex pilus
432. Which of the following is NOT a Th2 cytokine?
A. IL-4
B. IL-5
C. IL-6
D. IL-10
E. *IL-2
433. Which of the following is NOT one of the four structural families of cytokines:
A. chemokine family
B. interleukin family
C. tumor necrosis factor family
D. interferons
E. *hematopoietin family
434. Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen?
A. IL-2
B. IL-6
C. TNF-?
D. IFN-?
E. *IL-1
435. The CD4 glycoprotein is found:
A. on all Tc lymphocytes
B. only on Th1 lymphocytes
C. on all NK cells
D. on all B lymphocytes
E. *on all Th lymphocytes
436. A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express:
A. CD4
B. Class II MHC
C. membrane Ig
D. the BcR
E. *the TcR
437. The TcR is found on:
A. all mature lymphocytes
B. all mature B lymphocytes
C. all NK cells
D. all monocytes
E. *all mature T lymphocytes
438. CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface molecules?
A. ICAM
TcR
CD16
CD8
*CD40L
Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion of
IgG or IgM?
A. C1s
B. C9
C. C3
D. C5
E. *C1q
C1 is composed of all of the following except:
A. C1q
B. C1r
C. C1s
D. A & B
E. *C1b
Which of the following complement components assumes a "bouquet of tulips" conformation?
A. C3b
B. C1q
C. C1s
D. C6
E. *C9
Which of the following is considered to be a C5 convertase?
A. C4bC2a
B. C1s
C. C3bB
D. C3bBb
E. *C4bC2aC3b
Which of the following complement components is not common to both the alternative and
classical pathways:
A. C3b
B. C5b
C. C8
D. C9
E. *C4b
C3bBbC3b has a similar function as which of the following from the classical pathway?
A. C4bC2a
B. C5bC6C7
C. C1r
D. C1q,r,s
E. *C4bC2aC3b
All of the following function as anaphylatoxins except:
A. C3a
B. C4a
C. C5a
D. C3a, C5a
E. *C2a
Which of the following components initiates formation of the membrane attack complex when
bound to the target cell surface?
A. C2b
B. C3b
C. C4b
B.
C.
D.
E.
439.
440.
441.
442.
443.
444.
445.
446.
D. C6b
E. *C5b
447. Which of the following complement components is actually a perforin-like molecule?
A. C3a
B. C5b
C. C7
D. C8
E. *C9
448. Which of the following regulatory proteins can prevent C3b from binding to Factor B?
A. S protein
B. decay accelerating factor
C. C4b binding protein
D. properdin
E. *Factor H
449. Which of the following complement components attracts neutrophils to the sites of complement
450.
451.
452.
453.
454.
455.
activity ?
A. C2a
B. C2b
C. C4a
D. C5a
E. *C3b
What is an opsonin?
A. a chemotactic factor
B. a cytokine
C. a hydrolytic enzyme
D. an antiviral factor
E. *a substance that enhances phagocytosis
Which of the following cytokines has been shown to be most important in the regulation of CTL
activity?
A. IL-1
B. IL-4
C. IL-5
D. IFN-?
E. *IL-2
Which of the following molecules are not typically found within CTL granules:
A. TNFвs
B. granzymes
C. perforins
D. FasL
E. *histamines
CD16 appears to be an important cell surface marker for:
A. eosinophils
B. neutrophils
C. macrophages
D. T cells
E. *NK cells
The current hypothesis is that NK cells recognize target cells:
A. because of their TcR specificity
B. due to the presence of sialic acid on the surface of target cells
C. because the target cells are displaying viral peptides or tumor specific antigens
D. because the target cells produce specific chemokines
E. *due to low levels of Class I MHC expression on target cells
Which of the following best describes NK cell morphology?
small TcR- lymphocytes
large polymorphonuclear leukocytes
large Ig+ lymphocytes
small BcR- lymphocytes
*large granular lymphocytes
Which of the following represents an important anatomic barrier to infection by microorganisims?
A. lymphocytes
B. interferons
C. kinin system
D. lysozyme
E. *mucous membranes
Which of the following is NOT an example of an innate immune mechanisms?
A. interferons
B. complement
C. phagocytes
D. lactoferrins
E. *immunoglobulins
Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells?
A. Class I
B. Class III
C. Class II & Class III
D. Class I & Class III
E. *Class II
All of the following would be classified as cytokines, except:
A. interleukins
B. tumor necrosis factors
C. interferons
D. MIF
E. *kinins
TcRs are present in the cell membrane of:
A. all mature null cells
B. all mature lymphocytes
C. all mature monocytes
D. all mature K cells
E. *all mature T lymphocytes
The specific portion of an antigen that is recognized by an antibody or TcR is termed:
A. the agretope
B. the MHC
C. the CD
D. idiotype
E. *the epitope
A group of serum proteins that participates in an enzymatic cascade which ultimately results in cell
lysis:
A. fibrinolytic system
B. kinin system
C. clotting system
D. lactoferrin & transferrin
E. *complement system
A hydrolytic enzyme found within mucous secretions which has the ability to degrade the
peptidoglycan cell wall of gram + bacteria:
A. interferon
B. histamine
C. complement
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
456.
457.
458.
459.
460.
461.
462.
463.
D. transferrin
E. *lysozyme
464. Which of the following cells do NOT function as APCs?
A. B lymphocytes
B. macrophages
C. interdigitating dendritic cells
D. Langerhans cells
E. *neutrophils
465. In an inflammatory response, which of the following physiological events occurs first:
A. influx of phagocytic cells to the site of injury or infection
B. increased capillary permeability leading to edema
C. constriction of the blood vessels carrying blood away from the site of injury or infection
D. action of leukins and plakins
E. *vasodilation of the capillary network leading to the site of injury or infection
466. C reactive protein is classified as:
A. a cytokine
B. a chemokine
C. a kinin
D. lymphotoxin
E. *an acute-phase protein
467. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are classifed as:
A. acute phase proteins
B. chemokines
C. a cytokine
D. lipid inflammatory mediators
E. *kinins
468. The most abundant leucocyte in the blood of normal humans is the:
A. monocyte
B. eosinophil
C. lymphocyte
D. basophils
E. *neutrophil
469. Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface?
A. follicular dendritic cells
B. macrophages
C. basophils
D. eosinophils
E. *all of the above
470. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is:
A. the spleen
B. the thymus
C. the appendix
D. GALT
E. *the bone marrow
471. The thymus is considered to be:
A. a secondary lymphoid organ
B. a reticuloendothelial organ
C. a specialized lymph node
D. a complement producing organ
E. *a primary lymphoid organ
472. In which area of the lymph node are considered to be “T cell rich”?
A. primary follicles
B. medulla
C. germinal centers
D. capsules
E. *paracortex
473. CD8 is a glycoprotein found on:
A. all lymphocytes
B. B cells
C. helper T cells
D. NK cells
E. *cytotoxic T cells
474. Antibody-secreting cells are called:
A. T cell blasts
B. macrophages
C. B lymphoblasts
D. pre-B lymphocytes
E. *plasma cells
475. Anti-viral proteins produced by virally infected cells are termed:
A. complement
B. lysozyme
C. major basic proteins
D. C-reactive proteins
E. *interferon
476. Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. dolor redness
B. rubor pain
C. tumor pain
D. rubor swelling
E. *calor heat
477. Phagocytosis, endocytosis and inflammation are all examples of:
A. the anamnestic response
B. acquired specific immunity
C. postinfectious immunity
D. none of the above
E. *innate immunity
478. T lymphocytes undergo the process of negative selection in which of the following lymphoid
organs?
A. bone marrow
B. lymph nodes
C. spleen
D. GALT
E. *thymus
479. When monocytes complete their period of circulation in the blood and enter the tissues they
become:
A. natural killer cells
B. mast cells
C. polymorphonuclear cells
D. B cells
E. *macrophages
480. Macrophages activated with lipopolysaccharide and IFN-? express are known to produce high
levels of:
A. IL-2
B. nitric oxide
C. complement proteins
D. lymphotoxin
E. *hydrogen peroxide
481. Which of the following would not be considered a secondary lymphoid organ?
A. lymph nodes
B. spleen
C. tonsils
D. GALT
E. *thymus
482. In humans, the thymus is at its largest actual size:
A. at birth
B. in the mid-20s
C. in the mid-40s
D. in elderly individuals
E. *at puberty
483. Which of the following T cells would survive the process of negative selection?
A. those bearing a TcR specific for self MHC + self antigen
B. those bearing a TcR specific for foreign MHC + foreign antigen
C. those bearing a TcR specific for foreign MHC + self antigen
D. Right answer not present
E. *those bearing a TcR specific for self MHC + foreign antigen
484. Mature T cells are found in which of the following regions of the thymus?
A. subcapsular region
B. medulla
C. Hassal’s corpuscles
D. capsule
E. *cortex
485. In humans, B cells undergo a process of negative selection in:
A. the spleen
B. the thymus
C. the lymph nodes
D. GALT
E. *the bone marrow
486. The red pulp of the spleen is populated primarily by:
A. macrophages and lymphocytes
B. erythrocytes and lymphocytes
C. plasma cells
D. T lymphocytes
E. *erythrocytes and macrophages
487. The T cell region of the spleen is known as:
A. the primary follicles
B. the marginal zone
C. the subcapsular region
D. the white pulp
E. *the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
488. The specific part of an antigen that combines with a specific antibody or T cell receptor is the
A. agretope
B. allotope
C. paratope
D. idiotype
E. *epitope
489. Differentiation of myeloid cells from committed progenitors to mature cells occurs primarily in:
A. thymus
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. GALt
E. *bone marrow
490. Which of the following mitogens is specific for B cells?
A. Con A
B. PHA
C. PWM20
D. antigen
E. *LPS
491. Membrane bound Ig is just one part of a complex known as the B cell receptor complex. Additional
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
497.
accessory proteins are termed:
A. CD4 and CD8
B. Ca and Cb
C. CD3 and TcR
D. Cq and Cr
E. *Ig? and Ig?
The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to:
A. the constant regions of the light chains
B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains
C. the variable regions of the heavy chains
D. the constant regions of the heavy chains
E. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains
The human MHC complex is referred to as :
A. the H-2 complex
B. the B complex
C. complement complex
D. none of the above
E. *the HLA complex
Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
following types of cells?
A. Monocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. both a & c
D. NK cells
E. *B lymphocytes
Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
following types of cells?
A. epithelial cells
B. nerve cells
C. basophils
D. all of the above
E. *macrophages
Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes?
A. CD2
B. CD3
C. CD4
D. CD5
E. *CD8
During an inflammatory response, which type of leucocyte is first to arrive at the site?
A. T lymphocyte
B. Macrophage
C. Basophil
D. Eosynophil
E. *Neutrophil
498. Which of the following would be considered to be a lipid-derived mediator of inflammation?
A. plasmin
B. bradykinin
C. IL-1
D. IL-2
E. *prostaglandin
499. The swelling associated with inflammation is described by the clinical term:
A. dolor
B. calor
C. rubor
D. pain
E. *tumor
500. A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to:
A. other APCs
B. B lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. NK cells
E. *Th lymphocytes
501. Which of the following types of antigens are processed for presentation by macrophages?
A. polysaccharides
B. nucleic acids
C. glycolipids
D. lipids
E. *proteins
502. Which of the following is an example of an oxygen dependent anti-microbial product of
503.
504.
505.
506.
macrophages?
A. TNF-a
B. lysozyme
C. defensin
D. lactoferrin
E. *superoxide anion
Which of the following is an example of a primary lymphoid organ?
A. lymph node
B. spleen
C. tonsils
D. GALT
E. *thymus
Small proteins which act chemotactically to attract leucocytes to the site of inflammation are
termed:
A. interferons
B. kinins
C. lysosomes
D. cytokines
E. *chemokines
Which of the following cell types is able to actively secrete immunoglobulin:
A. naive B lymphocyte
B. Th lymphocyte
C. macrophage
D. Tk lymphocyte
E. *plasma cell
Which of the following are responsible for the acquired specific immune response:
A. monocytes
B. PMN leucocytes
C. macrophages
D. NK cells
E. *lymphocytes
507. One of the distinguishing characteristics of bacteria is the presence of a cell wall made of
A. cellulose
B. protein
C. glycoprotein
D. glycoprotein
E. *peptioglycan
508. In addition to their role as decomposers, bacteria are able to, a function which all life depends
509.
510.
511.
512.
513.
514.
upon.
A. convert water to oxygen
B. remove cancerous cells
C. make glucose
D. cause disease
E. *fix nitrogen
Bacterial species that must live in an environment devoid of oxygen are called
A. chemotrophs
B. aerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. obligate aerobes
E. *obligate anaerobes
Bacteria may share genetic information that has been picked-up by a bacteriophages in a process
known as
A. tranformation
B. electroporation
C. conjugation
D. lipofection
E. *transduction
Bacteria most often cause disease by
A. interfering with vital functions
B. growing too rapidly for the immune system
C. destruction of tissue
D. all of these
E. *secreting toxins into the host
The region of an antigen that binds to specific receptors on lymphocytes is known as an:
A. epitaph
B. epitome
C. epitomy
D. epitop
E. *epitope
Helper T cells are characterised by the presence of cell surface
A. CD2
B. CD6
C. CD8
D. CD10
E. *CD4
Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called:
A. forations
B. perforinse
C. perforations
D. performins
E. *perforins
515. Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as:
A. a poptos
B. a poptosis
C. a pop tosis
D. apopstasis
E. *apoptosis
516. Dimorphic fungi are all except
A. coccidiodomycosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Histoplasma
D. sporothrix Schenkii
E. *Candida
517. Actinomycetes is
A. Gram negative bacteria
B. Fungus
C. A yeast like form
D. Viruses
E. *Gram Positive bacteria
518. Satellitism is seen in cultures of
A. Streptococcus
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Salmonella
E. *Hemophilus
519. Immunoglobulin-which is produced first by the fetus in response to Infection
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgE
E. *IgM
520. Type of immunologic response in transplant rejection
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. TypeV
E. *type IV
521. Glass vessels and syringes are best sterilised by
A. autoclaving
B. Irridiation
C. Eethylene dioxide
D. simple boiling
E. *Hot air oven
522. Oil and Grease are sterlised by
A. autoclaving
B. filtration
C. Irradiation
D. Ethylene dioxide
E. *Hot air oven
523. Vaccines are sterilised by
A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Heat inactivation
D. radiation
E. *Seitz filtration
524. Which of the following regarding chlamydia trachomatis is true
A. Susceptible to pencillins
B. Cause infertility
C. Ttransmitted parenterally
D. They are viruses
E. *Gram negative
525. Dark Ground microscopy is used for detection of
A. Chlamydia
B. Fungi
C. Virus
D. Mycoplasmas
E. *Spirochetes
526. Graft versus Host reactions is caused by
A. B- lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Complement
D. Neutrophils
E. *T-lymphocytes
527. Gas gangrene bacilli is
A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Facultative aerobe
C. Obligate aerobe
D. Microaerophylic bacteria
E. *Obligate anaerobe
528. Clostridium tetani is
A. Gram negative bacilli
B. Gram positive cocci
C. Gram negative cocci
D. Spiral-shaped bacteria
E. *Gram positive bacilli
529. Mononuclear phagocytes are produced by
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Spleen
E. *Bone marrow
530. Large antigen antibody reaction is required to cause
A. Serum sickness
B. urticarin
C. Anaphylactic reaction
D. Delayed allergic reaction
E. *Arthus reaction
531. Which is concerned with cell mediated immunity
A. B- Lymphocytes
B. Esoinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophyls
E. *T-Lymphocytes
532. Organ of adhesion of bacteria is
A. Capsule
B. Slime
C. Flagella
D. Spore
E. *Fimbriae
533. Delayed tuberculin test response is due to
A. B lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Histiocytes
D. Neutrophyls
E. *T Lymphocytes
534. Sharp instruments are sterilied by
A. Autoclaving
B. Simple boiling
C. Cidex
D. Alcochol
E. *20 % Lysol
535. Reaginic immunoglobulin is
A. lgG
B. lgD
C. IgA
D. IgM
E. *IgE
536. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
A. Whooping cough
B. Typhoid
C. Brucellosis
D. Cholera
E. *Scarlet fever
537. Multiple drug resistance is spread by
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Mutation
D. Translocation
E. *Conjugation
538. Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is
A. IgG and IgA
B. IgG and IgD
C. IgD and IgE
D. IgM and IgE
E. *IgG and IgM
539. Antigen recognition on the surface of antigen processing cells is by
A. T cell recognition antigen
B. Fc portion of immunoglobulin
C. B cell recognition antigen
D. Macrophage recognition antigen
E. *Fab portion of immunoglobulin
540. Best method of sterilising disposable syringes is
A. hot air oven
B. UV rays
C. Boiling
D. 20 % Lysol
E. *Gamma rays
541. Best method of skin disinfectant is
A. Spirit
B. 100 % alcohol
C. Cetrimide
D. Formaldehyde
E. *Tincture iodine
542. Phagocytic cells elaborate
A. prostaglandins
B. Thromboxane A
C. Histamine
D. all of these
E. *Leukotrienes
543. All are acid fast except
A. Nocardia
B. Bacterial spores
C. M. leprae
D. M. tuberculosis
E. *Mycoplasma
544. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is known as
A. Agglutination
B. Flocculation
C. Complement fixation
D. Hemagglutination
E. *Precipitation
545. Septicemia is:
A. bacteria in blood
B. Toxin in blood
C. Pus in blood
D. viruses in the blood
E. *Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
546. T cells mature in
A. peyers patch
B. lymph node
C. bursa of fabricius
D. bone marrow
E. *thymus
547. The Prototype of Type II hypersensitivity
A. Arthus reaction
B. anaphylactic shok
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Serum sickness
E. *Auto Immune hemolytic anemia
548. Which is an example of type III hypersensitivity
A. contact dermatitis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Good Pasture's syndrome
D. skin allergic test
E. *Serum sickness
549. Spores are disinfected by
A. Betapropiolactone
B. Formaldehyde
C. Hexachlorophene
D. Alcohol
E. *Glutaraldehyde
550. An example of Type I Hypersensitivity reaction is
A. Schicks test
mantoux test
Lepromin test
Koch’s test
*Skin pollen test
T cell functions are assesed by
A. phagocytic Index
B. T cell count
C. Immunoglobutin Index
D. haemagglutination test
E. *migration inhibition test
The main aim of an adjuvant is to increase
A. Distribution
B. Absorption
C. metabolism
D. Solubility
E. *Antigenicity
Delayed hypersensitivity Involves
A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Platelets
E. *Lymphocytes
Which is a live attenuated Vaccine
A. Rabies
B. Hepatitis B
C. Cholera
D. Tick borne encephalitis
E. *BCG
Latent Infection is not seen in
A. Adenovirus
B. Chicken pox
C. measles
D. cholera
E. *Small pox
Helper cells belong to
A. Macrophages
B. B Cells
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets
E. *T Cells
T Cell multiplication is stimulated by
A. Macrolin
B. Heat
C. Bovine Serum
D. Erythrocytes
E. *Phytohemagglutinin
Agent which on addition to a colony Inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is
A. Bactericidal
B. Antibiotic
C. Antiseptic
D. Antifungal
E. *Bacteriostatic
Anti Rh antibodies belong to
B.
C.
D.
E.
551.
552.
553.
554.
555.
556.
557.
558.
559.
lgA
lgE
IgM
IgD
*lgG
Anti-Rh antibodies belong predominantly to
A. Ig G2
B. Ig G3
C. Ig G4
D. None of these
E. *Ig G1
F factor Integrates with bacterial chromosome to form
A. RTF + r
B. FC. RTF
D. F’
E. *HFr
True about mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
A. Gram negative
B. Thin cell wall
C. Strict anaerobes, curved rod
D. Strict aerobes, spherical
E. *Strict aerobes, rod-shaped
A 40X objective and an 10X ocular produce a total magnification of
A. 4
B. 50
C. 90
D. 120
E. *400
A cytoplasmic membrane is
A. a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the nucleus and the cell’s internal
structures
B. *part of the cell envelope
C. a membrane that provides a barrier between the cell’s internal structures
D. a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the cell wall and the cell’s internal
structures
E. None of the above
A pili is:
A. A form of storage granule within the cell.
B. Is a long thin protein rod that is used for adhesion.
C. Generally composed of sugars.
D. *Is a long thin protein rod that is used for bacterial exchange of genetic material.
E. Always present on a cell that has the ability to form a capsule.
Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. *waxes, fatty acid
C. acetylglucosamine
D. diaminopimelic acid
E. polyphosphates
After what sign of mycoplasma differ from bacteria :
A. by structure of the nucleosis
B. *by absence of cell wall
C. by intracellular parasite
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
560.
561.
562.
563.
564.
565.
566.
567.
D. by tinctorial properties
E. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
568. All prokaryotes
A. produce endospores.
B. possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes.
C. have inner and outer membranes.
D. *lack mitochondria.
E. have cell walls.
569. Among these bacteria gram-positives there are all, EXCEPT FOR :
A. Staphylococci
B. *Meningococci
C. Streptococci
D. Clostridium botulini
E. Bacillus anthracis
570. An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is:
A. *the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall
B. the presence of porins in the outer membrane
C. the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes
D. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer
E. the accumulation of dipicolinic acid in the periplasmic space
571. Another common bacterial shape is that of a rod, often called
A. coccus
B. *bacillus
C. pleomorphic
D. vibrio
E. spirochete
572. Capsules to the bacteria are needed for:
A. survival in an external environment
B. *defence from fagocytosis
C. toxins production
D. antibodies production
E. spore production
573. carbon source
A. Spores are formed under adverse environmental conditions such as the absence of a
B. Spores are resistant to boiling
C. Spores are metabolically inactive and contain dipicolinic acid, a calcium chelator
D. *Spores are formed primarily by organisms of the genus Neisseria
E. They may be killed in autoclave
574. Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contains all, except:
A. thin monolayer peptidiglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. *polilayer peptidoglycan
E. outer membrane
575. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of:
A. thin monolayer peptidiglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. *polilayer peptidiglican
D. lipopolysaccharides
E. outer membrane
576. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of:
A. thin monolayer peptidoglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. *polilayer peptidoglycan
D. lipopolysaccharides
E. outer membrane
577. Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in
A. *procaryotes only.
B. eucaryotes only.
C. fungi
D. protozoa
E. both procaryotes and eucaryotes.
578. Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in
A. *procaryotes only.
B. eucaryotes only.
C. fungi
D. protozoa
E. both procaryotes and eucaryotes
579. Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells
A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
B. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
C. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
D. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.
E. have monolayers of peptidoglycan
580. Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells
A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
B. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
C. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
D. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.
E. have monolayers of peptidoglycan
581. Choose method of staining of bacterial spores:
A. Staining by mеthylene blue
B. *Staining by Auesko’s method
C. Staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method
D. Staining by Gram method
E. Staining by crystal violet
582. Choose rod-shaped bacteria:
A. *Clostridium
B. Meningococcus
C. Vibrio
D. Borrelia
E. Sarcina
583. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity
B. They are formed by gram-positive rods
C. They can be killed by being heated to 121 °C for 15 minutes
D. They contain much less water than bacterial cells
E. They are formed by some gram-positive cocci
584. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXEPT:
A. *Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity
B. They are formed by gram-positive rods
C. They can be killed by being heated to 120 C? for 15 minutes
D. They contain much less water than bacterial cells
E. No correct answer
585. Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer
Mycoplasma pncumoniae isn't visible in the Gram stain because it doesn't have a cell wall
No true answer
Endospore formation is a property of:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. *Clostridium botulinum
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Endospore formation is a property of:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. *Clostridium botulinum
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Endospores of bacillus are necessary for:
A. Defence from acid in stomach
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. *Survival in an external environment
E. Survival into human and animal’s organism
Fimbriae
A. *attach bacteria to various surfaces.
B. cause bacteria move through fluids.
C. sense changes in nutrient concentration.
D. are pathways for the secretion of exoenzymes.
E. cause diseases
Gram positive cells
A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
B. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
C. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
D. have inclusions that traps crystal violet stain.
E. have monolayer of peptidoglycan that traps crystal violet stain
Gram positive cells
A. have thick, homogeneous cell walls.
B. have large amounts of teichoic acids.
C. do not have an outer membrane.
D. do not have LPS
E. *all of the above are true.
Indicate gram-negative bacteria.
A. Neisseria and Treponema
B. Salmonella and Shigella
C. Vibrio and Spirocheta
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer
Indicate gram-negative bacteria.
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. *Neisseria meningitidis
D. Micrococcus luteus
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Indicate gram-positive bacteria.
B.
C.
D.
E.
586.
587.
588.
589.
590.
591.
592.
593.
594.
Escherichia coli
Neisseria meningitidis
*Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio cholerae
Treponema palloidum
Indicate gram-positive bacteria.
A. *Streptococcus
B. Vibrio
C. Borrelia
D. Neisseria
E. Salmonella
Indicate gram-positive bacteria.
A. Salmonella and Shigella
B. *Micrococcus and Tetracoccus
C. Vibrio and Spirocheta
D. Borrelia and Leptospira
E. Neisseria and Treponema
Indicate gram-positive bacteria.
A. Neisseria and Treponema
B. Vibrio and Spirocheta
C. Borrelia and Leptospira
D. Salmonella and Shigella
E. *Bacillus and Clostridium
manner similar to human cells
A. Bacteria are prokaryotic (ie, they have one molecule of DNA, are haploid, and have no
nuclear membrane), whereas human cells are eukaryotic (ie, they have multiple
chromosomes, are diploid, and have a nuclear membrane)
B. *Bacteria derive their energy by oxidative phosphorylation within mitochondria in a
C. Bacterial and human ribosomes are of different sizes and chemical compositions
D. Bacterial cells possess peptidoglycan, whereas human cells do not
E. No correct answer
Mark rod-shaped bacteria:
A. Vibrio
B. Treponema
C. Borrelia
D. *Escherichia coli
E. Staphylococcus
Mark rod-shaped bacteria:
A. Sarcina
B. Spirilla
C. *Mycobacterium
D. Streptococcus
E. Neisseria
Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to:
A. *mitochondria of eukaryotes.
B. lysosomes of eukaryotes.
C. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes.
D. polyribosomes of eukaryotes
E. none of the above.
Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include:
A. Clostridium species
B. Escherichia species
C. Bacillus species
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
595.
596.
597.
598.
599.
600.
601.
602.
D. *A and C
E. A, B, and C
603. Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include:
A. Clostridium tetanus
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Bacillus species
D. *All of them
E. None of them
604. Morphological classification of rod-shaped bacteria:
A. monobacilli and monobacteria
B. diplobacteria and diplobacilli
C. streptobacteria and streptobacilli
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer
605. Morpholohgical classification of spherical bacteria:
A. monococci and diplococci
B. streptococci and staphylococci
C. tetracocci and sarcina
D. *Correct all
E. No correct answer
606. Peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall of:
A. *gram-positive bacteria.
B. gram-negative bacteria.
C. fungi.
D. protozoa.
E. none of the above
607. Phase Contrast microscopy
A. Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve contrast
in the specimen.
B. *Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell with
different refractive indices.
C. Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phases of the cell.
D. Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them.
E. Can examinate only fixing objects.
608. Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because
A. they are inherited from one generation to the next.
B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage.
C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant.
D. they may carry genes that code sugarlytic enzymes
E. *All of the above.
609. Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because
A. they are inherited from one generation to the next.
B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage.
C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant.
D. *all of the above.
E. none of the above
610. Polyphosphate inclusion bodies
A. protect bacteria from excessive drying.
B. *supply of nutritives and energy
C. turn reddish brown when stained with iodine.
D. are composed of polymers of glucose.
E. no correct answer
611. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is best used to study
small internal cell structures.
*surface morphology.
cytoplasma
nucleoid
all of the above.
Show diplococci:
A. Vibrio
B. Treponema
C. *Neisseria
D. Borrelia
E. Clostridium
Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means:
A. they are shaped like bent rods.
B. they have a corkscrew shape.
C. *they do not have just one shape.
D. they are not either bacilli or cocci.
E. they are not either vibrio or spirochete
Spherical bacteria arranged in a chain are known as
A. spirochetes
B. bacilli
C. staphylococci.
D. streptobacilli
E. *streptococci
Spores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. *Survival in an external environment
D. Defence from fagocytosis
E. Defence from acid in stomach
Spores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. *Survival in an external environment
D. Defence from fagocytosis
E. Defence from acid in stomack
Syphilis is caused by which of the following?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. *Treponema pallidum
D. Serratia marcesans
E. Treponema Vincentii
The 70S procaryotic ribosomes consist of
A. two 40S subunits.
B. *a 50S and a 30S subunit.
C. a 40S and a 30S subunit.
D. a 50S and a 20S subunit.
E. a 30S and 70S subunit.
The bacteria of what family have a capsule constantly?
A. shigella
B. salmonella
C. *klebsiella
D. brucella
E. shigella
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
612.
613.
614.
615.
616.
617.
618.
619.
620. The bacterial capsule is:
A. A form of storage granule within the cell.
B. a long thin protein rod that is used for attachment.
C. *A coating on the exterior of many cells.
D. a long thin protein rod that is used for bacterial exchange of genetic material.
E. Always present on a cell that has the ability to form a capsule.
621. The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is composed primarily of
A. chitin.
B. cellulose,
C. starch.
D. protein.
E. *peptidoglycan.
622. The construction and use of the compound microscope is attributed to:
A. *Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
B. Louis Pasteur.
C. Robert Koch.
D. Ferdinand Cohn.
E. Paul Ehrlich.
623. The first person to see bacteria did his work mostly in what century?
A. 14th
B. 16th
C. *17th
D. 18th
E. 19th
624. The first techniques of sterilization were introduced by:
A. *Louis Pasteur.
B. Robert Koch.
C. Ferdinand Cohn.
D. John Needham.
E. Gerhardt Domagk.
625. The form of coffee corn is had:
A. staphylococcus and streptococcus
B. pneumococcus and monococcus
C. *meningococcus and gonococcus
D. peptococcus and peptostreptococcus
E. tetracoccus and sarcina
626. The fourth stage of making of a staining smear is:
A. Fixation
B. Washing
C. *Staining
D. Drying
E. Preparation of smear
627. The major function of the cell membrane is:
A. To keep water from entering the cell, which causes it to burst.
B. To bind lipids in the hydrophobic inner layer.
C. To trap energy so the cell can use it for the functions of life.
D. *To protect the internal components of a cell from the chaos outside of a cell.
E. No correct answer
628. The significance of the plasma membrane is that
A. *it selectively allows some molecules to pass into the organism
B. it prevents movement of molecules out of the organism
C. it is the site of protein synthesis
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
629. The structure of DNA was discovered by:
A. Watson and Griffith
B. *Watson and Crick
C. Darwin and Crick
D. Pasteur and Koch
E. Baltimore and Flemming
630. The substage condenser
A. changes the wavelength of the light reaching the specimen
B. *focuses light on the specimen
C. decreases the amount of light reaching the specimen
D. eluminate the specimen
E. magnificates size of specimen
631. The third stage of making of a staining smear is:
A. *Fixation
B. Washing
C. Staining
D. Drying
E. Preparation of smear
632. What are plasmides of bacteria?
A. circular DNA in nucleoid
B. *circular DNA in a cytoplasm
C. circular DNA in a shell
D. fragments DNA in volutin granules
E. circular RNA in cytoplasm
633. What bacteria have the spiral form:
A. staphylococcus
B. streptococcus
C. *spirillum
D. bacillus
E. sarcina
634. What disease do Staphylococci cause?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Mumps
C. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis
D. *Sepsis
E. Tuberculosis
635. What disease do Streptococci cause?
A. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis
B. *Scarlet fever
C. Enteric fever
D. Diphtheria
E. Flue
636. What disease do Streptococci cause?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Mumps
C. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis
D. *Rheumatic fever
E. Tuberculosis
637. What disease does Neisseria meningitidis cause?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Scarlet fever
C. Cholera
D. *Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis
E. Nodamura disease
638. What does Kingdom Prokaryotae include:
A. *bacteria.
B. protozoa.
C. fungi.
D. viruses
E. all of the above.
639. What is a compound microscope?
A. A microscope that has one lenses.
B. *A microscope that has two sets of lenses: an ocular lens and an eye-piece.
C. A microscope whose lenses are concave.
D. A microscope whose lenses are convex.
E. No correct answer
640. What is a microorganism?
A. A microorganism is a small organism that takes in and breaks down food for energy and
641.
642.
643.
644.
645.
nutrients, excretes unused food as waste, and is capable of reproduction.
B. A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in plants.
C. A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in animals.
D. *A microorganism is a term that refers to a cell.
E. No correct answer
What is a pathogenic microorganism?
A. A microorganism that multiplies
B. A microorganism that grows in a host
C. A microorganism that is small
D. *A disease-causing microorganism
E. No correct answer
What is a plasmid?
A. *Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA
B. Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA
C. A bacterial chromosome
D. Bacterial inclusion
E. Part of the ribosome
What is a plasmid?
A. *Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA
B. Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA
C. A bacterial chromosome
D. Baterial inclusion
E. Bacterial spores
What is a smear?
A. *A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is spread on a slide.
B. A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is dyed.
C. A smear is a process in which a specimen is moved beneath a microscope.
D. A smear is a process used to identify a specimen.
E. No correct answer
What is Archaea?
A. Archaea is a classification for organisms that have two nuclei.
B. Archaea is a classification for organisms that use phagocytosis.
C. *Archaea is a classification of an organism that identifies prokaryotes that do not have
peptidoglycan cell walls.
D. Archaea is a classification of an organism that identifies prokaryotes that have peptidoglycan
cell walls.
E. Archaea is a classification of Protozoa.
646. What is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic organisms?
A. the presence of a cell membrane
B. *the presence of a nuclear membrane
C. "naked" DNA molecule
D. the presence of cytoplasm
E. No correct answer
647. What is the function of an illuminator?
A. To control the temperature of the specimen
B. To keep the specimen moist
C. *An illuminator is the light source used to observe a specimen under a microscope
D. To keep the specimen dry
E. No correct answer
648. What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?
A. Allow the bacterium to make hundreds of "seeds" to spread on the wind.
B. Help the bacterium to differentiate into faster growing stages of bacteria.
C. Allow the bacterium to survive the absence of oxygen.
D. *Allow the bacterium to survive the bad condition (drying,lack of nutrition).
E. All of the above.
649. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation?
A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
B. For examinate biochemical properties
C. For study morphology of bacteria
D. *For study motility of bacteria
E. For study cultural properties of bacteria
650. What is the value of a wet-mount preparation?
A. For study cultural properties of bacteria
B. *For study motility of bacteria
C. For study morphology of bacteria
D. For examinate biochemical properties
E. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
651. What is unique about the Mycoplasma bacterial group?
A. *they lack cell walls
B. they lack a cell membrane
C. they have organelles
D. they are prokaryotes
E. they have ribosome
652. What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. Escherichia coli
B. *Staphylococcus aureus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Yersinia pestis
E. None of above
653. What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. Salmonella
B. Leptospira
C. Yersinia
D. Clostridia
E. *Streptococcus
654. What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. Bordetella
B. Treponema
C. *Micrococcus
D. Vibrio
E. Shigella
655. What microbes do belong to coccal forms?
A. *Neisseria
B. Borrelia
C. Corynebacteria
D. Proteus
E. Spirilla
656. What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Neisseria
B. Borrelia
C. Corynebacteria
D. Proteus
E. *Spirilla
657. What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Bordetella
B. *Treponema
C. Micrococcus
D. Sarcina
E. Shigella
658. What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Salmonella
B. *Leptospira
C. Yersinia
D. Clostridia
E. Streptococcus
659. What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Bordetella
B. Clostridia
C. Micrococcus
D. *Vibrio
E. Shigella
660. ?What morphological structure is responsible for bacterial motility?
A. Pilli
B. Fimbria
C. *Flagella
D. Capsule
E. LPS
661. What shape is not peculiar for bacteria:
A. round or oval
B. rod or stick
C. *icosaedral
D. spiral
E. No correct answer
662. When would you use a wet mount?
A. A wet mount is used to observe a dead specimen under a micro-scope.
B. *A wet mount is used to observe a live specimen under a microscope.
C. A wet mount is used to observe an inorganic specimen under a microscope.
D. A wet mount is the first step in preparing a specimen.
E. A wet mount is the last step in preparing a specimen
663. Which of the following bacteria don’t contain cell wall?
A. Klebsiella
B. *Mycoplasma
C. Ricketsia
D. Slaphylococcus.
E. Treponema.
664. Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?
A. *Mycoplasma.
B. Treponema.
C. Slaphylococcus.
D. Klebsiella.
E. Salmonella
665. Which of the following does NOT apply to plasmids?
A. *They are essential to growth of the cell.
B. They are composed of DNA.
C. They multiply independently of the chromosome.
D. They may pass from cell to cell in recombinations.
E. They may be included into chromosome
666. Which of the following is NOT equivalent to 10 micrometers.
A. 0.0001 cm
B. 0.01 mm
C. *10 nm
D. 10,000 nm
E. 100,000 Angstroms
667. Which of the following is not true about bacterial flagella?
A. Most of their length consists of a hollow, rigid protein tube.
B. They are constructed largely of a single protein called flagellin.
C. *They spin like wheels, either clockwise or counterclockwise.
D. They use cytoplasmic ATP as their primary energy source.
E. All of the above.
668. Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers?
A. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall.
B. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells.
C. *They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture.
D. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages.
E. They help bacteria survive inside organism
669. Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers?
A. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall.
B. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells.
C. *They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture.
D. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages.
E. All of the above.
670. Which of the following materials is NOT a bacterial storage granule:
A. Sulfur
B. Glycogen
C. Phosphorous
D. *Ribosomes
E. Volutin
671. Which of the following structures is unique to prokaryotic organisms?
A. mitochondria
B. ribosomes
C. cell wall
D. *peptidoglycan cell wall
E. cell membrane
672. Which of the following structures is unique to prokaryotic organisms?
A. mitochondria
B. ribosomes
C. cell wall
D. *peptidoglycan cell wall
E. cell membrane
673. Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria most of all?
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. *by absence of cell wall
C. by intracellular parasite
D. by tinctorial properties
E. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
674. Which with these substances can damage bacteria cell wall :
A. sulphonamides
B. *lysozyme
C. interferone
D. alcohol
E. streptomycin
675. Who did advance the concept of Contagium vivum?
A. *Fracastorius.
B. Pollender.
C. Louis Pasteur.
D. Lazzaro Spallanzani.
E. Edward Jenner
676. Who did coin the term vaccine?
A. Edward Jenner.
B. Kitasato.
C. Ehrlich.
D. *Louis Pasteur,
E. Robert Koch.
677. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. *Louis Pasteur.
B. Semple.
C. Edward Jenner
D. Paul Ehrlich.
E. Wasserman.
678. Who did discovere bacillus of tuberculosis?
A. Hansen.
B. Loeffler.
C. *Robert Koch.
D. Bruce.
E. Pasteur
679. Why bacteria are prokaryotic organism?
A. A bacterium is a multicell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
B. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
C. A bacterium is a multicell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
D. *A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus
E. No correct answer
680. Why is a bacterium called a prokaryotic organism?
A. *A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
B. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
C. C. A bacterium is a multicell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
D. A bacterium is a multicell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
E. No correct answer
681. According to the source of energy there are such bacteria:
A. *chemotrophs and phototrophs
lithotrophs and organotrophs
chemotrophs and heterotrophs
autotrophs and chemotrophs
autotrophs and heterotrophs
According to the types of bacterial respiration such groups of bacteria may exist:
A. obligate aerobes
B. obligate anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. capneic
E. *all answers are correct
All nutrient media are elective, EXCEPT:
A. Mueller’s medium
B. Ru’s medium
C. Leffler’s medium
D. 1 % alkaline peptone water
E. *blood MPA
All of bacteria belong to obligate aerobes, EXCEPT:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Micrococci spp.
D. *Clostridium tetani
E. Vibrio cholerae
All of the listed microorganisms are facultative anaerobes, EXCEPT:
A. *Clostridium botulinum
B. Escherichia spp.
C. Salmonella spp.
D. Shigella spp.
E. Staphylococci spp.
Anaerobic microorganisms may be selected by:
A. Fortner’s method
B. *Veynberg’s method
C. Shukevich’s method
D. Pasteur’s method
E. Leffler’s method
At what temperature agar-agar melts and becomes thick?
A. *100 °С and 40 °С
B. 90 °С and 70 °С
C. 80 °С and 60 °С
D. 60 °С and 30 °С
E. 50 °С and 20 °С
Bacteria that form R-colonies have all features, EXCEPT:
A. *does not have capsules
B. have capsules
C. sometimes does not have flagella
D. low or absent virulence
E. easily phagocytable
Bacteria that form S-colonies have all features, EXCEPT
A. *easily phagocytable
B. poorly phagocytable
C. biochemically more active
D. isolated in the acute stage of disease
E. have capsules
Choose a correct answer according to the types of microbial decontamination:
B.
C.
D.
E.
682.
683.
684.
685.
686.
687.
688.
689.
690.
sterilization
disinfections
antiseptics
*all answer are right
all answer are wrong
Choose among listed media, differential diagnostic ones.
A. MPA
B. Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
C. MPB
D. glucose MPB
E. *Giss’s media
Choose bacteria susceptible to desiccation.
A. *Gononococci
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Shigella
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. Salmonella typhi
Choose capneic bacteria:
A. Shigella dysentery
B. *Brucella abortus
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar
A. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride
B. MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride
C. MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride
D. MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride
E. MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium
Choose microaerophils:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Escherichia coli
C. *Lactobacillus acidophilus
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Salmonella paratyphi A
Choose obligate aerobes among these microorganisms:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp.
Choose obligate anaerobes among these microbes:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. *Bacteroides spp.
D. Rickettsia spp.
E. Corynebacterium spp.
Choose obligate anaerobes:
A. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum
B. Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. Brucella melitensis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
691.
692.
693.
694.
695.
696.
697.
698.
699. Choose the best destroying exhaust cultures of bacteria:
A. sterilization by boiling
B. sterilizations heat oven
C. *sterilizations in an autoclave
D. sterilization by ethylene oxide
E. sterilization by ultraviolet light
700. Differential diagnostic media are used for:
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility of bacteria
B. Accumulations of microbial biomass
C. Examination of microorganisms pathogenicity
D. Studies of antigen structure of microorganisms
E. *Examination of bacteria enzyme activity
701. During a Log-phase the division of bacteria takes place:
A. delay of division
B. *at constant rate
C. more bacteria die, then appears
D. division does not take place
E. all answers are incorrect
702. Endo’s medium consist of:
A. *MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsin
B. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsin
C. MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
D. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
E. MPA, 5 % lactose, indicator bromthymol blue
703. Enzymes that are produced outside from bacteria are called:
A. endoenzymes
B. *exoenzymes
C. heteroenzymes
D. isoenzymes
E. all answers are correct
704. Ethylene oxide may be used for sterilization of all equipment, EXCEPT:
A. equipment for anesthesia
B. *nutrient media
C. prostheses
D. endoscope instruments
E. catgut
705. For abolition of bacteria in the air of operating room such methods may be used:
A. gamma-rays
B. X-ray
C. *ultraviolet Light
D. gamma-rays
E. gas method
706. For chemical sterilization by gases all of them are used, EXCEPT:
A. formaldehyde
B. chloroform
C. beta-propiolactone
D. ethylene oxide
E. *methane
707. Free oxygen is toxic for bacteria, because it:
A. kills a bacterium
B. *detains their growth
C. halts spore formation
D. inhibit toxins production
E. inhibit enzymes production
708. Heat oven may be used for sterilization of all objects, EXCEPT:
A. tubes
B. Petry’s plates
C. *rubber corks
D. metallic instruments
E. heat-resistant powders
709. How many classes of bacterial enzymes do you know?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. *6
E. 2
710. In burner’s flame it is possible to sterilize everything, EXCEPT:
A. forceps
B. bacteriological loops
C. *tampons for material collection
D. slide glasses
E. cover slip
711. In depending on substrate that is donor of electrons there are such bacteria:
A. lithotrophs and chemotrophs
B. chemotrophs and heterotrophs
C. autotrophs and chemotrophs
D. chemotrophs and phototrophs
E. *lithotrophs and organotrophs
712. In depending on the source of carbon such groups of bacteria are:
A. lithotrophs and organotrophs
B. chemotrophs and phototrophs
C. chemotrophs and heterotrophs
D. autotrophs and chemotrophs
E. *autotrophs and heterotrophs
713. Indicate aerotolerant bacteria:
A. *Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
714. Indicate among these microbes obligate anaerobic bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.
B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp.
C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
715. Indicate composition of semi-solid Giss’s media
A. *MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicators water blue with rosolic acid)
B. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicator Andrede
C. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an
indicator diamond green
D. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicator – complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate
E. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an
indicator phenol red
716. Indicate halophilic bacterium:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. *Vibrio parahaemolyticus
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Shigella flexneri
717. Indicate the basic components of Ploskirev’s medium.
A. MPB, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
B. MPA, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
C. MPB, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
D. *MPA, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
E. MPA, glucose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
718. Indicate the capneic bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. *Brucella abortus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Lactobacillus spp.
E. Clostridium perfringens
719. Indicate the composition of blood agar.
A. *MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals
B. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator bromthymol blue
C. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator fuchsin
D. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator neutral red
E. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator eosin
720. Indicate the composition of Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for cultivation of anaerobes:
A. MPA, pieces of liver or meat
B. MPB, yolk, medium is covered with vaseline oil
C. *Hottinger’s broth, pieces of liver or meat, glucose, medium is covered with vaseline oil
D. Hottinger’s broth, pieces of brain tissues
E. Serum broth, pieces of liver or meat, , medium is covered with vaseline oil
721. Indicate the composition of liquid Giss’s media
A. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator bromthymol dark blue
B. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator eosin
C. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator is methylene blue
D. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator neutral red
E. *1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), indicator of Andrede
722. Indicate the composition of Olkenitsky’s medium?
A. MPA, lactose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate,
urea, an indicator is phenol red
B. MPA, saccharose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate,
urea, an indicator is phenol red
C. MPA, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate,
urea, an indicator is phenol red
D. MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt),
sodium thiosulphate, an indicator is phenol red
E. *MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt),
sodium thiosulphate, urea, an indicator is phenol red.
723. Indicate the growth signs of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium:
A. formation of diffuse turbidity
B. formation of pellicle
C. formation of sediment
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
724. Indicate the necessary components of Levin’s medium:
A. MPB, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin .
B. MPA, saccharose, indicators methylene blue, eosin.
C. MPB, saccharose, indicators methylene dark, eosin.
D. *MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin.
E. MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, fuchsin.
725. Indicate the type of bacterial cell division:
A. And. passing ahead
B. In. synchronous
C. P. with the passing ahead division of nucleoid
D. **all of answers are correct
E. all of answers are wrong
726. Indicate vitamins necessary for bacterial growth:
A. Biotin
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
727. Is it necessary to examine the structure of colonies. What method can you offer?
A. *In the passing light at the small increase of microscope
B. In an electron microscope
C. By a "hanging" drop technique
D. By a phase-contrast microscope
E. By the immersion system of microscope
728. It is necessary to choose the medium for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Endo’s and Levin’s media
B. Meat-peptone agar, meat-peptone broth
C. *Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar, Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
D. Coagulated serum, мeat-peptone gelatin
E. Ascitic agar, serum agar
729. It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of juice. Choose its optimum mode:
A. 70 °С during 5-10 min
B. 70 °С during 30 min
C. 80 °С during 60 min
D. 80 °С during 30 min
E. *80 °С during 5-10 min
730. It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of milk. Choose its optimum mode:
A. *70 °С during 30 min
B. 70 °С during 60 min
C. 70 °С during 90 min
D. 60 °С during 30 min
E. 60 °С during 60 min
731. ?It is possible to sterilize in burner’s flame:
A. liquid nutrient media
B. physiological solution
C. *forceps
D. solid nutrient media
E. catheters
732. Mechanism of antibacterial effect of 37-40 % formaldehyde solution of:
A. destruction of cellular lipids.
B. *Interaction with protein amino groups and their denaturation
C. destruction of cellular endotoxin
D. destruction of cellular polysaccharides.
E. Cell dehydration
733. Mechanism of high temperatures antibacterial action:
A. damage of ribosomes
B. destruction of tertiary structure of albumens
C. destruction of cytoplasm membranes
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
734. Microorganisms that require the high concentrations of salts for their cultivation are called:
A. Acidophilic
B. *Halophilic
C. Oxyphilic
D. Mesophilic
E. Osmiephilic
735. Microorganisms, which are able to cause diseases in human, belong to:
A. chmemoorganoautotrophs
B. *chemoorganoheterotrophs
C. chemolithoheterotrophs
D. chemolithoautotrophs
E. heterophotoorganotrophs
736. Most of non-spore-forming perish at a temperature:
A. *58-60 °С 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 °С in 2-4 ч
C. 40-50 °С in 1 ч
D. 10-20 °С in 5-8 ч
E. 20-30 °С in 30-60 minutes
737. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria belong to what group according to their type of respiration?
A. Obligate aerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. *Microaerophils
E. Capneic
738. Non-inoculated Endo’s medium has color:
A. bright red
B. *poorly-rose
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. colorless
739. One of the asepsis measures is disinfection. What is it – a concept "disinfection"?
A. deleting bacterial and fungal spores of the objects of environment
B. elimination of pathogenic microorganisms in a wound
C. *decontamination of pathogenic microorganisms is the
D. diminishing the degree of microbial contamination of skin and mucous membranes
E. elimination viruses in the environment
740. Peculiarities of S-colonies of bacteria:
A. *smooth, convex surface
gyrose surface
fibred consistency
edges are rosette-like
have capsules
Respiration of bacteria is a process:
A. biosynthesis of protein molecules
B. *biooxidation with formation of ATP
C. biosynthesis of carbohydrates
D. biosynthesis of lipids
E. biosynthesis of microelements
Respiration of bacteria is accompanied:
A. *by formation of energy
B. by the loss of energy
C. by accumulation of CO2
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
Rubber and polymeric wares can be sterilized immersing them in:
A. *solution of dexon on 45 min at 18 °С
B. solution of dexon on 25 min at 18 °С
C. solution of dexon on 15 min at 18 °С
D. solution of dexon on 45 min at 56 °С
E. solution of dexon on 25 min at 56 °С
Salts of heavy metals will cause in a bacterial cell:
A. destruction of lipids
B. destroying the polysaccharides
C. DNA destroying
D. Protein synthesis disturbances
E. *coagulation of protein
Special nutrient medium is:
A. Blood agar
B. Serum agar
C. Ascitic agar
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
Specify, to what pressure in an autoclave a temperature 100 °С corresponds:
A. *0 аtm.
B. 0,5 аtm.
C. 1 аtm.
D. 1,5 аtm.
E. 2 аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 112 °С corresponds:
A. 0 аtm.
B. *0,5 аtm.
C. 1 аtm.
D. 1,5 аtm.
E. 2 аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 121 °С corresponds:
A. 0 аtm.
B. 0,5 аtm.
C. *1 аtm.
D. 1,5 аtm.
E. 2 аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 127 °С corresponds:
B.
C.
D.
E.
741.
742.
743.
744.
745.
746.
747.
748.
749.
0 аtm.
0,5 аtm.
1 аtm.
*1,5 аtm.
2 аtm.
Specify, to what pressures in an autoclave a temperature 131 °С corresponds:
A. 0 аtm.
B. 0,5 аtm.
C. 1 аtm.
D. 1,5 аtm.
E. *2 аtm.
Sterilization may be conducted by the following methods:
A. action of moist steam
B. filtration
C. radiation
D. pasteurization
E. *all answers are correct
Such enzymes prevail in a bacterial cell:
A. oxydoreductases
B. constitutive
C. hydrolases
D. *adaptive
E. ligases
Such groups of bacteria are existed according to their respiration:
A. capneic
B. microaerophils
C. anaerobes
D. aerobes
E. *all of them
Such nutrient media belong to universal ones:
A. *MPB and MPA
B. Mannitol salt agar Levin’s medium
C. Serum MPA and 1% alkaline peptone water
D. Endo’ medium and blood agar
E. Ploskirev’s medium and serum broth
Surface-tension-reducing agents (detergents) can cause:
A. violation of spores’ formation.
B. violation of flagella structure
C. violation of capsule formation.
D. Violation of nucleoid function
E. *violation of CPM structure and cell wall structure
Synthesis of what cell molecules needs the most of energy?
A. nucleic acids
B. lipids
C. polysaccharides
D. *proteins
E. amino acid
Temperature optimum for mesophilic bacteria:
A. 10-15 1 C
B. 20-30 2C
C. *30-37 3С
D. 40-50 4C
E. 50-60 5C
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
750.
751.
752.
753.
754.
755.
756.
757.
758. Temperature optimum for psychrophilic bacteria:
A. *10-25 1C
B. 20-30 2C
C. 30-37 С3
D. 40-50 4C
E. 50-60 5C
759. Temperature optimum for thermophilic bacteria:
A. 10-20 1C
B. 20-30 0C
C. 30-37 С3
D. 40-50 4C
E. *50-60 5C
760. The mechanism of action of iodine consists of:
A. destruction of lipids
B. destroying the polysaccharides
C. DNA depolarization
D. *oxidization of protein active groups and their denaturizing
E. violation of proteins synthesis
761. There are such demands to the nutrient media, EXCEPT:
A. presence of nutrients
B. sterility
C. *certain color
D. certain viscidity
E. transparency
762. There are such mechanisms of penetration different substances into the cell, EXCEPT:
A. facilitated diffusion
B. *transformations of chemical groups
C. passive diffusion
D. active transport
E. ionic transport
763. To Chlorine which are used for disinfection, belong all preparation, EXCEPT:
A. 0,2-1,0 % solutions of Chloramin B.
B. 5 % water solutions of calcium hypochloride.
C. 0,05-0,1 % solution of trichloroisocyanuric acid.
D. 0,1-0,2 % sulfochlorantine solution
E. *3-5 % solution of carbolic acid.
764. To dyes, which can inhibit bacterial growth , belong:
A. diamond green.
B. rivanol.
C. acriflavin.
D. none of them.
E. *all of them.
765. To the universal nutrient mediums belong:
A. serum MPA and serum MPB.
B. Endo’s medium and Ploskirev’s medium
C. *MPA and MPB
D. Blood MPA and TCBS medium
E. Yolk salt agar and Ascitic agar
766. Wares from polymeric materials may be sterilized by such method:
A. mechanical
B. *chemical
C. biological
D. pasteurization
E. in a heat oven
767. What is tyndalization?
A. single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 30 minutes
B. *sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
C. sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
D. sterilization by water bath 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other
E. sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during a hour 5-6 days one after the other
768. What bacteria are very susceptible to drying?
A. Staphylococci
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. *Meningococci
D. Shigella
E. Salmonella
769. What bacteria do belong to obligate anaerobes?
A. *Clostridium septicum, Bacteroides fragilis
B. Salmonella schottmuelleri
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Proteus rettgeri
E. Francisella tularensis
770. What bacterial colony?
A. Medium which is inoculated with bacteria, where different microorganisms grow
B. Growth of microbes of one species on different nutrient medium
C. *Macroscopically visible growth of microbes (posterity of one bacterial cell) on a solid
nutrient medium
D. Visible growth of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium
E. Visible growth of bacteria on the slant meat-peptone agar
771. What can be the form of rough surfaces of colonies of R-form of bacteria?
A. *wrinkled
B. gyrose
C. warty
D. rosette-shaped
E. all answers are correct
772. What color do Giss’s media have, if microbes utilize sugars?
A. *red
B. green
C. violet
D. brown
E. a color does not change
773. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *rose
774. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. *colorless
C. rose
D. brown
E. green
775. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. *rose
D. brown
E. green
776. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have?
A. *dark blue
B. colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
777. What color does a simple medium – MPA– have?
A. red
B. *yellow
C. greenish
D. violet
E. dark blue
778. What color does a simple medium – MPB– have?
A. red
B. dark blue
C. greenish
D. violet
E. *yellow
779. What color does no inoculated Levin’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. poorly-rose
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. *violet
780. What color does non-inoculated Olkenitsky’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. *pink
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. violet
781. What components may be the source of nitrogen in nutrient media?
A. meat
B. fish
C. meat and bone flour
D. casein
E. *all answers are correct
782. What elements can form macroergic bounds?
A. phosphorus
B. sulfur
C. selenium
D. *right answers A and B
E. right answers A, B, C
783. What enzymes do control the substrate splitting with joining the water molecules?
A. Oxydoreductases
B. Isomerases
C. Ligases
D. *Hydrolases
E. Transferases
784. What enzymes do provide oxydation-reduction reactions?
A. Hydrolases
Isomerases
Transferases
Lyases
*Oxydoreductases
What enzymes do provide the reactions of groups of atoms transfer?
A. *Transferases
B. Ligases
C. Lyases
D. Oxydoreductases
E. Isomerases
What enzymes localized in cytoplasm membrane do provide the facilitated diffusion?
A. transferases
B. proteases
C. *permeases
D. hydrolases
E. ligases
What factors do not influence on the bacterial reproduction?
A. age of bacteria
B. composition of nutrient medium
C. medium рН
D. *year season
E. temperatures, aeration
What finished products do appear in the liquid Giss’s media after decomposition of sugars?
A. acid
B. alkali
C. gas
D. *acid and gas
E. fixing the finished goods is not succeeded
What finished products does appear in the semi-solid Giss’s media after sugar utilization?
A. acid
B. alkali
C. gas
D. *acid and gas
E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded
What from the listed words is a name of enzyme?
A. Saccharose
B. *Saccharase
C. Glucose
D. Maltose
E. Galactose
What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen?
A. Andrede
B. Neutral red
C. *Phenol red
D. Bromthymol blue
E. Thymol blue
What is a biological catalyst?
A. nucleic acids
B. *enzymes
C. metabolites
D. Plasmids
E. Transposons
What is a chemical origin of agar-agar?
B.
C.
D.
E.
785.
786.
787.
788.
789.
790.
791.
792.
793.
Lipids
Proteins
*Polysaccharides
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
What is a chemical origin of gelatin?
A. Polysaccharides
B. Lipids
C. *Proteins
D. Carbohydrates
E. Amino acids
What is a name of enzyme localized inside a bacterial cell:
A. adaptive
B. *endoenzymes
C. exoenzymes
D. constitutive
E. all answers are right
What is a reason molecular oxygen toxic action according to bacteria?
A. formation of singlet oxygen
B. formation of hydrogen peroxide
C. formation of ozone
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are incorrect
What is chemical composition of prokaryotic cell?
A. Water - 50-60 %, dry weight - 40-60 %.
B. Water - 60-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %.
C. *Water - 70-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %.
D. Water - 40-50 %, dry weight - 50-60 %.
E. Water - 20-40 %, dry weight - 60-80 %.
What is chemostate?
A. synonym of term of «jar»
B. vehicle which allows to study chemical properties of bacteria
C. vehicle, in which it is possible to make sterilization of media
D. *vehicle which allows to make continuous cultivation of microorganisms in laboratory
conditions
E. vehicle which allows to study antigenic properties of bacteria
What is disinfection?
A. *Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potentially pathogenic
for human causative agents on the different objects of medium for warning transmission of
causative agents from the source of infection to the receptive organism
B. Complex measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for
human in the air for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of infection
to the receptive organism
C. Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for
human in his body for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of
infection to the receptive organism
D. Complex of measures which prevent spread of potential pathogens from human body in an
medium
E. Complex of measures for complete, partial or selective elimination of potential pathogens for
human in the water for warning transmission of causative agents from the source of
infection to the receptive organism
What is raw material for agar-agar obtaining?
A. Skin
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
794.
795.
796.
797.
798.
799.
800.
Meat
*Algae
Arthral cartilage
Bones
What is the minimum area of washings for control of disinfection quality?
A. not less than, 50 см2.
B. not less than, 100 см2.
C. not less than, 150 см2.
D. *not less than, 200 см2.
E. not less than, 250 см2.
What mechanism of action of ultraviolet light against bacteria?
A. does not have any effect according to the cell
B. affect RNA molecules
C. *affect DNA molecules and as a result forms thymine dimers
D. affect the ribosomes
E. affect the structure of cell wall
What mechanism of ultrasound action against bacteria?
A. destroys cell DNA
B. destroys cell RNA
C. destroys cell mesosome
D. *forms a cavitation cavity, filled in the pair of liquid, with high pressure inside; cytoplasm
structures are destroyed
E. an ultrasound does not influence on bacteria
What mechanism reproduction of bacteria is:
A. *by a simple transversal division
B. by a mitosis
C. by spore formation
D. by sexual way
E. by a disjunctive way
What medium is it possible to use for checking the utilization of a few sugars?
A. Ru’s medium
B. Leffler’s medium
C. *Giss’s media
D. Ploskirev’s medium
E. End’s medium
What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes?
A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi
D. Brucella abortus
E. Lactobacillus acidophilus
What part of dry weight of the cell does belong to protein?
A. 15 %.
B. 35 %.
C. *55 %.
D. 75 %.
E. 95 %
What phase is characterized by high speed of bacterial division and increasing their number?
A. Stationary
B. *Exponential
C. Initial
D. Death
E. Expotential
B.
C.
D.
E.
801.
802.
803.
804.
805.
806.
807.
808.
809. What phase of microbial growth in periodic culture does not exist?
A. Initial
B. Exponential
C. *Accumulations
D. Stationary
E. Decline
810. What signs of hemolytic activity of bacteria are present on blood MPA?
A. appearance of areas of darkening on a mat red background
B. the changes of medium color
C. appearance of bright red colonies of microbes, if they cause haemolysis
D. *appearance of colorless areas surround the colonies on mat red background if the have
811.
812.
813.
814.
815.
816.
817.
hemolytic activity
E. appearance of colorless colonies
What stage of meat water preparing is the most important?
A. Making meat small
B. Filtration
C. *Extraction
D. Boiling
E. Sterilization
What substance must be added into nutrient medium for examination of bacterial proteolytic
properties?
A. Agar-agar
B. *Gelatin
C. Agarose
D. All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
What substances can repress the action of inhibitors of bacterial growth and toxin formation?
A. some amino acids
B. tweens
C. active carbon
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
What substitutes of meat are used for making the nutrient media?
A. placenta
B. blood clots
C. yeasts
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
What substrate does provide a necessary density of nutrient medium?
A. Protein
B. Lipids
C. *Agar-agar
D. Carbohydrates
E. No correct answer
What technique does belong to the biological method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. *Joint cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and Serratia marcescens, which utilizes an oxygen
intensively
B. Cultivation of anaerobes in the organism of laboratory animals
C. Cultivation of anaerobes in the chicken embryos
D. All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
What technique does belong to the chemical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
application of pyrogallol on the bottom of the jar
use the high column of nutrient medium
introduction of pieces of liver or muscles and vitamin K3 as supplement in the medium
*right answer A, B, D
What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *right answers B and C.
E. right answers A, B and C
What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation
E. a right answer is not present
What type of bacterial growth near the inner part of tube wall is there may be?
A. formation of flakes, fastened to the inner wall of test tube
B. by diffuse turbidity
C. formation of grains, fastened on the inner wall of test tube.
D. formation of pellicle on the surface of medium
E. *right answers A and C
What type of sediment may be formed by microbes in liquid nutrient media?
A. Crumble-like
B. homogeneous
C. viscid
D. mucous
E. *all answers are correct
What types of bacterial fermentation do you know?
A. Lactic-acid fermentation
B. alcoholic fermentation
C. butiric-acid fermentation
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
What vitamins are necessary for development of bacteria
A. pantothenic acid
B. Cholin
C. nicotine acid
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers of incorrect
What way does glycerin penetrate in a bacterial cell?
A. Translocation of radicals
B. Active transport
C. Diffusion
D. *Ionic transport
E. Facilitated diffusion
Where does point of replication localize, when the division of bacteria begins?
A. on DNA of cell
B. on мРNA
C. on a cytoplasm membrane
D. on a cellular wall
E. *on DNA, located in the place of connection of mesosome and cytoplasm membrane
Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis?
B.
C.
D.
E.
818.
819.
820.
821.
822.
823.
824.
825.
826.
I. Mechnikov
S. Vinogradsky
*L. Pasteur
R. Koch
E. Ru
According to the colony relief there may have such form:
A. Flat
B. Convex
C. Dome-shaped
D. Pitted
E. *All answers are correct
According to the types of bacterial respiration such groups of bacteria may exist:
A. obligate aerobes
B. obligate anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. capneic
E. *all answers are correct
According to what signs can we check the purity of selected bacterial culture?
A. Biochemical and serologic
B. *Cultural (signs of growth) and morphological
C. Tinctorial and biochemical
D. Susceptibility to phages and antibiotics
E. Right answer is not present
All nutrient media are elective, EXCEPT:
A. Mueller’s medium
B. Ru’s medium
C. Leffler’s medium
D. 1 % alkaline peptone water
E. *blood MPA
All of bacteria belong to obligate aerobes, EXCEPT:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Micrococcus spp.
D. *Clostridium tetani
E. Vibrio cholerae
All of the listed microorganisms are facultative anaerobes, EXCEPT:
A. *Clostridium botulinum
B. Escherichia spp.
C. Salmonella spp.
D. Shigella spp.
E. Staphylococci spp.
Anaerobic microorganisms may be isolated according such technique:
A. Fortner’s
B. *Veynberg’s
C. Shukevitch’s
D. Pasteur’s
E. Leffler’s
Bacteria, which form R-colonies, have all features, EXCEPT:
A. *does not have capsules
B. have capsules
C. sometimes does not have flagella
D. low or absent virulence
E. easily phagocytable
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
827.
828.
829.
830.
831.
832.
833.
834.
835. Bacteria, which form S-colonies, have all features, EXCEPT
A. *easily phagocytable
B. poorly phagocytable
C. biochemically more active
D. isolated in the acute stage of disease
E. have capsules
836. Biochemical identification is examination of bacterial species according to their:
A. *enzymes
B. toxins
C. allergens
D. plasmids
E. antigens
837. Biological identification is carrying out by:
A. allergic tests
B. *inoculation of laboratory animals
C. agglutination test
D. biochemical reactions
E. cultivation on species
838. Choose among these media differential diagnostic ones:
A. MPA
B. Kitt-Tarozz's medium
C. MPB
D. Sugar meat peptone broth
E. *Giss’ media
839. Choose capneic bacteria:
A. Shigella dysentery
B. *Brucella abortus
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
840. Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar
A. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride
B. MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride
C. MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride
D. MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride
E. MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium
841. Choose microaerophils:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Escherichia coli
C. *Lactobacillus acidophilus
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Salmonella paratyphi A
842. Choose obligate aerobes among these microorganisms:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp.
843. Choose obligate anaerobes among these microbes:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. *Bacteroides spp.
D. Rickettsia spp.
E. Corynebacterium spp.
844. Choose obligate anaerobes:
A. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum
B. Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. Brucella melitensis
845. Choose the components of Ressel’s medium:
A. *semi-solid agar, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator of WR (water blue and rosolic
846.
847.
848.
849.
850.
851.
852.
acid)
B. MPB, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic acid)
C. MPB, lactose (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator fuchsine
D. semi-solid agar, lactose (1 %), maltose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic
acid)
E. semi-solid agar, mannitol (1 %), glucose (0,1 %) and indicator WR (water blue and rosolic
acid)
Choose the method of inoculation of bacteria, based on mechanical principle?
A. Ru’s method
B. Gram’s method
C. Inoculation by a needle
D. *Drigalsky’s method
E. Morozov’s method
Colonies of bacteria that grow on solid nutrient media can differentiate according to:
A. consistencies
B. density
C. color
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
Cultural identification is examination of bacterial species according to:
A. *character of growth
B. character of staining
C. enzyme activity
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
Cultural properties – there are:
A. character of bacterial staining
B. *character of growth of bacteria on/in nutrient medium
C. character of biological features of bacteria
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
Differential diagnostic media are used for:
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility of bacteria
B. Accumulations of microbial biomass
C. Examination of microorganisms pathogenicity
D. Studies of antigen structure of microorganisms
E. *Examination of bacteria enzyme activity
During examination of peptolytic properties what products are checked in a nutrient medium:
A. Carbonic acids and waters
B. Glucose and lactose
C. Carbonic acid and nitrogen
D. Mannitol and methanol
E. *Indole and hydrogen sulfide
Final products of carbonhydrates utilization:
sediment in test tube
*acid, or acid + gas
pellicle on the surface of nutrient medium
all answer are correct
absence of changes
For diagnosis of what diseases biological identification is most important?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Botulism
C. Tetanus
D. Salmonellosis
E. *All answers are correct
For examination of saccharolytic properties of bacteria we can use such medium:
A. Veinberg’s medium
B. Zeissler’s medium
C. *Giss’ media
D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
E. Milk
For inoculation of microbes according to Drigalsky’s method we can use:
A. Bacteriological loop
B. *Spatula
C. Bacteriological needle
D. Jar
E. All answers are correct
For inoculation of microbes by streak’s technique we can use:
A. *Bacteriological loop
B. Spatula
C. Bacteriological needle
D. All answers are wrong
E. All answers are correct
For mechanical separation of bacteria is not used such method:
A. Pasteur’s serial dilution
B. Koch’s method
C. Drigalsky’s method
D. Streak’s method
E. *Leffler’s method
For obtaining the isolated colonies of aerobic bacteria tested material is inoculated:
A. *on solid nutrient media
B. in liquid nutrient media
C. in laboratory animals
D. in chicken embryo
E. in cell cultures
For what purpose does microbiologist carry out identification of pure cultures?
A. For cognition
B. For treatment
C. *For diagnostic
D. For prophylactic
E. For anamnesis
Free oxygen is toxic for bacteria, because it:
A. kills a bacterium
B. *detains their growth
C. halts spore formation
D. inhibit toxins production
E. inhibit enzymes production
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
853.
854.
855.
856.
857.
858.
859.
860.
861. Genetic identification is examination of bacterial species according to:
A. allergic tests
B. biotests in animals
C. *polymerase chain reaction
D. phage typing
E. examination of bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics
862. How can we use this test-system?
A. for control of sterilization in a heat oven
B. *for control of sterilization by autoclaving
C. for control of mechanical sterilization
D. for control of sterilization by gas method
E. for control of sterilization by ultraviolet rays
863. How is it possible to carry out control of sterility of nutrient media after their preparing?
A. By keeping in incubator at 37 °С for a few hours.
B. By keeping in incubator at a temperature 42 °С for a few hours
C. By keeping at 18-20 °С. For a few hours
D. *By keeping in incubator for a few days at 37 °С.
E. Right answer is not present
864. How is it possible to separate microorganisms according to their motility?
A. To inoculate tested material on the upper part of slant agar
B. *To inoculate tested material in the drop of fluid in the lower part of slant agar
C. To do inoculation of tested material by a prick in the slant agar
D. To separate microorganisms is impossible
E. To add to the tested material some substance which cause coagulation flagella protein
865. How is it possible to verify motility of bacteria that form a colony?
A. *By wet-mount technique
B. By Grey’s technique
C. Staining according to Zdrodovsky’s technique
D. By scanning microscope
E. By radioisotope method
866. How is it possible to verify the motility of bacteria which form colony?
A. Staining according to Leffler’s technique
B. Staining according to Gram’s technique
C. *By «hanging» drop technique
D. By electron microscope
E. By «lying» drop technique
867. In the process of pure culture identification the most value has:
A. Morphological identification
B. Biological identification
C. Biochemical identification
D. Serological
E. *All answer are correct
868. In what color does rezazurin stain nutrient medium if its redox potential increases?
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Brown
D. Dark blue
E. *Pink
869. Indicate molecular-genetic methods that can be utilized for identification of bacteria
A. Reactions of hybridization of DNK and RNK (reaction of gene probes)
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. *Right answers A and B
E. Right answers A, B and C
870. Indicate among these microbes obligate anaerobic bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.
B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp.
C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
871. Indicate composition of semi-solid Giss’s media
A. *MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
872.
873.
874.
875.
876.
877.
indicators water blue with rosolic acid)
B. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicator Andrede
C. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an
indicator diamond green
D. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other),
indicator – complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate
E. MPA, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, mannitol, and other), an
indicator phenol red
Indicate obligate anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.
B. *Clostridium perfringens, Bacteroides spp.
C. Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella abortus
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Indicate the basic components of Ploskirev’s medium.
A. MPB, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
B. MPA, saccharose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
C. MPB, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
D. *MPA, lactose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
E. MPA, glucose, salts of bile acids, diamond green, neutral red.
Indicate the capneic bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. *Brucella abortus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Lactobacillus spp.
E. Clostridium perfringens
Indicate the composition of blood agar.
A. *MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals
B. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator bromthymol blue
C. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator fuchsine
D. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator neutral red
E. MPA, defibrinated or fresh blood of animals, an indicator eosin
Indicate the composition of Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for cultivation of anaerobes:
A. MPA, pieces of liver or meat
B. MPB, yolk, medium is covered with vaseline oil
C. *Hottinger’s broth, pieces of liver or meat, glucose, medium is covered with vaseline oil
D. Hottinger’s broth, pieces of brain tissues
E. Serum broth, pieces of liver or meat, , medium is covered with vaseline oil
Indicate the composition of liquid Giss’ media
A. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator bromthymol dark blue
B. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator eosin
C. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator is methylene blue
D. 1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), an indicator neutral red
E. *1 % peptone water, different carbohydrates (glucose, maltose, lactose, saccharose, Mannitol
and other), indicator of Andrede
878. Indicate the composition of Olkenitsky’s medium?
A. MPA, lactose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate,
urea, an indicator is phenol red
B. MPA, saccharose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate,
urea, an indicator is phenol red
C. MPA, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt), sodium thiosulphate,
urea, an indicator is phenol red
D. MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt),
sodium thiosulphate, an indicator is phenol red
E. *MPA, lactose, saccharose, glucose, complex salt of ammonium-iron sulfate (Moor’s salt),
879.
880.
881.
882.
883.
sodium thiosulphate, urea, and an indicator is phenol red.
Indicate the correct sequence of the stages of isolation of pure culture of aerobes.
A. *Microscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient
medium for obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining the
pure culture > identification > conclusion
B. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on the slant agar
for the obtaining the isolated colonies > obtaining the pure culture > identification >
conclusion
C. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation in MPB for the
obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining the pure culture
> identification > conclusion
D. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient
medium for the obtaining the isolated colonies > identification > conclusion
E. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material > inoculation on a solid nutrient
medium for obtaining the isolated colonies > inoculation on the slant agar for obtaining a
pure culture > identification
Indicate the growth signs of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium:
A. formation of diffuse turbidity
B. formation of pellicle
C. formation of sediment
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
Indicate the necessary components of Levin’s medium:
A. MPB, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin .
B. MPA, saccharose, indicators methylene blue, eosin.
C. MPB, saccharose, indicators methylene dark, eosin.
D. *MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, eosin.
E. MPA, lactose, indicators methylene blue, fuchsine.
?Indicate vitamins necessary for bacterial growth:
A. Biotin
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
It is necessary to choose the medium for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Endo’s and Levin’s media
B. Meat-peptone agar, meat-peptone broth
C. *Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar, Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
D. Coagulated serum, мeat-peptone gelatin
E. Ascitic agar, serum agar
884. It is necessary to study peptolytic properties of bacteria. Choose proper nutrient medium:
A. Meat-peptone agar
B. Sugar MPA
C. Coagulated serum
D. *Meat-peptone broth
E. gelatin
885. Make an example of aerotolerant bacteria
A. *Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
886. Non-inoculated Endo’s medium has color:
A. bright red
B. *poorly-rose
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. colorless
887. Peculiarities of S-colonies of bacteria:
A. *smooth, convex surface
B. gyrose surface
C. fibred consistency
D. edges are rosette-like
E. have capsules
888. Serological identification is examination of bacterial species by:
A. Bacteria staining
B. *agglutinating sera
C. laboratory animals
D. biochemical signs
E. character of growth on/in nutrient media
889. Special nutrient medium is:
A. Blood agar
B. Serum agar
C. Ascitic agar
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
890. Such groups of bacteria are existed according to their respiration:
A. capneic
B. microaerophils
C. anaerobes
D. aerobes
E. *all of them
891. Such nutrient media belong to universal ones:
A. *MPB and MPA
B. Mannitol salt agar Levin’s medium
C. Serum MPA and 1% alkaline peptone water
D. Endo’ medium and blood agar
E. Ploskirev’s medium and serum broth
892. Temperature optimum for mesophilic bacteria:
A. 10-15 1C
20-30 2C
*30-37 3С
40-50 4C
50-60 5C
That is a reason of toxic action of molecular oxygen for bacteria?
A. formation of singlet oxygen
B. formation of hydrogen peroxide
C. formation of ozone
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
The first stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobes is:
A. Inoculation of material in the melted sugar agar
B. *Inoculation of material in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
C. Inoculation of material in a coagulated serum
D. Inoculation of material on the Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar
E. Inoculation of material on Endo’s medium
The second stage of isolation of pure culture of aerobes is:
A. Macroscopic examination of material and its inoculation in liquid nutrient medium
B. Macro- and microscopic verification of culture purity
C. Serological identification
D. *Macro- and microscopic study of colonies and their inoculation them on slant agar
E. Biochemical identification
The structure of colonies can be examined by such method:
A. *In the passing light, small objective of microscope
B. In an electronic microscope
C. By a "hanging" drop technique
D. In a phase-contrast microscope
E. By the immersion system of microscope
There are such components of Endo’s medium:
A. *MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsine
B. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator fuchsine
C. MPA, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
D. MPB, 1 % lactose, an indicator eosin
E. MPA, 5 % lactose, indicator bromthymol blue
There are such demands to the nutrient media, EXCEPT:
A. presence of nutrients
B. sterility
C. *certain color
D. certain viscidity
E. transparency
Tinctorial properties of bacteria – there is:
A. character of growth
B. *character of bacterial staining
C. presence of flagella
D. antigen properties
E. all answers are correct
To the universal nutrient media belong:
A. serum MPA and serum MPB.
B. Endo’s medium and Ploskirev’s medium
C. *MPA and MPB
D. Blood MPA and TCBS medium
E. Yolk salt agar and ascitic agar
What are cultural properties of microorganisms?
B.
C.
D.
E.
893.
894.
895.
896.
897.
898.
899.
900.
901.
Features of bacterial staining
Features of growth of bacteria in the column of agar
Features of chemical composition of bacteria
*Features of bacterial growth on/in nutrient media
It is a manifestation of tinctorial signs
What are feature of inoculation of anaerobes by Veinberg’s technique?
A. *Dilute material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium in tubes with melted sugar meat-peptone agar,
their cultivation then
B. Dilute material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium in tubes with MPB, their cultivation then
C. Dilute material from 1 % alkaline peptone water in tubes with melted sugar MPA, their
cultivation then
D. Dilute material from 1 % alkaline peptone water in tubes with MPB, their cultivation then
E. Transfer material in a test tube with melted sugar MPA, its cultivate then
What are features of І stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobes?
A. Macroscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium and
milk
B. Microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium and
milk
C. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation on the slant
agar and in milk
D. Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in MPB and
on MPA
E. *Macroscopic and microscopic examination of tested material and its inoculation in the KittTarozzi’s medium and milk
What bacteria do belong to obligate anaerobes?
A. *Clostridium septicum, Bacteroides fragilis
B. Salmonella schottmuelleri
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Proteus rettgeri
E. Francisella tularensis
What bacterial properties could we check by Erlich’s reagent?
A. Hydrogen sulfide production
B. *Indole production
C. Ammonium production
D. Carbon dioxide production
E. Hydrogen production
What basic principles are used for isolation of pure cultures?
A. Isolation and analysis
B. Physical and chemical
C. Biochemical and serum
D. Quantitative and qualitative
E. *Mechanical and biological
What biological properties are not taken into consideration for pure culture isolation?
A. Type of respiration
B. Motility
C. Spore formation
D. *Type of reproduction
E. Acid resistance
What changes do appear in Ressel’s medium when microbes produce gas?
A. Discoloration of column of agar
B. Discoloration of the slant surface of agar
C. Appearance of gas bubbles
D. Appearance of breaks in the column of agar
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
902.
903.
904.
905.
906.
907.
908.
E. *Right answers C and D
909. What changes may be observed Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium after inoculation of tested material?
A. Turbidity
B. Formation of sediment
C. Formation of gas
D. Right answers A and C
E. *Right answers A, B, C
910. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *rose
911. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. *colorless
C. rose
D. brown
E. green
912. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Levin’s medium have?
A. *dark blue
B. colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
913. What color do lactose-positive colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. *rose
D. brown
E. green
914. What color does a simple medium – MPA– have?
A. red
B. *yellow
C. greenish
D. violet
E. dark blue
915. What color does a simple medium – MPB– have?
A. red
B. dark blue
C. greenish
D. violet
E. *yellow
916. What color does no inoculated Levin’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. poorly-rose
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. *violet
917. What color does non-inoculated Olkenitsky’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. *pink
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. violet
918. What color does noninoculated Ressel’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. *pinky
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. violet
919. What color does the methylene blue stain nutrient medium if its redox potential increases?
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Brown
D. *Blue
E. Pink
920. What color has Erlich’s reagent for detection of indole production?
A. Violet, blue-violet
B. Green
C. *Pink
D. Brown
E. Yellow
921. What color is acquired by Giss’ media, if microbes utilize sugars?
A. *red
B. green
C. violet
D. brown
E. a color does not change
922. What component is added into the nutrient media for examination of decarboxilase activity of
923.
924.
925.
926.
bacteria?
A. Proteins
B. Peptones
C. *Amino acids
D. Lipids
E. Carbohydrates
What do we do when begin the ІІІ stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes?
A. Examination of biochemical properties of bacteria
B. Examination of serologic properties of bacteria
C. Examination of bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics
D. Examination of colicinogenic properties of bacteria
E. *Verification of culture purity
What dyes can inhibit bacterial growth:
A. Brilliant green
B. Rivanol
C. Acriflavin
D. none of them.
E. *all of them
What enzyme of aerobic bacteria can stop the harmful effect of hydrogen peroxide?
A. lipase
B. protease
C. hydrolase
D. *catalase
E. urease
What finished products do appear in the liquid Giss’ media after decomposition of sugars?
A. acid
alkali
gas
*acid and gas
fixing the finished goods is not succeeded
What finished products do appear in the semi-solid Giss’ media after sugar utilization?
A. acid
B. alkali
C. gas
D. *acid and gas
E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded
What from the listed methods, based on principle of mechanical separation of bacteria, is most
perfect?
A. Pasteur’ technique
B. Koch’ technique
C. *Drigalsky’s technique
D. Inoculation by a loop
E. Inoculation by a needle
What group of nutrient media does Ressel’s medium belong to?
A. Universal
B. Liquid
C. Selective
D. Elective
E. *Differential-diagnostic
What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen?
A. Andrede
B. Neutral red
C. *Phenol red
D. Bromthymol blue
E. Thymol blue
What is a chemical origin of gelatin?
A. Polysaccharides
B. Lipids
C. *Proteins
D. Carbohydrates
E. Amino acids
What is a name of standard agglutination test for examination of bacterial antigens?
A. Kuns’s test
B. Kumbs’s test
C. Ouchterloni’s test
D. Manchini’s test
E. *Gruber’s test
What is a sign of bacterial proteolytic properties in milk?
A. Formation of diffuse turbidity
B. Formation of pellicle
C. *Dissolution of casein clot
D. Formation of sediment
E. Formation of pellicle and turbidity
What is a sign of proteolytic properties of bacteria in a column gelatin?
A. Formation of diffuse turbidity
B. Formation of pellicle
C. Dissolution of casein clot
D. Formation of sediment
E. *Gelatin liquefacience
B.
C.
D.
E.
927.
928.
929.
930.
931.
932.
933.
934.
935. What is a tinctorial property of microbes?
A. Features of antigen composition of bacteria
B. Features of chemical composition of bacteria
C. *Features of bacterial staining
D. Features of susceptibility to phages
E. Features of manifestation of antibiotics susceptibility
936. What is an essence of isolation of anaerobes pure cultures according to Zeissler’s technique?
A. Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in test tubes with a sugar-
blood agar by bacteriological loop, then they are placed in the jar and incubator
B. Material from the Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently on MPA in by a spatula,
then they are placed in the jar and in a thermostat
C. Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently on serum agar by a spatula,
then it is placed in the jar and in a thermostat
D. *Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in the Petry’s plates with
sugar-blood agar by a spatula, then they are placed in the jar and in the thermostat
E. Material from Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium is inoculated consistently in test tubes with serum broth
937.
938.
939.
940.
941.
942.
by a loop, then they are placed in the jar and in a thermostat
What is an essence of Koch’s technique for isolation of pure cultures?
A. *Use of solid nutrient media (gelatin) for obtaining the isolated colonies
B. Use of liquid nutrient media for obtaining the isolated colonies
C. Use of blood agar for examination of hemolysines types
D. Use of solid nutrient media for examination of antibiotics susceptibility
E. Use liquid nutrient media for examination of antibiotics susceptibility
What is an essence of Pasteur’s technique for isolation of pure cultures?
A. Dilution of tested material in gelatin
B. *Dilution of tested material in a liquid nutrient medium
C. Dilution of tested material in MPA
D. Dilution of tested material in the AGV nutrient medium
E. Dilution of tested material in a solid nutrient medium
What is an essence of ІV stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobic bacteria?
A. Inoculation of colonies on the proper nutrient medium
B. Examination of tinctorial properties of bacteria
C. *Checking the culture purity and its identification
D. Examination of serologic features of bacteria which form colonies by precipitation test
E. Right answer is absent
What is bacterial colony?
A. Medium which is inoculated with bacteria, where different microorganisms grow
B. Growth of microbes of one species on different nutrient medium
C. *Macroscopically visible growth of microbes (posterity of one bacterial cell) on a solid
nutrient medium
D. Visible growth of bacteria in a liquid nutrient medium
E. Visible growth of bacteria on the slant meat-peptone agar
What is biochemical identification of bacteria?
A. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to produce dehydrogenases
B. *Verification of bacteria according to their biochemical properties
C. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to produce hemolysines
D. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties
E. Verification of bacteria according to their reduce properties
What is biological identification of bacteria?
A. *Verification of bacteria according to changes which they cause in the organism of laboratory
animals
B. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties
C. Verification of bacteria according to their biochemical properties
D. Verification of bacteria according to their antigen properties
E. Verification of bacteria according to their cultural properties
943. What is cultural identification of bacteria?
A. Verification of bacteria according to their tinctorial properties
B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form S- and R-forms of colonies
C. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to form slime layer
D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to produce hydrogen sulfide
E. *Verification of bacteria according to their features of growth on/in nutrient media
944. What is essence of ІІІ stage of isolation of aerobes?
A. verification of culture purity
B. inoculation of Giss’ media , slide agglutination
C. examination of the antibiotics susceptibility
D. Phage typing
E. *all answers are correct
945. What is it necessary to do during the second stage of isolation of pure culture of aerobes?
A. Study the features of colonies
B. Make a smear from colonies
C. Inoculation onto slant agar
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are not correct
946. What is morphological identification?
A. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form a capsule
B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to form flagella
C. *Verification of bacteria according to their morphological signs
D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to spore formation
E. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to transform into L-forms
947. What is serologic identification of bacteria?
A. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to form of lipopolysaccharide
B. Verification of bacteria according to their ability to producе bacteriocines
C. *Verification of bacteria according to their antigen properties
D. Verification of bacteria according to their capacity to produce antibodies
E. Right answer is not present
948. What is serological identification?
A. Examination of bacterial species according to biochemical properties
B. Examination of bacterial species according to ability to utilize a coagulated serum
C. *Examination of bacterial species according to their antigen structure
D. Examination of bacterial species according to ability to reduce some dyes
E. Examination of bacterial species according to gene composition of bacterial nucleoid
949. What is strain?
A. *Microbes of the only species isolated from different sources, or from the same source, but at
different times
B. Microbes of different species isolated from different sources
C. Microbes of different species isolated from the only source
D. Microbes of different species isolated in different times
E. Microbes of different species isolated from different sources, or from the same source, but in
different times
950. What is the essence of ІІІ stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes?
A. Examination the isolated colonies
B. Examination bacterial growth in the column of agar
C. Bacterial phage typing
D. *Identifications of the unknown bacteria
E. Examination of ability for bacteriocine production
951. What is the main idea of ІІІ stage of isolation of pure culture of anaerobic bacteria?
A. Examination of features of pure culture and its identification
B. *Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them , inoculation of colonies
952.
953.
954.
955.
956.
957.
958.
959.
into Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for obtaining the pure culture
C. Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them, inoculation of colonies
on slant MPA for obtaining the pure culture
D. Examination of features of colonies, preparing the smear from them, inoculation of colonies
in MPB for obtaining the pure culture
E. Examination of features of colonies, inoculation of colonies in Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium for
obtaining the pure culture
What laboratory animals are most often utilized for biological identification?
A. Guinea pigs
B. White mice
C. White rats
D. *All answers are correct
E. Right answer is not present
What laboratory animals are very susceptible to Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. White rats
B. *Guinean pigs
C. Rabbits
D. Syrian hamsters
E. White mice
What laboratory animals are very susceptible to Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. White rats
B. Guinean pigs
C. Rabbits
D. Syrian hamsters
E. *White mice
What main idea of the first stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes?
A. To study tested material
B. To choose nutrient medium for inoculation
C. *To obtain the isolated colonies
D. To study the morphological features of possible causative agent
E. To study the antigen features of causative agent
What medium is it possible to use for checking the utilization of a few sugars?
A. Ru’s medium
B. Leffler’s medium
C. *Giss’ media
D. Ploskirev’s medium
E. End’s medium
What methods of isolation of pure cultures, based on mechanical principle do you know ?
A. Pasteur’s method
B. Koch’s method
C. Streak’s method
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are incorrect
What methods of isolation of pure cultures, based on mechanical principle do you know ?
A. Leffler’s method
B. Grey’s method
C. *Streak’s method
D. Buchin’s method
E. Nemchinov’s method
What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes?
A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae
*Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi
Brucella abortus
Lactobacillus acidophilus
What microbes have ability to penetrate through normal skin?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Shigella flexneri
C. Salmonella patience
D. *Yersinia pestis
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
What microorganisms do have a tendency to superficial growth?
A. Obligate anaerobes
B. Capneic bacteria
C. *Obligate aerobes
D. Microaerophilic bacteria
E. Facultative anaerobes
What modern test-systems are utilized for identification of bacteria?
A. “Roche”
B. “API”
C. “Enterotest”
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
What nutrient medium is it possible to use for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties?
A. *Gelatin
B. Olkenitsky’s medium
C. MPB
D. Endo’s medium
E. Levenshtein-Yensen’s medium
What nutrient medium is it possible to use for examination of bacterial proteolytic properties?
A. Endo’s medium
B. Olkenitsky’s medium
C. MPB
D. *Milk
E. Levenshtein-Yensen’s medium
What properties of bacteria are utilized for identification of anaerobic bacteria?
A. Morphological
B. Signs of growth in/on nutrient media
C. Biochemical
D. Toxigenic
E. *All answers are correct
What properties of colonies do we study first?
A. Shape, color
B. Character of edges
C. Character of surface of colonies
D. A right answer is not present
E. *All answers are correct
What reaction can be utilized for examination of toxigenic properties of microbes?
A. Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. *Precipitation test
D. Gruber’s test
E. Indirect hemagglutination test
What signs of hemolytic activity of bacteria are present on blood MPA?
B.
C.
D.
E.
960.
961.
962.
963.
964.
965.
966.
967.
968.
appearance of areas of darkening on a mat red background
the changes of medium color
appearance of bright red colonies of microbes, if they cause haemolysis
*appearance of colorless areas surround the colonies on mat red background if the have
hemolytic activity
E. appearance of colorless colonies
What substrate is utilized for providing the necessary density of nutrient medium?
A. proteins
B. lipids
C. *agar-agar
D. carbohydrates
E. there is no correct answer
What substrate must be added into nutrient medium for examination of bacterial proteolytic
properties?
A. agarose
B. *gelatin
C. agar-agar
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
What technique does belong to the biological method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. *Joint cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and Serratia marcescens, which utilizes an oxygen
intensively
B. Cultivation of anaerobes in the organism of laboratory animals
C. Cultivation of anaerobes in the chicken embryos
D. All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
What technique does belong to the chemical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. application of pyrogallol on the bottom of the jar
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. introduction of pieces of liver or muscles and vitamin K3 as supplement in the medium
E. *right answer A, B, D
What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *right answers B and C.
E. right answers A, B and C
What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation
E. a right answer is not present
What type of bacterial growth near the inner part of tube wall is there may be?
A. formation of flakes, fastened to the inner wall of test tube
B. by diffuse turbidity
C. formation of grains, fastened on the inner wall of test tube.
D. formation of pellicle on the surface of medium
E. *right answers A and C
What type of sediment may be formed by microbes in liquid nutrient media?
A. Crumble-like
B. homogeneous
A.
B.
C.
D.
969.
970.
971.
972.
973.
974.
975.
976.
C. viscid
D. mucous
E. *all answers are correct
977. What vitamins are necessary for development of bacteria?
A. pantothenic acid
B. Cholin
C. nicotine acid
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers of incorrect
978. Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis?
A. I. Mechnikov
B. S. Vinogradsky
C. *L. Pasteur
D. R. Koch
E. E. Ru
979. Why do we use Vinyal-Veyon’s tubes?
A. *For cultivation of anaerobes according to Veinberg’s technique
B. For cultivation of anaerobes according to Zeissler’s technique
C. For cultivation of aerobes according to Ziehl–Neelsen’s technique
D. For cultivation of aerobes according to Leffler’s technique
E. In bacteriology they are not used
980. Why is it necessary to identify the pure cultures of bacteria?
A. for prescribing the treatment
B. *for revealing the etiological factor illness
C. for prophylaxis
D. for examination of phages susceptibility
E. for examination of antibiotics susceptibility
981. ______ is probably the most important characteristic for classification of viruses in eucaryotes.
A. Host preference
B. Morphology
C. Physical nature of virion constituents
D. *Chemical nature of virion constituents
E. Genetic relatedness
982. A viral particle can exist in different forms. What is provirus?
A. predecessor of virus
B. *virus, which is integrated into a cellular chromosome
C. vegetative form of virus
D. bacteriophge in cell cytoplasm
E. virus in the cell wall
983. A/an _______ is specifically able to have a long-term relationship with the host known as
lysogeny.
A. *Temperate virus
B. Adsorbed virus
C. Virion
D. RNA phage
E. DNA phage
984. According to Appelman’s technique for phages titration the titer of phages is:
A. *its maximal dilution, which causes the complete lysis of bacteria
B. its minimum dilution, which causes the complete lysis of bacteria
C. its minimum dilution, which causes the incomplete lysis of bacteria
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
985. According to mechanism of action phages are divided into:
inert
*virulent and moderate
toxic
All answers are correct
No correct answer
According to the specifity of action there may be such phages:
A. polyvalent phages
B. monophages
C. type specific phages
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
After carrying the phages in agar bacterial culture _____ are arisen.
A. *negative colonies (plaques)
B. protuberant colonies
C. turbid colonies
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
After infection of cell culture with viruses we can detect them there by:
A. a cytopathic effect
B. hemadsorption test
C. plaques formation test
D. changes of indicator color
E. *All answers are correct
After reproduction of phages in bacterial culture in liquid nutrient medium there will be:
A. *formation of transparent liquid nutrient medium
B. turbidity in the liquid nutrient medium
C. formation of sediment
D. formation of film on the surface of liquid nutrient medium
E. All answers are correct
All cell cultures belong to the continuous cell lines, except:
A. HeLa.
B. Carcinoma of oral cavity (KB).
C. *Fibroblasts of chicken embryos.
D. Detroit-6.
E. Hep-2.
All DNA-containing viruses have no envelope, except:
A. Adenoviruses
B. *Herpesviruses
C. Parvoviruses
D. Papovaviruses
E. All answers are correct
All of the following viral genomes are replicated in the cytoplasm EXCEPT:
A. poxviruses
B. reoviruses
C. picornaviruses
D. *herpesviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
All of the following viruses are replicated in the nucleus EXCEPT:
A. *poxviruses
B. papovaviruses
C. adenoviruses
D. herpesviruses
E. parvoviruses
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
986.
987.
988.
989.
990.
991.
992.
993.
994. All of the following viruses contain lipid EXCEPT:
A. herpesviruses
B. *papillomaviruses
C. poxviruses
D. togaviruses
E. paramyxoviruses
995. All of viruses are divided according to their shape. What viruses do have cuboidal shape?
A. Ebola viruses
B. Epidemic parotitis viruses
C. *Cow pox virus
D. Parainfluenza virus
E. Poliovirus
996. All of viruses depending on their properties classify on certain groups. What signs are the basis of
997.
998.
999.
1000.
1001.
1002.
classification?
A. Susceptibility to physical and chemical agents
B. Natural method of transmission
C. Host, tissue, and cell tropism
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
All of viruses depending on their properties classify on certain groups. What signs are the basis of
classification?
A. type of nucleic acid
B. presence of specific enzymes
C. type of viral symmetry
D. Presence or absence of envelope
E. *All answers are correct
All viruses belong to complex ones, except:
A. Herpesviruses
B. Flu viruses
C. Small pox viruses
D. *Polioviruses
E. HIV
All viruses belong to simple ones, except for:
A. Polioviruses
B. Papillomaviruses
C. Polyomaviruses
D. Adenoviruses
E. *Herpesviruses
All viruses may do any of the following but not
A. Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
B. Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
C. Inhibit host cell protein synthesis
D. *Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
E. Degrade host cell DNA
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
A. penetration
B. lysis
C. synthesis
D. *release
E. assembly
An indication of viruses there is:
A. Examination of viral families
B. Examination of viral genes
C. Examination of viral species
D. Examination of viral serovar
E. *Examination of viral presence in tested material
1003. Areas of dead host cells evident on an agar plate are:
A. pocks
B. cytopathic effects
C. cell lines
D. *plaques
E. primary cell cultures
1004. Bacteriophage, which is integrated in bacterial chromosome is called:
A. interphage
B. lysophage
C. *prophage
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1005. Bacteriophages are resistant to the action of:
A. high pressure
B. X-rays
C. ionizing a radiation
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1006. Bacteriophages are susceptible to:
A. boiling
B. ultraviolet rays
C. disinfectant solutions
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1007. Bacteriophages can be found in the:
A. soil and water
B. sewage
C. in excretions of people
D. in excretions of animals
E. *All answers are correct
1008. Bacteriophages cause lytic action against the cells a bacterium. This type of action is:
A. *obligate specific
B. quite heterospecific
C. conditionally specific
D. preferentially specific
E. No correct answer
1009. Bacteriophages consist of various chemicals. Chemical composition of phages is presented:
A. DNA (RNA)
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1010. Bacteriophages exist anywhere, where are corresponding ____ :
A. *bacteria
B. viruses
C. viroids
D. prions
E. transposones
1011. Choose among listed combinations components for making haemagglutination test:
A. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
Viral material, sheep’s white cells, electrolyte
Antiviral antibodies, antigen, red cells, electrolyte
Patient’s serum, viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
Viral diagnosticum, specific serum, chicken red cells, electrolyte
Choose among listed viruses causative agents, which have a spherical shape:
A. Tobacco mosaic disease viruses
B. Poxviruses
C. Rhabdoviruses
D. *Influenza viruses
E. Ebola virus
Choose among the listed viruses causative agents, which have envelope:
A. Adenoviruses
B. Polioviruses
C. *Herpeviruses
D. ECHO-viruses
E. Hepatitis A viruses
Choose the components, which are present in viral genome:
A. *nucleic acids
B. fatty acids
C. teichoic acids
D. proteins
E. No correct answer
Choose the correct interpretation of disjunctive way of viral reproduction:
A. *the synthesis of viral genome and viral proteins are interrupted in the space and time
B. synchronous doubling of RNA or DNA of virus
C. reproduction of virus goes simultaneously with reproduction of host cells
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
Choose the discoverer of viruses from the listed scientists.:
A. F. d’Herelle
B. *D. Ivanovsky
C. F. Loeffler
D. R. Koch
E. W. Reed
Choose three initial stages of reproduction of viruses in a cell:
A. attachment, synthesis of protein, penetration
B. *attachment, penetration, uncoating
C. replication, assembly, virogeny
D. deproteinization, release from a cell, assembly
E. synthesis of nucleic acids, assembly, virogeny
Degenerative changes in the cell culture under the influence of viruses are called:
A. Cytotoxic action
B. *Cytopathic action
C. Hystotoxic action
D. Hemolytic action
E. Proliferative action
Degenerative changes in the cell cultures under the action of viruses have name:
A. Histotoxic action
B. Cytotoxic action
C. *Cytopathic action
D. Hemolytic action
E. All answers are correct
During lysogeny there is:
B.
C.
D.
E.
1012.
1013.
1014.
1015.
1016.
1017.
1018.
1019.
1020.
complete lysis of bacteria
deletion of phage from bacteria
*integration of phage genome in the cell genome
All answers are correct
No correct answer
During phage conversion properties of ________ are changed:
A. *bacteria
B. phages
C. both bacteria and phages
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
During reproduction stages the viruses is covered with envelope. The origin of it is:
A. viral
B. from the cells of macroorganism
C. bacterial
D. *partially viral and partly host’s cell
E. No correct answer
During what stage of reproduction does virus get an envelope?
A. penetration
B. synthesis of protein
C. uncoating
D. assembly
E. *release from the cell
Early methods of diagnosis of viral diseases are used for examination of:
A. presence of antibodies
B. toxin production
C. *family and species of viruses
D. increase of antibodies titer in the patient’s serum
E. All answers are correct
Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with material from _______ lesions.
A. Smallpox
B. Avianpox
C. *Cowpox
D. Chickenpox
E. Dogpox
Enveloped viruses have a ______ shape
A. Icosahedral
B. Helical
C. Hexagonal
D. *Roughly spherical
E. Complex
Find a method by which it is possible to find the presence of virus in the infected cell cultures?
A. cytopathic action
B. ability of red cells to adsorb on the cell membrane of infected cells
C. examination of viral of viral proteins in the monolayer of the infected cells with
immunofluorescence test
D. use of an electron microscopy
E. *All answers are correct
Find the most favorite type of packing of capsomeres in a nucleocapsid:
A. hexahedral
B. octahedral
C. pehtahedral
D. *icosahedral
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1021.
1022.
1023.
1024.
1025.
1026.
1027.
1028.
E. All answers are сorrect
1029. For an isolation and identification of viruses such animals are utilized:
A. suckling mice
B. ferrets
C. rabbits
D. monkeys
E. *all answers are correct
1030. For cultivating of viruses continuous cell cultures are used. Specify the origin of KB cell culture:
A. *Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. Carcinoma of human larynx
C. Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
1031. For cultivating of viruses virologist utilize the cell cultures. What is continuous cell line?
A. RD
B. Vero
C. Hep-2
D. HeLa
E. *All answers are correct
1032. For establishment of type of virus, which causes disease such test is utilized:
A. Agglutination test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. *Hemagglutination inhibition test
D. Haemagglutination test
E. Hemadsorption test
1033. For examination of phage titer in liquid nutrient medium such method is utilized:
A. Gracia
B. *Appelman
C. Pasteur
D. Koch
E. Zdrodovsky
1034. For examination of phages titer in agar such method may be used:
A. Appelman’s
B. *Gracia’s
C. Pasteur’s
D. Koch’s
E. Zdrodovsky’s
1035. For isolation of neurotropic viruses it is necessary to make _______ inoculation:
A. enteral
B. intravenous
C. *intracerebral
D. intranasal
E. intramuscular
1036. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. *Hemadsorbtion test
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
1037. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. *Haemagglutination test
C. Ring precipitation test
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
1038. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. *Inoculation of laboratory animal
B. CFT
C. IHAT
D. Coagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
1039. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. Coagglutination test
D. *Inoculation of chicken embryos
E. Agglutination test
1040. For the indication of viruses in tested material such test may be used:
A. Latex-agglutination test
B. CFT
C. Indirect haemagglutination test
D. Coagglutination test
E. *Inoculation of cell culture
1041. For the isolation of viruses in chicken we can inject the tested material into/on:
A. Chorioallantoic membrane
B. Amniotic cavity
C. Allantoic cavity
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1042. Hemadsorption test is used in virology. It is necessary to have such ingredients for this test:
A. Antiviral antibodies, cell cultures, red cells
B. Sheep’s red cells, virus, cell cultures
C. Cell cultures, antiviral antibodies, electrolyte
D. *Virus, cell cultures, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Red cells, viral diagnosticum, cell cultures
1043. Holes produced in bacterial “lawns” by viruses are called
A. Colonies
B. *Plaques
C. Patches
D. Lysis
E. Clearance
1044. How are viruses divided depending on a presence of nucleic acids in their genome?
A. simple and complex ones
B. *RNA- and DNA-containing ones
C. pathogenic and non-pathogenic ones
D. icosahedral and spiral ones
E. rod-shaped and spherical ones
1045. How to examine the number of bacteriophages in the tested material?
A. *By titration according to Gracia’s or Appelman’s technique
B. Neutralization test or IFT
C. Haemagglutination test or haemadsorption test
D. CFT or ELISA
E. Haemagglutination inhibition test or haemadsorption inhibition test
1046. Icosachedral viruses have ……… sides
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. *20
E. 48
1047. Immunologic tests, which need the presence of antibodies, are utilized in virology for:
A. Examination of antibodies titer in paired patient’s sera
B. Examination of unknown viruses
C. Examination of antiviral antibodies
D. Identification of virus
E. *All answers are correct
1048. In a sick woman the doctor suspected measles. What family does Measles virus belong to?
A. *Paramyxoviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. No correct answer
1049. In medicine bacteriophages may be used for:
A. Phage indication
B. Phage typing
C. Phage therapy
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1050. In the cell culture there may be cytopathic effect under the influence of viruses. Show such effect:
A. *Syncitium formation
B. Protoplasts formation
C. Heteroplasts formation
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1051. In the structure of some bacteriophages there may be such structural parts:
A. hexagonal head
B. shrunken sheath of the process
C. basal plate with fibrils
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1052. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can directly
disrupt cell structure.
A. Procaryotes
B. Chromosomal disruptions
C. *Inclusion bodies
D. Cytocidal bodies
E. All of the above
1053. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can directly
disrupt cell structure.
A. Procaryotes
B. Chromosomal disruptions
C. *Inclusion bodies
D. Cytocidal bodies
E. All of the above
1054. Microbiologist can use bacteriophages in different direction, except:
A. Treatment of illnesses.
B. Prophylaxis of diseases.
C. Indications of microorganisms.
D. *Examination of phagocytosis activity.
E. Bacteria typing.
1055. Morphology of viruses has certain features. The structural unit of capsid is:
A. peplomere
B. *capsomere
C. haemagglutinin
D. spikes
E. neuramonidase
1056. Name the sources of primary cultures obtaining for cultivating of viruses.
A. Kidneys of human embryo
B. Kidneys of pig embryo
C. Fibroblasts of chicken embryos
D. Kidneys of monkeys
E. *All answers are correct
1057. Parvovirus genome:
A. dsDNA, small, complex symmetry
B. *ssDNA, small, icosahedral symmetry
C. ssDNA, small, helical symmetry
D. ssRNA, large, helical symmetry
E. dsRNA, middle-sized, icosahedral symmetry
1058. Phage conversion in bacteria may be accompanied by the changes of:
A. Bacterial toxigenicity
B. Bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics
C. Bacterial enzyme activity
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1059. Phages can be isolated from the patients:
A. at the beginning of illness
B. at the middle of disease
C. at the end of illness
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1060. Polymerases are encoded on the genomes of:
A. all viruses
B. all DNA viruses
C. *all RNA viruses
D. only the largest viruses (ex. Herpesviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses, and Poxviruses)
E. no viruses, because viruses do not encode polymerases
1061. Reproduction of viruses differs from bacteriophages reproduction by the following stage:
A. adsorption
B. *penetration
C. release of viral particles from a cell
D. the synthesis of nucleic acids
E. uncoating
1062. Retrospective diagnostics of measles and mumps includes:
A. *HIT with paire serums;
B. CFT with pair serums;
C. HIT with specific serums;
D. rhinocytoscopy
E. ELISA
1063. Revertase is encoded on the genomes of:
A. all viruses
B. all DNA viruses
C. all RNA viruses
D. *all retroviruses
E. all bacteriophages
1064. RS virus causes:
A. destruction of tissue culture
B. *formation of syncytio in tissue cultures
C. death of chicken embryo
D. hemagglutination of red cells
E. hemolysis.
1065. Show a mechanism of penetration of viruses in the host cell.
A. phagоcytosis
B. pinocytosis
C. *endocytosis
D. proteolisis
E. All answers are correct
1066. Show function of viral capsid in naked viruses:
A. protects the viral genome from the action of environmental factors
B. provides the adsorption of virion on the surface of the cell
C. provides penetration of viruses into the cell by cooperation with cell receptors
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1067. Show spermatozoid-shaped viruses:
A. *Bacteriophages
B. Influenza viruses
C. Rhabdobiruses
D. Herpesviruses
E. Yellow fever viruses
1068. Show the components of haemadsorption test:
A. Serum of patient, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
B. *Viral material, tissue culture, chicken red cells, electrolyte
C. Specific antibodies, viral material, cell cultures, electrolyte
D. Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Cell cultures, sheep’s red cells, patient’s serum, electrolyte
1069. Show the method of cultivation of viruses.
A. Special nutrient media
B. In chicken embryos
C. In laboratory animals
D. In cell cultures
E. *All answer are correct, except using of nutrient media
1070. Show the types of viral infections:
A. latent
B. persistence
C. abortive
D. productive
E. *All answers are correct
1071. Show the viruses, which are susceptible to low concentration of hydrogen ions (acidic рН)?
A. *Rhinoviruses
B. Hepatitis A viruses
C. Polyoviruses
D. ECHO viruses
E. Coxsackie viruses
1072. Show what is the structural unit of envelope in complex viruses?
A. capsomere
B. *peplomere
C. spike
D. lipid
E. nucleic acid
1073. Show, which from these signs do form the basis of classification of viruses?
A. presence of envelope
B. contents of certain nucleic acid
C. pathogenicity for human
D. type of symmetry
E. *All answers are correct
1074. Simple viruses contain a capsid only. Specify that is the morphologic unit of a capsid?
A. *spike
B. peplomere
C. capsomere
D. DNA
E. RNA
1075. Some bacteriophages are tadpole-shaped. The head of phage contains ______ acid:
A. olein
B. *nucleic
C. palmitic
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1076. Specify among listed viruses those ones, which have envelope:
A. Hepatitis B viruses
B. Flu viruses
C. Measles viruses
D. Herpesviruses
E. *All answers are correct
1077. Specify the source of formation of Hep-2 cell culture:.
A. Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. *Carcinoma of human larynx
C. Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
1078. Specify what viral infections do have latent form?
A. *Herpes
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Influenza
D. Epidemic parotitis
E. Rubella
1079. The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
1080. The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
1081. The appearance of a group of viruses under the light micoscope within cells is termed the :
*inclusion
viroid
colony
cytopathic effect
plaque
The characteristic cytophatologic effect (CPE) that viruses cause in cells include:
A. vacuolation
B. necrosis
C. cell lysis
D. syncytia formation
E. *all of the above
The chicken embryos are most frequently utilized for cultivation of viruses. Show the age of such
ones:
A. 1-7 days
B. *5-14 days
C. 5-6 weeks
D. 7-8 weeks
E. 9-10 days
The cubic type of symmetry in viruses is characterized that capsomeres form . The most frequent
polyhedron is:
A. *polyhedron with 8 faces
B. polyhedron with 16 faces
C. polyhedron with 20 faces
D. polyhedron with 32 faces
E. No correct answers
The enzyme that enhances the respiratory penetration on the orthomyxovirus is:
A. hemagglutinin
B. hemolysin
C. lipoprotein
D. *neuraminidase
E. hyaluronidase
The feature of viral genome is:
A. *Presence of one type of nucleic acid
B. Presence of two nucleic acids simultaneously
C. Presence RNA “-“ and RNA”+”
D. absence of nucleic acids
E. No correct answer
The following test determines the presence of infectious virus in a sample:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. ELISA
The following test reveals the intracellular location of viral antigens:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. *Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. ELISA
The following test uses a solid phase coated with antibody (or antigen) to capture antigen (or
antibody) from the patient's specimen:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1082.
1083.
1084.
1085.
1086.
1087.
1088.
1089.
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. *ELISA
1090. The function/s of a viral capsid is/are:
A. it protects the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction.
B. it provides binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host
cell.
C. it serves as a vehicle of transmission from one host to another.
D. It consists of proteins
E. *all of the above.
1091. The main component of all viruses is
A. the envelope
B. the polymerase
C. the icosahedral capsid
D. the lipid
E. *the nucleic acid
1092. The main use of embryonated eggs in virology is the:
A. detection of cytopathic effect
B. production of interferon
C. production of vaccines
D. *observation of viral growth
E. production of lysozym
1093. The most popular indirect method of counting virus particles is
A. Microscopically
B. By hemagglutination assay
C. By plaque-assay
D. *By counting plaque-forming units
E. By colony counting
1094. The nucleocapsid refers to:
A. *the complete viral particle
B. the viral genetic material
C. the viral proteins only
D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids
E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins
1095. The nucleocapsid refers to:
A. *the complete viral particle
B. the viral genetic material
C. the viral proteins only
D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids
E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins
1096. The process by which phage reproduction is initiatied in lysogenized culture is called
A. Infection
B. Integration
C. Repression
D. *Induction
E. Enhancement
1097. The protein coat that envelopes the viral genetic material is known as a:
A. Virion
B. Case
C. Viroid
D. *Capsid
E. Spikes
1098. The release of animal viruses from their host occur in:
assembly
endocytosis
maturation
*exocytosis
eclipse
The replication of double-stranded DNA-containing viruses from:
A. synthesis of мRNA
B. synthesis of complementary thread of DNA
C. *DNA despiralization
D. synthesis of complementary thread of RNA
E. synthesis of RNA molecule
The replication of RNA-containing viruses, which have reverse transcriptase begin from synthesis
of:
A. mRNA
B. *complementary DNA
C. protein
D. complementary RNA
E. viral lipids
The role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
The smallest known viruses are the:
A. *Picornavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
The smallest known viruses are the:
A. *Picornavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
The Smallpox viruses and Herpesviruses cause the formation on chorioallantoic membrane …:
A. complete destruction of cells
B. syncitium formation
C. *plaque formation
D. nuclei pyknosis
E. stimulate cellular proliferation
The stages of reproduction of viruses are divided into early and late. The last stages of reproduction
of viruses is:
A. attachment
B. penetration
C. *morphogenesis and release
D. deproteinization
E. synthesis of nucleic acids
The titer of phages according to Gracia’s technique is determined:
A. *by the number of plaques in agar, which is multiplied on the dilution of phages
B. by the number of plaques, which appeared after Staphylococci inoculation
C. by the number of plaques in agar, which is divided into dilution of phages
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1099.
1100.
1101.
1102.
1103.
1104.
1105.
1106.
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1107. The viruses can have such shape:
A. *spherical
B. cone-shaped
C. dumb-bell-shaped
D. helical
E. all answers are wrong
1108. The viruses have all properties, except:
A. They are noncellular living system.
B. *They contain DNA and RNA simultaneously.
C. They have very small sizes.
D. They have no their own system for protein synthesis and generation of energy
E. They are obligate intracellular parasites.
1109. ?The viruses have some distinctive features from bacteria. Show the feature of viral pathogen?
A. Viruses pass through bacterial filter
B. They have one type of nucleic acid: or DNA or RNA
C. They are resistant to antibacterial preparations
D. They are obligate intracellular parasites
E. *All answers are correct
1110. The way of laboratory animals inoculation for isolation of viruses depends on:
A. the sizes of viruses
B. the presence of envelope
C. *the viral tropism
D. the type of nucleic acid
E. the presence of enzymes
1111. There are such viruses, which are included into Picornaviridae:
A. *Polyoviruses
B. Parainfluenza viruses
C. Rubella viruses
D. Hepatitis C
E. Sindbis virus
1112. There are such serologic (late) methods of laboratory diagnosis of viral infection:
A. *Complement fixation test with paired sera
B. Neutralization test, color test
C. Haemagglutination test with paired sera
D. Hemadsorption test
E. Indirect haemagglutination test, haemagglutination inhibition test
1113. There may be such shape in viruses:
A. hexagonal
B. *rod-shaped
C. pyramid-shaped
D. cone-shaped
E. All answers are correct
1114. There may be such way/s of laboratory animal inoculation for isolation of viruses:
A. enteric
B. intravenously
C. intracerebral
D. intranasal
E. *All answers are correct
1115. Under the action of viruses there may be such type of cytopathic effect in cell cultures:
A. complete degeneration of cells
B. syncitium formation
C. rounding of the cells
D. chromosomal аbberation
E. *all answers are correct
1116. Under the bentonit coverage there may be such phenomenon in consequence of viral action:
A. *Plaques formation
B. Ring formation
C. Cluster formation
D. Haemagglutination
E. All answers are correct
1117. Vibrios are characterized the presence of different types of symmetry. The type of symmetry
1118.
1119.
1120.
1121.
1122.
1123.
1124.
depends on:
A. *type of nucleic acid localization
B. the number of capsomeres
C. the number of peplomeres
D. type of nucleic acid (RNA or DNA)
E. All answers are correct
Viral DNA is replicated in the host cell
A. Cytoplasmic matrix
B. *Nucleus
C. Wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Lysozomes
Viral proteins are divided on:
A. Capsid ones
B. Envelope ones
C. Matrix ones
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
Viral RNA is replicated in the host cell
A. *Cytoplasmic matrix
B. Nucleus
C. Wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Lysozomes
Virions consist of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates. How many proteins are there in the virion?
A. 40 – 50 %
B. *70 – 90 %
C. 10 – 20 %
D. 20 – 30 %
E. 50-60 %
Virions consist of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates. How many carbohydrates are there in the virion?
A. 1 – 2 %
B. *3,5 – 9 %
C. 10 – 12 %
D. 15 – 20 %
E. 25-35 %
Virions consist of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates. How many lipids are there in the virion?
A. 5-7 %
B. 8-12 %
C. *15-35 %
D. 40-50 %
E. 60-70 %
Virologist can isolate phages from:
antibiotic resistant cultures
*corresponding bacteria
boiled bacteria
autoclaved bacteria
prions
Virologist can use phage typing for examination of:
A. the mechanism of diseases development
B. *the sources of infection
C. the way of diseases transmission
D. the method of treatment
E. chromosomes structure
Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but not
A. Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
B. Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
C. Inhibit host cell protein synthesis
D. *Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
E. Degrade host cell DNA
Virulent phages cause ________ in bacteria:
A. phenomenon of lysogenicity
B. *complete lysis of cell
C. growth of bacteria increase
D. appearance of resistant forms of cells
E. dissociation
Viruses – causative agents of infectious diseases can penetrate into human body by such way:
A. by injection
B. due to exocytosis
C. by pili
D. *by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
E. by vector
Viruses are cultivated by different methods, except:
A. in chicken embryos
B. in cell cultures
C. *in nutrient media with protein
D. In laboratory animals
E. All answers are correct
Viruses are intracellular obligate parasites, which means that they cannot reproduce or express their
genes without
A. enzymes
B. *a host cell
C. another virus
D. a cell wall
E. nutrience media
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. What do we use for viruses cultivation?
A. chicken embryos
B. laboratory animals
C. cell cultures
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
Viruses can be cultivated by all methods, except:
A. In laboratory animals
B. *In nutrient media
C. In chicken embryos
D. In the continuous cell culture.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1125.
1126.
1127.
1128.
1129.
1130.
1131.
1132.
E. In diploid cells
1133. Viruses can be effectively deactivated in blood transfusion preparation treated with
A. heat
B. interferon
C. ampicillin
D. acyclovir
E. *radiation
1134. Viruses can be susceptible or non-susceptible to an ether. What viruses are susceptible to ether:
A. RNA-containing ones
B. DNA-containing ones
C. Naked ones
D. *Complex ones
E. No correct answer
1135. Viruses contain all components, except:
A. *Spores
B. RNA
C. Capsid
D. DNA
E. Envelope
1136. Viruses require ______ for growth.
A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Bacteria
D. *Living cells
E. Fungi
1137. Viruses will have their lipoprotein during what stage of viral reproduction?
A. *during release from the cell
B. during uncoating
C. during endocytosis
D. during replication of nucleic acid
E. All answers are correct
1138. We can make identification of unknown viruses when we use:
A. *neutralization test
B. haemadsorption test
C. haemagglutination test
D. agglutination test
E. No correct answer
1139. We can use virologic (early) methods of diagnosis for examination of :
A. *presence of viruses
B. a presence of antibodies against the viruses
C. increase of antibodies titer in patients serum
D. presence of viral toxins
E. All answers are correct
1140. What are the differences between lysogenic bacteria and non-lysogenic ones?
A. Lysogenic bacteria have ability to product virulent bacteriophages.
B. Lysogenic bacteria have changed susceptibility to antibiotics.
C. *Lysogenic bacteria have ability to product the moderate bacteriophages.
D. Lysogenic bacteria have decreased virulence.
E. Lysogenic bacteria have enhanceable virulence.
1141. What are the main characteristics of diploid cell culture, which are utilized for cultivating of
viruses?
A. They may give about 100 passages
B. They have diploid number of chromosomes
C. They are free from contamination by mycoplasma
D. high-stable
E. *All answers are correct
1142. What do non-structural viral proteins provide?
A. *regulate expression of viral genome, inhibit cellular biosynthesis
B. protect RNA outside the cells
C. provide penetration of virus into a cell
D. they are present in mature viruses
E. All answers are correct
1143. What is a virus that infects bacteria called?
A. Virophage
B. *Bacteriophage
C. T Cell
D. B Cell
E. Macrophage
1144. What is a way for Retrovirus replication?
A. DNA > RNA.
B. *RNA > DNA > RNA.
C. RNA > DNA.
D. RNA > mRNA > DNA.
E. DNA >RNA > DNA.
1145. What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell?
A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase
B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor
C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell
D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes
E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments
1146. What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell?
A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase
B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor
C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell
D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes
E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments
1147. What is cytopathic action of viruses?
A. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their penetration in a cell.
B. *Any degenerative changes of cells under the influence of viruses.
C. The changes of biological properties of viruses after their release from a cell.
D. Formation of multinuclear cells as a result of viral penetration.
E. Formation of intranuclear or intracytoplasm bodies in the cell after viral penetration.
1148. What is one component of all mammalian viruses?
A. the envelope
B. the polymerase
C. the icosahedral capsid
D. the lipid
E. *the nucleic acid
1149. What is phage conversion?
A. The changes of biological properties bacteriophages as a result of their penetration in bacterial
B.
C.
D.
E.
cell.
Transformation of moderate phages into virulent ones.
*The change of biological properties of bacterial cell in consequence of bacteriophages genes
expression.
The changes of cell susceptibility to antibiotics.
Transformation of virulent bacteriophages into moderate ones.
1150. What is productive type of viral infection?
A. Integration of viruses into cell genome.
B. *Reproduction of viruses in a cell with formation of new generation of virulent viruses.
C. A blockade of reproduction of viruses in a cell.
D. Ability of viruses to attach to the cell surface.
E. Features of reproduction of viral nucleic acids.
1151. What is prophage?
A. Bacteriophage in the cell cytoplasm
B. A cell, which is a predecessor of phagocyte
C. *Phage, which is integrated with bacterial chromosome
D. Autonomous state of phage DNA
E. An intermediate form of phage before replication of DNA.
1152. What is the function of “F” viral protein?
A. *Provides fusion of viral shell with the cell.
B. Provides replication of DNA.
C. Provides replication of RNA.
D. Provides the release of viruses from a cell.
E. Provides translation.
1153. What is the function of viral carbohydrates, which are parts of glycoproteins and glycolipids?
A. *provide protection of molecules from the action of proteases
B. execute a supporting function
C. have virulent properties
D. have aggressive functions
E. All answers are correct
1154. What is the origin of HeLa cell culture?
A. Carcinoma of oral cavity
B. Carcinoma of human larynx
C. *Carcinoma of the neck of the uterus
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Myelogenic cells
1155. What is the principle difference in the structure of simple and complex viruses?
A. Presence of capsid.
B. Presence of hemagglutinin.
C. Presence of neuraminidase
D. *Presence of envelope.
E. Different types of symmetry.
1156. What is the role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?
A. *initiation and regulation of virus replication
B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell
C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus
D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus
E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope
1157. What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays?
A. Mouse
B. Rat
C. Cat
D. Dog
E. *Chicken
1158. What method can be used for examination of structures of viruses?
A. *electron microscopy
B. Serologic
C. Biologic
D. Gram’s staining
E. Loeffler’s staining
1159. What method is it possible use for examination of antigen structure of viruses?
A. electron microscopy
B. *Serologic
C. Biological
D. After cultivation on solid nutrient media
E. Gram’s technique
1160. What structure of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell
1161.
1162.
1163.
1164.
1165.
1166.
1167.
receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
What type of cytopathic effect do oncogenic viruses cause in the cell cultures?
A. destructive
B. *proliferative
C. symplast formation
D. formation of specific inclusions in cytoplasm
E. formation of specific inclusions in cell nucleus
What types of symmetry do the viruses have according to the classification?
A. helical
B. icosahedral
C. combined
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
What types of viral infections do you know?
A. productive
B. abortive
C. Lysogeny
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
What virion?
A. virus which penetrated into the cell
B. virus which reproducts inside the cell
C. *complete virus particle
D. virus in a chicken embryo
E. virus in the organism of laboratory animal
What viruses are bullet-shaped?
A. Herpesvirus
B. *Rhabdovirus
C. Ebola virus
D. Hepatitis B virus
E. Influenza virus
What viruses are rod-shaped?
A. Epidemic parotitis virus
B. *Tobacco mosaic disease viruses
C. Herpes virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Hepatitis C virus
What viruses do cause haemagglutination of red cells?
A. Influenza viruses
B. Tick-born encephalitis viruses
C. Rubella viruses
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1168. What viruses do have haemagglutinin and neuramonidase?
A. *Influenza viruses
B. Polioviruses
C. Human immunodeficiency viruses
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
1169. What was the first virus shown to cause disease?
A. Polio
B. Hepatitis
C. Tobacco mosaic virus
D. Potato blight
E. Influenza
1170. When an animal virus becomes integrated into the host's chromosome it is then called a
A. prophage
B. *provirus
C. vegetative virus
D. temperate virus
E. temperate phage.
1171. When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be
1172.
1173.
1174.
1175.
1176.
made only if
A. the acute titer is less than 10
B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20
C. there is a twofold rise in titer
D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer
E. there is no change in titer
When virus replicates in the cell it receives its shell during the following stage of the reproduction:
A. penetration
B. lysis
C. synthesis
D. uncoating
E. *Assembly
Which is not true of virions?
A. Contain DNA
B. Contain RNA
C. Are extracellular
D. Reproduce independently
E. *Induce host metabolism
Which of the following host proteins is the first to rise to high titer, in response to viral infection?
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Complement
C. *Interferon
D. Anti-idiotype antibody
E. Interleukin 1
Which of the following is caused by a viral infection?
A. Botulism
B. Salmonellosis
C. Anthrax
D. *Chicken Pox
E. Tetanus
Which of the following is not a single-stranded RNA virus?
*Herpes
Rhinovirus
Influenza
Rabies Virus
echovirus
Which of the following is not found in all viruses
A. protein
B. enzymes
C. nucleic acid
D. *a capsid
E. an envelope
Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid) cell line?
A. *WI-38.
B. HeLa.
C. HEp-2.
D. KB.
E. Detroid 5
Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s?
A. HeLa.
B. HEp-2.
C. KB.
D. Detroit 5
E. *All of the above
Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA?
A. Phage structural proteins
B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure
C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
Which of the following viruses can incorporate the molecule serving as mRNA into its capsid?
A. herpesvirus
B. rhabdovirus
C. poxvirus
D. *picornavirus
E. measles
Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template?
A. poxvirus
B. retrovirus
C. *picornavirus
D. herpesvirus
E. adenovirus
Which of these diseases is not caused by a virus?
A. AIDS
B. Measles
C. *Flesh Eating Bacteria
D. Rabies
E. Mumps
Which one of the viral components is smallest?
A. *capsomers
B. capsid
C. nucleocapsid
D. virion
E. envelope
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1177.
1178.
1179.
1180.
1181.
1182.
1183.
1184.
1185. Which structure of viruses is synthesized from late mRNA?
A. *Phage structural proteins
B. DNA polymerase
C. Early proteins
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1186. Which viruses are least accurate?
A. Temperate virus
B. Naked virus
C. Virion
D. *RNA phage
E. DNA phage
1187. ?Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. *Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. Parvoviridae
E. Rhabdoviruses
1188. Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. Poxviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Picornaviruses
D. *Parvoviridae
E. Orthomyxoviruses
1189. Which wirus has a naked nucleocapsid?
A. herpes virus
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. chicken pox
E. *picorna virus
1190. Who has described the viruses?
A. L. Pasteur
B. *D. Ivanovsky
C. R. Koch
D. A. Leeuwenhoek
E. D. Bergey
1191. A characteristic of Streptococcus mutans that allows it to initiate dental plaque and dental caries is:
A. the ability to attach specifically to the pellicle of the tooth
B. the ability to utilize sucrose as a source of carbon and energy
C. the ability to produce a dextran capsule
D. *the ability to produce lactic acid
E. all of the above
1192. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers
1193. A hypersensitive reaction occurs
A. during the first exposure to an antigen.
B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system.
C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen.
D. during autoimmune diseases.
E. in immunologically-deficient individuals.
1194. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
C. both the T and B cell systems are functional
D. only the B cell system is functional
E. a humoral immune response has decreased
1195. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A. *delayed-type allergy
B. acute contact dermatitis
C. autoimmunity
D. eczema
E. atopy
1196. About complement (everything is true,except):
A. the nonspecific factor of immunity
B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of
1197.
1198.
1199.
1200.
1201.
1202.
an eye
C. termolabile
D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid
E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing
All listed bacteria are members of normal microflora of oral cavity of mouth, except:
A. streptococci
B. actinomycetes
C. *gonococci
D. veilonella
E. fusobacteria
All of following are the factors of transmission of an infection except:
A. water
B. *bacterium carrier
C. dirty hand
D. polluted foodstuff
E. soil
All of the following are organs of immune system, except:
A. GALT
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. *thyroid gland
E. tonsil gland
All the following are the factors of virulens, except:
A. aggressins;
B. hyaluronidase
C. fibrinolysin
D. lecithinasae
E. *flagella
All the following bacteria are considered to be an indicator organism for fecal contamination in
soil, exept:
A. S. faecalis,
B. E. coli,
C. C. perfrіngens,
D. *C. albicans;
E. termophylic bacteria
Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by
A. *sensitized T cells.
IgG antibodies.
IgE antibodies.
basophils and mast cells.
sensitized macrophages.
An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for the:
A. CD 38 marker.
B. CD 25 marker.
C. CD 4 marker.
D. CD 3 marker
E. *CD 19 marker.
An antigen is
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
antibodies
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies
An aspiration method is used for research of air microflora of ___
A. maternity hall
B. operating-room
C. manipulation room
D. *all are correct
E. drugstore
An attenuated vaccine is composed of
A. killed microorganisms.
B. *living, weakened microorganisms.
C. inactivated bacterial toxins.
D. purified macromolecules.
E. recombinant vectors.
An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n)
A. immunodeficiency
B. precipitation
C. histamine.
D. *hypersensitivity.
E. allergen
An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. *lysozyme in saliva
E. all of these
An example of a type III immune complex disease is
A. *serum sickness
B. contact dermatitis
C. graft rejection
D. atopy
E. asthma
Antibiotic altering enzymes commonly cause resistance to which of the following?
A. Vancomycin
B. Trimethoprim
C. *Aminoglycosides
D. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
E. All are correct
B.
C.
D.
E.
1203.
1204.
1205.
1206.
1207.
1208.
1209.
1210.
1211. Antibiotic resistance to which of the following is caused by a by-pass mechanism (an alternative
1212.
1213.
1214.
1215.
1216.
1217.
1218.
1219.
dihydrofolate reductase)?
A. Erythromycin
B. *Trimethoprim
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. All are correct
Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except?
A. cytotoxic reactions
B. anaphylaxis
C. *tuberculin reactions
D. immune-complex rection
E. atopy reaction
Antigen-presenting cells (had activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on
their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to?
A. B-cells
B. T-killers
C. NK-cells
D. Mast cells
E. *T-helpers
Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. viruses
B. *corpuscular
C. haptens
D. high-grade
E. soluble
APC express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
AT helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if the
antigen is associated with:
A. HLA class I antigen.
B. Surface immunoglobulin.
C. *HLA class II antigen.
D. CD 8 antigen.
E. All of the above.
At research of pair serums criterion of estimation CFT at serological diagnosis of bacterial
infections:
A. norm of controls
B. full absence of hemolysis
C. partial hemolysis
D. diagnostic titer
E. *Increase of a titer of antibodies in 2 and more times
B cells are responsible for which allergies?
asthma
anaphylaxis
serum sickness
atopy
*all of the above
Bacteriemia is:
A. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;
B. *a presence of viable bacteria blood;
C. a state, when there are toxins of bacteria in the blood.
D. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism;
E. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents.
Bacteriolysis test:
A. it is not specific
B. comes to an end phagocytosis
C. *comes to an end lysis
D. comes to an end hemolysis
E. it is possible only in vitro
BCG vaccine is a:
A. *live attenuated preparation.
B. killed preparation.
C. toxoid preparation.
D. recombinant preparation.
E. vector vaccine
BCG vaccine is used for prevent:
A. diphtheria
B. *tuberculosis
C. botulism
D. brucelosis
E. Q fever
Besides coliforms, which other bacteria can serve as indicator organism/s of fecal pollution of
water?
A. *Clostridium perfringens
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. All are correct
Besides coliforms, which other bacteria can serve as indicator organism/s of fecal pollution of soil?
A. *Clostridium perfringens
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. All are correct
Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. high risk of T cell leukemia
C. inability to use a live donor
D. delayed hypersensitivity
E. autoimmune reaction
C3 is cleaved to form C3a and C3b by C3-convertase. C3b is involved in all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. *altering vascular permeability
B. promoting phagocytosis
C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1220.
1221.
1222.
1223.
1224.
1225.
1226.
1227.
D. forming C5 convertase.
E. E can bind to macrophages
1228. C3a and C5a can cause
A. A bacterial lysis
B. *B vascular permeability
C. C phagocytosis of IgE coated bacteria
D. D aggregation of C4 and C2
E. E activate protein synthesis
1229. C3b is involved in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. *altering vascular permeability
B. promoting phagocytosis
C. forming alternative-pathway C3 convertase
D. forming C5 convertase.
E. can bind to macrophages
1230. CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by:
A. *T cells.
B. В cells.
C. monocytes.
D. granulocytes.
E. mast cells
1231. CD8 surface antigen is present in:
A. helper Т cells.
B. *cytotoxic Т cells.
C. NK cells
D. both of the above.
E. none of the above.
1232. CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except):
A. a syphilis
B. gonorrhoeas
C. rickettsiosis
D. virus infections
E. *dysbacteriosis
1233. CFT it is based on activation:
A. antigenes
B. antibodies
C. red blood cells
D. hemolysin
E. *complement
1234. CFT was discovered:
A. L.Pasteur
B. L.A.Zilber
C. A.P.Vasserman
D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu
E. I.I.Mechnikov
1235. Choose species of streptococci which have selected from mucus membrane of oral cavity often:
A. S. mitis
B. S. haemolyticus, S. mutans
C. S. sanguis, S. viridans
D. S. salivarius
E. *all are correct
1236. Choose a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. *lysozyme in saliva
E. all of these
1237. Choose among given microorganisms which occupy a skin:
A. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
B. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonades
C. Clostridium, Staphylococcus aureus, Micrococcus roseus,
D. Staphylococcus, Propionobacterium, Peptococcus
E. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Neisseria
1238. ?Choose among listed microorganisms which occupy soil:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus
B. Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes
C. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
D. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
E. Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira
1239. Choose among listed microorganisms which occupy water basins.
A. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans
B. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
C. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Micrococcus roseus, Pseudomonas
E. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
1240. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. GALT, spleen
B. *thymus, bone marrow
C. lymph nodes, thymus,
D. thyroid gland, tonsil gland
E. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow
1241. Choose among the listed drugs eubiotics:
A. Bacteriocines
B. Antibiotics
C. Bificol
D. Lysozim
E. interferon
1242. Choose among the microorganisms of a colon given the basic kinds:
A. Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Lactobacillus
B. Staphylococci, streptococci, Proteus
C. Clostridium, peptococci, esherichia
D. Candida, spirochetes, micrococci
E. Diphtheroides, spirillum, fungi
1243. Choose an optimum medium for the isolation of streptococci from clinical material:
A. MPB
B. Yolk salt agar
C. Bile MPB
D. MPA
E. *Blood MPA
1244. Choose cocci which are members of normal oral microflora:
A. *S. salivarium, S. mutans|
B. S. pyogenes
C. S. haemolyticus
D. S. viridans
E. All at list
1245. Choose diseases which can be transmitted through air often?
A. AIDS, hepatitis B
dysentery, typhoid fever
tetanus, salmonelosis
*flu, measles, diphtheria
cholera
Choose drugs which are used for treatment dysbacteriosis:
A. Penicillinum, Cephalosporinum
B. Antimicrobic serums and immunoglobulines
C. Vitamins and hormones
D. Lysozym and interferon
E. Colibacterin, bifidobacterin
Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect:
A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C. They are codominantly expressed
D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. They are absent onto red blood cells
Choose methods of research of microflora of air:
A. Membranes filters
B. Pasteur's
C. Sedementative
D. Fortner's
E. Quantitative
Choose primary lymphoid organ/s:
A. thymus
B. bursa of Fabricius.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above are correct
E. all of the above are false
Choose secondary immunodeficiency
A. DiGeorge's syndrome
B. *AIDS
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Chronic granulomatous disease
Choose the factors of transmission of an infection
A. sick human
B. bacterium carrier
C. sick animal
D. *polluted foodstuff
E. bacterial capsule
Choose the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria:
A. endotoxin
B. hyaluronidase
C. *plasmocoagulase
D. aggressins
E. haemolysin
Choose the basic group of bacteria which lives on mucus membrane of oral cavity?
A. *streptococci
B. micrococci
C. neisseria
D. hemophilic microorganisms
E. enterobacteria
Choose the correct sentence according antigen:
B.
C.
D.
E.
1246.
1247.
1248.
1249.
1250.
1251.
1252.
1253.
1254.
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody,
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
1255.
1256.
1257.
1258.
1259.
1260.
1261.
1262.
antibodies.
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies.
Choose the correct statements concerning haptens:
A. A hapten is complex antigen-antibody
B. *A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to
be able to induce antibody
C. Haptens are big molecules of protein
D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic
E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic
Choose the factors of invasion:
A. urease
B. *lecithinasae
C. bacterial capsule
D. aggressins;
E. fibrinolysin
Choose the factors of invasion:
A. urease
B. *lecithinasae
C. bacterial capsule
D. aggressins;
E. fibrinolysin
Choose the main ability of Natural killer cells:
A. They can kill cells by complement depending lysis
B. They are cytotoxic T cells
C. Their level increases by immunization
D. *They able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. They opsonisses phagocytes
Choose the main properties of bacterial endotoxins:
A. proteins.
B. *lipopolysaccharide complex
C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom
D. have a tissue tropism
E. thermolabile
Choose the main properties of bacterial exotoxins:
A. *proteins.
B. lipopolysaccharide complex
C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom
D. have no a tissue tropism
E. thermostabile
Choose the mechanism of complement lyses cells
A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B. activation of adenylate cyclase
C. production of lysozyme
D. inhibition of elongation factor 2
E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
Choose the method of air microflora research:
A. membrane filters
B. Paster’s
C. *Sedimentation
D. Fortner’s
E. Quantitative
1263. Choose the source of an infection
A. soil
B. *sick person
C. dirty hand
D. mosquitoes
E. louses
1264. Choose the third - fourth degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically:
A. The subacidic pH, the low contents of glycogen , single Dodderlein’s lactic acid bacilli
B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli
C. The alkalescent pH, epitelial cells, single leukocytes
D. The alkaline pH, staphyloco-and streptococci, leukocytes
E. The subacidic pH, presence of glucose, single lactic acid bacilli
1265. Choose waterborn bacteria that cause gastroenteritidis.
A. *Escherihia coli
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Staphylococcus aureus
1266. Choose waterborn viruses that cause gastroenteritidis.
A. flu virus,
B. measles virus
C. pox virus,
D. varicella-zoster virus
E. *rotavirus
1267. Cl must interact in the classic complement pathway with:
A. antigen
B. factor B
C. *antigen-IgG complexes
D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
E. factor D and I
1268. Complement fixation refers to
A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages
B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes
C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes
D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells
E. the binding of complement components by bacteria
1269. Complement lyses cells by
A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B. activation of adenylate cyclase
C. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
D. inhibition of elongation factor 2
E. production of lysozyme
1270. Complement(everything is true, except):
A. stimulates phagocytosis
B. possesses antigenic properties
C. *possesses oncogenic properties
D. Defines bactericidal action of serum
E. Possesses cytolytic activity
1271. Components of a membrane attack complex of complement:
A. С1С4С2С3
B. С1С4С2С3С5
C. *С5С6С7С8С9
D. С3С5С6С7С8
E. С6С7С8С9
1272. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except):
A. sheep red blood cells
B. complement
C. immune serum
D. *patient’s serum
E. hemolysin
1273. Criterion of negative CFT:
A. hemolysis absence
B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++
C. *full hemolysis of red cells
D. precipitate formation
E. agglutinate formation
1274. Cytotoxic cells (NK) are
A. B cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. *able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization
D. able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production
E. macrophages.
1275. Defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract are all except:
A. bile
B. secretory IgA
C. mucus
D. *lysozyme
E. acidity in stomach
1276. Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:
A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells
B. They have a high degree of polymorphism
C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages
D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins
E. They are main in succefull transplantation
1277. Each of the following statements concerning a hybridoma cell is correct EXCEPT;
A. The spleen cell component provides the ability to form antibody
B. The myeloma cell component provides the ability to grow indefinitely
C. *The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is IgM, because heavy-chain switching does not
occur
D. The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is homogeneous; ie, it is directed against a single
epitope
E. The hybridoma cells formed by fussion of myeloma cell and plasma cell
1278. Farmer's lung is the result of
A. sensitized T cells
B. *immune complex reactions
C. type I hypersensitivity.
D. cytotoxic reactions
E. urticaria
1279. Find a convertase enzyme that acts on classical complement pathway.
A. C1
B. *C4b2b
C. C3
D. C9
E. CbBb
1280. Find the correct statements concernin haptens:
A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody
B. A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to
be able to induce antibody
C. Haptens are big molecules of protein
D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic
E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic
1281. For the first - second degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically:
A. The alkaline pH, is not enough glicogen and glucose
B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli
C. The alkalescent pH, leukocytes, staphylococci
D. The alkaline pH, staphylo-and streptococci, leukocytes
E. The alkaline pH, presence of proteins, single cocci
1282. For the third - fourth degrees of cleanliness of vaginal secret typically:
A. The subacidic pH, the low contents of glycogen , single Dodderlein’s lactic acid bacilli
B. The pH is 4.7, presence of lactic acid bacilli
C. The alkalescent pH, epitelial cells, single leukocytes
D. The alkaline pH, staphyloco-and streptococci, leukocytes
E. The subacidic pH, presence of glucose, single lactic acid bacilli
1283. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. *serological identification of microorganisms
D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
1284. Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. allergens.
B. macrophages.
C. humoral antibodies.
D. antigens
E. *T cells
1285. Frequently oral streptococci cause ______ .
A. otitis of middle ear
B. sinusitis
C. pharyngites
D. pneumonia
E. *endocardites
1286. From which factors is composition of the microbes of the air depend?
A. mineral and organic suspensions,
B. on the temperature,
C. ainfall and humidity
D. locality,
E. all are correct
1287. Gnotobiology is a science which studies:
A. Microflora of the person
B. Microflora of experimental animals
C. Life of the microbe-free animals
D. Microflora of different parts of an organism
E. Influence of various factors on normal microflora
1288. Grafts between geneticully identical individuals (ie, identical twins)
A. are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibilily antigens
B. are subject to hyperacute rejection
C. *are not rejected, even without immunosuppression
D. are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected
E. are rejected slowly as a result of minor A, B, O antigens
1289. Hemolysin is:
A. patient’s serum
B. hemolysed blood
C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells
D. serum of guine pig
E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells
1290. Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST
1291.
1292.
1293.
1294.
1295.
1296.
1297.
probably an example of
A. autoimmune diseases
B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
C. immune-complex hypersensitivity
D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. atopic hypersensitivity
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
D. AB mother carries an 0 fetus.
E. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
How are microorganisms in air controlled?
A. Settle plate method
B. Fortner's
C. Membrane's filters
D. Fortner’s
E. Drigalsky's
How are microorganisms in water controlled?
A. Settle plate method
B. Fortner's
C. Membrane's filters
D. Fortner’s
E. Drigalsky's
How can the virulence be increased?
A. *Transformation
B. disinfectant
C. antimicrobial preparation
D. immune sera
E. all are correct
How do bacteria get in air?
A. from soil, water
B. from people and animals
C. from food products
D. from plants
E. *all are correct
Human T lymphocytes:
A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.
B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.
C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is
A. NK cells
unbroken skin
*lysozyme in saliva
cilia in trachea
all of these
Hypersensitivity to penicillin and bypersensitivity to poison oak are both
A. mediated by IgE antibody
B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody
C. *initiated by haptens
D. initiated by Th-2 cells
E. initiated by proteins
Hypersensitivity to pollen is
A. *mediated by IgE antibody
B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody
C. initiated by haptens
D. initiated by Th-2 cells
E. initiated by Th-1 cells
If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose:
A. definitions of group of blood
B. *titrations of complement
C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells
D. serological identification of microorganisms
E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils
Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of
A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies
B. development of suppressor T cells .
C. saturation of IgE antibodies.
D. All of the above are correct
E. All of the above are not correct
In operation theatres, bacterial count of air shoud not exseed:
A. 100 per foot3
B. 50 per foot3
C. *10 per foot3
D. 5 per foot3
E. 1 per foot3
In presumptive coliform count of water, it is considered satisfactory if the count is:
A. 0
B. *1-3
C. 4-10
D. 10-15
E. 15-20
In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the
following?
A. neurons
B. *DNA
C. RNA
D. blood cells
B.
C.
D.
E.
1298.
1299.
1300.
1301.
1302.
1303.
1304.
1305.
E. derm
1306. Indicate the factors of transmission of an infection
A. sick human
B. bacterium carrier
C. sick animal
D. *polluted foodstuff
E. bacterial capsule
1307. Indicate the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. *complement factor C9
1308. Indicate the source of an infection
A. soil
B. *sick person
C. dirty hand
D. mosquitoes
E. louses
1309. indicator system of CFT contains:
A. complement+hemolysin
B. *red cells and hemolysin
C. patient’s serum
D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin
E. specific antigen
1310. Individuals of blood group type AB
A. are Rh(D)-negative
B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions
C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
D. . have the same haplotype
E. are "universal donors" of transfusions
1311. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have
A. decreased resistance to viral infections
B. increased hypersensitivity reactions
C. increased frequency of cancer
D. *decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia
E. increased frequency of fungi infections
1312. Infection diseases are transmitted from its source. Choose the source of an infection
A. polluted foodstuff
B. different objects
C. *sick animal
D. mosquitoes
E. fly
1313. Interferon action is:
A. *primarily antiviral
B. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes
C. to protect primary infected cells
D. found in high levels in phagocytic granules
E. kill cells infected by viruses
1314. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called
A. hay fever
B. asthma
C. shock.
D. *hives
E. rashes
1315. Lysozyme:
A. aggregates bacteria
B. captures free iron
C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall
D. enhances phagocytosis
E. is antiviral
1316. Macrophages develop from:
A. phagocytes
B. monocytes
C. *mast cells
D. T cells
E. B cells
1317. Match the types of immunity after administration antitoxic serum:
A. innate
B. naturally acquired active
C. naturally acquired passive
D. artificially acquired active
E. *artificially acquired passive
1318. Match the types of immunity after recovery from disease:
A. innate
B. *naturally acquired active
C. naturally acquired passive
D. artificially acquired active
E. artificially acquired passive
1319. Match the types of immunity after transfer of immunity from mother to fetus:
A. innate
B. naturally acquired active
C. *naturally acquired passive
D. artificially acquired active
E. artificially acquired passive
1320. Match the types of immunity after vaccination:
A. Innate
B. naturally acquired active
C. naturally acquired passive
D. *artificially acquired active
E. artificially acquired passive
1321. Match the types of immunity of humans to cat and dog distemper:
A. *innate
B. naturally acquired active
C. naturally acquired passive
D. artificially acquired active
E. artificially acquired passive
1322. Monocytes are_ leukocytes that develop into
A. *granular, phagocytes
B. agranular, macrophages
C. agrunular, mast cells
D. granular, T cells
E. granular, B cells
1323. Name human pathogens that are transmissible in water:
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
E. *Salmonella paratyphi
1324. Name the typical bacteria of water:
A. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans
B. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
C. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Micrococcus roseus, Pseudomonas
E. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
1325. Natural killer cells are
A. cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. opsonissed phagocytes
1326. Natural killer cells are involved in:
A. allograft rejection.
B. tumour rejection.
C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells.
D. type II of allergy
E. *E all of the above.
1327. Natural killer cells are:
A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. T?? cells
1328. Natural killer cells take part in:
A. allograft rejection.
B. tumour rejection.
C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells.
D. cytothoxic and cytolytic reactions
E. *all of the above
1329. NK cells are:
A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. *able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. T?? cells
1330. One of the following does not take part in the defense mechanisms of the neutrophil:
A. lactoferrin
B. superoxide anion
C. *lysozyme
D. free radicals
E. hydrogen peroxide
1331. Pair serums:
A. monozygotic twins’ serums
B. dizygotic twins’ serum
C. serums taken from different veins
D. serums of two patients with same diseases
E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics
1332. Penicillin G remains highly active against which of the following?
A. Enterococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
*Neisseria meningitidis (meningococci)
Escherichia coli
All are correct
Penicillin inhibits bacteria because it:
A. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in ribosomes.
B. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in cell wall peptidoglycan precursors.
C. *Resembles D-alanyl-D-alanine and binds to cell wall synthesis enzymes.
D. Disrupts the inner membrane.
E. All answers are right
Persistence is the state of:
A. *an occult form of disease without clinical sings;
B. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism;
C. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents.
D. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;
E. a presence of viable bacteria blood;
Persons of blood group type AB
A. are Rh(D)-negative
B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions
C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
D. have the same haplotype
E. are "universal donors" of transfusions
Physiological value of normal microflora of human are _______, EXEPT:
A. Stimulates secretory activity of a gastroenteric path
B. Activates growth of pathogenic flora
C. Raises a vascular tone and stimulates work of secretory system
D. Stimulates all kinds of a metabolism, immunity, synthesizes a number of vitamins
E. Synthesizes a number of antimicrobic substances, influences synthesis of hormones
Pollen is which type of allergen?
A. contactant
B. ingestant
C. injectant
D. *inhalant
E. insectant
Primary defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract include all except:
A. *lysozyme
B. secretory IgA
C. mucus
D. bile
E. acidity in stomach
Primary lymphoid organ/s are:
A. thymus
B. bursa of Fabricius.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above are correct
E. E all of the above are false
Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes
A. precipitation .
B. complement fixation .
C. *degranulation.
D. agglutination
E. asthma
Reinfection is:
B.
C.
D.
E.
1333.
1334.
1335.
1336.
1337.
1338.
1339.
1340.
1341.
A. *a repeated infection by the same species of microorganisms responsible for the disease
which terminated in convalescence;
a repeated infection of an organism, when main disease has not ended;
a state, when an infectious disease is spread to entire countries or continents
a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;
a presence of viable bacteria blood;
Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except):
A. *red blood cells - hemolysis
B. an antigene - hemolysis
C. serum– hemolysis
D. complement- hemolysis absence
E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence
Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the
A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles
B. autoimmune disease, nerves
C. allergy, cartilage
D. *autoimmune disease, joints
E. autoimmune disease, bones
Sanitary - exponential microorganisms of soil are, EXEPT:
A. S. faecalis,
B. coli,
C. perfrіngens,
D. tetanі;
E. termophylic bacteria
Sanitary – indicative microorganisms of water are:
A. M. candіcans,
B. M. roseus,
C. E. colі,
D. S. faecalіs;
E. C. perfrіngens
Sanitary–indicative microorganisms of air are:
A. S. typhi
B. S. typhimurium,
C. S. aureus,
D. S. epidermidis.
E. S. paratyphi
Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are:
A. lymph nodes.
B. spleen.
C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.
D. GALT
E. *all of the above
Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack
the donor cells
B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
E. all are correct
Show what is necessery for activation complement system by classic pathway?
A. factor B
B. *antigen-antibody complex
B.
C.
D.
E.
1342.
1343.
1344.
1345.
1346.
1347.
1348.
1349.
C. antigen-IgA complexes
D. bacterial capsula
E. endotoxin
1350. Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely to
1351.
1352.
1353.
1354.
1355.
1356.
1357.
1358.
be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. interleukin-10
C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
D. serotonin
E. bradykinin
Stem cells arise from:
A. yolk sac.
B. foetal liver.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above.
E. all of the above are wrong
T-killer cells are important in controlling
A. *virus infections
B. allergy
C. autoimmunity
D. antibodies synthesis
E. all of these
Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it.
A. serotonin
B. ? interferon
C. *Interleukin-6
D. TNF
E. ? interferon.
Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it.
A. serotonin
B. ? interferon
C. *Interleukin-6
D. TNF
E. ? interferon.
The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following?
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. *severe combined immunodeficiency
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. leukemia
E. agammaglobulinemia
The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out:
A. at participation of antibodies
B. *at participation of LPS
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody
E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms
The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the
A. Flagellum
B. Endotoxin
C. *Pilus
D. Peptidoglycan
E. Cell wall
The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the
Flagellum
Endotoxin
*Pilus
Peptidoglycan
Cell wall
The beta-lactamase of Staphylococcus aureus inactivates which of the following?
A. Oxacillin
B. Methicillin
C. *Ampicillin
D. Vancomycin
E. Vancomycin
The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with
A. antigen
B. factor B
C. *antigen-IgG complexes
D. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
E. E factor D and I
The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with:
A. *antigen-antibody complex
B. factor B
C. antigen-IgA complexes
D. bacterial capsula
E. endotoxin
The Classical way of activation complement is carried out:
A. without participation of antibodies
B. at participation properdin
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex
E. at formation L-transformations
The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the
A. sensiling dose
B. degranulation dose
C. *provocative dose
D. desensitizing dose
E. inhibition dose
The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
D. IgE on smooth muscle
E. the allergen on mast cells
The earliest stages of B cell differentiation
A. Occur in the embryonic thymus
B. Require the presence of antigen
C. Involve rearrangement of K chain gene segments
D. Involve rearrangement of surrogate light chain gene rearrangement
E. *Involve rearrangement of heavy chain gene segments
The first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement system is (are):
A. C3
B. C5
C. properdin
D. *C1q, C1r, C1s complex
E. membrane attack complex
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1359.
1360.
1361.
1362.
1363.
1364.
1365.
1366.
1367. The following is not part of the defense mechanisms of the neutrophil:
A. lactoferrin
B. superoxide anion
C. *lysozyme
D. free radicals
E. hydrogen peroxide
1368. The greatest amount of microbes (1 000000 per cm3) is found in the top layer of soil at a depth
____
1-2 мм|
1-5 cm
*10-15 cm
4-5 m
1-2 km
The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. cellular infiltration
The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that
A. it can be administered orally
B. *it provides antibody more rapidly
C. antibody persists for a longer period
D. it contains primarily IgM
E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies
The main function of lysozyme:
A. aggregates bacteria
B. captures free iron
C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall
D. enhances phagocytosis
E. is antiviral
The most common type of circulating white cell is the:
A. *neutrophil
B. lymphocyte
C. basophil
D. eosinophil
E. monocyte
The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the
A. specific receptor
B. *epitope
C. antibody determinant.
D. active center.
E. antigen binding place.
The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is
A. *the class (isotype) of antibody
B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
C. the participation of macrophages
D. the participation of T cells
E. correct all
The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III)
hypersensitivity is
A. the class (isotype) of antibody
B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1369.
1370.
1371.
1372.
1373.
1374.
1375.
C. the participation of complement
D. the participation of T cells
E. interraction between antigen and antibody
1376. The subcomponents of complement C3a and C5a can cause
A. bacterial lysis
B. *vascular permeability
C. phagocytosis of IgE coated bacteria
D. aggregation of C4 and C2
E. activate protein synthesis
1377. The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A. *an inflammatory response
B. histaminesies.
C. autoimmune antigens.
D. IgE.
E. autoimmune antibodies
1378. The term “disbacteriosis” means ___
A. Reduction of quantity of the anaerobic bacteria of the colon.
B. Infringements of balance between microbes of the small intestine and the colon.
C. Quantitative and qualitative infringements of balance between microbic populations in
structure of microflora
D. Increases of quantityof pathogenic microorganisms at surfaces of a skin
E. Condition of microflora of the experimental animal, caused by intervention of the
1379.
1380.
1381.
1382.
1383.
experimenter
The titer of complement:
A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system
B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis
C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis
D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent
E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis
The working doze of complement above its titer on:
A. 60-70 %
B. 50-60 %
C. 40-50 %
D. 30-40 %
E. *20-30 %
The Working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT is equal:
A. 1 : 3600
B. *1 : 400
C. 1 : 200
D. 1 : 100
E. 1 : 50
Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. *artificial active
D. natural passive
E. antitoxic passive
Vaccines are available for all of the following except:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. *Hepatitis C
D. Tetanus
E. Measles
1384. Vancomycin inhibits bacteria because it:
A. *binds to peptidoglycan precursors ending in D-alanine-D-alanine
B. binds to ribosomal subunits ending in D-alanine-D-alanine
C. inhibits protein synthesis
D. disrupts the inner membrane
E. all are correct
1385. Virulence can be decreased by all ways, except:
A. transduction
B. disinfectant
C. lysogenic conversion
D. antimicrobial preparation
E. high temperatures
1386. Virulence can be increased by
A. *Transformation
B. Disinfectant
C. antimicrobial preparation
D. immune sera
E. all are correct
1387. What anaerobic microorganisms do prevail in human intestinal microflora?
A. Fusobacteria
B. Clostridia
C. *Bifidobacteria
D. Laktobacteria
E. Enterococcci
1388. What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen:
A. *T cells.
B. В cells.
C. monocytes.
D. granulocytes.
E. mast cells
1389. What diseases can be transferred through water more often?
A. Tuberculosis, tetanus
B. Typhoid fever, dysentery, hepatites A
C. Anthrax, plagues, tularemia
D. Flu, measles, diphtherias
E. Botulism, gas gangren infections, tetanus
1390. What diseases can be transmitted through water?
A. Tuberculosis, actinomycosis
B. *Typhoid, dysentery, hepatitis A
C. Antrax, plague
D. Flu, measles, diphtheria
E. Gas anaerobic infection, tetanus
1391. What diseases should bacteroides cause?
A. appendicitis,
B. septicaemia of different aetiology,
C. postoperative infectious complications in the peritoneal cavity,
D. inflammatory processes of the gastrointestinal tract,
E. *all are correct
1392. What human pathogens are found in air?
A. *flu virus, measles virus|
B. clostridia
C. pox virus, varicella-zoster virus
D. hepatitis A virus
E. enterovirus, rotavirus
1393. What human pathogens are found in soil?
A. Lactobacteria
B. Bifidumbacteria
C. Thermophylic bacteria
D. Candida spp.
E. Clostridia
1394. What index is used for the sanitary-hygenic estimation of soil?
A. titre of enterobacteria
B. titres of enterococci and С. perfringens
C. titre of thermophylic bacteria
D. *all are correct
E. all are incorrect
1395. What is disbacteriosis?
A. Reduction of quantity of the anaerobic bacteria of the colon.
B. Infringements of balance between microbes of the small intestine and the colon.
C. Quantitative and qualitative infringements of balance between microbic populations in
structure of microflora
D. Increases of quantityof pathogenic microorganisms at surfaces of a skin
E. Condition of microflora of the experimental animal, caused by intervention of the
1396.
1397.
1398.
1399.
1400.
1401.
experimenter
What is function of natural killer?
A. Inhibit macrophages.
B. Activates B-cells.
C. *Kill tissue cells infected by viruses
D. take part in type I of allergy
E. all of the above.
What is function of T-killer cells?
A. *take part in antiviral immunity
B. allergy
C. autoimmunity
D. antibodies synthesis
E. all of these
What is the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria:
A. endotoxin
B. hyaluronidase
C. *plasmocoagulase
D. aggressins
E. haemolysin
What is the colonizatin resistance?
A. The ability of members of the normal flora to limit the growth of pathogenes
B. Ability of the microbes given biotope to be distributed to other sites of an organism
C. Resistance of the microbes of biotope to action of an antibacterial drugs
D. Invariance of the quantitative and qualitative characteristic of the microbes of biotope
E. Influence of the microbes of the separate biotope on a line located biotopes
What is the main properties of bacterial exotoxins:
A. lipids.
B. lipopolysaccharide complex
C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom
D. *have a tissue tropism
E. thermostabile
What is the mechanism of action of second type hypersensitivities?
A. IgE reacting with mast cells
activation of cytotoxic T cells
IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues
*complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies
activation of natural killer cells
What is the point of action of lysozyme?
A. inhibition of protein synthesis
B. activation of lysosome’s enzymes
C. inhibition of mRNA
D. *destroing of peptidoglycan
E. stimulation of proteolytic enzymes
What is the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
A. They are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack
the donor cells
B. *They are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. They induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. They induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
E. They induce complement depended cytolysis of the graft
What is toxoid?
A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,
B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.
C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
D. type of virus.
E. *inactivated toxin.
What medicine are used for treatment of disbacteriosis?
A. Bacteriocines
B. Antibiotics
C. Bificol
D. Lysozim
E. Interferon
What microorganism is major cause of gastritis and peptic and duodenal ulcer disease?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus species
D. Providencia species
E. Klebsiella species
What microorganisms are associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Bacteroides
D. Streptococcus
E. Treponema
What microorganisms are not members of normal flora of Digestive system?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Penicilinum
C. Bacteroides
D. Fusobacterium
E. Treponema
What microorganisms do cause teeth demineralization?
A. *streptococci
B. staphylococci
C. leptotrichia
D. veilonella
B.
C.
D.
E.
1402.
1403.
1404.
1405.
1406.
1407.
1408.
1409.
E. actinomycetes
1410. What microorganisms do have anticarious action?
A. *Veillonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Treponema
D. Lactobacilli
E. Enterobacteria
1411. What microorganisms is it possible to find in a throat in a norm?
A. gamma-hemolytic streptococci.
B. Coagulase-negative staphylococci.
C. Haemophilus haemolyticus.
D. Neisseria
E. *All are correct.
1412. What of following is considered to be an indicator organism for fecal contamination in water.
A. S. viridans,
B. E. coli,
C. C. albicans,
D. C. tetanі;
E. termophylic bacteria
1413. What of the following are not organs of immune system?
A. *thyroid gland
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. GALT
E. tonsil gland
1414. What part of respiratory system is essentially sterile?
A. lower respiratory system
B. the bronchial tubes
C. the throat
D. upper respiratory system
E. oral cavity
1415. What physiological value of normal microflora of human?
A. Stimulates secretory activity of a gastroenteric path
B. All are true
C. Raises a vascular tone and stimulates work of secretory system
D. Stimulates all kinds of a metabolism, immunity, synthesizes a number of vitamins
E. Synthesizes a number of antimicrobic substances, influences synthesis of hormones
1416. What soils do contain richest of microflora?
A. sandy
B. clayey podsol
C. *arable
D. forest
E. loose sand
1417. What subject are studied by gnotobiology?
A. Microflora of the person
B. Microflora of experimental animals
C. Life of the microbe-free animals
D. Microflora of different parts of an organism
E. Influence of various factors on normal microflora
1418. What viral diseases can transmite by water often?
A. flu, measles
B. herpes-, adenoinfections
C. pox
D. hepatitis C
E. *enteroviruss, rotaviruses
1419. What viruses do often occur in water?
A. flu virus, measles virus|
B. rabies virus, herpes virus
C. pox virus, varicella-zoster virus
D. *hepatitis A virus
E. enterovirus, rotavirus
1420. When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane,
1421.
1422.
1423.
1424.
1425.
1426.
damage to the membrane is caused mainly by
A. gamma interferon
B. phagocytosis
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells
E. natural killers
Where do human T lymphocytes locate:
A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.
B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.
C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
Which allergies are T-cell mediated?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. *type IV
E. all are correct
?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by
Rh incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
B. *Cytotoxic
C. Immune complex
D. Delayed
E. Autoimmune
Which cells do antigen-presenting cells process antigen need to activation?
A. B-cells
B. T-killers
C. NK-cells
D. Mast cells
E. *T-helpers
Which do from following cell markers belong for B lymphocyte?
A. CD 38 marker.
B. CD 25 marker.
C. CD 4 marker.
D. CD 3 marker
E. *CD 19 marker.
Which do one of the following substances released by activated helper T cells can activate T
killers?
A. trasfer factor
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin- 6
D. Interleukin-4
E. lymphotoxin
1427. Which do T cells activate the functions of B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. *Helper
C. Cytotoxic
D. Natural killer
E. K cells
1428. Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic
C. *Helper
D. Natural killer
E. K cells
1429. Which does not provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1430. Which drugs are used for treatment dysbacteriosis?
A. Penicillinum, Cephalosporinum
B. Antimicrobic serums and immunoglobulines
C. Vitamins and hormones
D. Lysozym and interferon
E. Colibacterin, bifidobacterin
1431. Which eubiotic is used for the correction of disbacteriosis of oral microflora?
A. *aerococci
B. bifidobacteria
C. lactobacilli
D. peptostreptococci
E. escherihii
1432. Which factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection has antiviral activity:
A. *NK cell
B. unbroken skin
C. lysozyme in saliva
D. cilia in trachea
E. all of these
1433. Which lymphocytes have CD8 surface antigen on their surface:
A. helper Т cells.
B. *cytotoxic Т cells.
C. NK cells
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
1434. Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans?
A. Capsular polysaccharides
B. Recombinant surface antigens
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. *DNA-based
E. All of the above
1435. Which microorganisms are occupy a skin:
A. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
B. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonades
C. Clostridium, Staphylococcus aureus, Micrococcus roseus,
D. Staphylococcus, Propionobacterium, Peptococcus
E. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Neisseria
1436. Which of followinf is the source of an infection?
A. soil
B. *sick person
C. dirty hand
D. mosquitoes
E. louses
1437. Which of following bacterial structures are known to formation drug resistance?
A. bacterial enzymes
B. *plasmids
C. bacterial chromosome
D. cytoplasm
E. ribosome
1438. Which of following is/are soil bacteria?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Enterobacer aerogenes
C. Bacillus mycoides
D. *All are correct
E. All are incorrect
1439. Which of following is/are water-born pathogens?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. *All are correct
E. All are incorrect
1440. Which of following organisms can serve as indicator/s of fecal pollution of drinking water?
A. *Escherihia coli
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Influenza virus
1441. Which of following organisms can serve as indicator/s of fecal pollution of soil?
A. *Escherihia coli
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Influenza virus
1442. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with DNA replication?
A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides)
B. sulfonamides
C. *Fluoroquinolones
D. Pyrimethamine
E. Penicillin
1443. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides)
B. sulfonamides
C. penicillins
D. pyrimethamine
E. *Cephalosporins
1444. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)
B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
C. Rifampin
D. *Tetracyclines
E. All are correct
1445. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with folic acid synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)
B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
C. *Sulfonamides
D. Rifampin
E. Cephalosporins
1446. Which of the following are narrow spectrum drugs?
A. Vancomycin and Cephalosporins
B. Cephalosporins and Aztreonam
C. *Aztreonam and Vancomycin
D. Tetracycline and Vancomycin
E. All are correct
1447. Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections?
A. Complement proteins
B. ABO antibodies
C. *MHC antigens
D. MHC antibodies
E. Mast cells
1448. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue?
A. spleen
B. *thyroid gland
C. lymph nodes
D. GALT
E. tonsil gland
1449. Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. *cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. complement factor C5
1450. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. *complement factor C9
1451. Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement
system?
A. properdin
B. *membrane attack complex
C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
D. complement factor C4
E. complement factor C5
1452. Which of the following is the first product of the activation of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. *complement factor C1(C1q,C1r,C1s)
E. complement factor C5
1453. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?
A. *An adjuvant
A hapten
Antiserum
Purified antigen
Crude antigen
Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity?
A. complement
B. collagenase
C. *C. interferon
D. lysozyme
E. lysosome
Which of the following pairs is mismatched
A. vagina --- lactobacilli
B. eye --- lysozyme
C. oropharynx --- anaerobes
D. mucus --- lactoferrin
E. *skin --- Gram negative
Which of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is noncorrect:
A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells
B. They have a high degree of polymorphism
C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages
D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins
E. They are main in succefull transplantation
Which of the following substances has antiviral activity?
A. *interferon
B. collagenase
C. complement
D. lysozyme
E. lysosome
Which of the following vaccine is attenuated?
A. Dysentery vaccines.
B. Cholera vaccines
C. *BCG
D. Diphtheria vaccines.
E. Solk polio vaccines.
Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes?
A. *BCG and oral polio vaccines.
B. Cholera and dysentery vaccines.
C. Measles and Solk polio vaccines.
D. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines.
E. All of the above.
Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity?
A. hayfever
B. *allergic contact dermatitis
C. glomerulonephritis
D. penicillin reaction
E. blood transfusion reaction
Which one of the following has little if any activity against Gram-negative bacilli?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Fluoroquinolone
C. *Vancomycin
D. Cephalosporin
E. Aztreonam
Which one of the following is true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
B.
C.
D.
E.
1454.
1455.
1456.
1457.
1458.
1459.
1460.
1461.
1462.
It can be triggered by infectious agents in presence of antibody
*It does not require C1,C2, or C4
It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already absent
It has the different terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway
C4a2b presents
Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody
B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4
C. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present
D. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway
E. C3bBb presents
Which one of the following is the BEST method of reducing the effect of graft-versus-host disease
in a bone marrow recipient?
A. Matching the complement components of donor and recipient
B. Administering alpha interferon
C. *Removing mature T cells from the graft
D. Removing pre-B cells from the graft
E. Using monoclonal antibodies
Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-5
D. Interleukin-6
E. bradikidin
Which species of microbes in the intestine are the vitamins essential for the human body (B1, B2,
B12, K) produce?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Candida spp.
C. Streptococcus viridans.
D. *Escherihia coli.
E. Streptococcus mutans
Which substances can produce Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-5
D. Interleukin-6
E. bradikidin
Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn?
A. emergence of forbidden clones of B-cells
B. *production of antibodies against sequestered tissues
C. infection-induced change in receptors
D. hapten (chemical) induced change of tissue antigens
E. all of these are possible
Who did coin the term vaccine?
A. Edward Jenner.
B. Kitasato.
C. Ehrlich.
D. *Louis Pasteur,
E. Robert Koch.
Who did consider some species of intestinal bacteria to be harmful, causing chronic intoxications?
A. Metchnikoff
B. Pasteur
C. Koch
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1463.
1464.
1465.
1466.
1467.
1468.
1469.
1470.
D. Erlich
E. Fleming
1471. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. *Louis Pasteur.
B. Semple.
C. Edward Jenner
D. Paul Ehrlich.
E. Wasserman.
1472. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur.
B. *Edward Jenner.
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. John Hunter.
E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
1473. Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells?
A. because inhibits protein synthesis
B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes
C. because inhibits mRNA
D. *because attacks of peptidoglycan
E. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes
1474. You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to
1475.
1476.
1477.
1478.
1479.
hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis?
A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells
B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells
C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells
D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells
E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells
Your patient is a child who has no detectable T cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the
result of a defect in
A. *the thymus
B. the bursal equivalent
C. bone marrow
D. T cell-B cell interaction
E. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to:
A. other APCs
B. B lymphocytes
C. *Th lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. NK cells
A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to:
A. other APCs
B. B lymphocytes
C. *Th lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. NK cells
A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express:
A. *the TcR
B. CD4
C. Class II MHC
D. membrane Ig
E. the BcR
According to antigene of precipitation test(everything is true, except):
urine centrifugate
lysed microbial cells
an extract of foodstuff
bacterial toxins
*suspension of bacteria
According to antigene of precipitation test(everything is true, except):
A. urine centrifugate
B. lysed microbial cells
C. an extract of foodstuff
D. bacterial toxins
E. *suspension of bacteria
All of the following are organs of immune system, except:
A. GALT
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. *thyroid gland
E. tonsil gland
An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for the:
A. CD 38 marker.
B. CD 25 marker.
C. CD 4 marker.
D. CD 3 marker
E. *CD 19 marker.
An antibody directed against the idiotypic determinants of a human IgG antibody would react with
A. The Fc part of the IgG
B. *An IgM antibody produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG
C. All human kappa chains
D. All human gamma chains
E. The hinge region
An antibody directed against the idiotypic determinants of a human IgG antibody would react with
A. The Fc part of the IgG
B. *An IgM antibody produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG
C. All human kappa chains
D. All human gamma chains
E. The hinge region
An antigen is
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
antibodies
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies
An immunoglobulin is a
A. protein.
B. carbohydrate.
C. *glycoprotein.
D. fatty acid.
E. nucleic acid.
An immunoglobulin is a
A. protein.
B. carbohydrate.
C. *glycoprotein.
D. fatty acid.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1480.
1481.
1482.
1483.
1484.
1485.
1486.
1487.
E. nucleic acid.
1488. Antibody-secreting cells are called:
A. *plasma cells
B. T cell blasts
C. macrophages
D. B lymphoblasts
E. pre-B lymphocytes
1489. Antibody-secreting cells are called:
A. *plasma cells
B. T cell blasts
C. macrophages
D. B lymphoblasts
E. pre-B lymphocytes
1490. Antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
1491. Antigen-presenting cells (had activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on
1492.
1493.
1494.
1495.
1496.
their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to?
A. B-cells
B. T-killers
C. NK-cells
D. Mast cells
E. *T-helpers
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper Tcells must express which one of the following on
their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. gM
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper Tcells must express which one of the following on
their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. gM
APC express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
are primarily responsible for such specificity?
Cytotoxic T cells
*Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells
The major histocompatibility complex
Specific T cell receptors
Memory cells
B-cells do which of the following?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
C. Act as antigen-processing cells
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
B-cells do which of the following?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
C. Act as antigen-processing cells
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by:
A. *T cells.
B. В cells.
C. monocytes.
D. granulocytes.
E. mast cells
?CD4 and CD8 both:
A. bind to Class II MHC
B. function in signal transduction
C. bind to B7
D. *T cells
E. B1 and B2 cells
?CD4 and CD8 both:
A. bind to Class II MHC
B. function in signal transduction
C. bind to B7
D. *T cells
E. B1 and B2 cells
CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface molecules?
A. ICAM
B. TcR
C. *CD40L
D. CD16
E. CD8
CD8 is a glycoprotein found on:
A. all lymphocytes
B. B cells
C. *cytotoxic T cells
D. helper T cells
E. NK cells
CD8 is a glycoprotein found on:
A. all lymphocytes
B. B cells
C. *cytotoxic T cells
D. helper T cells
E. NK cells
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1497.
1498.
1499.
1500.
1501.
1502.
1503.
1504.
1505. CD8 surface antigen is present in:
A. helper Т cells.
B. *cytotoxic Т cells.
C. NK cells
D. both of the above.
E. none of the above.
1506. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. GALT, spleen
B. *thymus, bone marrow
C. lymph nodes, thymus,
D. thyroid gland, tonsil gland
E. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow
1507. Choose correct statement about important function of antibody in a host defense from the next:
A. Activation of lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
C. *Facilitation of phagocytosis
D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
E. Inhibition of bacterial metabolism
1508. Choose correct statement about important function of antibody in a host defense from the next:
A. Activation of lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
C. *Facilitation of phagocytosis
D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
E. Inhibition of bacterial metabolism
1509. Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect:
A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C. They are codominantly expressed
D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. They are absent onto red blood cells
1510. Choose in the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins noncorrect:
A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C. They are codominantly expressed
D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. They are absent onto red blood cells
1511. Choose primary lymphoid organ/s:
A. thymus
B. bursa of Fabricius.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above are correct
E. all of the above are false
1512. Choose the correct sentence according antigen:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody,
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
antibodies.
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies.
1513. Choose the correct statements concerning haptens:
A. A hapten is complex antigen-antibody
B. *A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to
be able to induce antibody
C. Haptens are big molecules of protein
D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic
E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic
1514. Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
1515.
1516.
1517.
1518.
1519.
1520.
1521.
following types of cells?
A. epithelial cells
B. *macrophages
C. nerve cells
D. basophils
E. all of the above
Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
following types of cells?
A. epithelial cells
B. *macrophages
C. nerve cells
D. basophils
E. all of the above
Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response
A. *has a longer lag phase.
B. has a more rapid log phase.
C. persists for a longer plateau period.
D. attains a higher IgG titer.
E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Basophils
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Basophils
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called:
A. perforations
B. *perforins
C. perforinse
D. performins
E. perporins
Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called:
A. perforations
B. *perforins
C. perforinse
D. performins
E. perporins
Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill
A. target cells from the same host .infected with any virus
B. *infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
C. infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
D. infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
E. infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
1522. Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill
A. target cells from the same host .infected with any virus
B. *infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
C. infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
D. infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
E. infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
1523. During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the
A. *mu chain
B. B gamma chain
C. epsilon chain
D. alpha chain
E. kappa chain
1524. During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the
A. *mu chain
B. B gamma chain
C. epsilon chain
D. alpha chain
E. kappa chain
1525. Each of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:
A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells
B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells
C. They are codominantly expressed
D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. E They are absent onto red blood cells
1526. Find the correct sentence according antigen:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these
1527.
1528.
1529.
1530.
antibodies.
C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
D. a carbohydrate
E. a protein that combines with antibodies.
Find the correct statements concernin haptens:
A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody
B. A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to
be able to induce antibody
C. Haptens are big molecules of protein
D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic
E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic
Human T lymphocytes:
A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.
B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.
C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
Idiotypic determinants are located within
A. *Hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains
B. Constant regions of light chains
C. Constant regions of heavy chains
D. The hinge region
E. Constant regions of light and heavy chains
Idiotypic determinants are located within
A. *Hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains
B. Constant regions of light chains
C. Constant regions of heavy chains
D. The hinge region
E. Constant regions of light and heavy chains
1531. If art individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
1532.
1533.
1534.
1535.
1536.
1537.
1538.
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
If art individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
following types of cells?
A. *B lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. both a & c
E. NK cells
Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the
following types of cells?
A. *B lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. both a & c
E. NK cells
In the immune response to a hapten-protein conjugate, in order to get artti-hapten antibodies it is
essential that
A. the hapten be recognized by helper T cells
B. *the protein be recognized by helper T cells
C. the protein be recognized by B cells
D. the hapten be recognized by suppressor T cells
E. the hapten be recognized by natural killers
In the immune response to a hapten-protein conjugate, in order to get artti-hapten antibodies it is
essential that
A. the hapten be recognized by helper T cells
B. *the protein be recognized by helper T cells
C. the protein be recognized by B cells
D. the hapten be recognized by suppressor T cells
E. the hapten be recognized by natural killers
Individuals of blood group type AB
A. are Rh(D)-negative
B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions
C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
D. . have the same haplotype
E. are "universal donors" of transfusions
Isotypes refer to variations in the
A. light chain variable region.
light chain constant region.
heavy chain variable region.
*heavy chain constant region.
Any of the above.
Isotypes refer to variations in the
A. light chain variable region.
B. light chain constant region.
C. heavy chain variable region.
D. *heavy chain constant region.
E. Any of the above.
Isotypes refer to variations in the
A. light chain variable region.
B. light chain constant region.
C. heavy chain variable region.
D. *heavy chain constant region.
E. Any of the above.
Macrophage as antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. *Class II MHC antigens
E. Class III MHC antigens
Membrane bound Ig is just one part of a complex known as the B cell receptor complex.Additional
accessory proteins are termed:
A. *Ig? and Ig?
B. CD4 and CD8
C. Ca and Cb
D. CD3 and TcR
E. Cq and Cr
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by
A. lymphocytes.
B. myeloma cells.
C. *hybridomas.
D. spleen cells.
E. plasma cells.
Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT
A. the typing of tissue.
B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
C. the identification of tumor antigens.
D. the classification of leukemias.
E. *the manipulation of the immune response.
Opsonization refers to
A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation.
B. aglutination of red blood cells.
C. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement.
D. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells.
E. antibody mediated viral inactivation.
Persons of blood group type AB
A. are Rh(D)-negative
B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions
C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
D. have the same haplotype
E. are "universal donors" of transfusions
B.
C.
D.
E.
1539.
1540.
1541.
1542.
1543.
1544.
1545.
1546.
1547. Primary lymphoid organ/s are:
A. thymus
B. bursa of Fabricius.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above are correct
E. E all of the above are false
1548. Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as:
A. A poptos
B. a poptosis
C. a pop tosis
D. apopstasis
E. *apoptosis
1549. Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as:
A. A poptos
B. a poptosis
C. a pop tosis
D. apopstasis
E. *apoptosis
1550. Regarding Th-1 and Th-2 cells, which one ofthe following is LEAST accurate?
A. Th-1 cells produce gamma interferon and promote cell-mediated immunity
B. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-4 and -5 and promote antibody-mediated immunity
C. Both Th-1 and Th-2 cells have both CD3 and CD4 proteins on their outer cell membrane
D. *Before naive Th cells differentiate into Th-1 or Th-2 cells, they are, double- positives; ie,
they produce both gamma interferon and intefleukin-4
E. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-10 and inhibit activity of Th-2 cells
1551. Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are:
A. lymph nodes.
B. spleen.
C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.
D. GALT
E. *all of the above
1552. Shoose correct answer according the primary immune response
A. *has a longer lag phase.
B. has a more rapid log phase.
C. persists for a longer plateau period.
D. attains a higher IgG titer.
E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
1553. Shoose correct answer according the primary immune response
A. *has a longer lag phase.
B. has a more rapid log phase.
C. persists for a longer plateau period.
D. attains a higher IgG titer.
E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
1554. Show a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. *lysozyme in saliva
E. all of these
1555. Show primary lymphoid organ/s:
A. thymus
B. bursa of Fabricius.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above are correct
E. all of the above are false
1556. Stem cells arise from:
A. yolk sac.
B. foetal liver.
C. bone marrow.
D. *all of the above.
E. all of the above are wrong
1557. structure?
A. *The amino acid sequence variation of the heavy chains is different than that observed in light
chains
B. In humans, there are approximately twice as many Ig molecules with H ?and L chains
C. In the three-dimensional structure of Ig, there is little, if any, flexibility in the hinge region
1558.
1559.
1560.
1561.
1562.
1563.
1564.
between the Fc and two Fab portions
D. IgM is a monomeric structure
E. Ig structural studies have been difficult because there is no readily available model protein
T-killer cells are important in controlling
A. *virus infections
B. allergy
C. autoimmunity
D. antibodies synthesis
E. all of these
TcRs are present in the cell membrane of:
A. all mature null cells
B. all mature lymphocytes
C. *all mature T lymphocytes
D. all mature monocytes
E. all mature K cells
TcRs are present in the cell membrane of:
A. all mature null cells
B. all mature lymphocytes
C. *all mature T lymphocytes
D. all mature monocytes
E. all mature K cells
Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it.
A. serotonin
B. ? interferon
C. *Interleukin-6
D. TNF
E. ? interferon.
The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by
A. The constant regions of H and L chains
B. *The hypervariable regions of H and L chains
C. The hypervariable regions of H chains
D. The variable regions of H chains
E. The variable regions of L chains
The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by
A. the constant regions of H and L chains
B. *the hypervariable regions of H and L chains
C. the hypervariable regions of H chains
D. the variable regions of M chains
E. the variable regions of L chains
The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by
The constant regions of H and L chains
*The hypervariable regions of H and L chains
The hypervariable regions of H chains
The variable regions of H chains
The variable regions of L chains
The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to:
A. the constant regions of the light chains
B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains
C. the variable regions of the heavy chains
D. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains
E. the constant regions of the heavy chains
The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to:
A. the constant regions of the light chains
B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains
C. the variable regions of the heavy chains
D. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains
E. the constant regions of the heavy chains
The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on'the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue
section is the
A. precipitin test
B. complement fixation test
C. agglutination test
D. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test
E. coagglutination test
The CD4 glycoprotein is found:
A. on all Tc lymphocytes
B. only on Th1 lymphocytes
C. *on all Th lymphocytes
D. on all NK cells
E. on all B lymphocytes
The CD4 glycoprotein is found:
A. on all Tc lymphocytes
B. only on Th1 lymphocytes
C. *on all Th lymphocytes
D. on all NK cells
E. on all B lymphocytes
The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human is
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
The class of immunoglobullin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
The earliest stages of B cell differentiation
A. Occur in the embryonic thymus
B. Require the presence of antigen
C. Involve rearrangement of K chain gene segments
D. Involve rearrangement of surrogate light chain gene rearrangement
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1565.
1566.
1567.
1568.
1569.
1570.
1571.
1572.
E. *Involve rearrangement of heavy chain gene segments
1573. The effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Lysis of gram-negative bacteria in conjunction with complement
B. Enhancement of phagocytosis
C. *Inhibition of bacterial metabolism
D. Inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces
E. Neutralization of toxins
1574. The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to
A. host tissue.
B. various cells of the immune system.
C. some phagocytic cells.
D. lysosomes.
E. *antigen.
1575. The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to
A. host tissue.
B. various cells of the immune system.
C. some phagocytic cells.
D. lysosomes.
E. *antigen.
1576. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies specifically on
A. combinatorial joinings.
B. somatic mutations.
C. variations in the splicing process.
D. *B-cell clones.
E. T-cell clones.
1577. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies specifically on
A. combinatorial joinings.
B. somatic mutations.
C. variations in the splicing process.
D. *B-cell clones.
E. T-cell clones.
1578. The fragment required for an IgG molecule to bind complement is
A. Fab
B. *Fc
C. Variable part of a L-chain
D. Variable part of a H-chain
E. Constant parts of the L-chains
1579. The fragment required for an IgG molecule to bind complement is
A. Fab
B. *Fc
C. Variable part of a L-chain
D. Variable part of a H-chain
E. Constant parts of the L-chains
1580. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is:
A. the spleen
B. the thymus
C. *the bone marrow
D. the appendix
E. GALT
1581. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is:
A. the spleen
B. the thymus
C. *the bone marrow
D. the appendix
E. GALT
1582. The main function of lysozyme:
A. aggregates bacteria
B. captures free iron
C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall
D. enhances phagocytosis
E. is antiviral
1583. The MAIN host defense against bacterial exotoxins is
A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies
C. Helper T cells
D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies
1584. The MAIN host defense against bacterial exotoxins is
A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies
C. Helper T cells
D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies
1585. The membrane IgM and IgD on the surface of an individual B cell
A. have identical heavy chains but different light chains
B. *are identical except for their CH regions
C. are identical except for their VH regions
D. have different VH and VL regions
E. are identical in the hinge region
1586. The membrane IgM and IgD on the surface of an individual B cell
A. have identical heavy chains but different light chains
B. *are identical except for their CH regions
C. are identical except for their VH regions
D. have different VH and VL regions
E. are identical in the hinge region
1587. The most common type of circulating white cell is the:
A. *neutrophil
B. lymphocyte
C. basophil
D. eosinophil
E. monocyte
1588. The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the
A. specific receptor
B. *epitope
C. antibody determinant.
D. active center.
E. antigen binding place.
1589. The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies
A. antibodies.
B. *antigen.
C. immune complexes.
D. cytokines.
E. All of the above.
1590. The TcR is found on:
A. all mature lymphocytes
B. *all mature T lymphocytes
C. all mature B lymphocytes
D. all NK cells
E. all monocytes
1591. The TcR is found on:
A. all mature lymphocytes
B. *all mature T lymphocytes
C. all mature B lymphocytes
D. all NK cells
E. all monocytes
1592. The thymus is considered to be:
A. *a primary lymphoid organ
B. a secondary lymphoid organ
C. a reticuloendothelial organ
D. a specialized lymph node
E. a complement producing organ
1593. The thymus is considered to be:
A. *a primary lymphoid organ
B. a secondary lymphoid organ
C. a reticuloendothelial organ
D. a specialized lymph node
E. a complement producing organ
1594. What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter E
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Complement binding region
E. *Receptor for placental passage
1595. What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen:
A. *T cells
B. В cells
C. monocytes
D. granulocytes
E. mast cells
1596. What is function of T-killer cells?
A. *take part in antiviral immunity
B. allergy
C. autoimmunity
D. antibodies synthesis
E. all of these
1597. What of the following are not organs of immune system?
A. *thyroid gland
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. GALT
E. tonsil gland
1598. Where do human T lymphocytes locate:
A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.
B. Are found in the red .pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.
C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
1599. Which do from following cell markers belong for B lymphocyte?
A. CD 38 marker.
CD 25 marker.
CD 4 marker.
CD 3 marker
*CD 19 marker.
Which do T cells activate the functions of B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. *Helper
C. Cytotoxic
D. Natural killer
E. K cells
Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic
C. *Helper
D. Natural killer
E. K cells
Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. *IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. *IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. *IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response? It has four
subclasses.
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
Which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital
secretions?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. *IgA
E. IgD
Which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital
secretions?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
B.
C.
D.
E.
1600.
1601.
1602.
1603.
1604.
1605.
1606.
1607.
D. *IgA
E. IgD
1608. Which lymphocytes have CD8 surface antigen on their surface:
A. helper Т cells.
B. *cytotoxic Т cells.
C. NK cells
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
1609. Which of the following are function of B-cells?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
C. Act as antigen-processing cells
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
1610. Which of the following are function of B-cells?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
C. Act as antigen-processing cells
D. *All of the above
E. None of the above
1611. Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface?
A. follicular dendritic cells
B. macrophages
C. basophils
D. eosinophils
E. *all of the above
1612. Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells?
A. Class I
B. *Class II
C. Class III
D. Class II & Class III
E. Class I & Class III
1613. Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen?
A. IL-2
B. *IL-1
C. IL-6
D. TNF-?
E. IFN-?
1614. Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen?
A. IL-2
B. *IL-1
C. IL-6
D. TNF-?
E. IFN-?
1615. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation?
A. MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. *MHC class III molecules
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1616. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation?
A. MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. *MHC class III molecules
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1617. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue?
A. spleen
B. *thyroid gland
C. lymph nodes
D. GALT
E. tonsil gland
1618. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the
1619.
1620.
1621.
1622.
1623.
1624.
1625.
immunoglobulin pool?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. *IgG
E. IgM
Which of the following is useful to stimulate antibody production?
A. *An adjuvant
B. A hapten
C. Antiserum
D. Purified antigen
E. Crude antigen
Which of the following is useful to stimulate antibody production?
A. *An adjuvant
B. A hapten
C. Antiserum
D. Purified antigen
E. Crude antigen
Which of the following pairs is mismatched
A. vagina --- lactobacilli
B. eye --- lysozyme
C. oropharynx --- anaerobes
D. mucus --- lactoferrin
E. *skin --- Gram negative
Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have antagonistic activities?
A. IL-1 and TNF-?
B. IL-12 and IFN-?
C. *IL-10 and IFN-?
D. IL-4 and IL-5
E. IFN-? and IL-2
Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have antagonistic activities?
A. IL-1 and TNF-?
B. IL-12 and IFN-?
C. *IL-10 and IFN-?
D. IL-4 and IL-5
E. IFN-? and IL-2
Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have redundant activities?
A. IL-1 and TNF-?
B. *IL-10 and IFN-?
C. IL-1 and IL-3
D. TNF-? and IL-2
E. IFN-? and IFN-?
Which of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is noncorrect:
*They are found on the surface of both B and T cells
They have a high degree of polymorphism
They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages
They have a binding site for CD4 proteins
They are main in succefull transplantation
Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes?
A. CD2
B. CD3
C. CD4
D. CD5
E. *CD8
Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes?
A. CD2
B. CD3
C. CD4
D. CD5
E. *CD8
Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT?
A. Allotypes are found only on heavy chains
B. Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes
C. Allotypes are confined to the variable regions
D. *Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species
E. Allotypes are found only on light chains
Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
A. *Alpha interferon
B. Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-2
D. Interleukin-4
E. Interleukin-10
Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
A. *Alpha interferon
B. Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-2
D. Interleukin-4
E. Interleukin-10
Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells?
A. ? interferon
B. ? interferon
C. TNF
D. *Interleukin-6
E. serotonin
Which substances can produce Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-5
D. Interleukin-6
E. bradikidin
Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?
A. IgE
B. IgG1
C. IgG2
D. IgG3
E. *IgM
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1626.
1627.
1628.
1629.
1630.
1631.
1632.
1633.
1634. Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?
A. IgE
B. IgG1
C. IgG2
D. IgG3
E. *IgM
1635. Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?
A. IgE
B. IgG1
C. IgG2
D. IgG3
E. *IgM
1636. A certain microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the
1637.
1638.
1639.
1640.
1641.
1642.
coagglutination test. Choose him among listed:
A. Micrococcus luteus
B. *Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Salmonella typhi
A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into
unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by
A. *IgE antibody
B. IgG .antibody
C. sensitized T cell
D. complement
E. IgM antibody
A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers
A hypersensitive reaction occurs
A. during the first exposure to an antigen.
B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system.
C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen.
D. during autoimmune diseases.
E. in immunologically-deficient individuals.
A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST likely to
be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
C. serotonin
D. bradykinin
E. ?-interferon
A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
C. both the T and B cell systems are functional
D. only the B cell system is functional
E. level of antibodies to tuberculin is normal
A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
*a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
both the T and B cell systems are functional
only the B cell system is functional
a humoral immune response has decreased
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A. *delayed-type allergy
B. acute contact dermatitis
C. autoimmunity
D. eczema
E. atopy
A simple radial immunodiffusion allows to define the amount of immunoglobulins of different
classes in a serum. It is necessary for this purpose:
A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel
B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel
C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody
D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around
and bring in the different types of antibodies into them
E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel
A titre of agglutination test is accepted as:
A. the least dillution of antigen
B. *maximum dillution of serum, which resuts positivly with the specific antigen
C. minimum dillution of serum, which results positivly with an antigen
D. minimum dillution of antibody
E. maximum dillution of antigen
About complement (everything is true,except):
A. the nonspecific factor of immunity
B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of
an eye
C. termolabile
D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid
E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing
About complement (everything is true,except):
A. the nonspecific factor of immunity
B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of
an eye
C. termolabile
D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid
E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing
All immunologic tests are based on:
A. process of recognition of antigen by the receptors of macrophage
B. co-operating of antigen with dendritic cells
C. recognition of antibody by antigen’s epitopes
D. *co-operating of antigen with an antibody
E. all of assertions are true
Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by
A. *sensitized T cells.
B. IgG antibodies.
C. IgE antibodies.
D. basophils and mast cells.
E. sensitized macrophages.
An attenuated vaccine is composed of
A. killed microorganisms.
B. *living, weakened microorganisms.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1643.
1644.
1645.
1646.
1647.
1648.
1649.
1650.
C. inactivated bacterial toxins.
D. purified macromolecules.
E. recombinant vectors.
1651. An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n)
A. immunodeficiency
B. precipitation
C. histamine.
D. *hypersensitivity.
E. allergen
1652. An example of a type III immune complex disease is
A. *serum sickness
B. contact dermatitis
C. graft rejection
D. atopy
E. asthma
1653. Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except?
A. cytotoxic reactions
B. anaphylaxis
C. *tuberculin reactions
D. immune-complex rection
E. atopy reaction
1654. Antigen composition of bacteria has a crucial value :
A. At the cultivation of bacteria
B. For the study of their biological properties
C. *For establishing of the bacteria type
D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance
E. At determining of toxigenic properties
1655. Antigen structure of bacteria has a crucial value :
A. At the cultivation of bacteria
B. For the study of their biological properties
C. *For establishing of the bacteria type
D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance
E. At determining of toxigenic properties
1656. Antigenes of precipitation test:
A. corpuscular
B. are absent
C. *molecular
D. only hapten
E. antigens are not solubile
1657. Antigens used for the precipitation test can be:
A. serum’s proteins
B. liquid and transparent
C. lysed bacteria
D. the extracts of microorganisms
E. *all of the above is true
1658. Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. viruses
B. *corpuscular
C. haptens
D. high-grade
E. soluble
1659. Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. viruses
*corpuscular
haptens
high-grade
soluble
As an investigated material for serological diagnostics (definition of a level of antibodies) use:
A. pus
B. sputum
C. urine
D. *serum of blood
E. liquor
At O-agglutination bacteria stick together:
A. By flagellas
B. *By bodies
C. By capsules
D. By hairs
E. By proteins
At research of pair serums criterion of estimation CFT at serological diagnosis of bacterial
infections:
A. norm of controls
B. full absence of hemolysis
C. partial hemolysis
D. diagnostic titer
E. *Increase of a titer of antibodies in 2 and more times
B cells are responsible for which allergies?
A. asthma
B. anaphylaxis
C. serum sickness
D. atopy
E. *all of the above
Bacteria stick together at O-agglutination:
A. By flagellas
B. *By bodies
C. By capsules
D. By hairs
E. By proteins
Bacteriolysis test:
A. it is not specific
B. comes to an end phagocytosis
C. *comes to an end lysis
D. comes to an end hemolysis
E. it is possible only in vitro
Bacteriolysis test:
A. it is not specific
B. comes to an end phagocytosis
C. *comes to an end lysis
D. comes to an end hemolysis
E. it is possible only in vitro
BCG vaccine is a:
A. *live attenuated preparation.
B. killed preparation.
C. toxoid preparation.
D. recombinant preparation.
E. vector vaccine
B.
C.
D.
E.
1660.
1661.
1662.
1663.
1664.
1665.
1666.
1667.
1668. BCG vaccine is used for prevent:
A. diphtheria
B. *tuberculosis
C. botulism
D. brucelosis
E. Q fever
1669. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. high risk of T cell leukemia
C. inability to use a live donor
D. delayed hypersensitivity
E. autoimmune reaction
1670. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
A. *Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. High risk of T cell leukemia
C. Inability to use a live donor
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
E. High risk of immunodeficiency
1671. CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except):
A. a syphilis
B. gonorrhoeas
C. rickettsiosis
D. virus infections
E. *dysbacteriosis
1672. CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except):
A. a syphilis
B. gonorrhoeas
C. rickettsiosis
D. virus infections
E. *dysbacteriosis
1673. CFT it is based on activation:
A. antigenes
B. antibodies
C. red blood cells
D. hemolysin
E. *complement
1674. CFT it is based on activation:
A. antigenes
B. antibodies
C. red blood cells
D. hemolysin
E. *complement
1675. CFT was discovered:
A. L.Pasteur
B. L.A.Zilber
C. A.P.Vasserman
D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu
E. I.I.Mechnikov
1676. CFT was discovered:
A. L.Pasteur
B. L.A.Zilber
C. A.P.Vasserman
D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu
E. I.I.Mechnikov
1677. Choose functions, not incident to the antibodies among listed:
A. neutralize bacteria
B. neutralize exotoxin
C. opsonizate bacteria
D. activate cytotoxic cells absorbing on the affected cells
E. *stimulate the synthesis of interferon
1678. Choose secondary immunodeficiency
A. DiGeorge's syndrome
B. *AIDS
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Chronic granulomatous disease
1679. Choose the components of indirect immunofluorescence among the resulted ingredients :
A. antigen and patient’s serum
B. serum and diagnosticum
C. antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies
D. *antigen, antibody, fluorescein-tagget antihuman gammaglobulin
E. antigen, antibody, комплемент
1680. Complement fixation refers to
A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages
B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes
C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes
D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells
E. the binding of complement components by bacteria
1681. Complement fixation refers to
A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages
B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes
C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes
D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells
E. the binding of complement components by bacteria
1682. Complement(everything is true, except):
A. stimulates phagocytosis
B. possesses antigenic properties
C. *possesses oncogenic properties
D. Defines bactericidal action of serum
E. Possesses cytolytic activity
1683. Complement(everything is true, except):
A. stimulates phagocytosis
B. possesses antigenic properties
C. *possesses oncogenic properties
D. Defines bactericidal action of serum
E. Possesses cytolytic activity
1684. Components of a membrane attack complex of complement:
A. С1С4С2С3
B. С1С4С2С3С5
C. *С5С6С7С8С9
D. С3С5С6С7С8
E. С6С7С8С9
1685. Components of a membrane attack complex of complement:
A. С1С4С2С3
B. С1С4С2С3С5
C. *С5С6С7С8С9
D. С3С5С6С7С8
E. С6С7С8С9
1686. Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except):
A. complement
B. patient’s serum
C. specific antigen
D. hemolytic system
E. *immune serum
1687. Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except):
A. complement
B. patient’s serum
C. specific antigen
D. hemolytic system
E. *immune serum
1688. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except):
A. sheep red blood cells
B. complement
C. immune serum
D. *patient’s serum
E. hemolysin
1689. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except):
A. sheep red blood cells
B. complement
C. immune serum
D. *patient’s serum
E. hemolysin
1690. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except):
A. complement
B. *patient’s serum
C. investigated culture
D. hemolytic system
E. immune serum
1691. Criteria of positive agglutination test:
A. partial hemolysis
B. *agglutination with intensity ++++, +++, ++
C. a phenomenon of spontaneous agglutination
D. sedementation of erythrocytes
E. Full hemolysis of erythrocytes
1692. Criterion of negative CFT:
A. hemolysis absence
B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++
C. *full hemolysis of red cells
D. precipitate formation
E. agglutinate formation
1693. Criterion of negative CFT:
A. hemolysis absence
B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++
C. *full hemolysis of red cells
D. precipitate formation
E. agglutinate formation
1694. Difference between precpitation and agglutination tests:
A. *an antigene - molecular
B. an antigene – corpuscular
C. antibodies – monoclonal
D. Antibodies – polyclonal
E. Antibodies – blocking
1695. Direct immunofluorescence tests use a labelled antibody to identify.
A. *an unknown microbe
B. an unknown antibody
C. fixed complement
D. precipitins
E. level of immunoglobulines in serum
1696. Farmer's lung is the result of
A. sensitized T cells
B. *immune complex reactions
C. type I hypersensitivity.
D. cytotoxic reactions
E. urticaria
1697. Fine-grained sediment resulting from agglutination reaction implies:
A. co-operation takes a place between flagella antigens and antibodies
B. *somatic antigens co-operate with antibodies
C. sediment has visen up in 18-24 hours
D. sediment has visen up in 2-4 hours
E. negative result
1698. For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses
A. specific antibodies,
B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
C. *toxoids,
D. IgM,
E. bacteriophages
1699. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. serological identification of microorganisms
D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
1700. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. *serological identification of microorganisms
D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
1701. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. serological identification of microorganisms
D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
1702. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. *serological identification of microorganisms
D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
1703. Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. allergens.
macrophages.
humoral antibodies.
antigens
*T cells
Hemagglutination inhibition test is often used for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the
components of this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics.
A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells
B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells
C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells
D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums
Hemolysin is:
A. patient’s serum
B. hemolysed blood
C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells
D. serum of guine pig
E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells
Hemolysin is:
A. patient’s serum
B. hemolysed blood
C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells
D. serum of guine pig
E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells
Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST
probably an example of
A. autoimmune diseases
B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
C. immune-complex hypersensitivity
D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. atopic hypersensitivity
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
D. AB mother carries an 0 fetus.
E. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
Hypersensitivity to pollen is
A. *mediated by IgE antibody
B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody
C. initiated by haptens
D. initiated by Th-2 cells
E. initiated by Th-1 cells
If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything,
except):
A. an antigen
B. patient’s serum
C. hemolytic system
D. immune serum
E. *complement
If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything,
except):
A. an antigen
B. patient’s serum
B.
C.
D.
E.
1704.
1705.
1706.
1707.
1708.
1709.
1710.
1711.
C. hemolytic system
D. immune serum
E. *complement
1712. If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
1713.
1714.
1715.
1716.
1717.
1718.
1719.
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. *allergens
B. macrophages
C. humoral antibodies
D. antigens
E. T cells
Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose:
A. definitions of group of blood
B. *titrations of complement
C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells
D. serological identification of microorganisms
E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils
Immunoglobulin chemical structure is:
A. protein.
B. carbohydrate.
C. *glycoprotein.
D. lipid
E. nucleic acid.
Immunological test for serologic diagnostics are directed to the detection of:
A. Unknown bacteria
B. *level of serum specific antibodies
C. Level of complement
D. Level of lysosyme
E. All of the is true
Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of
A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies
B. development of suppressor T cells .
C. saturation of IgE antibodies.
D. All of the above are correct
E. All of the above are not correct
Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of
A. IgG antibodies
B. antihistamine.
C. IgE antibodies.
D. *offending antigen
E. offending antibody
In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of the
following?
A. neurons
B. *DNA
C. RNA
D. blood cells
E. derm
1720. In the structure of viruses antigens can be represented by all, EXCEPT FOR:
A. Capsid’s proteins
B. Internal proteins
C. Nucleoproteins
D. *Nucleic acid
E. Glycoproteins of supercapsid
1721. indicator system of CFT contains:
A. complement+hemolysin
B. *red cells and hemolysin
C. patient’s serum
D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin
E. specific antigen
1722. indicator system of CFT contains:
A. complement+hemolysin
B. *red cells and hemolysin
C. patient’s serum
D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin
E. specific antigen
1723. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have
A. decreased resistance to viral infections
B. increased hypersensitivity reactions
C. increased frequency of cancer
D. *decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia
E. increased frequency of fungi infections
1724. Isoantigens are possessed by:
A. Antigens which all of representatives of this kind have.
B. *Antigens whichare possessed by some representatives of this kind.
C. Antigens which are possessed by all of representatives of different kinds.
D. Antigens which are possessed by some representatives of different kinds.
E. Antigens which are possessed by a certain person.
1725. Kinds of agglutination tests(everything is true, except):
A. detailed
B. indirect hemagglutination
C. *precipitation
D. on glass-slide
E. coagglutination
1726. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called
A. hay fever
B. asthma
C. shock.
D. *hives
E. rashes
1727. Mechanism of precipitation test:
A. hydrophobic interactions
B. *connection of the active centers of antibodies and determinant groups of antigenes
C. Van-Der Waalse interactions
D. Brown movement
E. electrostatic interaction
1728. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by
A. lymphocytes.
B. myeloma cells.
C. *hybridomas.
D. spleen cells.
E. plasma cells.
1729. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by
A. lymphocytes.
B. myeloma cells.
C. *hybridomas.
D. spleen cells.
E. plasma cells.
1730. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT
A. the typing of tissue.
B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
C. the identification of tumor antigens.
D. the classification of leukemias.
E. *the manipulation of the immune response.
1731. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT
A. the typing of tissue.
B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
C. the identification of tumor antigens.
D. the classification of leukemias.
E. *manipulation of the immune response.
1732. Negative result of indirect hemagglutination test looks like:
A. *sediment of red cells as a "button"
B. flocculation
C. luminescence
D. sediment of red cells as a "umbrella"
E. sediment of red cells in the test tube
1733. Negative result of slide-agglutination looks like:
A. sediment
B. discoloration
C. *even dimness
D. flocculation
E. gasification
1734. of the following?
A. *Recognition of epitopes presented with major histocompatibility complex molecules on all
surfaces
B. Complement fixation
C. Phagocytosis
D. Production of antibodies
E. Take part in atopic reaction
1735. One of the disadvantages of ring precipitation test is:
A. Performing the test in a liquid environment
B. use of transparent antigens
C. *impossibility to set the amount of different antigens
D. the colloid particles of protein take part in the reaction
E. all of above are incorrect
1736. Opsonization refers to
A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation.
B. aglutination of red blood cells.
C. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement.
D. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells.
E. antibody mediated viral inactivation.
1737. Pair serums:
A. monozygotic twins’ serums
B. dizygotic twins’ serum
C. serums taken from different veins
D. serums of two patients with same diseases
E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics
1738. Pair serums:
A. monozygotic twins’ serums
B. dizygotic twins’ serum
C. serums taken from different veins
D. serums of two patients with same diseases
E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics
1739. Pollen is which type of allergen?
A. contactant
B. ingestant
C. injectant
D. *inhalant
E. insectant
1740. Precipitated anthrax serum contains:
A. the causative agent of anthrax
B. anthrax toxins
C. spores of bacillus anthracis
D. *antibodies to a specific antigene of bacillus anthracis
E. normal antibodies
1741. Precipitation serum:
A. receive from donor blood
B. use for therapy
C. *use for serological identifying of microorganisms
D. use for serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. contains monoclonal antibodies
1742. Precipitation test is (true everything, except):
A. reaction of sedimentation of a soluble antigene
B. interaction an antigene-antibody
C. serological test
D. *the mechanism of realization of cellular immunity
E. passes in a solution of electrolit
1743. Precipitation test use (correct all,except):
A. in diagnostics of Anthrax
B. for definition toxigenity of diphtheritic cultures
C. *for definition of groups of blood
D. In forensic medicine
E. for definition of class Ig
1744. Precipitation test uses for definition toxin production of diphtheritic cultures:
A. ring precipitation
B. *in gel
C. on glass-slide
D. detailed
E. indirect
1745. Reaction of agglutination is a reaction:
A. sedimentation of a soluble antigene
B. *sedimentation of a corpuscular antigene
C. linkages complement
D. Immune hemolysis
E. Immune sticking
1746. Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes
A. precipitation .
complement fixation .
*degranulation.
agglutination
asthma
Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except):
A. *red blood cells - hemolysis
B. an antigene - hemolysis
C. serum– hemolysis
D. complement- hemolysis absence
E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence
Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except):
A. *red blood cells - hemolysis
B. an antigene - hemolysis
C. serum– hemolysis
D. complement- hemolysis absence
E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence
Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the
A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles
B. autoimmune disease, nerves
C. allergy, cartilage
D. *autoimmune disease, joints
E. autoimmune disease, bones
Select the protein among listed the bacterial antigens:
A. K
B. O
C. Vi
D. *H
E. B
Set the components of ring precipitation test:
A. antigen and patient’s serum
B. antigen, antibody, complement
C. precipitated serum and bacteria
D. antigen and tanned red blood cell diagnosticum
E. *patient’s serum and molecular antigen
Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack
the donor cells
B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
E. all are correct
?Specificity of antibody is directly related to the active center which is located in the molecule of
immunoglobulin:
A. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains
B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains
C. Between the constant parts of Н-chains
D. In the joint region of immunoglobuline
E. *Between the variable parts of H- and L- chains
Specificity of antigen is determined by:
A. Chemical structure
B. Foreignness
C. *Epitopes
B.
C.
D.
E.
1747.
1748.
1749.
1750.
1751.
1752.
1753.
1754.
D. In size electric charge
E. Size of molecular weight
1755. Specificity of antigen is predefined:
A. By a chemical nature
B. Foreignness
C. *Determination groups
D. In size of electric potential
E. By size of molecular weight
1756. Specify, why IgG and IgM is able to activate complement.
A. Because they have complement binding point in the Fab fragment
B. Because their third domain adsorbs C2 and C4
C. *Because there is a place for attachment of C1 in a joint region
D. Because only their light chains are able to fix complement
E. Because there is similarity between their disulphide bridge and C1-C4
1757. Structurally the molecule of immunoglobulin (IgМ) consists of:
A. one monomer
B. two monomers
C. three monomers
D. four monomers
E. *five monomers
1758. The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following?
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. *severe combined immunodeficiency
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. leukemia
E. agammaglobulinemia
1759. The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out:
A. at participation of antibodies
B. *at participation of LPS
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody
E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms
1760. The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on'the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue
section is the
A. precipitin test
B. complement fixation test
C. agglutination test
D. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test
E. coagglutination test
1761. The Classical way of activation complement is carried out:
A. without participation of antibodies
B. at participation properdin
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex
E. at formation L-transformations
1762. The Classical way of activation complement is carried out:
A. without participation of antibodies
B. at participation properdin
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex
E. at formation L-transformations
1763. The components of hemagglutination test(HA) are:
A. Specific serum, sheep red blood cells
*Viral material, red blood cells
Unknown antibodies, chicken red blood cells
Virus, sheep red blood cells
Pair serums, viral diagnosticum
The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the
A. sensiling dose
B. degranulation dose
C. *provocative dose
D. desensitizing dose
E. inhibition dose
The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
D. IgE on smooth muscle
E. the allergen on mast cells
The isotypes of immunoglobulins are divided into the varieties in:
A. Variable region of light chain.
B. Constant region of light chain
C. Variable region of heavy chain
D. *Constant region of of heavy chain
E. Any area
The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. cellular infiltration
The level of immunoglobulins in the patient’s serum is determined by the Manchini test. How does
the positive result of this reaction look ?
A. sediment
B. discoloration
C. even dimness
D. *formation of rings precipitation
E. gasification
The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that
A. it can be administered orally
B. *it provides antibody more rapidly
C. antibody persists for a longer period
D. it contains primarily IgM
E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies
The material from patient for statement agglutination reaction with the purpose serodiagnostic is:
A. *serum
B. diagnosticum
C. culture
D. agglutinated serum
E. physiological solution
The molecule of immunoglobulin ( IgG) consists of:
A. *2th H and 2th L chains
B. 2th H-chains
C. 2th L- chains
D. 4th H-chains
E. 4th L-chains
B.
C.
D.
E.
1764.
1765.
1766.
1767.
1768.
1769.
1770.
1771.
1772. The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is
A. *the class (isotype) of antibody
B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
C. the participation of macrophages
D. the participation of T cells
E. correct all
1773. The purpose of the use of immunological reactions for serum authentication is determination of :
A. *Unknown bacteria
B. A level of specific antibodies is in a serum
C. Level of complement
D. Level of lysozymes
E. All of the above-mentioned right
1774. The role of antigen in the Askoli’s thermoprecipitin test is playd by:
A. bacteria
B. virus
C. levage of the surface of the tested object
D. *thermoextract animal’s skin
E. patient’s blood
1775. The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies
A. antibodies.
B. *antigen.
C. immune complexes.
D. cytokines.
E. All of the above.
1776. The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A. *an inflammatory response
B. histaminesies.
C. autoimmune antigens.
D. IgE.
E. autoimmune antibodies
1777. The titer of complement:
A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system
B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis
C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis
D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent
E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis
1778. The titer of complement:
A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system
B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis
C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis
D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent
E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis
1779. The working doze of complement above its titer on:
A. 60-70 %
B. 50-60 %
C. 40-50 %
D. 30-40 %
E. *20-30 %
1780. The working doze of complement above its titer on:
A. 60-70 %
B. 50-60 %
C. 40-50 %
D. 30-40 %
E. *20-30 %
1781. The Working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT is equal:
A. 1 : 3600
B. *1 : 400
C. 1 : 200
D. 1 : 100
E. 1 : 50
1782. The Working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT is equal:
A. 1 : 3600
B. *1 : 400
C. 1 : 200
D. 1 : 100
E. 1 : 50
1783. Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. *artificial active
D. natural passive
E. antitoxic passive
1784. Vaccines are available for all of the following except:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. *Hepatitis C
D. Tetanus
E. Measles
1785. Viruses antigens can be all, EXCEPT:
A. Capsid’s proteins
B. Internal sproteins
C. Nucleoproteins
D. *Nucleic acid
E. Glycoproteins of envelope
1786. What among transferred does relate to the indirect hemagglutination test?
A. bacterial diagnosticum and patient’s serum
B. *patient’s serum and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum
C. antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies
D. antigen and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum
E. antigen, antibody, complement
1787. What from next molecules are the best antigens?
A. Lipid
B. Glucose
C. Fat acids
D. *Proteins
E. Carbonhydrates
1788. What is difference between precpitation and agglutination tests:
A. *an antigene - molecular
B. an antigene – corpuscular
C. antibodies – monoclonal
D. Antibodies – polyclonal
E. Antibodies – blocking
1789. What is toxoid?
A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,
B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.
C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
D. type of virus.
E. *inactivated toxin.
1790. What reaction does enable to set the antigen identity, simirality or dissimilarity?
A. The radial immunodiffusion of Manchini
B. The single dimension immunodiffusion in one dimension (Oudin procedure)
C. *The double immunodiffusion in two dimension (Ouchterlony)
D. The double diffusion in one dimension (Oakley-Fulthorpe)
E. The ring precipitation
1791. What structural parts of immunoglobulins are used for their division into the classes?
A. Light chains
B. Heavy chains
C. Domains
D. Fc- fragment
E. Fab-fragments
1792. What structures are primarily responsible for such specificity?
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. *Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells
C. The major histocompatibility complex
D. Specific T cell receptors
E. Memory cells
1793. What structures of antigens are responsible for their variety?
A. Amino acid
B. Polysaccharidess
C. *Epitope
D. Protein
E. Porin
1794. Which does not provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1795. Which ingredient among listed can be included into indicator system of the CFT?
A. Specific antibody and complement
B. Specific antigen and complement
C. *Sheep red blood cells and hemolysin
D. Inactivated by temperature patient’s serum
E. Serum of guinea-pig
1796. Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans?
A. Capsular polysaccharides
B. Recombinant surface antigens
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. *DNA-based
E. All of the above
1797. Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections?
A. Complement proteins
B. ABO antibodies
C. *MHC antigens
D. MHC antibodies
E. Mast cells
1798. Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant?
A. *MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. MHC class III molecules
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
1799. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?
A. *An adjuvant
B. A hapten
C. Antiserum
D. Purified antigen
E. Crude antigen
1800. Which of the following vaccine is attenuated?
A. Dysentery vaccines.
B. Cholera vaccines
C. *BCG
D. Diphtheria vaccines.
E. Solk polio vaccines.
1801. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes?
A. *BCG and oral polio vaccines.
B. Cholera and dysentery vaccines.
C. Measles and Solk polio vaccines.
D. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines.
E. All of the above.
1802. Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity?
A. hayfever
B. *allergic contact dermatitis
C. glomerulonephritis
D. penicillin reaction
E. blood transfusion reaction
1803. Which of the listed techniques of antibodies detection is the most sensitive?
A. Agglutination test
B. Precipitation test
C. Radial immunodiffusion test
D. *Radioimmune test
E. Immunoelectrophoresis
1804. Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT?
A. Allotypes are found only on heavy chains
B. Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes
C. Allotypes are confined to the variable regions
D. *Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species
E. Allotypes are found only on light chains
1805. Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn?
A. emergence of forbidden clones of B-cells
B. *production of antibodies against sequestered tissues
C. infection-induced change in receptors
D. hapten (chemical) induced change of tissue antigens
E. all of these are possible
1806. Who did coin the term vaccine?
A. Edward Jenner.
B. Kitasato.
C. Ehrlich.
D. *Louis Pasteur,
E. Robert Koch.
1807. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. *Louis Pasteur.
Semple.
Edward Jenner
Paul Ehrlich.
Wasserman.
Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur.
B. *Edward Jenner.
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. John Hunter.
E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
Wright’s agglutination test is used for serological diagnostic of special dangerous infections. Select
such an ilness among listed?
A. *brucellosis
B. cholera
C. tularemia
D. typhoid
E. anthrax
Н-agglutination a bacterium stick together:
A. *By flagellas
B. By bodies
C. By capsules
D. By hairs
E. By proteins
A hypersensitive reaction occurs
A. during the first exposure to an antigen.
B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system.
C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen.
D. during autoimmune diseases.
E. in immunologically-deficient individuals.
A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
C. both the T and B cell systems are functional
D. only the B cell system is functional
E. level of antibodies to tuberculin is normal
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A. *delayed-type allergy
B. acute contact dermatitis
C. autoimmunity
D. eczema
E. atopy
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A. *delayed-type allergy
B. acute contact dermatitis
C. autoimmunity
D. eczema
E. atopy
Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by
A. *sensitized T cells.
B. IgG antibodies.
C. IgE antibodies.
D. basophils and mast cells.
E. sensitized macrophages.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1808.
1809.
1810.
1811.
1812.
1813.
1814.
1815.
1816. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high
1817.
1818.
1819.
1820.
1821.
1822.
1823.
1824.
proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
A. viral antigen
B. *carcinoembryonic antigen
C. alpha-fetoprotein
D. heterophil antigen
E. Forsman antigen
An attenuated vaccine is composed of
A. killed microorganisms.
B. *living, weakened microorganisms.
C. inactivated bacterial toxins.
D. purified macromolecules.
E. recombinant vectors.
An attenuated vaccine is composed of
A. killed microorganisms.
B. *living, weakened microorganisms.
C. inactivated bacterial toxins.
D. purified macromolecules.
E. recombinant vectors.
An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n)
A. immunodeficiency
B. precipitation
C. histamine.
D. *hypersensitivity.
E. allergen
An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n)
A. immunodeficiency
B. precipitation
C. histamine.
D. *hypersensitivity.
E. allergen
An example of a type III immune complex disease is
A. *serum sickness
B. contact dermatitis
C. graft rejection
D. atopy
E. asthma
An example of a type III immune complex disease is
A. *serum sickness
B. contact dermatitis
C. graft rejection
D. atopy
E. asthma
Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except?
A. cytotoxic reactions
B. anaphylaxis
C. *tuberculin reactions
D. immune-complex rection
E. atopy reaction
Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. viruses
B. *corpuscular
C. haptens
D. high-grade
E. soluble
1825. B cells are responsible for which allergies?
A. asthma
B. anaphylaxis
C. serum sickness
D. atopy
E. *all of the above
1826. B cells are responsible for which allergies?
A. asthma
B. anaphylaxis
C. serum sickness
D. atopy
E. *all of the above
1827. Bacteriolysis test:
A. it is not specific
B. comes to an end phagocytosis
C. *comes to an end lysis
D. comes to an end hemolysis
E. it is possible only in vitro
1828. BCG vaccine is a:
A. *live attenuated preparation.
B. killed preparation.
C. toxoid preparation.
D. recombinant preparation.
E. vector vaccine
1829. BCG vaccine is a:
A. *live attenuated preparation.
B. killed preparation.
C. toxoid preparation.
D. recombinant preparation.
E. vector vaccine
1830. BCG vaccine is used for prevent:
A. diphtheria
B. *tuberculosis
C. botulism
D. brucelosis
E. Q fever
1831. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. high risk of T cell leukemia
C. inability to use a live donor
D. delayed hypersensitivity
E. autoimmune reaction
1832. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
A. *Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. High risk of T cell leukemia
C. Inability to use a live donor
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
E. High risk of immunodeficiency
1833. CFT it is based on activation:
A. antigenes
B. antibodies
C. red blood cells
D. hemolysin
E. *complement
1834. Choose examination which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
1835. Choose secondary immunodeficiency
A. DiGeorge's syndrome
B. *AIDS
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Chronic granulomatous disease
1836. Choose test which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
1837. Chronic granulomatous disease is due to deficiency of:
A. NADPH oxidase.
B. MPO.
C. G6PD.
D. No correct answer.
E. all answers are true
1838. Complement fixation refers to
A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages
B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes
C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes
D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells
E. the binding of complement components by bacteria
1839. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except):
A. sheep red blood cells
B. complement
C. immune serum
D. *patient’s serum
E. hemolysin
1840. Controllable properties of components of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. osmotic stability of red cells
B. anticomplementary activity of patient’s serum
C. anticomplementary activity of an antigen
D. *isotonity of saline solution
E. anticomplementary activity of a hemolysin
1841. DiGeorge's syndrome is due to:
A. T cell defect.
B. В cell defect.
C. Ataxia-telangiectasia
D. Chronic granulomatous disease
E. AIDS
1842. Due to the deficiency of secretory IgA, infections occur predominantly in:
A. respiratory tract.
gastrointestinal tract.
urogenital tract.
all answers are true
No correct answer
Each of the following statements concerning a hybridoma cell is correct EXCEPT;
A. The spleen cell component provides the ability to form antibody
B. The myeloma cell component provides the ability to grow indefinitely
C. *The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is IgM, because heavy-chain switching does not
occur
D. The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is homogeneous; ie, it is directed against a single
epitope
E. The hybridoma cells formed by fussion of myeloma cell and plasma cell
Farmer's lung is the result of
A. sensitized T cells
B. *immune complex reactions
C. type I hypersensitivity.
D. cytotoxic reactions
E. urticaria
Farmer's lung is the result of
A. sensitized T cells
B. *immune complex reactions
C. type I hypersensitivity.
D. cytotoxic reactions
E. urticaria
For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses
A. specific antibodies,
B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
C. *toxoids,
D. IgM,
E. bacteriophages
For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum?
A. an estimation of the immune status
B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency
C. serological identification of microorganisms
D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases
E. definition of group of blood
Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. allergens.
B. macrophages.
C. humoral antibodies.
D. antigens
E. *T cells
Grafts between geneticully identical individuals (ie, identical twins)
A. are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibilily antigens
B. are subject to hyperacute rejection
C. *are not rejected, even without immunosuppression
D. are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected
E. are rejected slowly as a result of minor A, B, O antigens
Hemolysin is:
A. patient’s serum
B. hemolysed blood
C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells
D. serum of guine pig
B.
C.
D.
E.
1843.
1844.
1845.
1846.
1847.
1848.
1849.
1850.
E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells
1851. Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST
1852.
1853.
1854.
1855.
1856.
1857.
1858.
probably an example of
A. autoimmune diseases
B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
C. immune-complex hypersensitivity
D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. atopic hypersensitivity
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal
antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is
A. IgE antibody
B. *IgG antibody
C. IgM antibody
D. IgA antibody
E. IgD antibody
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
D. AB mother carries an 0 fetus.
E. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
Hypersensitivity to penicillin and bypersensitivity to poison oak are both
A. mediated by IgE antibody
B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody
C. *initiated by haptens
D. initiated by Th-2 cells
E. initiated by proteins
Hypersensitivity to pollen is
A. *mediated by IgE antibody
B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody
C. initiated by haptens
D. initiated by Th-2 cells
E. initiated by Th-1 cells
If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG and IgM
E. *IgM and IgA
If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be
affected?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA '
D. IgG and IgM
E. IgM and IgA
Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. *allergens
B. macrophages
C. humoral antibodies
D. antigens
E. T cells
1859. Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. *allergens
B. macrophages
C. humoral antibodies
D. antigens
E. T cells
1860. Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose:
A. definitions of group of blood
B. *titrations of complement
C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells
D. serological identification of microorganisms
E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils
1861. Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose:
A. definitions of group of blood
B. *titrations of complement
C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells
D. serological identification of microorganisms
E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils
1862. Immunodeficiency with elevated IgM results in:
A. recurrent viral infections.
B. autoimmune disorders.
C. AIDS
D. No correct answer
E. all answers are true
1863. Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are:
A. methotrexate.
B. cyclosporine.
C. anti-lymphocytic serum.
D. No correct answer
E. all answers are true
1864. Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are:
A. methotrexate.
B. cyclosporine.
C. anti-lymphocytic serum.
D. No correct answer
E. all answers are true
1865. Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are:
A. methotrexate.
B. cyclosporine.
C. anti-lymphocytic serum.
D. No correct answer
E. all answers are true
1866. Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of
A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies
B. development of suppressor T cells .
C. saturation of IgE antibodies.
D. All of the above are correct
E. All of the above are not correct
1867. Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of
A. IgG antibodies
B. antihistamine.
C. IgE antibodies.
D. *offending antigen
E. offending antibody
1868. indicator system of CFT contains:
A. complement+hemolysin
B. *red cells and hemolysin
C. patient’s serum
D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin
E. specific antigen
1869. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have
A. decreased resistance to viral infections
B. increased hypersensitivity reactions
C. increased frequency of cancer
D. *decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia
E. increased frequency of fungi infections
1870. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have
A. decreased resistance to viral infections
B. increased hypcrsensitivity reactions
C. increased frequency of cancer
D. decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia
E. all answers are true
1871. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have
A. decreased resistance to viral infections
B. increased hypcrsensitivity reactions
C. increased frequency of cancer
D. decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia
E. all answers are true
1872. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called
A. hay fever
B. asthma
C. shock.
D. *hives
E. rashes
1873. Localized anaphylaxis involving the skin is called
A. hay fever
B. asthma
C. shock.
D. *hives
E. rashes
1874. Myeloperoxidase deficiency is a defect of:
A. B cells.
B. Т cells.
C. Complement.
D. Phagocytes
E. both В and Т cell defects.
1875. Myeloperoxidase deficiency is a defect of:
A. B cells.
B. Т cells.
C. Complement.
D. Phagocytes
E. both В and Т cell defects.
1876. Name the secondary immunodeficiency
A. DiGeorge's syndrome
B. *AIDS
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Chronic granulomatous disease
1877. Pair serums:
A. monozygotic twins’ serums
B. dizygotic twins’ serum
C. serums taken from different veins
D. serums of two patients with same diseases
E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics
1878. Patient has the Ataxia-Telangiectasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1879. Patient has the Ataxia-Telangiectasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1880. Patient has the Chidiak-Higashi Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1881. Patient has the DiGeorge's Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1882. Patient has the Hereditary Angloedema. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1883. Patient has the Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1884. Patient has the Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
1885. Patient has the X-Linked Hypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia). What
deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
Т cell defect.
both В and Т cell defects.
Complement deficiency.
Phagocyte Deficiencies
Patients with severely reduced C3 levels tend to have
A. increased numbers of severe viral infections
B. increased numbers of severe bacterial infections
C. low gamma globulin levels
D. frequent episodes of hemolytic anemia
E. all answers are true
Pollen is which type of allergen?
A. contactant
B. ingestant
C. injectant
D. *inhalant
E. insectant
Polymorphonuclear leucocytes in patients with which condition possess large lysosomes?
A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome.
B. Chronic granulomatous disease.
C. Myeloperoxidase deficiency.
D. Leucocyte G6PD deficiency.
E. Agammaglobulinemia
Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes
A. precipitation .
B. complement fixation .
C. *degranulation.
D. agglutination
E. asthma
Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except):
A. *red blood cells - hemolysis
B. an antigene - hemolysis
C. serum– hemolysis
D. complement- hemolysis absence
E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence
Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the
A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles
B. autoimmune disease, nerves
C. allergy, cartilage
D. *autoimmune disease, joints
E. autoimmune disease, bones
Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the
A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles
B. autoimmune disease, nerves
C. allergy, cartilage
D. *autoimmune disease, joints
E. autoimmune disease, bones
Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack
the donor cells
B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
B.
C.
D.
E.
1886.
1887.
1888.
1889.
1890.
1891.
1892.
1893.
E. all are correct
1894. Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack
the donor cells
B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
E. all are correct
1895. Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely to
1896.
1897.
1898.
1899.
1900.
1901.
be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. interleukin-10
C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
D. serotonin
E. bradykinin
Swiss-type agammaglobulinaemia is due to:
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with deficiency of:
A. Cl, C4
B. B cells
C. Т cells
D. No correct answer
E. Phagocyte
Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with deficiency of:
A. Cl, C4
B. B cells
C. Т cells
D. No correct answer
E. Phagocyte
The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out:
A. at participation of antibodies
B. *at participation of LPS
C. without formation membrane attack complex
D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody
E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms
The child, 1,5 years old, is in the hospital with tetany symptom. Due to the anamnesis of his
disease he has had recurrent severe viral, fungal infections.
A. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B. SCID
C. ADA deficiency
D. DiGeorge syndrome
E. Immunodeficiency of IgA
The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the
A. sensiling dose
B. degranulation dose
C. *provocative dose
D. desensitizing dose
E. inhibition dose
1902. The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the
A. sensiling dose
B. degranulation dose
C. *provocative dose
D. desensitizing dose
E. inhibition dose
1903. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
D. IgE on smooth muscle
E. the allergen on mast cells
1904. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
D. IgE on smooth muscle
E. the allergen on mast cells
1905. The first level tests for assessment of immune status includes all of the following determinations,
1906.
1907.
1908.
1909.
1910.
ECXEPT:
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. cellular infiltration
The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that
A. it can be administered orally
B. *it provides antibody more rapidly
C. antibody persists for a longer period
D. it contains primarily IgM
E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies
The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is
A. *the class (isotype) of antibody
B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
C. the participation of macrophages
D. the participation of T cells
E. correct all
The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III)
hypersensitivity is
A. the class (isotype) of antibody
B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
C. the participation of complement
D. the participation of T cells
E. interraction between antigen and antibody
The second level tests for assessment of immune status (analytical) includes all of the following
determinations, ECXEPT:
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast
1911.
1912.
1913.
1914.
1915.
1916.
1917.
1918.
transformation test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
The second level tests for assessment of immune status (analytical) includes all of the following
determinations, ECXEPT:
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast
transformation test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A. *an inflammatory response
B. histaminesies.
C. autoimmune antigens.
D. IgE.
E. autoimmune antibodies
The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A. *an inflammatory response
B. histaminesies.
C. autoimmune antigens.
D. IgE.
E. autoimmune antibodies
The titer of complement:
A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system
B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis
C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis
D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent
E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis
Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. *artificial active
D. natural passive
E. antitoxic passive
Vaccination is synonymous with __ immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. *artificial active
D. natural passive
E. antitoxic passive
Vaccines are available for all of the following except:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. *Hepatitis C
D. Tetanus
E. Measles
What does a positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicate ?
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
C. both the T and B cell systems are functional
D. only the B cell system is functional
E. a humoral immune response has decreased
1919. What does immunodeficiency with elevated IgM result in:
A. recurrent pyogenic infections.
B. AIDS
C. All answers are correct.
D. No correct answer
E. recurrent fungal infections
1920. What does immunodeficiency with elevated IgM result in:
A. recurrent pyogenic infections.
B. AIDS
C. All answers are correct.
D. No correct answer
E. recurrent fungal infections
1921. What examination is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
1922. What examination is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
1923. What examination is not used for the second level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast
transformation test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
1924. What examination is not used for the second level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast
transformation test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
1925. What examination which is not used for the second level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast
transformation test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
1926. What examination which is not used for the second level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast
transformation test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
1927. What examination which is not used for the second level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);
B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;
C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast
transformation test);
D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;
E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood
1928. What is DiGeorge's syndrome?
A. *T cell defect.
B. В cell defect.
C. Ataxia-telangiectasia
D. Chronic granulomatous disease
E. AIDS
1929. What is the mechanism of action of second type hypersensitivities?
A. IgE reacting with mast cells
B. activation of cytotoxic T cells
C. IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues
D. *complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies
E. activation of natural killer cells
1930. What is the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?
A. They are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages .when they attack
1931.
1932.
1933.
1934.
the donor cells
B. *They are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor
cells
C. They induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft
D. They induce IgE which mediates graft rejection
E. They induce complement depended cytolysis of the graft
What is toxoid?
A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,
B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.
C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
D. type of virus.
E. *inactivated toxin.
What is toxoid?
A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,
B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.
C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
D. type of virus.
E. *inactivated toxin.
What kind of immundeficiency is chronic granulomatous?
A. NADPH oxidase.
B. MPO.
C. G6PD.
D. No correct answer.
E. *all answers are true
When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane,
damage to the membrane is caused mainly by
A. gamma interferon
B. phagocytosis
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells
E. natural killers
1935. Which allergies are T-cell mediated?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. *type IV
E. all are correct
1936. ?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by
1937.
1938.
1939.
1940.
1941.
1942.
1943.
Rh incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
B. *Cytotoxic
C. Immune complex
D. Delayed
E. Autoimmune
Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. Complement deficiency.
D. Phagocyte Deficiencies
E. No correct answer
Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. Complement deficiency.
D. Phagocyte Deficiencies
E. No correct answer
Which does not provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Which does not provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. *Artificially acquired passive immunity
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans?
A. Capsular polysaccharides
B. Recombinant surface antigens
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. *DNA-based
E. All of the above
Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans?
A. Capsular polysaccharides
B. Recombinant surface antigens
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. *DNA-based
E. All of the above
Which major problem do immunocompromised patients with bone marrow transplantation have?
A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. high risk of T cell leukemia
C. inability to use a live donor
D. delayed hypersensitivity
E. autoimmune reaction
1944. Which of following is secondary immunodeficiency
A. DiGeorge's syndrome
B. *AIDS
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Ataxia-telangiectasia
E. Chronic granulomatous disease
1945. Which of following tests are/is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
1946. Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections?
A. Complement proteins
B. ABO antibodies
C. *MHC antigens
D. MHC antibodies
E. Mast cells
1947. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?
A. *An adjuvant
B. A hapten
C. Antiserum
D. Purified antigen
E. Crude antigen
1948. Which of the following vaccine is attenuated?
A. Dysentery vaccines.
B. Cholera vaccines
C. *BCG
D. Diphtheria vaccines.
E. Solk polio vaccines.
1949. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes?
A. *BCG and oral polio vaccines.
B. Cholera and dysentery vaccines.
C. Measles and Solk polio vaccines.
D. Influenza and diphtheria vaccines.
E. All of the above.
1950. Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity?
A. hayfever
B. *allergic contact dermatitis
C. glomerulonephritis
D. penicillin reaction
E. blood transfusion reaction
1951. Which one of the following is the BEST method of reducing the effect of graft-versus-host disease
in a bone marrow recipient?
A. Matching the complement components of donor and recipient
B. Administering alpha interferon
C. *Removing mature T cells from the graft
D. Removing pre-B cells from the graft
E. Using monoclonal antibodies
1952. Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of
the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci?
*Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue
Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells
Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released
Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue
Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue
1953. Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn?
A. emergence of forbidden clones of B-cells
B. *production of antibodies against sequestered tissues
C. infection-induced change in receptors
D. hapten (chemical) induced change of tissue antigens
E. all of these are possible
1954. Who did coin the term vaccine?
A. Edward Jenner.
B. Kitasato.
C. Ehrlich.
D. *Louis Pasteur,
E. Robert Koch.
1955. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. *Louis Pasteur.
B. Semple.
C. Edward Jenner
D. Paul Ehrlich.
E. Wasserman.
1956. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur.
B. *Edward Jenner.
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. John Hunter.
E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
Situation tasks
1. A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had
become very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the hospital.
Later that day she developed rash, at first petechial and then pupuric. Gram stain of CSF showed
many white cells and Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism is most likely to be the
cause of her infection?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. *Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Streptococcus agalactiae.
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
2. A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had
become very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the hospital.
Later that day she developed rash, first petechial and then pupuric. Her white count was 26,000/ull,
with 80% neutrophils and 10% 'bands'. Gram stain of CSF showed many white cells and numerous
bacteria. If the pathogen is Neisseria meningitidis, how would you expect it to appear on Gram stain?
A. Gram-positive cocci, many in pairs.
B. Gram-positive cocci, many in clusters.
C. Isolated Gram-positive cocci.
D. *Gram-negative cocci, many in pairs.
E. Gram-negative cocci, many in clusters.
3. An elderly man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Gram stain of sputum contains many
neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci, in pairs. Blood and sputum cultures reveal Gram-positive cocci,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
?-hemolytic on sheep blood agar, and catalase-negative. What microorganism is the most likely to
cause the disease?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. *Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Streptococcus agalactiae.
4. At staining by Gram’s method after flooding the slide with iodine solution preparation is treated by:
A. Fuchsine
B. Washing with water
C. Crystal violet
D. *Alcohol
E. Sulphuric acid
5. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are:
A. *Bacillus.
B. Bacterium.
C. Corynebacterium
D. Mycobacterium
E. Micrococcus
6. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are: .
A. *Bacillus.
B. Bacterium.
C. Corynebacterium
D. Mycobacterium
E. Micrococcus
7. Cells that do not have a membrane separating their nuclear material from their cytoplasm are called
A. heterozygous.
B. *prokaryotic
C. homozygous.
D. eukaryotic.
E. viruses.
8. Each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is correct EXCEPT:
A. It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine
B. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve D-alanine
C. *It is thinner in gram-positive than in gram-negative cells
D. It can be degraded by lysozyme
E. It has tetramers of aminoacids
9. Each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is correct EXCEPT:
A. It has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine
B. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involve D-alanine
C. *It is thinner in gram-positive than in gramnegative cells
D. It can be degraded by lysozyme
E. No non correct answer
10. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity
B. They are formed by gram-positive rods
C. C. They can be killed by being heated to 121 °C for 15 minutes
D. They contain much less water than bacterial cells
E. All of the above.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
B. Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue be cause it has a thick peptidoglycan layer
C. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae isn't visible in the Gram stain because it doesn't have a cell wall
E. Salmonella typhi stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
12. Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct EXCEPT:
A. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium
B. Polysaccharide capsules retard phagocytosis
C. Both gram-negative rods and cocci have lipopolysaccharide ("endotoxin") in their cell wall
D. *Bacterial flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they closely resemble human flagella
in chemical composition
E. None of the above
13. Fixation is the process by which the structures of the cells are preserved and fixed in position. An
advantage of chemical fixation over heat fixation is that it
A. magnifies the specimen
B. *does not destroy internal structures
C. uses simple chemical substances
D. can make during short time
E. kills bacteria
14. In bacterial cells, ribosomes are packed into the cytoplasmic matrix and also loosely attached to the
plasma membrane. What is the function of ribosomes?
A. Site of energy production
B. *Site of protein synthesis
C. Site of genetic reproduction
D. Site of toxin production
E. Site of lipopolysaccharide production
15. Lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall in:
A. gram-positive bacteria.
B. *gram-negative bacteria.
C. fungi.
D. protozoa.
E. none of the above
16. Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using
A. fluorescent microscopy
B. transmission electron microscopy
C. *phase contrast microscopy
D. Scan. Electron microscopy
E. light microscopy
17. Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscopes.
Light of which color below would give you the best resolution?
A. Red
B. Orange
C. Green
D. *Blue
E. Brown
18. Plasmids are important to the genetics of many bacteria. This is because
A. they are inherited from one generation to the next.
B. they may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage.
C. they can render bacteria drug-resistant.
D. they may carry genes that code sugarlytic enzymes
E. *all of the above.
19. Resistance of bacteria to acid depends from present in cytoplasm
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. *oxyacid, fatty acid
C. acetylglucosamine
D. diaminopimelic acid
E. poliphosphates
20. Resolution is the ability of a lens to distinguish between small objects close together. What
approximate resolution can be obtained with a light microscope
A. *0.1 ?m
B. 0.3 ?m
C. 0.5 ?m
D. 0.8 ?m
E. 1,0 ?m
21. The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is important in each of the following aspects EXCEPT:
A. exocytosis of proteins
B. cell wall synthesis
C. *location of lipopolysaccharide
D. oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport
E. active transport of nutrients
22. The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria is important in each of the following aspects EXCEPT:
A. exocytosis of proteins
B. cell wall synthesis
C. *location of lipopolysaccharide
D. oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport
E. active transport of nutrients
23. The Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls generally differ in that the Gram-positives
exclusively possess:
A. carbohydrates
B. *teichoic acids
C. peptides
D. lipid
E. none of the above
24. The LPS or lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of:
A. *peptidoglycan
B. lipid A
C. core polysaccharide
D. O-antigen
E. aeny of the above
25. The LPS or lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of:
A. *peptidoglycan
B. lipid A
C. core polysaccharide
D. O-antigen
E. any of the above
26. The major defining difference(s) between a PROKARYOTIC and a EUKARYOTIC cell is/are…:
A. *The absence of membrane-bound organelles in prokaryotes.
B. The absence of membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes.
C. The lack of photosynthesis by prokaryotic cells.
D. The use of ATP as an energy source by the more complex eukaryotic cells.
E. The absence of chromosomes in prokaryotes.
27. The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term describing
this shape is
A. *coccus
B. bacillus
C. pleomorphic
D. vibrio
E. spirochete
28. The most important role of the prokaryotic cell wall is to
A. *maintain the shape of the cell.
B. protect the cell from osmotic pressures.
C. prevent ions from diffusing away from the cell.
D. block the effects of antibiotics like penicillin.
E. protect cell from oxygen
29. The original distinction between the two types of cells, prokaryotic and eukaryotic, was made on the
basis of the
A. structure of the cell wall
B. absence or presence of mitochondria.
C. *absence or presence of a nuclear membrane.
D. absence or presence of ribosomes
E. structure of the cell membrane.
30. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in:
A. Clostridium perfringens.
B. C. tetani.
C. *С. botulinum.
D. C. histolyticum.
E. C. difficilae
31. Upon staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after treating with sulphuric acid the preparation is
necessary ussing
A. Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Alcohol
C. Меthylene blue
D. *Washing with water
E. iodine solution
32. Upon staining spores by Auesko’s method after treating with hydrochloric acid and heating the
preparation:
A. is staining with mеthylene blue
B. is washing with water and drying out
C. *is staining with Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
D. is treating with sulphuric acid
E. is staining with crystal violet
33. Upon staining spores by Auesko’s method after treating with hydrochloric acid and heating the
preparation:
A. is staining with mеthylene blue
B. is washing with water and drying out
C. *is staining with Ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
D. is treating with sulphuric acid
E. is staining with crystal violet
34. What color has mycobacterim tuberculosis after staining by Ziehl-Neelsen technique
A. blue
B. violet
C. *red
D. brown
E. green
35. What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid?
A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Using alcohol
C. Staining by mеthylene blue
D. *Washing with water
E. Using iodine solution
36. When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous.
B. *lophotrichous.
C. amphitrichous.
D. peritrichous.
E. bitrichous
37. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous.
B. lophotrichous.
C. amphitrichous.
D. *peritrichous.
E. bitrichous
38. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous.
B. lophotrichous.
C. amphitrichous.
D. *peritrichous.
E. polytrichous
39. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous.
B. lophotrichous.
C. *amphitrichous.
D. peritrichous.
E. polytrichous
40. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous.
B. lophotrichous.
C. *amphitrichous.
D. peritrichous.
E. bitrichous
41. Which from following microorganisms does contain sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane?
A. *Mycoplasma.
B. Bacillus.
C. Clostridium.
D. Proteus.
E. Ricketsia
42. Which of the following components are most found in the Gram-negative cell wall?
A. *lipopolysaccharides
B. peptidoglycan
C. teichoic acid
D. N-acetyl muramic acid
E. amino acids
43. Which of the following components are not found in the Gram-positive cell wall?
A. *lipopolysaccharides
B. peptidoglycan
C. teichoic acid
D. N-acetyl muramic acid
E. amino acids
44. Which of the following statements is the most correct about the differential Gram stain?
A. Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive cells.
B. Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram positive cells.
C. *Etanol differentially destains Gram negative cells.
D. Saffron red differentially stains Gram negative cells.
E. Etanol fixes Gram negative cells
45. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Louis Pasteur.
B. *Edward Jenner.
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. John Hunter.
E. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
46. Who was this scientist? He was originally trained as a chemist, but his studies on fermentation led
him to take interest in microorganisms. His discoveries revolutionized medical practice, although he
never studied medicine.
A. Robert Koch.
B. *Louis Pasteur.
C. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
D. Edward Jenner.
E. Paul Ehrlich.
47. A degree of heterotrophy may be different. The highest heterotrophy have prokaryotic organisms that
are able to live only inside the living cells. They are:
A. staphylococci and streptococci
B. escherichia and salmonellas
C. mycobacteria and bordetella
D. *rickettsia and chlamidia
E. vibrios and treponema
48. A nurse has to sterilize surgical instruments for an operation. What most effective method can you
offer?
A. fractional sterilization
B. sterilization by pressed steam
C. boiling
D. *by dry heat
E. ionizing radiation
49. After finishing the experience in students’ laboratory it’s necessary to disinfect the workplace. What
chemicals can be used?
A. ether
B. hydrochloric acid
C. formalin
D. chloroform
E. *Chloraminum
50. After inoculation of Escherichia coli on Ploskirev’s medium the growth of bacteria is inhibited. What
chemical does predetermine this phenomenon?
A. oxalic acid
B. sodium sulphite
C. *brilliant green
D. Bismuth salts
E. fuchsin
51. After inoculation of the patient’s feces on Endo’s medium there were grown two types of colonies:
one – red with metallic hue, other - colorless. What group of nutrient media does Endo’s medium
belong to?
A. *Differential diagnostic
B. Elective
C. Enriching media
D. Universal
E. Selective
52. After practical classes it is necessary to kill bacterial cultures that were used by students. Choose
optimum regime of sterilization in an autoclave:
A. *134 °С 40 minutes
B. 120 °С 20 minutes
C. 112 °С 15 minutes
D. 134 °С 10 minutes
E. 127 °С 30 minutes
53. Colonies of bacteria that grow on solid nutrient media can be differentiated according to:
A. consistencies
B. density
C. color
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
54. Constructive and power metabolisms are closely connected, sometimes their ways coincide, and the
same substrates are utilized for different necessities. Such ways are called:
A. metabolic
B. *amphibolic
C. associative
D. dissociative
E. polybolic
55. During the evolution bacteria produced the ways of energy reception. There are:
A. fermentation
B. respiration
C. photosynthesis
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
56. During the stationary phase of population growth the reason of bacterial death is:
A. diminishing amount of nutrients
B. changes of medium рН
C. toxic action of appearing substances
D. *all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
57. Efficiency of sterilization at heating is characterized the D index. What is it?
A. *time (minutes) which is necessary at certain temperature to get the tenfold diminishing the
bacterial population
B. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature to get twofold diminishing the
bacterial population
C. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature, to get fourfold diminishing the
bacterial population
D. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature, to get fivefold diminishing the
bacterial population
E. time (minutes), which is necessary at certain temperature to destroy all bacteria
58. Energy which is generated by a cell exists in the form of electrochemical transmembrane gradient of
hydrogen ions - ?µН+ or in ATP molecules. What is the mechanism of transformation of one type of
energy into another?
A. electronic ATF-synthesizing complex
B. *proton ATF-synthesizing complex
C. molecular ATF-synthesizing complex
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
59. For biological control of sterilization quality microorganisms are used. What important feature do
they have?
A. gram-positive
B. gram-negative
C. form capsules
D. *form spores
E. form pili
60. For checking the quality of filters in an experiment a fluid containing test-microbe was filtered. Later
a filter was laid on the surface of nutrient medium and put into the incubator. How much time is it
necessary to hold it on medium to give a final answer about its quality?
A. 1 day at an optimum temperature
B. optimum temperature, 2 days
C. optimum temperature, 3 days
D. optimum temperature, 4 days
E. *at an optimum temperature, 5 day
61. For examination of lipolytic properties of microbes lipids and lipid-like substances – tweens – are
supplemented into the medium. According to what signs is it possible to check the lipolytic activity
of bacteria?
A. The colonies of bacteria lose their typical form
B. *Bacteria form iridescent halos round the colonies
C. The colonies of bacterium are painted in the color of indicator
D. The colonies of bacteria become semilucent
E. If microbes lipolytic properties they do not grow on an medium
62. For sterilization of glassware utilize a heat oven is used. Choose the best regime of sterilization:
A. 180 C, 15-30 minutes
B. 180 1C, 120 minutes
C. *180 1, 45-60
D. 160 1, 45-60 minutes
E. 160 1, 15-30
63. For verifying the peptolytic properties of bacteria what substances are examined in nutrient medium?
A. carbon acid and water
B. glucose and lactose
C. carbon acid and nitrogen
D. mannitol and methanol
E. *indole and hydrogen sulphide
64. From patient with gas anaerobic infection it is necessary to select the culture of causative agents.
What medium can be chosen?
A. Leffler’s medium
B. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
C. Petrov’s medium
D. Makkoy-Chepin’s medium
E. Petranyani’s medium
65. How is it possible to carry out control of sterility of nutrient media after their preparing?
A. By keeping in incubator at 37 °С for a few hours.
B. By keeping in incubator at a temperature 42 °С for a few hours
C. By keeping at 18-20 °С. For a few hours
D. *By keeping in incubator for a few days at 37 °С.
E. Right answer is not present
66. How is it possible to increase the phase of exponential growth and M-concentration artificially ?
A. by the renewing of nutrient medium
B. additional aeration (for aerobes)
C. it is impossible to do it
D. a right answer is not present
E. *right answers A and B
67. How much time is it necessary to cultivate the bacteria on Bismuth-sulfite agar for final evaluation of
growth?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. *48 hours
E. 96 hour
68. In a bacteriological laboratory it is necessary to nutrient media, which contain matters, changing at a
temperature higher then 100 °С (urea, carbohydrates, proteins). What method of sterilization can you
offer?
A. *by live steam
B. autoclave, pressed steam
C. boiling
D. tindalization
E. pasteurization
69. In a hospital chief of department decided to check the quality of instruments sterilization in an
autoclave by biological method. What bacteria can be used for this test?
A. Pathogenic
B. Capsule-forming
C. Acid fast
D. *Spore-forming
E. Thermophilic
70. In a laboratory for acceleration of sterilization of media with sugar by live steam this procedure was
made in one day: in the morning, in the day-time and in the evening for 30 min. How to sterilize
these media correctly?
A. To sterilize 1 hour
B. To sterilize 15 minutes
C. To sterilize 45 minutes
D. *To sterilize three times with 24 hour interval
E. To sterilize twice for a days
71. In a medium with gelatin it is possible to verify the proteolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will
show the positive results?
A. *liquefacience of gelatin column
B. compression of gelatin column
C. discoloration of gelatin column
D. appearance of dark precipitate in gelatin column
E. brightening of gelatin column.
72. In a pharmacy it is necessary to sterilize the small bottles with physiological sodium chloride solution
for injection. What method is it necessary to apply for their sterilization?
A. *in an autoclave, 2 atmospheres
B. in an autoclave by fluid steam
C. in a heat oven
D. by X-ray
E. by ultraviolet light
73. In an autoclave at 112 °С nutrient media were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to utilize for
sterilization control?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
E. *Clostridium sporogenes
74. In an autoclave at 121 °С nutrient media were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to utilize for
sterilization control?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
E. *Bacillus steatothermophilus
75. In heat oven at 160 C Petry’s palates were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to use for
sterilization control?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. *Bacillus subtilis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Proteus vulgaris
76. In MPB it is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. How is it possible to prove, if
microbes produce the hydrogen sulphide?
A. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
its color, it becomes red
B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
its color, it becomes dark blue
C. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
its color, it becomes black
D. the color of medium becomes greyish
E. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
by its color, it becomes black
77. In MPB it is necessary to verify the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the
positive results – indole production?
A. to insert the indicator, saturated with a litmus; an indole is changed its color, it becomes red
B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; an indole is changed its color, it
becomes dark blue
C. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a litmus; a indole is changed its color, it becomes
dark blue
D. the color of medium becomes rose
E. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; a indole is changed by its color, it
becomes rose
78. In Olkenitsky’s medium Escherichia coli was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a
medium, which will confirm utilization of glucose and lactose?
A. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow in the column of agar
B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of slant surface of agar
C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of slant surface of agar
D. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and slant surface of
agar
E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
79. In Olkenitsky’s medium microorganism which products an urea was inoculated. What changes here
will be observed in a medium?
A. *all will become red
B. appearance of red precipitate in the column of agar
C. appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar
D. to fix the urease production in this medium is impossible
E. appearance of brightly-violet precipitate in the column of agar
80. In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which decomposes glucose to acid was inoculated. What
changes will be observed in a medium, which certify utilization of glucose?
A. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar
B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow the slant surface of agar
C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red the slant surface of agar
D. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and the slant surface of
agar
E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
81. In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which forms the hydrogen supplied was inoculated. What
changes will be in a medium in this case?
A. To fix the hydrogen sulphide production in this medium is impossible
B. *appearance of black precipitate in the column of agar
C. appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar
D. appearance of bright red precipitate in the column of agar
E. all medium will be black
82. At what period after finishing the disinfections is it recommended to collect the control samples?
A. not before, than in 10-15 min
B. not before, than in 15-20 min
C. not before, than in 20-30 min
D. *not before, than in 30-45 min
E. not before, than in 60-90 min
83. At what phases of growth are microorganisms most physiologically and functionally active?
A. initial and exponential
B. *exponential and stationary
C. stationary and death
D. initial and stationary
E. exponential and death
84. It is necessary to verify the hemolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient media will you
recommend?
A. simple MPA
B. simple MPB
C. Endo’s medium
D. *blood MPA
E. serum MPA
85. It is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient medium will you
recommend?
A. MPA
B. Endo’s medium
C. Ru’s medium
D. 1 % alkaline peptone water
E. *MPB
86. It is necessary to check the quality of antibacterial filters. What microorganism is it possible to
choose as a test-object?
A. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Salmonella schottmuelleri
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Mycobacterium kansassii
87. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 121 °С. What chemical
indicator of sterilization effectiveness may be used?
A. benzonaphtolum
B. antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. *benzoic acid
E. urea
88. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 110 °С sterilization. What
chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. *benzonaphtolum
B. antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. benzoic acid
E. urea
89. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 115 °С. What chemical
indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. benzonaphtolum
B. *antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. benzoic acid
E. urea
90. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 132 °С. What chemical
indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. benzonaphtolum
B. antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. benzoic acid
E. *urea
91. It is necessary to create anaerobic conditions for cultivation of proper bacteria by biological method.
What method could you propose?
A. Zeissler’s method
B. Shukevich’s method
C. Veynberg’s method
D. *Fortner’s method
E. Pasteur’s method
92. It is necessary to examine the carriage of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by the child. What nutrient
medium is elective for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Levenshteyn-Yensen’s medium
B. Ploskirev’s medium
C. *Ru’s medium
D. Ol'kenickiy’s medium
E. Endo’s medium
93. It is necessary to examine the carriage of vibrios by group of persons in the infection focus of
cholera. What medium is elective for Vibrio cholerae?
A. MPB
B. Ploskirev’s medium
C. *1 % alkaline peptone water
D. Serum MPB
E. Ascitic agar
94. It is necessary to make biochemical identification and examine saccharolytic properties of bacteria.
What media could you offer?
A. Veynberg’s medium
B. Zeissler’s medium
C. *Giss’s media
D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
E. Milk
95. It is necessary to prepare a coagulated serum for isolation of culture of Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
How can you do serum coagulation?
A. 80-90 °С during 10 min
B. 70-80 °С during 30 min
C. 50-60 °С during 30 min
D. 90-100 °С during 30 min
E. *80-90 °С during 1 hour.
96. It is necessary to sterilize an object that destroys at 100 °С . Choose the comfortable regime of
tyndalization:
A. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other
B. single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 10 min
C. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 3-4 days one after the other
D. *sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
E. sterilization by water bath at 80-90 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other
97. It is necessary to sterilize material that contains the spore-forming bacteria by live steam. Choose the
regime of sterilization:
A. single sterilization during 10 min.
B. single sterilization during 20 min.
C. fractional sterilization – three times one after the other during one day, 30 min.
D. fractional sterilization – 2 days one after the other, 30 min.
E. *fractional sterilization – 3 days one after the other, 30 min.
98. It is necessary to sterilize the dressing material. Choose optimum regime of sterilization in an
autoclave:
A. 110 °С during 20 minutes
B. 127 °С during 20 minutes
C. 134 °С during 40 minutes
D. *120 °С during 20 minutes
E. 100 °С during 20 minutes
99. It is necessary to study ability of microbes to utilize glucose, saccharose, lactose, production of
hydrogen sulphide and utilization of urea. What nutrient media will you recommend?
A. Ru’s medium
B. Leffler’s medium
C. Endo’s medium
D. Ploskirev’s medium
E. *Olkenitsky’s medium
100.
It is necessary to study bacterial peptolytic properties. Indicate the proper medium:
A. Meat-peptone agar
B. Sugar MPA
C. Coagulated serum
D. *Meat-peptone broth
E. gelatin
101.
Laboratory diagnosis of tetanus was made in the laboratory. What method of sterilization is it
necessary to use for killing the selected cultures?
A. *Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Tindalizatio
D. In the heat oven
E. Pasteurization
102.
Material from a patient suspected in typhoid fever was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What
color do colonies of lactosonegative Salmonella typhi have?
A. dark blue
B. *colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
103.
Material from a patient suspected in dysentery was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What color
do colonies of lactosonegative Shigella have?
A. dark blue
B. green
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *colorless
104.
Material from a patient suspected in an intestinal infection was inoculated on the Ploskirev’s
medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
dark blue
colorless
*rose
brown
green
105.
Material from a patient with suspicion on colienteritis was inoculated on Endo’s medium.
What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have?
A. blue
B. colorless
C. *red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
106.
Material from a patient with suspicion on shigellosis (dysentery) was inoculated on the
Ploskirev’s medium. What color do colonies of lactose-negative Shigella have?
A. dark blue
B. green
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *colorless
107.
Material from a sick woman must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium for diagnosis of
vaginal candidiasis. Indicate this medium?
A. Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. *Saburo’s medium
108.
Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. *Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
109.
Microorganisms that are used as an energy source chemical reaction in the medium belong to:
A. heterotrophs
B. autotrophs
C. lithotrophs
D. organotrophs
E. *chemotrophs
110.
On the Endo’s medium colonies Escherichia and Salmonella were isolated. According to what
signs is it possible to make differentiation between them?
A. sizes
B. character of the edges
C. character of surfaces
D. consistency
E. *color
111.
On the mucous membranes of human there are corynebacteria. What selective medium for
their cultivation?
A. Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. *Agar with furazolidonum and tween
E. Saburo’s medium
112.
Some microorganisms lost their capacity for a synthesis of some necessary growth factors,
therefore they do not can grow on minimum nutrient media. They are called:
A. *auxotrophs
B. paratrophs
C. prototrophs
D. myxotrophs
E. oligotrophs
113.
The pure culture of microorganisms grows and develops at presence of an atmosphere oxygen
(no less what 20 % oxygen). What group of microorganisms according to their respiration does this
culture belong to?
A. *Obligate aerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. Microaerophilic bacteria
E. Capneic bacteria
114.
The wild bacteria are able to synthesize all necessary for them substances from a limited
number of organic compounds, for example, from glucose and ammonium salts. They are called:
A. auxotrophs
B. paratrophs
C. *prototrophs
D. myxotrophs
E. oligotrophs
115.
Wares from rubber and polymeric materials may be sterilized by immersing them in:
A. 3 % hydrogen peroxide, 6 hours at 18 °С
B. 6 % hydrogen peroxide, 12 hours at 18 °С
C. 6 % hydrogen peroxide on 1 hour at 18 °С
D. *6 % hydrogen peroxide on 6 hours at 18 °С
E. 6 % hydrogen peroxide on 2 hour at 18 °С
116.
What microorganisms can be used for quality control of sterilization by filtration?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. *Serratia mаrcescens
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Corynebacterium xerosis
117.
What chemicals can be added into of nutrient media for cultivation of anaerobes, because they
have oxygen-fixing effect?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Iron sulfate
D. Aluminium hydroxide
E. *Sodium hydrosulphite
118.
What color does acquire the semi-solid Giss’s media with the indicators water blue and
rosolic acid there is sugar utilization?
A. red
B. green
C. *dark blue
D. brown
E. a color does not change
119.
What enzyme of aerobic bacteria does provide neutralization of hydrogen peroxide toxic
effect?
A. lipase
B. protease
C. hydrolase
D. *catalase
E. urease
120.
What groups of methods for creation of anaerobic conditions for anaerobic bacteria
cultivation do you know ?
A. mechanical
B. physical
C. chemical
D. biological
E. *all answers are correct
121.
What is the main demand for any nutrient medium for the primary selection of
microorganisms?
A. To be solid
B. To be liquid
C. *To be sterile
D. To contain vitamins
E. To contain growth factors
122.
What microorganisms can produce such enzymes, as fibrinolysin, streptodornase,
streptokinase, which are used for patients’ treatment?
A. staphylococci
B. *streptococci
C. neisseria
D. branchamella
E. Gemella
123.
With the purpose of increase of boiling temperature and removal of water hard during
sterilization by boiling it is necessary to add:
A. *1 % sodium bicarbonate
B. 1 % potassium permanganate
C. 1 % magnesium sulfate
D. 1 % ether
E. 1 % alcohol
124.
A degree of heterotrophy may be different. The highest heterotrophy has prokaryotic
organisms that are able to live only inside the living cells. There are:
A. staphylococci and streptococci
B. escherichia and salmonellas
C. mycobacteria and bordetella
D. *rickettsia and chlamidia
E. vibrios and treponema
125.
According to the types of bacterial respiration such groups of bacteria may exist:
A. obligate aerobes
B. obligate anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. capneic
E. *all answers are correct
126.
After finishing the experience in students’ laboratory it’s necessary to disinfect the workplace.
What chemicals can be used?
A. ether
B. hydrochloric acid
C. formalin
D. chloroform
E. *Chloraminum
127.
After inoculation of Escherichia coli on Ploskirev’s medium the growth of bacteria is
inhibited. What chemical does predetermine this phenomenon?
A. oxalic acid
B.
C.
D.
E.
sodium sulphite
*brilliant green
Bismuth salts
fuchsine
128.
After inoculation of the patient’s faces on Endo’s medium there were grown to types of
colonies: one – red with metallic hue, other - colorless. To what group of nutrient media does Endo’s
medium belong to?
A. *Differential diagnostic
B. Elective
C. Enriching media
D. Universal
E. Selective
129.
After inoculation of the patient’s faces on Levin’s medium there were grown to types of
colonies: one – blu with metallic sheine, other - colorless. To what group of nutrient media
does Levin’s medium belong to?
A. *Differential diagnostic
B. Elective
C. Enriching media
D. Universal
E. Selective
130.
After practical classes it is necessary to kill bacterial cultures that were used by students.
Choose optimum regime of sterilization in an autoclave:
A. *134 °С 40 minutes
B. 120 °С 20 minutes
C. 112 °С 15 minutes
D. 134 °С 10 minutes
E. 127 °С 30 minutes
131.
At what advantage of Koch’s method in comparing Pasteur’s one for isolation of pure
cultures?
A. Enables to examine antibiotics susceptibility
B. Enables to examine biochemical properties of microbes
C. *Enables to obtain the isolated colonies
D. Enables to examine antigen properties of microbes
E. Has no substantial advantage
132.
Because of ill-timed treatment of pulpitis lower jaw osteomyelitis has developed in patient.
What examination is it necessary to carry out for identification of causative agents and to choose
effective preparation for treatment?
A. Complex serological examination
B. To examine the presence of proper antibodies
C. Microscopic examination of the pus
D. To examine bacterial antigens
E. *To isolate bacterial pure culture and examine its susceptibility to antibiotics
133.
Choose the method of inoculation of bacteria, based on mechanical principle?
A. Ru’s method
B. Gram’s method
C. Inoculation by a needle
D. *Drigalsky’s method
E. Morozov’s method
134.
Constructive and power metabolisms are closely connected, sometimes their ways coincide,
and the same substrates are utilized for different necessities. Such ways are called:
A. metabolic
B. *amphibolic
C. associative
D. dissociative
E. polybolic
135.
During the isolation of pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms the isolated colony is
inoculated on/in:
A. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
B. Giss’s medium
C. Zeissler’s medium
D. Endo’s medium
E. Ploskirev’s medium
136.
Energy which is generated by a cell exists in the form of electrochemical transmembrane
gradient of hydrogen ions - ?µН+ or in ATP molecules. What is the mechanism of transformation of
one type of energy into another?
A. electronic ATF-synthesizing complex
B. *proton ATF-synthesizing complex
C. molecular ATF-synthesizing complex
D. all answers are correct
E. all answers are wrong
137.
Escherichia coli was inoculated in Ressel’s medium. What changes will be observed in
nutrient medium, which verify utilization of glucose and lactose?
A. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar
B. Changes of the color from pinky to dark blue of the slant surface of agar
C. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the slant surface of agar
D. *Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar and slant surface of
agar
E. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
138.
For abolition of bacteria in the air of operating room such methods may be used:
A. gamma-rays
B. X-ray
C. *ultraviolet Light
D. gamma-rays
E. gas method
139.
For biological control of sterilization quality microorganisms are used. What important
feature do they have?
A. gram-positive
B. gram-negative
C. form capsules
D. *form spores
E. form pili
140.
For checking the quality of filters in an experiment a fluid containing test-microbe was
filtered. Later a filter was laid on the surface of nutrient medium and put into the incubator. How
much time is it necessary to hold it on medium to give a final answer about its quality?
A. 1 day at an optimum temperature
B. optimum temperature, 2 days
C. optimum temperature, 3 days
D. optimum temperature, 4 days
E. *at an optimum temperature, 5 day
141.
For examination of lipolytic properties of microbes lipids and lipid-like substances – tweens –
are supplemented into the medium. According to what signs is it possible to check the lipolytic
activity of bacteria?
A. The colonies of bacteria lose their typical form
B. *Bacteria form iridescent halos round the colonies
C. The colonies of bacterium are painted in the color of indicator
D. The colonies of bacteria become semilucent
E. If microbes lipolytic properties they do not grow on an medium
142.
For inoculation of microbes according to Drigalsky’s method we can use:
A. Bacteriological loop
B. *Spatula
C. Bacteriological needle
D. Jar
E. All answers are correct
143.
For the selection of pure cultures the proper methods are used. Choose one of inoculation
technique:
A. Fortner’s method
B. *Drigalsky’s method
C. Membrane filters’ method
D. Gins’s method
E. Leffler’s method
144.
For verifying the peptolytic properties of bacteria what substances are examined in nutrient
medium?
A. carbon acid and water
B. glucose and lactose
C. carbon acid and nitrogen
D. mannitol and methanol
E. *indole and hydrogen sulphide
145.
From patient with gas anaerobic infection it is necessary to select the culture of causative
agents. What medium can be chosen?
A. Leffler’s medium
B. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
C. Petrov’s medium
D. Makkoy-Chepin’s medium
E. Petranyani’s medium
146.
From patient’s blood the culture Salmonella paratyphi A was isolated. What cultural
properties characterize this microbe?
A. *Formation of colorless or pinky colonies on Endo’s and Ploskirev’s nutrient media
B. Formation of red colonies with metallic hue on Endo’s medium
C. Formation of colorless colonies on Bismuth-sulfite agar
D. Formation of haemolysis on a blood agar
E. Formation of tender pellicle on alkaline peptone water
147.
From patient’s blood the culture Salmonella paratyphi B was isolated. What cultural
properties characterize this microbe?
A. *Formation of colorless or pinky colonies on Endo’s and Ploskirev’s nutrient media
B. Formation of red colonies with metallic hue on Endo’s medium
C. Formation of colorless colonies on Bismuth-sulfite agar
D. Formation of haemolysis on a blood agar
E. Formation of tender pellicle on alkaline peptone water
148.
From patient’s blood the culture Salmonella typhi was isolated. What cultural properties
characterize this microbe?
A. *Formation of colorless or pinky colonies on Endo’s and Ploskirev’s nutrient media
B. Formation of red colonies with metallic hue on Endo’s medium
C. Formation of colorless colonies on Bismuth-sulfite agar
D. Formation of haemolysis on a blood agar
E. Formation of tender pellicle on alkaline peptone water
149.
Growth of what microorganisms does not inhibit furasolidon, added into nutrient medium in
certain concentrations?
A. *Micrococci and Corynebacteria
B. E. coli and Bacillus spp.
C. Clostridium spp. and Branhamella spp.
D. Streptococci and Gemella spp.
E. Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
150.
How is it possible to divide microorganisms according to spore formation for isolation of pure
culture?
A. To cool the tested material before inoculation, as spores are insusceptible to the action of low
temperatures
B. *To heat the tested material before inoculation, as spores are heat stable
C. To inoculate tested material and cultivate it in anaerobic conditions
D. To inoculate tested material, which contains spore forming bacilli in laboratory animals
E. To separate microorganisms according to their spore formation is impossible
151.
How is it possible to increase the phase of exponential growth and M-concentration
artificially ?
A. by the renewing of nutrient medium
B. additional aeration (for aerobes)
C. it is impossible to do it
D. a right answer is not present
E. *right answers A and B
152.
How is it possible to verify the motility of bacteria which form colony?
A. Staining according to Leffler’s technique
B. Staining according to Gram’s technique
C. *By «hanging» drop technique
D. By electron microscope
E. By «lying» drop technique
153.
How much time is it necessary to cultivate the bacteria on Bismuth-sulfite agar for final
evaluation of growth?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. *48 hours
E. 96 hour
154.
In a bacteriological laboratory it is necessary to nutrient media, which contain matters,
changing at a temperature higher then 100 °С (urea, carbohydrates, proteins). What method of
sterilization can you offer?
A. *by live steam
B. autoclave, pressed steam
C. boiling
D. tindalization
E. pasteurization
155.
In a hospital chief of department decided to check the quality of instruments sterilization in an
autoclave by biological method. What bacteria can be used for this test?
A. Pathogenic
B. Capsule-forming
C. Acid fast
D. *Spore-forming
E. Thermophilic
156.
In a laboratory for acceleration of sterilization of media with sugar by live steam this
procedure was made in one day: in the morning, in the day-time and in the evening for 30 min. How
it was necessary to sterilize these media correctly?
A. To sterilize 1 hour
B. To sterilize 15 minutes
C. To sterilize 45 minutes
D. *To sterilize three times with 24 hour interval
E. To sterilize twice for a days
157.
In a medium with gelatin it is possible to verify the proteolytic properties of bacteria. What
signs will show the positive results?
A. *liquefacience of gelatin column
B. compression of gelatin column
C. discoloration of gelatin column
D. appearance of dark precipitate in gelatin column
E. brightening of gelatin column.
158.
In a pharmacy it is necessary to sterilize the small bottles with physiological sodium chloride
solution for injection. What method is it necessary to apply for their sterilization?
A. *in an autoclave, 2 atmospheres
B. in an autoclave by fluid steam
C. in a heat oven
D. by X-ray
E. by ultraviolet light
159.
In MPB it is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. How is it possible to
prove, if microbes produces the hydrogen sulphide?
A. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
its color, it becomes red
B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with the lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
its color, it becomes dark blue
C. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a lead acetate; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
its color, it becomes black
D. the color of medium becomes greyish
E. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; the hydrogen sulphide is changed
by its color, it becomes black
160.
In MPB it is necessary to verify the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the
positive results – indole production?
A. to insert the indicator, saturated with a litmus; an indole is changed its color, it becomes red
B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; an indole is changed its color, it
becomes dark blue
C. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a litmus; a indole is changed its color, it becomes
dark blue
D. the color of medium becomes rose
E. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; a indole is changed by its color, it
becomes rose
161.
In MPB it is necessary to verify the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What signs will show the
positive results – indole production?
A. to insert the indicator, saturated with a litmus; an indole is changed its color, it becomes red
B. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; an indole is changed its color, it
becomes dark blue
C. to insert the indicator paper, saturated with a litmus; a indole is changed its color, it becomes
dark blue
D. the color of medium becomes rose
E. *to insert the indicator paper, saturated with an oxalic acid; a indole is changed by its color, it
becomes rose
162.
In Olkenitsky’s medium Escherichia coli was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a
medium, which will confirm utilization of glucose and lactose?
A. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow in the column of agar
B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of slant surface of agar
C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of slant surface of agar
D. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and slant surface of
agar
E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
163.
In Olkenitsky’s medium microorganism which products an urea was inoculated. What
changes here will be observed in a medium?
A. *all will become red
B. appearance of red precipitate in the column of agar
C. appearance of greenish precipitate in the column of agar
D. to fix the urease production in this medium is impossible
E. appearance of brightly-violet precipitate in the column of agar
164.
In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which decomposes glucose to acid was inoculated.
What changes will be observed in a medium, which certify utilization of glucose?
A. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar
B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow the slant surface of agar
C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red the slant surface of agar
D. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and the slant surface of
agar
E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar
165.
In what color does rezazurin stain nutrient medium if its redox potential increases?
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Brown
D. Dark blue
E. *Pink
166.
In what nutrient media for cultivation of bacteria 7,5-10 % chloride of sodium may be added?
A. Yolk-salt agar
B. Buchin’s medium
C. Mannitol-salt agar
D. Blood-sugar agar
E. *Right answers A and C
167.
In what period after finishing the disinfections is it recommended to collect the control
samples?
A. not before, than in 10-15 min
B. not before, than in 15-20 min
C. not before, than in 20-30 min
D. *not before, than in 30-45 min
E. not before, than in 60-90 min
168.
In what phases of growth are microorganisms most physiologically and functionally active?
A. initial and exponential
B. *exponential and stationary
C. stationary and death
D. initial and stationary
E. exponential and death
169.
It is necessary to verify the hemolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient media will you
recommend?
A. simple MPA
B. simple MPB
C. Endo’s medium
D. *blood MPA
E. serum MPA
170.
It is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient medium will you
recommend?
A. MPA
B. Endo’s medium
C. Ru’s medium
D. 1 % alkaline peptone water
E. *MPB
171.
It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 115 °С. What
chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. benzonaphtolum
B. *antipyrine
C. sulphur
D. benzoic acid
E. urea
172.
It is necessary to choose the medium for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Endo’s and Levin’s media
B. Meat-peptone agar, meat-peptone broth
C. *Zeissler’s blood-sugar agar, Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
D. Coagulated serum, мeat-peptone gelatin
E. Ascitic agar, serum agar
173.
It is necessary to conduct pasteurization of juice. Choose its optimum mode:
A. 70 °С during 5-10 min
B. 70 °С during 30 min
C. 80 °С during 60 min
D. 80 °С during 30 min
E. *80 °С during 5-10 min
174.
It is necessary to create anaerobic conditions for cultivation of proper bacteria by biological
method. What method could you propose?
A. Zeissler’s method
B. Shukevich’s method
C. Veynberg’s method
D. *Fortner’s method
E. Pasteur’s method
175.
It is necessary to examine the carriage of Corynebacterium diphtheriae by the child. What
nutrient medium is elective for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Levenshteyn-Yensen’s medium
B. Ploskirev’s medium
C. *Ru’s medium
D. Ol'kenickiy’s medium
E. Endo’s medium
176.
It is necessary to examine the carriage of vibrios by group of persons in the infection focus of
cholera. What medium is elective for Vibrio cholerae?
A. MPB
B. Ploskirev’s medium
C. *1 % alkaline peptone water
D. Serum MPB
E. Ascitic agar
177.
It is necessary to examine the carriage of vibrios by group of persons in the infection focus of
cholera. What medium is elective for Vibrio cholerae?
A. MPB
B. Ploskirev’s medium
C. *1 % alkaline peptone water
D. Serum MPB
E. Ascitic agar
178.
It is necessary to make biochemical identification and examine saccharolytic properties of
bacteria. What media could you offer?
A. Veynberg’s medium
B. Zeissler’s medium
C. *Giss’s media
D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium
E. Milk
179.
It is necessary to prepare a coagulated serum for isolation of culture of Corynebacterium
diphtheriae. How can you do serum coagulation?
A. 80-90 °С during 10 min
B. 70-80 °С during 30 min
C. 50-60 °С during 30 min
D. 90-100 °С during 30 min
E. *80-90 °С during 1 hour.
180.
It is necessary to study ability of microbes to utilize glucose, saccharose, lactose, production
of hydrogen sulphide and utilization of urea. What nutrient media will you recommend?
A. Ru’s medium
B. Leffler’s medium
C. Endo’s medium
D. Ploskirev’s medium
E. *Olkenitsky’s medium
181.
Laboratory diagnosis of tetanus was made in the laboratory. What method of sterilization is it
necessary to use for killing the selected cultures?
A. *Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Tindalizatio
D. In the heat oven
E. Pasteurization
182.
Material from a patient with suspicion on typhoid fever was inoculated on Endo’s medium.
What color do colony of lactosonegative Salmonella typhi have?
A. dark blue
B. *colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
183.
Material from a patient with suspicion on typhoid fever was inoculated on Endo’s medium.
What color do colony of lactosonegative Salmonella typhi have?
A. dark blue
B. *colorless
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
184.
Material from a patient with suspicion on dysentery was inoculated on Endo’s medium. What
color do colony of lactosonegative Shigella have?
A. dark blue
B. green
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *colorless
185.
Material from a patient with suspicion on an intestinal infection was inoculated on the
Ploskirev’s medium. What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have?
A. dark blue
B. colorless
C. *rose
D. brown
E. green
186.
Material from a patient with suspicion on colienteritis was inoculated on Endo’s medium.
What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have?
A. blue
B. colorless
C. *red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
187.
Material from a patient with suspicion on colienteritis was inoculated on Endo’s medium.
What color do colonies of Escherichia coli have?
A. blue
B. colorless
C. *red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. green
188.
Material from a patient with suspicion on shigellosis (dysentery) was inoculated on the
Ploskirev’s medium. What color do colonies of lactose-negative Shigella have?
A. dark blue
B. green
C. red with metallic hue
D. brown
E. *colorless
189.
Material from a sick woman must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium for diagnosis of
vaginal candidiasis. Indicate this medium?
A. Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. *Saburo’s medium
190.
Material from patient with cholera must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose
most optimum from them:
A. Mueller’s medium
B. *1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
191.
Material from patient with diphtheria must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. *Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
192.
Material from patient with dysentery must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. *Ploskirev’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
193.
Material from patient with escherichiosis must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. *Endo’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
194.
Material from patient with gas gangrene must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. *Kitt-Tarozzi medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
195.
Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. *Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
196.
Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium.
Choose most optimum from them:
A. *Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. Saburo’s medium
197.
Material from patient with vaginal candidiasis must be inoculated on selective nutrient
medium. Choose most optimum from them:
A. Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. Blood agar
E. *Saburo’s medium
198.
Microorganisms that are used as an energy source chemical reaction in the medium belong to:
A. heterotrophs
B. autotrophs
C. lithotrophs
D. organotrophs
E. *chemotrophs
199.
Microorganisms that require the high concentrations of salts for their cultivation are called:
A. Acidophilic
B. *Halophilic
C. Oxyphilic
D. Mesophilic
E. Osmiephilic
200.
Microorganisms, which are able to cause diseases in human, belong to:
A. chmemoorganoautotrophs
B. *chemoorganoheterotrophs
C. chemolithoheterotrophs
D. chemolithoautotrophs
E. heterophotoorganotrophs
201.
Morphological identification is examination of bacterial species according to:
A. character of colonies
B. *morphological signs
C. character of staining
D. character of motility
E. biochemical properties
202.
On the Endo’s medium colonies Escherichia and Salmonella were isolated. According to what
signs is it possible to make differentiation between them?
A. sizes
B. character of the edges
C. character of surfaces
D. consistency
E. *color
203.
On the mucous membranes of human there are corynebacteria. What selective medium for
their cultivation?
A. Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. *Agar with furazolidonum and tween
E. Saburo’s medium
204.
On the sputum of human there are mycobacteria. What selective medium for their cultivation?
A. Mueller’s medium
B. 1 % alkaline peptone water
C. Ru’s medium
D. *Loevenstein-Jensen’s medium
E. Saburo’s medium
205.
Salmonella typhi, which utilizes glucose to acid was inoculated in Ressel’s medium. What
changes will be observed in nutrient medium, which verify utilization of glucose?
A. *Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar
B. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue of the slant surface of agar
C. Changes of the color from a pinky to red of the slant surface of agar
D. Changes of the color from a pinky to dark blue in the column of agar and slant part of agar
E. Changes of the color from a pinky to red in the column of agar
206.
Some microorganisms lost their capacity for a synthesis of some necessary growth factors,
therefore they do not can grow on minimum nutrient media. They are called:
A. *auxotrophs
B. paratrophs
C. prototrophs
D. myxotrophs
E. oligotrophs
207.
Specify, to what pressure in an autoclave a temperature 100 °С corresponds:
A. *0 аtm.
B. 0,5 аtm.
C. 1 аtm.
D. 1,5 аtm.
E. 2 аtm.
208.
Taking into consideration the features of fermenting type of anaerobe bacteria metabolism
they require:
A. More rich for nutrients medium
B. More rich for vitamins nutrient medium
C. Obligatory addition of bacterial growth factors in nutrient medium
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
209.
The pure culture of microorganisms grows and develops at presence of an atmosphere oxygen
(no less what 20 % oxygen). What group of microorganisms according to their respiration does this
culture belong to?
A. *Obligate aerobes
B.
C.
D.
E.
Obligate anaerobes
Facultative anaerobes
Microaerophilic bacteria
Capneic bacteria
210.
The wild bacteria are able to synthesize all necessary for them substances from a limited
number of organic compounds, for example, from glucose and ammonium salts. They are called:
A. auxotrophs
B. paratrophs
C. *prototrophs
D. myxotrophs
E. oligotrophs
211.
To Chlorine which are used for disinfection, belong all preparation, EXCEPT:
A. 0,2-1,0 % solutions of Chloramin B.
B. 5 % water solutions of calcium hypochloride.
C. 0,05-0,1 % solution of trichloroisocyanuric acid.
D. 0,1-0,2 % sulfochlorantine solution
E. *3-5 % solution of carbolic acid.
212.
To the universal nutrient mediums belong:
A. serum MPA and serum MPB.
B. Endo’s medium and Ploskirev’s medium
C. *MPA and MPB
D. Blood MPA and TCBS medium
E. Yolk salt agar and Ascitic agar
213.
What actions are necessary to do during І stage of isolation of pure cultures of aerobes?
A. To study the features of the tested material
B. To study the morphological features of possible causative agent
C. To choose necessary nutrient medium for inoculation
D. To inoculate tested material for obtaining the isolated colonies
E. *All answers are correct
214.
What antibiotic is it necessary to add into nutrient medium for inhibition of fungi growth?
A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. *Nistatin
E. Mitomicin C
215.
What antigens can be found in Enterobacteriaceae during serological identification?
A. O
B. H
C. K
D. *All answers are correct
E. All answers are wrong
216.
What can be the form of rough surfaces of colonies of R-form of bacteria?
A. *wrinkled
B. gyrose
C. warty
D. rosette-shaped
E. all answers are correct
217.
What chemicals can be added into of nutrient media for cultivation of anaerobes, because they
have oxygen-fixing effect?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Iron sulfate
D. Aluminium hydroxide
E. *Sodium hydrosulphite
218.
What chemicals can you offer for separation of staphylococci and bacilli from other microbes
according to biological principle?
A. magnesium sulfate
B. aluminium nitrate
C. ascetic lead
D. oxalic acid
E. *7,5-10 % sodium chloride
219.
What color does acquire the semi-solid Giss’s media with the indicators water blue and
rosolic acid there is sugar utilization?
A. red
B. green
C. *dark blue
D. brown
E. a color does not change
220.
What color does acquire the semi-solid Giss’s media with the indicators water blue and
rosolic acid there is sugar utilization?
A. red
B. green
C. *dark blue
D. brown
E. a color does not change
221.
What color does non-inoculated Olkenitsky’s medium have?
A. bright red
B. *pink
C. yellow
D. greenish
E. violet
222.
What component is it necessary to take for carrying out presumptive agglutination test for
examination of bacterial antigens?
A. Precipitating serum
B. *Agglutinating serum
C. Neutralizing serum
D. Hemolytic serum
E. Right answer is not present
223.
What elements can form macroergic bounds?
A. phosphorus
B. sulfur
C. selenium
D. *right answers A and B
E. right answers A, B, C
224.
What finished products do appear in the liquid Giss’s media after decomposition of sugars?
A. acid
B. alkali
C. gas
D. *acid and gas
E. fixing the finished goods is not succeeded
225.
What groups of methods for creation of anaerobic conditions for anaerobic bacteria
cultivation do you know ?
A. mechanical
B. physical
C. chemical
D. biological
E. *all answers are correct
226.
What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen?
A. Andrede
B. Neutral red
C. *Phenol red
D. Bromthymol blue
E. Thymol blue
227.
What indicator may be added into nutrient medium for cultivation of anaerobes, which can
testify expedience of its use for inoculation of tested material?
A. Fuchsine
B. Brilliant green
C. Methylene green
D. *Methylene blue
E. Fenolrot
228.
What is advantage of Koch’s, Drigalsky’s and streak’s techniques above the Pasteur’ method?
A. Enable to study biochemical properties of bacteria
B. Enable to study antigen properties of bacteria
C. Enable to obtain a pure culture
D. *Enable to obtain the isolated colonies
E. Right answer is not present
229.
What is it necessary to take into consideration during collection of tested material for isolation
of anaerobic causative agents?
A. Warning neutralizing effect of antibodies
B. *Warning toxic effect of oxygen
C. Warning influence of disinfectants
D. Warning changes of tinctorial properties
E. Warning changes of serologic properties
230.
What microorganisms can produce such enzymes, as fibrinolysin, streptodornase,
streptokinase, which are used for patients’ treatment?
A. staphylococci
B. *streptococci
C. neisseria
D. branchamella
E. Gemella
231.
What substance is it necessary to add to peptone water for creation the optimum conditions
for the isolation of cholerae vibrio?
A. 1 % sodium sulfate
B. 1 % acids
C. *1 % alkali
D. 1 % iron sulfate
E. 1 % sodium chloride
232.
What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *right answers B and C.
E. right answers A, B and C
233.
What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation?
A. use of Gas generating box
B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil
C. use the high column of nutrient medium
D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation
E. a right answer is not present
234.
What way does glycerin penetrate in a bacterial cell?
A. Translocation of radicals
B. Active transport
C. Diffusion
D. *Ionic transport
E. Facilitated diffusion
235.
With the purpose of increase of boiling temperature and removal of water hard during
sterilization by boiling it is necessary to add:
A. *1 % sodium bicarbonate
B. 1 % potassium permanganate
C. 1 % magnesium sulfate
D. 1 % ether
E. 1 % alcohol
236.
A patient has common cold, cough, catarrhal phenomena, fever, and weakness. There may be
viral infection. What test can we use for indication of viruses in pathological material?
A. *Haemagglutination test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. CFT
D. Neutralization test
E. All answers are correct
237.
A patient with hepatitis B was admitted to the hospital. For diagnosis of disease serologic test
which is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically bound with peroxydase or
alkaline phosphatase was carried out. What is the name of this test?
A. *ELISA
B. Radioimmune assay
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Complement fixation test
E. Immobilisation test
238.
After identification of viruses in pathological material viruses from Orthomyxoviridae were
revealed. What virus from this family may be found in this tested material?
A. Poliovirus
B. *Influenza virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
239.
After inoculation of cell culture with viral material it is necessity for the indication of virus in
there. We can use such test:
A. Presence of cytophathic effect
B. Haemagglutination test
C. Haemadsorption test
D. "colour test"
E. *All answers are corrects
240.
After inoculation of chicken embryo with tested material from a patient with initial diagnosis
of Flu it is necessary to detect the presence of viruses in there. What test of indication may be used?
A. neutralization test in the cell culture
B. plaques formation phenomenon in gel
C. neutralization test in laboratory animals
D. precipitation test
E. *haemagglutination test
241.
All viruses according to their structure are divided into naked and complex. Complex ones
contain an envelope. What RNA-containing viruses do have envelope?
A. picornaviruses
B. *togaviruses
C. reoviruses
D. caliciviruses
E. All answers are correct
242.
Among reactions, which are widely applied for indication of viruses haemagglutination test, is
used. What is haemagglutination unit?
A. Maximal dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
B. *Minimum dilution of viruses, which causes complete agglutination of red cells.
C. Maximal dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
D. Minimum dilution of red cells suspension, where their agglutination is present.
E. No correct answer.
243.
Before making Complement fixation test patients serum must be heated at 56 °С for 30 min.
Why should we done it?
A. For elimination of heterophilic antibodies
B. For diminution of properdin activity
C. For decrease of lysozyme activity
D. *For elimination of complement
E. For suppression of normal antibodies
244.
Chicken embryos were inoculated with patients throat swab. How is it possible to find viruses
in an embryo?
A. Haemadsorption inhibition test
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. *Haemagglutination test
D. Agglutination test
E. RIA
245.
Choose the components of Haemagglutination inhibition test for serologic diagnosis of viral
infection.
A. Specific sera, viral antigen, chicken red cells, electrolyte
B. Viral diagnosticum, serum of patient, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
C. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, chicken red cells, electrolyte
D. Viral antigen, specific sera, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, paired sera, electrolyte
246.
Complement fixation test was utilized for serologic diagnosis of measles. Show sequence of
necessary components among listed ones:
A. Complement, specific serum, chicken red cells, virus
B. Hemolytic system, serum of patient, complement
C. Complement, hemolytic system, specific serum, viral diagnosticum
D. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system
E. Paired patient’s sera, viral material, complement, specific serum, hemolytic system.
247.
Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with material from _______ lesions.
A. Smallpox
B. Avianpox
C. *Cowpox
D. Chickenpox
E. Dogpox
248.
For identification of viruses it is possible to utilize reverse indirect haemagglutination test.
What are components of this test?
A. Red cell diagnosticum and serum of patient, electrolyte
B. *Diagnosticum from red cells, which are covered with known antibodies, unknown antigen,
electrolyte
C. Red cells, unknown virus, specific serum, electrolyte
D. Red cells, serum of patient, specific antigen, electrolyte
E. White cells, unknown virus, electrolyte,
249.
For making of indirect haemagglutination test for serologic diagnosis of infectious disease,
the followings components are needed:
A. *Paired patient’s sera, erythrocytes viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
B. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum from red cells, electrolyte
C. Viral material, patient’s serum, chicken red cells
D. Virus, specific serum, chicken red cells, electrolyte
E. Patient’s serum, erythrocytes viral diagnosticum, electrolyte
250.
For serologic diagnosis of poliomyelitis neutralization test in cell culture is used. Show the
positive result of this test when we use paired patient’s sera?
A. Increase of antibodies titer in 2 times
B. *Increase of antibodies titer in 4 times
C. Decrease of antibodies titer in 2 times
D. Decrease of antibodies titer in 4 times
E. No correct answer
251.
For serologic diagnosis of viral infection Haemagglutination inhibition test is utilized. Choose
useless component of this test
A. Patient’s serum at the beginning of disease
B. *Medium 199
C. Patient’s serum which was is taken in 2 weeks of disease
D. Chicken red cells
E. Viral diagnosticum
252.
For the examination of viruses in the sections of tissues immunologic methods are utilized.
Choose such method among listed ones:
A. RIA
B. ELISA
C. CFT
D. *IFT
E. Haemagglutination inhibition test
253.
For the indication of virus haemagglutination test is utilized. What are the components of this
test?
A. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, chicken red cells
C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells
D. electrolyte, virus-containing material, cell cultures, specific antiviral serum, chicken red cells
E. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
254.
For the indication of viruses in the tested material haemagglutination test is utilized. There are
such components of haemagglutination test:
A. specific serum, sheep’s red cells
B. *Viral material, chicken red cells, electrolyte
C. Unknown antibodies, red cells of hen, electrolyte
D. Virus, sheep’s red cells
E. Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, chicken red cells
255.
For the specific prophylaxis of some infectious diseases utilize bacteriophages are utilized.
Show disease, where bacteriophages may be used:
A. tuberculosis and brucellosis
B. *shigellosis and typhoid fever
C. Tetanus and botulism
D. Tularemia and anthrax
E. gas gangrene and plague
256.
For virologic (early) diagnosis of viral infections haemagglutination inhibition test is utillized.
What are components of this test?
A. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, cell cultures
B. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells
C. electrolyte, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, chicken embryos
D. electrolyte, serum of patient, virus-containing material, chicken red cells, complement
E. *electrolyte, virus-containing material, specific sera, chicken red cells.
257.
From a sick dog saliva was taken for virologic examination and isolation of viruses. What
virus does represent Rhabdoviridae?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Influenza virus
C. *Rabies virus
D. Epidemic parotitis virus
E. Rubella virus
258.
Identification of Influenza virus was made in a virologic laboratory. In the first well the
culture of virus mixed with type A specific serum, in the second – with type B diagnostic serum.
After incubation there were two types of sediment: "umbrella-shaped" and "button-shaped". What
immune reaction was used?
A. *Haemagglutination inhibition test
B. Indirect haemagglutination test
C. Complement fixation test
D. Neutralization test
E. ELISA
259.
Immune reactions are widely utilized in laboratory practice. When do we use theses methods
in virology?
A. For authentication of virus
B. For serologic diagnosis
C. For the examination of antiviral antibodies
D. All answers are correct
E. *No correct answer
260.
In a child D., 7 years old there are signs of intoxication, fever 39 IС, catarrhal phenomena
oropharynx. A doctor diagnosed flu. What family does Influenza virus include?
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. *Orthomyxoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. Togaviridae
261.
In a sick dog there are salivation, anxiety, causeless excitation. A veterinary doctor suspected
hydrophobia (rabies) in it. Specify what family do rabies virus belong to:
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. *Rhabdoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
E. No correct answer
262.
In a virologic laboratory there is swab from the nose of the patient with flu. It is necessary to
examine strain specificity of the viruses. What test may be used?
A. Rhinocytoscopy
B. According to character of cytopathic effect of viruses
C. *Haemagglutination inhibition test with specific sera
D. Haemagglutination test
E. Hemadsorbtion test
263.
In laboratory practice cultivation of viruses in cell cultures is widely utilized. What is first
stage of co-operation of viruses and susceptible?
A. *Adsorption
B. Penetration
C. Liberation of nucleic acid
D. integration of viral DNA in the genome of cell
E. Assembly
264.
In the patient N. with a viral infection in 7 days after beginning of disease a cough with
sputum, rale in the lungs appeared. After X-ray examination diagnosis of pneumonia was confirmed.
Why there may be secondary bacterial infection in patients with viral diseases?
A. viruses cause the death of mucus membrane cells in respiratory tract
B. viruses alter the cilia epithelium
C. viruses decrease the immune reactivity of the body
D. viruses are favorable for penetration of secondary microflora
E. *All answers are correct
265.
Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can
directly disrupt cell structure.
A. Procaryotes
B. Chromosomal disruptions
C. *Inclusion bodies
D. Cytocidal bodies
E. All of the above
266.
It is known that viruses have a different susceptibility to the action of environment factors.
Specify what does it influence to the susceptibility viruses to X-ray and ultraviolet radiation first of
all?
A. *size of viral genome
B. presence of envelope
C. size of virus
D. the presence of lipoproteins
E. All answers are correct
267.
One test, which is utilized in virology, does not need antigens and antibodies. Find it among
listed tests.
A. *Haemagglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Haemagglutination inhibition test
D. Indirect haemagglutination test
E. ELISA
268.
Orthomyxoviridae can cause the most frequent disease of viral etiology in human. Show the
viruses, which belong to this family:
A. *Influenza virus
B. Poliovirus
C. Rabies virus
D. HIV
E. Herpesvirus
269.
Pathological material (discharges of mucus membranes from the nose) from patient P. was
transported to the laboratory. What express method may be used for examination of specific viral
antigen in this tested material?
A. Direct and indirect ELYSA
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test
C. *Direct and indirect immune fluorescence tests
D. Reversed indirect haemagglutination test
E. Agglutination test
270.
Patient A. was admitted to the clinic during the first days of illness with diagnosis of
Influenza. What can we examine by the early methods of virologic diagnosis?
A. toxins of viruses
B. presence of antibodies against the viruses
C. increase of antibodies titer in patient’ serum
D. *presence of viral antigens
E. All answers are correct
271.
Prions are differed from viruses according to their morphology and biological signs.
Causative agents of what diseases are prions?
A. Kuru
B. Scrapie
C. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
D. Fatal familial insomnia
E. *All answers are correct
272.
Proteins are represented in the viruses. Show the main groups of proteins according to their
localization and function:
A. *structural and non-structural
B. internal and external
C. complex and simple
D. pathogenic and non-pathogenic
E. All answers are correct
273.
Show components which are needed for the examination of viral antigen in patient’s tested
material by ELISA.
A. Patient’s serum, viral antigen, antiglobulin serum serum, substrate
B. *Specific antibodies, tested viral antigen, antiglobulin serum, conjugated with an enzyme,
substrate
C. Tested virus, antigen, antispecies serum with an enzyme, substrate
D. Viral antigen, patient’s serum, specific serum with an enzyme, substrate
E. Antispecies serum, specific serum, enzyme, substrate
274.
Show necessary components for carrying out direct immunofluorescence test for examination
of viruses:
A. unknown antibody and antigen marked with fluorochrome
B. specific serum, antigen, dye
C. *unknown virus, a specific serum, which is bound with fluorochrome
D. antigen, specific serum, antiglobulin fluorescent serum
E. unknown virus, serum of patient, antiglobulin fluorescent serum
275.
Show the sequence of early stages of viral reproductions: 1. Synthesis of protein. 2.
Penetration. 3. Attachment of viruses to the cell surface. 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids. 5. Uncoating.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 4, 2, 3, 5
E. *3, 2, 5
276.
Sometime it is necessary to make express Diagnosis of viral disease. What express methods
could you propose?
A. Inoculation of chicken embryos
B. Inoculation of laboratory animals
C. Inoculation of cell culture
D. *Immunofluorescence test, Chain polymerase reaction
E. All answers are correct
277.
Specify the components of Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of viral infection:
A. Serum of patient, viral material, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
B. *Paired patient’s sera, viral diagnosticum, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte
C. Viral diagnosticum, paired patient’s sera, complement, hemolytic system, electrolyte
D. Virus, specific serum, complement, sheep’s red cells, electrolyte
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, hemolytic system, electrolyte
278.
Student H. has to describe during final lesson a virus from Paramyxoviridae. What viruses do
belong this family to?
A. Rhabdoviruses
B. *Measles virus
C. Yellow fever viruses
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
279.
?Taking into consideration the features of viral structure, they can be susceptible or nonsusceptible to an ether. What viruses are susceptible to ether:
A. naked ones
B. *complex ones
C. viruses with a cubic type of symmetry
D. bacteriophages
E. No correct answer
280.
The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host
cell receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
281.
The following test uses a solid phase coated with antibody (or antigen) to capture antigen (or
antibody) from the patient's specimen:
A. Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI)
B. Immunofluoresence or Fluorescence assays (IF or FA)
C. Neutralization Tests (NT)
D. Complement Fixation Test (CF)
E. *ELISA
282.
The haemagglutination test is utilized for the indication of virus. What does testify the
positive haemagglutination test?
A. Absence of sedimentation of red cells
B. Haemolysis of red cells
C. *Umbrella-shaped sediment of red cells
D. adsorption of red cells on the cell culture
E. absence of adsorption of red cells is on the cell culture
283.
The immunofluorescence test is widely utilized for express diagnosis of a lot of viral
infections. Choose a necessary condition for reading the results of this test:
A. presence of light microscope
B. presence of electron microscope
C. *presence of ultraviolet microscope
D. presence of phase-contrast microscope
E. a presence of light microscope is with dark field illumination
284.
The neutralization test in cell culture is used for identification of viruses. Show the sequence
of necessary ingredients for making this test( V - virus, PS – patient’s serum, SS - specific serum, CC
– cell culture).
A. CC + PS to wait + SS
B. CC + V to wait + CC
C. *V + SS to wait + CC
D. SS + CC to wait + V
E. CC + PS + SS to wait + V
285.
The phenomenon of cells lysis by bacteriophages is widely utilized in clinical practice. Who
did describe the bacteriophages first?
A. L. Pasteur and R. Koch
B. *M. Gamaliya and F. D’Herelle
C. F. Twort and Roux
D. D. Ivanovsky and E. Jenner
E. S. Vinogradsky and J. Schoenlein
286.
The positive result of neutralization test in cell culture (colour test) for serologic diagnosis of
viral infection is:
A. Sedimenta in wells
B. **Liquid of yellow color in the experimental test tubes
C. Sediment of red cells in test tubes
D. Liquid of pink color in the experimental test tubes
E. Presence of cytopathic effect
287.
The strategy of viral genome includes: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3. Release of
viruses from the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Deproteinization:
A. 1, 2, 5
B. *4, 1
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
288.
The viruses of flu are cultivated in 10-11 daily chicken embryos. What is the best way of
there inoculation?
A. on chorioallantoic membrane
B. in аmniotic cavity
C. in yolk sac
D. in the body of embryo
E. *in allantoic cavity
289.
There are head, shrunken sheath of the process, basal plate, core and fibrils in structures of the
phage. A There is such important enzyme in the phages:
A. phosphatase
B. lipase
C. *lisozyme
D. proteases
E. revertase
290.
There are less according to their sizes as compared with viruses pathogens in nature. Choose
them among listed causative agents:
A. *Viroid and prions
B. Bacteroids and vibrios
C. Plasmids and transposones
D. Erhlichia and plasmids
E. All answers are correct
291.
There are such early stages of viral reproductions: 1. Synthesis of protein, 2. Penetration, 3.
Attachment of viruses to the surface of the cell, 4. Synthesis of nucleic acids, 5. Uncoating
A. 1, 2, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. *2, 3, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
292.
There are such methods of viral cultivation: 1. On nutrient media; 2. In chicken embryos; 3. In
laboratory animals; 4. In cell cultures. Choose correct combination of answers:
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2,3
C. *2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. All of answers are incorrect
293.
There are viruses with RNA”+” genome. They execute all the followings functions during
reproduction of viruses, except:
A. This mRNA causes synthesis of structural proteins
B. This RNA “+” is matrix for RNA “-“ synthesis
C. They are packed in a capsid during formation of new viral particles
D. This RNA “+” causes translation
E. *It is a matrix for the synthesis of mRNA
294.
There is tested material in virologic laboratory with minimum concentration of viral particles.
What modern method may be used for examination of this tested material?
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. ELISA
C. A method is with the use of monoclonal antibodies
D. Radioimmune assay
E. *All answers are correct
295.
There was a necessity to examine the presence of antibodies against Hepatitis B virus in the
patient’s serum. ELISA was utilized. Show necessary components:
A. Serum of patient, conjugated with an enzyme, specific antigen
B. Specific serum, virus, antigen, antiglobulin serum
C. Virus, antigen in the wells, specific serum, substrate
D. *Viral antigen in the wells, patient’s serum, antiglobulin serum conjugated with an enzyme,
substrate
E. Patient’s serum, viral antigen, antiprotein serum, conjugated with an enzyme
296.
Virologist can cultivate viruses in the cell cultures, chicken embryos, and in the laboratory
animals. Choose the most accessible and cheap type of their cultivation:.
A. *In chicken embryos
B. In cell culture
C. In laboratory animals
D. All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
297.
Virologist infected cell cultures by tested material from the patient. What changes may appear
in the cells?
A. Symplast formation
B. Syncitia formation
C. Intracellular bodies formation
D. Complete degeneration of the cells
E. *All answers are correct
298.
Viruses are intracellular obligate parasites, which means that they cannot reproduce or express
their genes without
A. enzymes
B. *a host cell
C. another virus
D. a cell wall
E. nutrience media
299.
Viruses without haemagglutination activity were isolated from a patient. What test can be
utilized for identification of virus?
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Kumbs’s test
C. *Complement fixation test
D. Haemagglutination inhibition test
E. Indirect haemagglutination test
300.
Viruses, which have availability to penetrate into bacteria cells, and reproduce inside them
causing their lysis are:
A. lysins
B. *bacteriophages
C. macrophages
D. phagosomes
E. lysosomes
301.
We can not use for cultivation of viruses nutrient media. We can utilize cell cultures. What
diploid cell line do you know?
A. *WI-38
B. HeLa
C. Hep-2
D. KB
E. BNK-32
302.
What structure of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the
host cell receptor site.
A. Pili
B. Fimbriae
C. Flagellae
D. *Hemagluttinin
E. Neuraminidase
303.
When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can
be made only if
A. the acute titer is less than 10
B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20
C. there is a twofold rise in titer
D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer
E. there is no change in titer
304.
When virologist makes titration of viruses (quantitative examination of viruses in the tested
material) he examines:
A. In cells – Cytopathic dose 50 (CPD50)
B. In animals – Lethal dose (LD50)
C. In chicken embryos – the number of haemagglutination units (HAU)
D. *All answers are correct
E. No correct answer
305.
When we want to carry out Complement fixation test for serologic diagnosis of disease it is
necessary to make some preparatory stages. What preparatory stages do we do?
A. Diminution of activity of precipitating antibodies
B. *Titration of components of hemolytic system and complement
C. Oppression of activity of heterophilic antibodies
D. Diminution of activity of antistreptolysins
E. Oppression of activity of transferrin.
306.
A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes,
manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to
A. *systemic anaphylaxis
B. serum sickness
C. an Arthus reaction
D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. endotoxic shock
307.
A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into
unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by
A. *IgE antibody
B. IgG .antibody
C. sensitized T cell
D. complement
E. IgM antibody
308.
A convertase enzyme that acts on C3 the central component of the complement cascade
makes up most of the membrane attack complex activated by antibody binding to antigen
A. *C4b2b
B. C1
C. C3
D. C9
E. C7
309.
A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to
Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically,
the reaction site would MOST probably show
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. *Helper T cells and macrophages
D. B cells
E. NK cells
310.
A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci
are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within
several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103
F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
311.
A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST
likely to be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
C. serotonin
D. bradykinin
E. ?-interferon
312.
A previously healthy 8-year old presents with a large boil (carbuncle) at the back of his neck.
Gram stain from incision and drainage reveals sheets of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and grampositive cocci in clusters. Pending susceptibility testing in the laboratory, which of the following
would be the most appropriate antimicrobial therapy?
A. *Oxacillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Gentamicin
E. Aztreonam
313.
A women with rheumatic heart disease has tonsillitis. From the sputum beta-hemolytic
streptococci are obtained. The patient is treatment with penicillin, and the tonsillitis resolves within
several days. However, 8 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of
39°C, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This most probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
314.
After filtration of 2 l water onto filter grew 4 grey and 6 red colonies of bacteria. What are
coli-titre and coli-index of such water. Choose the correct answer:
A. 50 and 20
B. 125 and 8
C. 250 and 4
D. 330 and 3
E. 500 and 2
315.
An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high
proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
A. viral antigen
B. *carcinoembryonic antigen
C. alpha-fetoprotein
D. heterophil antigen
E. Forsman antigen
316.
Bacteriological examination of air is essential in which of following conditions?
A. Surgical operation theatre
B. Premises where pharmaceutical preparations are made
C. In hospital wards in which there is an outbreak of cross-infection
D. All are corect
E. *All are incorect
317.
Beta-lactamase production is a common mechanism of resistance to penicillin in which of the
following organisms?
A. Group A streptococci
B. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Both
D. Neither
E. Neisseria spp.
318.
Choose a method of research of amount of bacteria of group of an E. coli in water.
A. Sedementative
B. Fortner's
C. Membrane's filters
D. Fortner’s
E. Drigalsky's
319.
Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except):
A. complement
B. patient’s serum
C. specific antigen
D. hemolytic system
E. *immune serum
320.
Controllable properties of components of CFT (everything is true,except):
A. osmotic stability of red cells
B. anticomplementary activity of patient’s serum
C. anticomplementary activity of an antigen
D. *isotonity of saline solution
E. anticomplementary activity of a hemolysin
321.
Doctor prescribes the patient drug to prevent intestinal disbacteriosis when receiving
antibiotic therapy. What drugs is used to save normal microflora?
A. Sulphanilamides
B. *Eubiotics
C. Interferon
D. Antifungal
E. Nitrophuranes.
322.
For pregnant bacterial disbacteriosis of vagina is diagnosed. What medicine does it follow to
choose in this case?
A. Bacteriophage.
B. Antibiotic
C. Interferon
D. *Eubiotic.
E. Vitamines.
323.
For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
specific antibodies,
type of enzyme that destroys toxins,
*toxoids,
IgM,
bacteriophages
324.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires
maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is
A. IgE antibody
B. *IgG antibody
C. IgM antibody
D. IgA antibody
E. IgD antibody
325.
How the causative agents of influenza, measles, scarlet fever, diphtheria can be transmitted
through the air?
A. together with droplets of mucus and sputum,
B. during sneezing,
C. during coughing,
D. during talking.
E. all are correct
326.
If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything,
except):
A. an antigen
B. patient’s serum
C. hemolytic system
D. immune serum
E. *complement
327.
Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by
A. *allergens
B. macrophages
C. humoral antibodies
D. antigens
E. T cells
328.
Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of
A. IgG antibodies
B. antihistamine.
C. IgE antibodies.
D. *offending antigen
E. offending antibody
329.
In air of a maternity hall of a maternity hospital be agrees to sanitary-and-hygienic
specifications should not microbes more:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 500
D. 1000
E. 2000
330.
In bacteriological laboratory in the patient’s feces with a acute intestinal infection gammahemilytic streptococcus, Shigella sonne and nontoxigenic strain of E. coli were founded. What
diagnosis can be proposed as a result of research?
A. *Bacterial dysentery.
B. Escherihiosis.
C. Disbacteriosis.
D. Scarlet fever.
E. Typhoid.
331.
In operation theatre for neurosurgery, bacterial count of air shoud not exseed:
A. 100 per foot3
B. 50 per foot3
C. 10 per foot3
D. 5 per foot3
E. *1 per foot3
332.
In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what
sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator
erylhrocytes.)
A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum
B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag
C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C
D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA
E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait
333.
?Large granular lymphocytes which can kill virus-infected cells as part of innate immunity are
called:
A. neutrophils
B. *natural killer cells
C. monocytes
D. lymphocytes
E. mast cells
334.
Name the typical bacteria of soil:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus
B. Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
C. Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes
D. Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
E. Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira
335.
On the membrane filter after through it have filtered 2 l waters, 4 grey and 6 red colonies have
grown. Calculate a coli - subtypes and coli- index. Choose the true answer.
A. 50 and 20
B. 125 and 8
C. 250 and 4
D. 330 and 3
E. 500 and 2
336.
One of the first step in the process of many infections is adherence of bacteria to mucous
membranes. The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the
A. *Pilus
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Flagellum
D. Endotoxin
E. Exotoxin
337.
PBP2a, the penicillin-binding protein which causes methicillin-resistance in Staphylococcus
aureus, causes this resistance because it:
A. blocks entry of methicillin into cells
B. hydrolyzes (inactivates) methicillin
C. *helps synthesize cell wall in the presence of methicillin
D. binds methicillin and prevents it from reaching its target site(s)
E. by any way
338.
Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a
mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time,
with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a
secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later?
A. Penicillin
B.
C.
D.
E.
cephalosporins
Penicillin bound to egg albumin
Egg albumin
*bovine serum albumin
339.
Research of drinking-water quality is conducted in a bacteriological laboratory. The general
microbal number appeared near to 100. What microorganisms were taken into account here?
A. Enteropatogenic bacteria and viruses.
B. Colibacilli.
C. Pathogenic for people and animals bacteria.
D. Nonpathogenic microorganisms.
E. All of bacteria which grew onto medium
340.
Resistance to many antibiotics is carried on:
A. *R factor plasmids.
B. sex pili.
C. enzymes.
D. chromosomes.
E. A factor plasmids.
341.
Resistance to which of the following has been shown to result from enzymatic inactivation of
the antibiotic by the bacteria?
A. *chloramphenicol
B. sulfonamides
C. ciprofloxacin
D. trimethoprim
E. ofloxacin
342.
Resistance to which of the following is caused by a "by-pass" mechanism (that is, the
synthesis of an alternative target site)?
A. gentamicin
B. rifampin
C. *vancomycin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. ofloxacin
343.
Ribosomal resistance is a cause of resistance to:
A. *Streptomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Sulfonamides
D. Imipenem
E. All are correct
344.
Specify sanitary - indicative microbes of air.
A. Neisseria, Streptococcus haemolyticus
B. Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens
C. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus haemolyticus
D. Sarcina luteae, Actynomycetes
E. Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
345.
Targeting antibiotic therapy against the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria is advantageous
because the wall is:
A. chemically vulnerable
B. mechanically accessible
C. synthetically complex
D. *unique to the bacterium
E. None of the above
346.
The air condition of in an operating-room before an operation is examinate by sedimentation
method. 5 rounded colonies with the hemolytic zone round them were visible. What medium is used?
A. *Blood MPA
B.
C.
D.
E.
MPA
Endo
YSA
Levin’s
347.
The antiphagocytic factors of bacteria is
A. endotoxin;
B. *bacterial capsule
C. hyaluronidase;
D. plasmocoagulase;
E. haemolysin
348.
The coli-titer of drinking water should be:
A. not less than 500 ml,
B. not less than 100 ml,
C. not less then 333 ml;
D. not more then 333 ml;
E. not less then 3 l.
349.
The general microbe amount in water is determined by:
A. sowing of 1 ml of water into the cooled agar
B. sowing of 1 ml of water into MPB
C. membrane filters
D. all of answers are incorrect
E. sowing of 1 ml of water onto YSA
350.
The human microflora includes different biotopes with various species of microbes. Where
are Doderlayn’s bacilli founded?
A. on mucus of GT
B. on mucus of stomach.
C. on mucus of upper respiratory tract
D. on a skin.
E. *on mucus of vagine
351.
The proportion of antibiotic resistant bacteria has increased along with the widespread use of
antibiotics. This is due to the fact that antibiotics:
A. are unstable in vivo.
B. *act as agents of selection for resistant organisms.
C. are mainly bacteriostatic in vivo.
D. are powerful mutagens.
E. All are correct
352.
The resident microflora of large intestine of man include ________:
A. peptococci, streptococi
B. *bifidobacteria, bacteroides, clostridia.
C. vibrio, chlamidia
D. spirochetes, staphylococci
E. enterococci, viruses.
353.
The sanitary - bacteriological investigation of water includes _________
A. determination of total number of microbes in 1 ml of water,
B. determination of a coli-index or coli-titer,
C. detection of pathogenic microbes, their toxins
D. Е. соli bacteriophages
E. All are correct
354.
What bacteria are a sanitary-indicative microorganisms of water?
A. collibacillus
B. streptococcus
C. staphylococcus
D. diphtheroid
E. mycobacterium
355.
What diseases are transmitted by air often?
A. gas anaerobic infection
B. hepatitis A
C. *scarlet fever, flu
D. candidosis, mycosis
E. dysentery
356.
What does mean ‘inhibitory concentration (MIC)’?
A. *Most concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.
B. Lowest drug concentration that kills the pathogen
C. Lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.
D. Drug concentration required for clinical treatment of a particular infection
E. Most drug concentration that kills the pathogen
357.
What from the given parameters of the common microbic number of air in operational answer
sanitary specifications?
A. Before operation 1800, after operation - 4200, single staphylococci
B. Before operation 500, after operation - 950, staphylococci are absent
C. Before operation 1000, after operation - 1500,staphylococci are absent
D. Before operation 500, after operation - 1000, single staphylococci
E. Before operation 500, after operation - 2000, staphylococci are absent
358.
What from the listed microorganisms can exist long time in soil?
A. Typhoid fever and dysentery
B. Tuberculosis and diphtheria
C. Virus hepatites A and B
D. Hemophylus influenzea and streptococus pneumonias
E. Anthrax and a botulism
359.
What groups of microorganisms were taken into account at determination of microbial
number of air in an operating-room?
A. Bacteria and viruses are causative agents of infections of respiratory tract.
B. *All of bacteria which grew on a medium.
C. Staphylococci and hemolytic streptococci.
D. Causative agents of hospital infections.
E. All pathogenic bacteria.
360.
What human pathogens are found in water?
A. *collibacillus
B. streptococcus
C. staphylococcus
D. diphtheroid
E. mycobacterium
361.
What is normal concentration of Bifidobacteria (an amount of microbal cells in 1 g of feces)
in feces?
A. 104
B. 105
C. 106
D. *107
E. 1010
362.
What is ratio between aerobic and anaerobic microflora of the human intestinal
microbiocenesis in normal?
A. 1:1
B. 10:1
C. *1:100
D. 1:1000
E. 100:1
363.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
364.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
365.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
366.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
367.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
368.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
369.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
370.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
371.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What microbes can cause formation of teeth pigment spots?
*Porfyromonas, Prevotella
Streptococcus, Veillonella
Fusobacterium, Treponema
Peptostreptococcus, Leptotrichia
Treponema, Veillonella
What microorganism is considered major contributor to caries?
Fusobacterium
Staphylococcus
Bacteroides
Streptococcus
Treponema
What microorganisms are prevail in oral microflora?
mycoplasma
fungi
*bacteria
chlamydia
viruses
What normal kinds of microorganisms are found in soil?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Staphylococcus
Bacteroides, Vibrio, Spirillum
Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Actynomycetes
Brucella, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium
Salmonella, Shigella, Leptospira
What of following are considered to be an indicator organism for air polution.
Neisseria, Streptococcus haemolyticus
Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus haemolyticus
Sarcina luteae, Actynomycetes
Bacillus subtilis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
What species of microorganisms are not member of nasal mucus obligate microflora?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Streptococcus viridans
*Streptococcus pyogenes
Nonpathogenic Nesseria
Staphylococcus epidermidis
What species of microorganisms can cause infectious endocarditis?
Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Candida spp.
*Streptococcus viridans.
E. coli.
S. mutans
Which microorganisms is unaffected by these antibacterial antibiotics?
*C. albicans
С. perfringens
S. dysentery
S. viridans
C. tetani
?Which of the following has little if any activity against gram-negative bacteria?
ampicillin
aminoglycosides
cephalosporins
*oxacillin
E. chloramphenical
372.
Which of the following is considered a beta-lactam?
A. vancomycin
B. *imipenem
C. azithromycin
D. pyrimethamine
E. All are correct
373.
Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation
of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci?
A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue
B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells
C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released
D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue
E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue
374.
Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
A. *Alpha interferon
B. Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin-2
D. Interleukin-4
E. lymphotoxin
375.
A primary immune response in an adult human requires approximately how much time to
produce detectable antibody levels in the blood?
A. 12 hours
B. 3 days
C. *1 week
D. 3 weeks
E. 1 month
376.
A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express:
A. *the TcR
B. CD4
C. Class II MHC
D. membrane Ig
E. the BcR
377.
AT helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if
the antigen is associated with:
A. HLA class I antigen.
B. Surface immunoglobulin.
C. *HLA class II antigen.
D. CD 8 antigen.
E. All of the above.
378.
CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface
molecules?
A. ICAM
B. TcR
C. *CD40L
D. CD16
E. CD8
379.
Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response
A. *has a longer lag phase.
B. has a more rapid log phase.
C. persists for a longer plateau period.
D. attains a higher IgG titer.
E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
380.
Each of the following statements concerning the variable regions of heavy chains and the
variable regions of light chains in a given antibody molecule is correct EXCEPT:
A. *They have the same amino acid sequence
B. They define the specificity for antigen
C. They are encoded on different chromosomes
D. They contain the hypervariable regions
E. They bind with epitop
381.
Each of the following statements concerning the variable regions of heavy chains and the
variable regions of light chains in a given antibody molecule is correct EXCEPT:
A. *They have the same amino acid sequence
B. They define the specificity for antigen
C. They are encoded on different chromosomes
D. They contain the hypervariable regions
E. They bind with epitop
382.
Membrane bound Ig is just one part of a complex known as the B cell receptor
complex.Additional accessory proteins are termed:
A. *Ig? and Ig?
B. CD4 and CD8
C. Ca and Cb
D. CD3 and TcR
E. Cq and Cr
383.
Regarding Th-1 and Th-2 cells, which one ofthe following is LEAST accurate?
A. Th-1 cells produce gamma interferon and promote cell-mediated immunity
B. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-4 and -5 and promote antibody-mediated immunity
C. Both Th-1 and Th-2 cells have both CD3 and CD4 proteins on their outer cell membrane
D. *Before naive Th cells differentiate into Th-1 or Th-2 cells, they are, double- positives; ie,
they produce both gamma interferon and intefleukin-4
E. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-10 and inhibit activity of Th-2 cells
384.
The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human is
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
385.
The class of immunoglobullin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human
newborn is
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
386.
The effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Lysis of gram-negative bacteria in conjunction with complement
B. Enhancement of phagocytosis
C. *Inhibition of bacterial metabolism
D. Inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces
E. Neutralization of toxins
387.
What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter E
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Complement binding region
E. *Receptor for placental passage
388.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which cells do antigen-presenting cells process antigen need to activation?
B-cells
T-killers
NK-cells
Mast cells
*T-helpers
Which do one of the following substances released by activated helper T cells can activate T
389.
killers?
A. trasfer factor
B. *Gamma interferon
C. Interleukin- 6
D. Interleukin-4
E. lymphotoxin
390.
Which immunoglobulin has no known function, but is present on the surface of B
lymphocytes? It may function as an antigen receptor.
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. *IgD
391.
Which immunoglobulin has no known function, but is present on the surface of B
lymphocytes? It may function as an antigen receptor.
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. *IgD
392.
Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response? It
has four subclasses.
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
393.
Which immunoglobulin mediates immediate hypersensitivity and is involved in immune
response to parasitic infections?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. *IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
394.
Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface?
A. follicular dendritic cells
B. macrophages
C. basophils
D. eosinophils
E. *all of the above
395.
Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting
cells?
A. Class I
B. *Class II
C. Class III
D. Class II & Class III
E. Class I & Class III
396.
Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion
of IgG or IgM?
A. C1s
B. C9
C. *C1q
D. C3
E. C5
397.
Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion
of IgG or IgM?
A. C1s
B. C9
C. *C1q
D. C3
E. C5
398.
Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that is initially seen on the primary immune
response? It is present as a monomer on B cell surfaces but as a pentamer in serum.
A. IgG
B. *IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
399.
Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that is initially seen on the primary immune
response? It is present as a monomer on B cell surfaces but as a pentamer in serum.
A. IgG
B. *IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD
400.
Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of
the immunoglobulin pool?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. *IgG
E. IgM
401.
Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of
the immunoglobulin pool?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. *IgG
E. IgM
402.
Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ
transplant?
A. *MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. MHC class III molecules
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
403.
Which of the following tests depends on the presence of protein A on certain strains of
Staphylococcus aureus?
A. Latex agglutination (LA)
B.
C.
D.
E.
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
*Coagglutination (COA)
404.
Which of the following tests is used extensively to detect microbial antigens rapidly (5 min or
less)? Inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody.
A. *Latex agglutination (LA)
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
E. Coagglutination (COA)
405.
Which of the following tests is used extensively to detect microbial antigens rapidly (5 min or
less)? Inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody.
A. *Latex agglutination (LA)
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
E. Coagglutination (COA)
406.
Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the
heavy-chain constant region?
A. Ability to cross the placenta
B. Isotype (class)
C. Ability to fix complement
D. *Ability to bind antigen
E. Ability to opsonization
407.
Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the
heavy-chain constant region?
A. Ability to cross the placenta
B. Isotype (class)
C. Ability to fix complement
D. *Ability to bind antigen
E. Ability to opsonization
408.
Which one of the immunoglobulins BEST fits the following description: It is found in plasma
as a dimer with a J chain. As it passes through mucosal cells, it acquires a secretory piece that
protects it from degradation by proteases.
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. *IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
409.
Which one of the immunoglobulins BEST fits the following description: It is found in plasma
as a dimer with a J chain. As it passes through mucosal cells, it acquires a secretory piece that
protects it from degradation by proteases.
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. *IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
410.
Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?
A. IgE
B. IgG1
C. IgG2
D. IgG3
E. *IgM
411.
Your patient became ill 10 days ago with a viral disease. Laboratory examination reveals that
the patient's antibodies against this virus have a high ratio of IgM to IgG. What is your conclusion?
A. *It is unlikely that the patient has encountered this organism previously
B. The patient is predisposed to IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
C. The patient has encountered this organism previosly
D. It is likely that the patient has an autoimmune disease
E. The patient has chronic viral disease
412.
Your patient became ill 10 days ago with a viral disease. Laboratory examination reveals that
the patient's antibodies against this virus have a high ratio of IgM to IgG. What is your conclusion?
A. *It is unlikely that the patient has encountered this organism previously
B. The patient is predisposed to IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
C. The patient has encountered this organism previosly
D. It is likely that the patient has an autoimmune disease
E. The patient has chronic viral disease
413.
A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes,
manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to
A. *systemic anaphylaxis
B. serum sickness
C. an Arthus reaction
D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. endotoxic shock
414.
A direct immunofluorescence which is used for the pathogenic microorganisms
detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein can be binded to:
A. microorganism
B. the sheep red blood cells
C. specific antibody against the human globulins
D. *specific antibody against a microorganism
E. specific antibody against complement
415.
A latex-agglutination test is one of variants of indirect agglutination which is widely used for
the diagnostics of bacterial meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc. What can it find out by this
test?
A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine
B. autoantibodies in serum
C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF.
D. incomplete antibodies in serum
E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells
416.
A patient is hospitalized with a tentative diagnosis "Hepatitis B". Serologic test is used for the
diagnostics. It is based on co-operating of antigen with an antibody, chemically related to peroxydase.
What name does this test have?
A. *ELISA
B. RIA
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. CFT
E. Immobilization test
417.
A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to
Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically,
the reaction site would MOST probably show
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. *Helper T cells and macrophages
D. B cells
E. NK cells
418.
A patient suspected on anthrax is admitted to hospital. For express diagnostics the direct
immunofluorescense method was utillized. What ingredient is used for these diagnostics?
A. Toxoid
B. Immune antibacterial serum
C. Immune antitoxic serum
D. *Specific fluorescent serum
E. Protective antigen
419.
A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci
are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within
several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103
F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
420.
A preliminary conclusion about the selected pure culture allows to do presumptive
agglutination test. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:
A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum
B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum
C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates
D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours
E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies
421.
A primary immune response arises up at the first contact with an antigen. Which Ig class is
the most rapidly synthesized and bind the antigen?
A. IgD
B. *IgM
C. IgG
D. IgA
E. IgE
422.
A women with rheumatic heart disease has tonsillitis. From the sputum beta-hemolytic
streptococci are obtained. The patient is treatment with penicillin, and the tonsillitis resolves within
several days. However, 8 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of
39°C, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This most probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
423.
An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high
proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
A. viral antigen
B. *carcinoembryonic antigen
C. alpha-fetoprotein
D. heterophil antigen
E. Forsman antigen
424.
Binding of antibody to epitopes of antigen is provided by active center of immunoglobuline
which is placed:
A. Between the constant parts of Н-chains
B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains
C. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains
D. *Between the variable parts of H- and L-chains
E. In the variable parts of immunoglobuline
425.
Causative agent of the acute gastroenteritis was isolated from the patient’s organism. It is
necessary to identify him after the detection of an antigen structure. What serologic reaction can be
used for this purpose?
A. *Agglutination test
B. Complement fixation test
C. Neutralization test
D. Precipitation test
E. Opsonization test
426.
Certain substances must be utilized for processin of the red blood cells for absorption of
antigen on RBC in the IHT. Specify one of these substances among listed.
A. Formalin
B. Lysozyme
C. Inulin
D. *Tanninum
E. Ksantin
427.
Diagnosticum at statement indirect (passive) hemagglutination test with the purpose
serological diagnostic:
A. Patient’s serum
B. Red blood cells with antibodies surface
C. Nonsensitized erythrocytes
D. *Red blood cells with antigen surface
E. Suspension of the killed microorganisms
428.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires
maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is
A. IgE antibody
B. *IgG antibody
C. IgM antibody
D. IgA antibody
E. IgD antibody
429.
HIT is often used in medical practice for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the components
of this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics.
A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells
B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells
C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells
D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells
E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums
430.
In antibodies which occure in the organism under such diseases as brucellesis, autoimmune
diseases, etc. one of the active centres is blocked. An idirect Coombs test is used for their detection.
Specify that can be defined by this reaction.
A. incomplete antibodies on the red blood cells
B. deficient antigens on the red blood cells
C. *incomplete antibodies in the blood serum
D. incomplete antibodies on the platelets
E. haptens on the red blood cells
431.
In direct immunofluorescence test using for the pathogenic microorganisms
detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein must be binded to:
A. microorganism
B. the sheep red blood cells
C. specific antibody against the human globulins
D. *specific antibody against a microorganism
E. specific antibody against complement
432.
In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what
sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator
erylhrocytes.)
A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum
B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag
C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C
D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA
E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait
433.
In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what
sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator
erylhrocytes.)
A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum
B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag
C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C
D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA
E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait
434.
Neutralization test be used for virus identification. Specify, the sequence of bringing in its
components (virus- V, patient’s serum - PS., specific serum - SS., cell culture – CC).
A. SS + V to expect > CC
B. CC + V to expect > SS
C. *V + SS to expect >CC
D. SS + CC to expect >V
E. CC + PS to expect >V
435.
One of the active centres of antibodies which present in the organism under such diseases as
brucellesis, autoimmune diseases, etc. is blocked. An idirect Coombs test is used for their detection.
Specify that can be defined by this reaction.
A. incomplete antibodies on the red blood cells
B. deficient antigens on the red blood cells
C. *incomplete antibodies in the blood serum
D. incomplete antibodies on the platelets
E. haptens on the red blood cells
436.
One of variants of indirect agglutination which is widely used for the diagnostics of bacterial
meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc is latex-agglutination test. What can detect by this test?
A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine
B. autoantibodies in serum
C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF.
D. incomplete antibodies in serum
E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells
437.
Patient’s immune status examination reveals altered classic pathway of complement
activation. Which Ig are responsible for the activation of the comlement?
A. *Ig M, Ig G
B. Ig A, Ig M
C. Ig D, Ig G
D. Ig E, Ig A
E. Ig M, Ig D
438.
Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a
mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time,
with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a
secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later?
A. Penicillin
B. cephalosporins
C. Penicillin bound to egg albumin
D. Egg albumin
E. *bovine serum albumin
439.
Presumptive agglutination test allows to do a preliminary conclusion about selected pure
culture. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:
A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum
B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum
C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates
D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours
E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies
440.
Shoes of person accused of murder is stained with blood. How is it possible to determine,
whether this blood is human?
A. using the immunofluorescence test.
B. using the agglutination test.
C. using the Coombs test
D. *using the precipitation test.
E. using the latex-agglutination test
441.
Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most
likely to be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. interleukin-10
C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
D. serotonin
E. bradykinin
442.
The amount of immunoglobulins of different classes in blood serum we can define by a
simple radial immunodiffusion test. It is necessary for this purpose:
A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel
B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel
C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody
D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around
and bring in the different types of antibodies into them
E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel
443.
The immune response of organism is activared with recognition of foreign antigen. Which of
the listed proteins are able to recognize an antigen?
A. beta-globulins
B. Albumens
C. Glycoproteins
D. *Immunoglobulins
E. a-fetoprotein
444.
The person’s clothes with brown spots defined tham as blood is delivered to the forensic
medical examination laboratory. An expert defined them as tracks of blood. What test does need to
should be used to confirm this blood belonging to human?
A. Complement fixation test
B. *Ring precipitation test
C. Flocullation test
D. ELISA
E. Agglutination test
445.
The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III)
hypersensitivity is
A. the class (isotype) of antibody
B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
C. the participation of complement
D. the participation of T cells
E. interraction between antigen and antibody
446.
There was a necessity to probe the presence of antibodies against the hepatitis B virus in the
patient’s serum. A ELISA is used. Specify necessary components:
A. Patient’s serum labeled with an enzyme, specific antigen
B. Specific serum, virus, antigen, antiglobulin serum
C. Virus, antigen in wells, specific serum, substance
D. *Viral antigen in wells, patient’s serum, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme,
substance
E. Patient’s serum in wells, viral antigen, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme
447.
What from the next classes of immunoglobuline is the most numerous and able to be passed
from the mother to the child?
A. *IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
E. IgA
448.
What microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the
coagglutination test. Choose him among listed:
A. Micrococcus luteus
B. *Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Salmonella typhi
449.
What modern immunological methods do serve for the detection of the minimum
concentration of viral antigens?
A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B. ELISA
C. Method with the use of monoclonal antibodies
D. Radioimmune method (RIA)
E. *All of transferred
450.
What purpose necessary to heat up the patient’s serum at 56 °С – 30 min. for before
performing of the CFT ?
A. For elimination of heterophiles antibodies
B. For diminishing of properdin’s activity
C. For the decline of lysozymes’ activity
D. *For elimination of complement
E. For oppressing of normal antibodies
451.
?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn
caused by Rh incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
B. *Cytotoxic
C. Immune complex
D. Delayed
E. Autoimmune
452.
Which of the following involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion
and precipitation?
A. Flow cytometry
B. Double diffusion immunoassay
C. *Immunoelectrophoresis
D. Direct immunosorbent assay
E. Indirect immunosorbent assay
453.
Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the
heavy-chain constant region?
A. Ability to cross the placenta
B.
C.
D.
E.
Isotype (class)
Ability to fix complement
*Affinity for antigen
Ability to opsonization
454.
Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation
of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci?
A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue
B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells
C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released
D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue
E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue
455.
Which two classes of immunoglobulins are synthesized almost simultaneously under the
influence of foreign agent, Although one of these classes increases in number and decreases in
concentration more quickly?
A. *IgM and IgG
B. Ig M and IgD
C. IgG and IgD
D. Ig An and IgD
E. IgA and IgG
456.
You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to
hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis?
A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells
B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells
C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells
D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells
E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells
457.
A 2-year-old child suffers of recurrent staphylococcal infections arrives at the emergency
department at the local hospital. His neutrophils show normal chemotaxis, degranulation, and
phagocytosis. However, intracellular killing of staphylococci by the neutrophils is severely impaired.
Myeloperoxidase activity of his neutrophils is normal. The child has no history of streptococcal
infection. Which of the following is the most likely disease affecting this patient?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. Graves disease
C. *chronic granulomatous disease
D. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
E. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
458.
A 20-year-old girl suddenly experiences severe dyspnea after the consumption of fish at a
local restaurant. Upon arrival at the local emergency room she is found to be severely hypotensive
and in respiratory distress.Urticarial wheals are also noted all over her body. As the resident
physician you quickly realize this to be a hypersensitivity reaction.Physical examination reveals
severe laryngeal edema resulting in a marked hoarseness when the 20-year-old girl attempts to speak.
Also,her lips and tongue show significant swelling.Which of the following chemicals most likely
caused this edematous swelling?
A. corticosteroids
B. cromolyn sodium
C. epinephrine
D. *histamine
E. 5-lipoxygenase
459.
A 25-year-old female presents to her doctor’s office with a rash over the malar eminences of
her face, sparing the nasolabial folds; a skin rash due to exposure to sunlight; and painless
nasopharyngeal ulcers. Suspecting an autoimmune disorder, her physician obtains an anti-nuclear
antibody test of her blood and finds high titers of anti-ouble-stranded DNA anti-bodies. Which one of
the following diseases is most likely responsible for this immunological reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Goodpasture syndrome
multiple sclerosis
myasthenia gravis
rheumatoid arthritis
*systemic lupus erythematosus
460.
A 27-year-old man was treated with penicillin for gonorrhea. Thirty-five days later he was
reinfected with the same germ, and his physician administered an intramuscular dose of penicillin.
Two minutes following the injection of penicillin, the patient experienced hypoten-sion and shock
and became unconscious. This reaction was most likely mediated by which of the following?
A. activation of the alternate complement pathway
B. activation of the classical complement
C. IgD
D. *IgE
E. IgG
461.
A 3-year-old child with a history of recurrent staphylococcal infections arrives at the
emergency department at the local hospital. His neutrophils show normal chemotaxis, degranulation,
and phagocytosis. However, intracellular killing of staphylococci by the neutrophils is severely
impaired. Myeloperoxidase activity of his neutrophils is normal. The child has no history of
streptococcal infection. Which of the following is the most likely disease affecting this patient?
A. *chronic granulomatous disease
B. Graves disease
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
E. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
462.
A 34-year-old female patient is sneezing and has a runny nose and watery eyes every summer.
Her physician is convinced that the patient is suffering from an allergy and performs some skin tests.
The results of these test sare shown below: Allergen used Response to allergen for testing(wheal
diameter in mm) cat dander 1, house dust 4, Kentucky blue grass13, pollen7, fungal spores 6, solventonly control 5. Which of the following test allergens is most likely to be inducing the patient’s
symptoms?
A. cat dander
B. house dust
C. *Kentucky blue grass
D. mold
E. pollen
463.
A 35-year-old male with end-stage renal disease must undergo a kidney transplant. Which of
the following is true of immunologic suppression for transplantation?
A. *It can occur by antilymphocyte globulin.
B. It cannot be achieved by cyclosporine administration.
C. It cannot occur by lymphoid irradiation.
D. It is facilitated by gamma interferon administration.
E. It is not likely to respond to steroid administration.
464.
A 35-year-old male with end-stage renal disease must undergo a kidney transplant. Which of
the following is true of immunologic suppression for transplantation?
A. *It can occur by antilymphocyte globulin.
B. It cannot be achieved by cyclosporine administration.
C. It cannot occur by lymphoid irradiation.
D. It is facilitated by gamma interferon administration.
E. It is not likely to respond to steroid administration.
465.
A 35-year-old woman suffers of severe muscular weakness. Antibodies against acetylcholine
neural receptors were measured in a woman and are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of
which of the following
A. acute idiopathic polyneuritis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Guillain-Barr syndrome
*myasthenia gravis
multiple sclerosis
postpericardiotomy syndrome
466.
A 45-year-old male was admited to hospital with a rash over the malar eminences of his face,
sparing the nasolabial folds; a skin rash due to exposure to sunlight; and painless nasopharyngeal
ulcers. Suspecting an autoimmune disorder, his physician obtains an anti-nuclear antibody test of his
blood and finds high titers of anti-ouble-stranded DNA anti-bodies. Which one of the following
diseases is most likely responsible for this immunological reaction?
A. *systemic lupus erythematosus
B. multiple sclerosis
C. myasthenia gravis
D. rheumatoid arthritis
E. Goodpasture syndrome
467.
A 5-month-old baby presents to the local community clinic with noted oral candidiasis,
chronic diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an overall failure to thrive. Previously this infant has
been seen for multiple severe, recurrent infections from viruses, fungi, bacteria, and protozoa. Chest
x-ray reveals an absent thymic shadow. Which of the following immunodeficiencies best explains
this baby’s recurrent infections?
A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
B. deficiencies in the C5–C8 components of complement
C. deficiency in neutrophil NADPH oxidase
D. DiGeorge syndrome
E. *severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID)
468.
A 6-month-old girl has severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID). Which of the following
can most likely restore the immunological competency of this 6-month-old girl?
A. administration of purine nucleosidephosphorylase
B. B-cell supplementation
C. T-cell treatment
D. injection of adenosine deaminase
E. *compatible bone marrow transplantation
469.
A 7-month-old boy suffers of candidiasis, chronic diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an
overall failure to thrive. Previously this infant has been seen for multiple severe, recurrent infections
from viruses, fungi, bacteria, and protozoa. Chest x-ray reveals an absent thymic shadow. Which of
the following immunodeficiencies best explains this baby’s recurrent infections?
A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
B. deficiencies in the C5–C8 components of complement
C. *severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID)
D. DiGeorge syndrome
E. deficiency in neutrophil NADPH oxidase
470.
A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes,
manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to
A. *systemic anaphylaxis
B. serum sickness
C. an Arthus reaction
D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. endotoxic shock
471.
A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into shock within minutes,
manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse. This is MOST likely to be due to
A. *systemic anaphylaxis
B. serum sickness
C. an Arthus reaction
D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. endotoxic shock
472.
A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into
unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by
A. *IgE antibody
B. IgG .antibody
C. sensitized T cell
D. complement
E. IgM antibody
473.
A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into
unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by
A. *IgE antibody
B. IgG .antibody
C. sensitized T cell
D. complement
E. IgM antibody
474.
A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into
unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated by
A. *IgE antibody
B. IgG .antibody
C. sensitized T cell
D. complement
E. IgM antibody
475.
A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by
A. edema without a cellular infiltrate
B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils
C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs
D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils
E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers
476.
A girl has a genetic defect and cannot produce the J chain which is important in the strucure
of some immunoglobulin molecules.Which of the following will most likely be observed in this
individual?
A. *a decrease in serum IgM
B. a decrease in mature T lymphocytes
C. a decrease in mature B cells
D. an increase in IgA in the intestine
E. an increase in serum IgM
477.
A high school student while on a field trip encounters poison ivy and develops a severe
contact dermatitis, which is classified as type IV hypersensitivity. Contact dermatitis is differentiated
from type III hypersensitivity by which of the following facts?
A. It is associated with cell bound antigens of human erythrocytes.
B. It is associated with cytotoxic reactions.
C. It is encountered in atopic individuals.
D. It is mediated by antigen-antibody complexes.
E. *It is mediated by cellular immunity.
478.
A little boy presents to the local community clinic with noted oral candidiasis, chronic
diarrhea, extensive diaper rash, and an overall failure to thrive. Previous diagnosis is severe combined
immunodeficiency(SCID). Which of the following can most likely restore the immunological
competency of this 5-month-old baby?
A. administration of purine nucleosidephosphorylase
B. B-cell supplementation
C. *compatible bone marrow transplantation
D. injection of adenosine deaminase
E. T-cell treatment
479.
A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to
Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically,
the reaction site would MOST probably show
A. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
C. *Helper T cells and macrophages
D. B cells
E. NK cells
480.
A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci
are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within
several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103
F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
481.
A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which.beta-hemolytic streptococci
are. cultured. The patient is started on treatment wilh penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within
several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103
F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
482.
A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST
likely to be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
C. serotonin
D. bradykinin
E. ?-interferon
483.
?A student has a genetic defect and cannot produce the J chain which is important in the
strucure of some immunoglobulin molecules.Which of the following will most likely be observed in
this individual?
A. a decrease in mature B cells
B. a decrease in mature T lymphocytes
C. *a decrease in serum IgM
D. an increase in IgA in the intestine
E. an increase in serum IgM and decrease in IgE
484.
A women with rheumatic heart disease has tonsillitis. From the sputum beta-hemolytic
streptococci are obtained. The patient is treatment with penicillin, and the tonsillitis resolves within
several days. However, 8 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of
39°C, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This most probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever
B. a different infectious disease
C. an IgE response to penicillin
D. *an IgG-M response to penicillin
E. a delay hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
485.
A young girl was treated with penicillin for gonorrhea. Twenty-two days later she was
reinfected with the same germ, and his physician administered an intramuscular dose of penicillin.
Two minutes following the injection of penicillin, the patient experienced hypotension and shock and
became unconscious. This reaction was most likely mediated by which of the following?
A. activation of the alternate complement pathway
B. activation of the classical complement
C. IgD
D. IgG
E. *IgE
486.
A young housworker suffers of systemic lupus erythematosus. Administration of which one of
the following substances is likely to be most beneficial to this patient?
A. gamma interferon
B. interleukin-1
C. plasmapheresis
D. *prednisone
E. tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
487.
A young infant suffers of recurrent pyogenic infections. Low low levels of all
immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE) are found in young infant. He has which of the
following diseases?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Goodpasture syndrome
C. Graves disease
D. *Bruton disease
E. Addison disease
488.
?According an anamesis of this disease patient has been very susceptible to opportunistic
bacterial and fungal infections. This disease is due to a defect in the intracellular microbicidal activity
of neutrophils as a result of a lack of NADPH oxidase activity (or similar enzymes). What
immunodeficiency disease does patient have?
A. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD)
B. Hereditary Angloedema
C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
D. Agammaglobulinemia
E. HIV-infection
489.
?According an anamesis of this disease patient has been very susceptible to opportunistic
bacterial and fungal infections. This disease is due to a defect in the intracellular microbicidal activity
of neutrophils as a result of a lack of NADPH oxidase activity (or similar enzymes). What
immunodeficiency disease does patient have?
A. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD)
B. Hereditary Angloedema
C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
D. Agammaglobulinemia
E. HIV-infection
490.
?According an anamesis of this disease patient has been very susceptible to opportunistic
bacterial and fungal infections. This disease is due to a defect in the intracellular microbicidal activity
of neutrophils as a result of a lack of NADPH oxidase activity (or similar enzymes). What
immunodeficiency disease does patient have?
A. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD)
B. Hereditary Angloedema
C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
D. Agammaglobulinemia
E. HIV-infection
491.
An 8-month old boy presents to the emergency room in respiratory distress from a recurrent
upper respiratory tract bacterial infection. Labsreveal low levels of IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM.
Suspecting an immune deficiency disorder, genetic testing reveals a defect in a tyrosinekinase gene.
Which of the following would be seen in patients with this immune deficiency disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
particular susceptibility to viral and fungal infections
profound deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity
depletion of lymphocytes in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes
normal numbers of B lymphocytes
*very low quantities of immunoglobulinin their serum
492.
An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high
proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
A. viral antigen
B. *carcinoembryonic antigen
C. alpha-fetoprotein
D. heterophil antigen
E. Forsman antigen
493.
An immune deficiency disorder, genetic testing reveals a defect in a tyrosinekinase gene.
Which of the following would be seen in patients with this immune deficiency disorder?
A. particular susceptibility to viral and fungal infections
B. *very low quantities of immunoglobulinin their serum
C. depletion of lymphocytes in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes
D. normal numbers of B lymphocytes
E. profound deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity
494.
Antibodies against acetylcholine neural receptors were measured in a 35-year-old woman and
are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of which of the following
A. acute idiopathic polyneuritis
B. Guillain-Barr syndrome
C. multiple sclerosis
D. *myasthenia gravis
E. postpericardiotomy syndrome
495.
Blood analysis of the patient reveals decreased levels of C4 and decreased levels of C1
inhibitor. This complement deficiency is likely to lead to which of the following conditions?
A. bacteremia
B. an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections
C. *angioedema
D. decreased production of anaphylatoxins
E. enhancement of antibody production
496.
Child, 7 mounth old, has bleeding and eczema. Recurrent pyogenic infections occur
frequency. What immunodeficiency does child have?
A. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
B. Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD)
C. Hereditary Angloedema
D. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
E. Agammaglobulinemia
497.
Child, 9 mounth old, has recurrent pyogenic infections and bleeding. What immunodeficiency
does child have?
A. Combined B Cell and T Cell Deficiencies
B. B cell defect.
C. Т cell defect.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
498.
?Following the consumption of fish at a local restaurant, a 17-year-old girl suddenly
experiences severe dyspnea. Upon arrival at the local emergency room she is found to be severely
hypotensive and in respiratory distress.Urticarial wheals are also noted all over her body. As the
resident physician you quickly realize this to be a hypersensitivity reaction.To which of the following
immunoglobulins does the allergen bind rapidly during the activation stage of mast cells?
A. IgA
B.
C.
D.
E.
IgD
*IgE
IgG
IgM
499.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires
maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is
A. IgE antibody
B. *IgG antibody
C. IgM antibody
D. IgA antibody
E. IgD antibody
500.
In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what
sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator
erylhrocytes.)
A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum
B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag
C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C
D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA
E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait
501.
In systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), autoantibodies are primarily made against which of
the following?
A. neurons
B. *DNA
C. RNA
D. blood cells
E. derm
502.
Kentucky blue grass induces the patient’s symptoms. Which of the following substances is
most likely to prevent the attachment of the mold allergen to the sensitized mast cells in this patient?
A. complement
B. corticosteroids
C. cromolyn sodium
D. epinephrine
E. *IgG anti-mold
503.
Patient has the Chidiak-Higashi Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this
patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
504.
Patient has the Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD). What deficiency of immune system
has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
505.
Patient has the Hereditary Angloedema. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
506.
Patient has the Thymic Aplasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
507.
Patient has the X-Linked Hypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia). What
deficiency of immune system has this patient?
A. B cell defect.
B. Т cell defect.
C. both В and Т cell defects.
D. Complement deficiency.
E. Phagocyte Deficiencies
508.
Patients with severely reduced C3 levels tend to have
A. increased numbers of severe viral infections
B. increased numbers of severe bacterial infections
C. low gamma globulin levels
D. frequent episodes of hemolytic anemia
E. all answers are true
509.
Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a
mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time,
with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a
secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later?
A. Penicillin
B. cephalosporins
C. Penicillin bound to egg albumin
D. Egg albumin
E. *bovine serum albumin
510.
Penicillin is a hapten in both humans and mice. To explore the hapten-carrier relationship, a
mouse was injected with penicillin covalently bound to bovine serum albumin and, at the same time,
with egg albumin to which no penicillin was bound. 0f the following, which one will induce a
secondary response to penicillin when injected into the mouse 1 month later?
A. Penicillin
B. cephalosporins
C. Penicillin bound to egg albumin
D. Egg albumin
E. *bovine serum albumin
511.
Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most
likely to be caused by
A. interleukin-2
B. interleukin-10
C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)
D. serotonin
E. bradykinin
512.
The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following?
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. *severe combined immunodeficiency
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. leukemia
E. agammaglobulinemia
513.
The first level tests for assessment of immune status includes all of the following
determinations, ECXEPT:
A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);
Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;
Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;
Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.
Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)
514.
This electrophoretic pattern of serum proteins was likely to be obtained from a 6-month-old
infant suffering from recurrent pyogenic infections. Very low levels of all immunoglobulins are
found in young infant. He has which of the following diseases?
A. Addison disease
B. *Bruton disease
C. Graves disease
D. Goodpasture syndrome
E. Myasthenia gravis
515.
When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane,
damage to the membrane is caused mainly by
A. gamma interferon
B. phagocytosis
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells
E. natural killers
516.
?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn
caused by Rh incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
B. *Cytotoxic
C. Immune complex
D. Delayed
E. Autoimmune
517.
Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for passing the placental barrier and
attacking the Rh + fetal red blood cells in hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. *IgG
E. IgM
518.
Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the type IV hypersensitivity reaction in
the school pupil?
A. expression of antigen epitopes on B cells
B. expression of allergen epitopes on CD8 +T cells
C. IgE reaction with mast cells
D. reaction of allergen with the Ti and CD4 markers of B cells
E. *T helper cell reaction with the antigen epitope
519.
Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation
of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci?
A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue
B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells
C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released
D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue
E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue
520.
While on a wilderness vacation, a banker develops extensive skin lesions noted for their
varying degrees of erythema, edema, and vesiculations. His physician tells him that these lesions are
due to delayed type hypersensitivity. If this is actually the case, which of the following statements is
accurate?
A. *Delayed-type hypersensitivity can be transferred passively to volunteers by sensitized
lymphocytes.
B.
C.
D.
E.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Delayed-type hypersensitivity is suppressed by antihistaminic drugs.
This allergy does not cause tissue damage.
This allergy is due to IgE absorbed on mast cells.
This type of allergy usually occurs after inhalation of grass pollens.
521.
You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to
hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis?
A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells
B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells
C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells
D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells
E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells
522.
You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to
hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis?
A. Performs from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells
B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells
C. lnterieukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells
D. *Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells
E. Autoantibodies direct lyse the red cells
523.
Your patient is a child who has no detectable T cells. This immunodeficiency is most
probably the result of a defect in
A. *the thymus
B. the bursal equivalent
C. bone marrow
D. T cell-B cell interaction
E. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
524.
Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most
probably the result of a defect in
A. the thymus
B. the bursal equivalent
C. T cell-B cell interaction
D. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow
E. gene encoding tyrosin kinase
Test’s questions to figures
1. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 1
A. Hans Jansen
B. Zacharian Jansen
C. E. *Duclaux
D. Louis Pasteur
E. *Antony van Leeuwenhoek
2. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 2
A. Zacharian Jansen
B. E. *Duclaux
C. Edward Jenner
D. Robert Koch
E. *Louis Pasteur
3. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 3
A. Zacharian Jansen
B. Louis Pasteur
C. E. *Duclaux
D. Edward Jenner
E. *Robert Koch
4. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 4
A. Louis Pasteur
B. E. *Duclaux
C. Edward Jenner
D. Robert Koch
E. *I. Metchnikov
5. Who is there in this figure? Fig. 5
A. I. Metchnikov
B. Louis Pasteur
C. E. *Duclaux
D. Robert Koch
E. *D. Ivanovsky
6. What microbes are there in figure? Fig. 6
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Vibrios
D. Pneumococci
E. *Micrococci
7. What microbes are there? Fig. 7
A. Micrococci
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Tetracocci
E. *Diplococci
8. What microbes are there? Fig. 8
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. Streptococci
D. Tetracocci
E. *Staphylococci
9. What microbes are there? Fig. 9
A. Micrococci
B. Diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Tetracocci
E. *Streptococci
10. What microbes are there? Fig. 10
A. Micrococci
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Tetracocci
E. *Sarcina
11. What microbes are there? Fig. 11
A. Monobacilli
B. Diplobacteria
C. Streptobacteria
D. Streptobacilli
E. *Monobacteria
12. What microbes are there? Fig. 12
A. Streptobacilli
B. Streptobacteria
C. Diplobacteria
D. Monobacteria
E. *Monobacilli
13. What microbes are there ? Fig. 13
A. Streptobacilli
B. Diplobacteria
C. Monobacilli
D. Monobacteria
E. *Streptobacteria
14. What microbes are there ? Fig. 14
A. Streptobacteria
B. Diplobacteria
C. Monobacilli
D. Monobacteria
E. *Streptobacilli
15. What microbes are there ? Fig. 15
A. Streptobacteria
B. Diplobacteria
C. Monobacilli
D. Monobacteria
E. *Streptobacilli
16. What microbes are there ? Fig. 16
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. Spirilla
E. *Vibrio
17. What microbes are there ? Fig. 17
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. Vibrio
E. *Spirilla
18. What microbes are there ? Fig. 18
A. Treponema
B. Leptospira
C. Spirilla
D. Vibrio
E. *Borrelia
19. What microbes are there ? Fig. 19
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Spirilla
D. Vibrio
E. *Leptospira
20. What microbes are there ? Fig. 20
A. Borrelia
B. Leptospira
C. Spirilla
D. Vibrio
E. *Treponema
21. There is the staining of volutin granules according to: Fig. 21
A. Grey’s technique
B. Ziehl-Neelsen’s technique
C. Peshkov’s technique
D. Gram’s technique
E. *Loeffler’s technique
22. There is the structure of: Fig. 22
A. Gram-negative cell wall
B. Inner membrane
C. Correct all
D. No correct answer
E. *Gram-positive cell wall
23. There are bacteria with: Fig. 24
A. Nucleoids
B. Spores
C. Volutine granules
D. No correct answer
E. *Capsules
24. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (a)? Fig. 26
A. Lophotrichous
B. Amphitrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. No correct answer
E. *Monotrichous
25. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (b)? Fig. 26
A. Monotrichous
B. Amphitrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. No correct answer
E. *Lophotrichous
26. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (c)? Fig. 26
A. Monotrichous
B. Lophotrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. No correct answer
E. *Amphitrichous
27. What microbes according to flagella localization are marked by the letter (d)? Fig. 26
A. Monotrichous
B. Lophotrichous
C. Amphitrichous
D. No correct answer
E. *Peritrichous
28. What is there in the figure? Fig. 27
A. Bacterial mesosome
B. Bacterial capsules
C. Correct all
D. No correct answer
E. *Bacterial spore
29. What type of the spore localization is in this figure? Fig. 15
A. Terminal
B. Subterminal
C. Correct all
D. No correct answer
E. *Central
30. What type of the spore localization is in this figure? Fig. 29
A. Central
B. Subterminal
C. Correct all
D. No correct answer
E. *Terminal
31. What type of the spore localization is in this figure? Fig. 30
A. Central
B. Terminal
C. Correct all
D. No correct answer
E. *Subterminal
32. There is such spore localization: Fig. 31
A. Terminal
B. Central
C. Correct all
D. No correct answer
E. *Subterminal
33. What microbes are there? Fig. 32
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Leptospira
D. Staphylococci
E. *Actinomycetes
34. What microbes are there in the cell? Fig. 33
A. Treponema
B. Staphylococcus
C. Leptospira
D. Actinomycetes
E. *Chlamidia
35. What microbes are there? Fig. 34
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Sarcina
D. Micrococci
E. *Candida
36. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 35
A. Aspergillus
B. Penicillium
C. Trichophyton
D. Microsporum
E. *Mucor
37. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 36
A. Penicillium
B. Mucor
C. Trichophyton
D. Microsporum
E. *Aspergillus
38. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 37
A. Penicillium
B. Mucor
C. Trichophyton
D. Microsporum
E. *Aspergillus
39. What fungi are there in figure? Fig. 38
A. Aspergillus
B. Mucor
C. Trichophyton
D. Microsporum
E. *Penicillium
40. What equipment is shown in this figure? Fig. 39
A. autoclave
B. serum coagulator
C. thermostat
D. sterilizer
E. *heat oven
41. What equipment is shown in this figure? Fig. 40
A. serum coagulator
B. thermostat
C. sterilizer
D. dry-heat closet
E. *autoclave
42. That equipment is shown in figure? Fig. 41
A. autoclave
B. thermostat
C. sterilizer
D. dry-heat closet
E. *serum coagulator
43. For what purpose can we use this device? Fig. 42
A. for study of bacterial adhesive properties
B. for sterilization by gases
C. for sterilization by live steam
D. for control of sterilization by pressed steam
E. *for sterilization by filtration
44. For what purpose can this test-system be used? Fig. 43
A. for in a heat oven sterilization control
B. for mechanical sterilization control
C. for gas sterilization control
D. for control of ultraviolet rays sterilization
E. *for control of sterilization by autoclaving
45. What method is shown in the figure? Fig. 44
A. inoculation by a spatula
B. by serial dilution in solid nutrient media
C. by a tampon
D. none of offered
E. *inoculation by streaks technique
46. How can we use this test-system? Fig. 45
A. for verification of sterilization
B. for identification of bacteria
C. for phage typing
D. for bacteria staining
E. *for creation of anaerobic condition
47. How can we use this jar? Fig. 46
A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria
B. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria
C. for sterilization of Petry’s plate with microbes
D. for cultivation of aerotolerant bacteria
E. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
48. Which bacteria properties you can find on this medium? Fig. 47
A. cultural
B. serological
C. sugarlytic
D. biological
E. *hemolytic
49. What sign does show the presence of growth in the left test tube? Fig. 48
A. formation of sediment
B. formation of pellicle
C. growth in the left test tube is absent
D. formation of «stalactites»
E. *formation of diffuse turbidity
50. What property of bacteria is tested on the Endo’s medium? Fig. 13
A. ability of glucose utilization
B. ability of saccharose utilization
C. ability of maltose utilization
D. ability of mannitol utilization
E. *ability of lactose utilization
51. What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium (blood agar)? Fig. 49
A. saccharolytic
B. lipolytic
C. proteolytic
D. reductive
E. *hemolytic
52. There is yolk agar on the picturE. *What property of bacteria is it possible verify? Fig. 50
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. gelatin hydrolysis
D. saccharolytic
E. *lecithinase production
53. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 1. Fig. 25
A. phase of negative acceleration
B. Log- phase
C. Stationary
D. Decline
E. *Lag- phase
54. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 2. Fig. 25
A. Lag- phase
B. Decline
C. Stationary
D. Phase of negative acceleration
E. *Log- phase
55. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 3. Fig. 25
A. Log- phase
B. Lag- phase
C. Decline
D. Phase of negative acceleration
E. *Stationary
56. There are different stages of microbial population development in liquid nutrient medium. Choose the
name of the phase that is marked as number 4. Fig. 25
A. Lag- phase
B. Log- phase
C. Stationary
D. Phase of negative acceleration
E. *Decline
57. Different types of bacterial colonies are produced on solid nutrient medium when dissociation occurs.
What type of colonies do these ones belong to? Fig. 51
A. S
B. D
C. M
D. P
E. *R
58. Oral cavity normal microflora is represented in the figurE. *What microorganisms not belong to its?
Fig. 54
A. streptococci
B. actinomycetes
C. veilonella
D. fusobacteria
E. *gonococci
59. What is presented in the figure? Fig. 57
A. Structure of F factors
B. Structure of S factors
C. Structure of T factors
D. No correct answer
E. *Structure of R factors
60. What is there in the figure? Fig. 58
A. Bacterial cell
B. Protozoa
C. Fungus
D. No correct answer
E. *Bacteriophage
61. There is scheme of: Fig. 59
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. All are correct
D. No correct answer
E. *Conjugation
62. What type of recombination is shown in the figure? Fig. 95
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. All are correct
D. No correct answer
E. *Conjugation
63. What type of conjugation is shown in the figure? Fig. 60
A. Mechanism of F+ x F- Crosses
B. Mechanism of F? x F- Crosses
C. All are correct
D. No correct answer
E. *Mechanism of Hfr x F- Crosses
64. What is there in the figure? Fig. 96
A. Antigen structure of bacteria
B. Biochemical properties of bacteria
C. Chromosome cap
D. No correct answer
E. *Chromosome map
65. What type of colonies are there in the figure? Fig. 61
A. R
B. D
C. T
D. F
E. *S
66. What type of colonies are there in the figure? Fig. 62
A. S
B. D
C. T
D. F
E. *R
67. Tooth plague formation is represented in the figurE. *The folloving microflora prevails in the firstday plagues: Fig. 63
A. spirochetes and rods
B. rods
C. actinomycetes and cocci
D. lactobacteria
E. *cocci
68. What scientist is there in the figure? Fig. 64
A. P. Ehrlich
B. I. Metchnikov
C. L. Pasteur
D. R. Koch
E. *A. Fleming
69. What is there in the figure? Fig. 65
A. Examination of antibiotic susceptility
B. Examination of susceptility to phage
C. All are correct
D. No correct answer
E. *Examination of bacterial antagonism
70. What is there in the figure? Fig. 100
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Aspergillus
D. No correct answer
E. *Penicillium
71. What is there in the figure? Fig. 66
A. Structure of bacterial inner membrane
B. Structure of bacterial outer membrane
C. Structure of gram-positive bacterial cell wall
D. Structure of bacterial capsule
E. *Structure of gram-negative bacterial cell wal
72. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 67
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium
B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium
C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique
D. No correct answer
E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique
73. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 97
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium
B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium
C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique
D. No correct answer
E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique
74. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 98
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium
B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique
C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique
D. No correct answer
E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium
75. What test is shown in this figure? Fig. 99
A. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique liquid nutrient medium
B. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by express technique
C. Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by disc diffusion technique
D. No correct answer
E. *Examination of antibiotics susceptibility by dilution technique in solid nutrient medium
76. What type of immune response is shown in this figure? Fig. 23
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Delayed hypersensitivity
C. Cell mediated immune response
D. Cytotoxic rection
E. *Humoral immune response
77. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 1? Fig. 23
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. C. T-helper
D. D. Plasma cell
E. *Antigen presenting cell
78. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 2? Fig. 23
A. T-killer
B. T-helper
C. Antigen presenting cell
D. Plasma cell
E. *B-lymphocyte
79. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 3? Fig. 23
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. T-helper
D. Antigen presenting cell
E. *Plasma cell
80. This is the scheme of the immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 4? Fig. 23
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. Antigen presenting cell
D. Plasma cell
E. *T-helper
81. When may be all these symptoms take place? Fig. 28
A. This is the result of the anaphylaxis
B. These symptoms are associated with autoimmune diseases
C. These symptoms are the result of the exotoxin action
D. These symptoms belong to the delayed hypersensitivity
E. *These symptoms are the result of the endotoxin action
82. What process is shown in this figure? Fig. 74
A. Interaction between the B-cell and T-cell
B. Action of the natural killer
C. Activation of T-killer by the macrophage
D. T-helper stimulates T-killer
E. *APC presents antigen for the T-helper
83. What cell is marked by number 1 in this figure? Fig. 74
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. T-helper 1
D. NK-cell
E. *Antigen-presenting cell
84. What cell is marked by number 2 in this figure? Fig. 74
A. Antigen-presenting cell
B. B-lymphocyte
C. T-killer
D. NK-cell
E. *T-helper 1
85. What type of immune response is shown in this figure? Fig. 76
A. Humoral immune response
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Delayed hypersensitivity
D. Target cell is destroyed by the natural killer
E. *Cell mediated immune response
86. This is the cell mediated immune responsE. *What cell is marked by number 1? Fig. 76
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. NK-cell
D. Dendritic cell
E. *T-helper-2
87. This is the cell mediated immune response substance released by the cell is marked by number 2?
Fig. 76
A. IL-1
B. Perforine
C. Granzyme
D. TNF
E. *Interferon
88. This is the cell mediated immune responsE. *What is the mechanism of target cell killing
A. ked by number 4? Fig. 76
B. Apoptosis
C. Macrophage digests infected cell
D. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity
E. *All of the above
F. Complement depended cytolysis
89. What type of hypersensitivity is shown in this figure? Fig. 85
A. Immune-complex reaction
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Cell mediated immune response
D. Cytotoxic rection
E. *Delayed hypersensitivity
90. What immunological process is demonstrated in this figure? Fig. 88
A. Cytotoxic, cytolytic reaction
B. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity
C. Atopic reaction
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
E. *Immune-complex reaction
91. This is an example of one type of allergy.What is marked by number 1? Fig. 88
A. Agglutination reaction
B. Precipitation reaction
C. Formation of the antibody-antigen-complement complex
D. Interaction between the cells and antibodies
E. *Immune-complex formation
92. What process is shown in this figure? Fig. 89
A. Anaphylactic reaction
B. Cell mediated immune response
C. Humoral immune response
D. Antibody dependent cytotoxicity
E. *Desensitisation
93. This is the scheme of the desensitisation. What is marked by number 1? Fig. 89
A. Antigen-antibody complex
B. Immune complex
C. IgE binds with allergen
D. All of the above
E. *blocking antibodies IgG
94. What cell is marked by number 1? Fig. 91
A. B-cell
B. T-cell
C. T-killer
D. T-helper 1
E. *T-helper 2
95. What cell is marked by number 2? Fig. 91
A. B-cell
B. T-cell
C. T-killer
D. T-helper 2
E. *T-helper 1
96. What structure is marked by number 1? Fig. 92
A. Ribosome
B. mRNA
C. Class I MHC protein
D. Epitope
E. *Class II MHC protein
97. What formation is marked by number 2? Fig. 92
A. Complex of the IgM and antigen
B. Class I MHC protein with the peptide
C. Class I MHC protein
D. Class II MHC protein
E. *Class II MHC protein with the epitope
98. What cell is marked by number 1 in this figure? Fig. 93
A. B-lymphocyte
B. T-killer
C. T-helper 1
D. NK-cell
E. *Target cell
99. What cell is marked by number 2 in this figure? Fig. 93
A. Antigen-presenting cell
B. B-lymphocyte
C. T-helper 1
D. NK-cell
E. *T-killer
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
101.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
103.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
104.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
105.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
106.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
107.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
108.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where does the fixation of the complement according to the picture take place? Fig. 86
in a 3-6 test tube
in 4-8 test tubes
in 9-10 test tubes
in the last three test tubes
*in the first three test tubes
Where does not the fixation of the complement according to the picture take place? Fig. 86
in the first three test tubes
in a 3-6 test tube
in 9-10 test tubes
in the last three test tubes
*in 4-8 test tubes
How many times did increase of title of antibodies in CFT according to the picture? Fig. 87
in 8 times
in 2 times
in 6 times
growth of title of antibodies did not take a place
*in 4 times
In which small wells of the first line of test tubes is CFT positive? Fig. 87
in two first
in 2-4 small holes
in 4 small holes
in all of small holes
*in the first
In which small wells of the first line of test tubes of is CFT negative? Fig. 87
in the first
in two first
in all of small holes
in any small hole
*in 2-4 small holes
What clinical type of allergic reaction is presented on a picture? Fig. 90
anaphylactic shock
hemolytic illness
reaction of tuberculine of type
delayed type
*phenomenon of Artyus
Specify, what letter is marked Ig A? Fig. 75
Letter of A
Letter of C
Letter of D
Letter of E
*Letter of B
Specify, what letter is marked Ig M? Fig. 75
Letter of A
Letter of B
Letter of D
Letter of E
*Letter of C
Specify, what letter is marked Ig G? Fig. 75
Letter of B
Letter of C
Letter of D
Letter of E
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
E. *Letter of A
Specify, what letter is marked Ig E? Fig. 75
A. Letter of A
B. Letter of B
C. Letter of C
D. Letter of D
E. *Letter of E
What class of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture? Fig. 69
A. Ig G
B. Ig D
C. Ig E
D. Ig A
E. *Ig M
What class of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture? Fig. 72
A. Ig M
B. Ig D
C. Ig E
D. Ig A
E. *Ig G
How many active centers do have an immunoglobulin presented on a picture? Fig. 72
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
E. *2
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter A. Fig. 71
A. Active center
B. Fab- fragment
C. Variable region
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Heavy chain
Choose from presented,what is marked by letter B. Fig. 71
A. Active center
B. Fab- fragment
C. Variable region
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Stable part of immunoglobuline
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter C. Fig. 71
A. Active center
B. Stable part of immunoglobuline
C. Fab- fragment
D. Variable region
E. *Fc-fragment
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter D. Fig. 71
A. Stable part of immunoglobulin
B. Fab- fragment
C. Variable region
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Active center
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter E. *Fig. 71
A. Active center
B. Stable part of immunoglobulin
C. Variable region
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Fab- fragment
The schematic image of what immunoglobulin is presented? Fig. 70
A. Ig G
B. Ig M
C. Ig D
D. Ig E
E. *Ig A
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter A. Fig. 70
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. Secretory component
D. Fc-fragment
E. *J chain
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter B. Fig. 70
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Secretory component
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter C. Fig. 70
A. Heavy chain
B. J chain
C. Secretory component
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Active center
Choose from presented, what is marked by letter D. Fig. 70
A. Active center
B. J chain
C. Secretory component
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Heavy chain
What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under a letter A. Fig. 69
A. Active center
B. J chain
C. Light chain
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Heavy chain
What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter B. Fig. 69
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. Light chain
D. Fc-fragment
E. *J chain
What structures of immunoglobulin presented on a picture under the letter C. Fig. 69
A. Heavy chain
B. J chain
C. Light chain
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Active center
What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter D. Fig. 69
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
C. J chain
D. Light chain
E. *Fc-fragment
What structures of immunoglobulin are presented on a picture under the letter E. *Fig. 69
A. Active center
B. Heavy chain
C. J chain
D. Fc-fragment
E. *Light chain
What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under a letter A. Fig. 68
A. Light chain
B. Disulphide bonds
C. Complement binding region
D. Receptor for placental passage
E. *Variable region
What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter B. Fig. 68
A. Variable region
B. Disulphide bonds
C. Complement binding region
D. Receptor for placental passage
E. *Light chain
What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter C. Fig. 68
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Complement binding region
D. Receptor for placental passage
E. *Disulphide bonds
What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter D. Fig. 68
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Receptor for placental passage
E. *Complement binding region
What structural part of immunoglobulin is presented on a picture under the letter E. *Fig. 68
A. Light chain
B. Variable region
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Complement binding region
E. *Receptor for placental passage
?Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 31
A. M. tuberculosis
B. C. tetani
C. S. typhi
D. No correct answer
E. *C. botulinum
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 11
A. Monobacilli
B. Streptobacili
C. Streptobakteria
D. Diplobacteria
E. *Monobacteria
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 11
A. Streptobacili
B.
C.
D.
E.
Streptobakteria
Diplobacteria
Monobacilli
*Monobacterias
136.
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 12
A. Streptobacili
B. Streptobakteria
C. Diplobacteria
D. Monobacterias
E. *Monobacilli
137.
Which microbes are represented in the figure? Fig. 12
A. Streptobacili
B. Streptobakteria
C. Diplobacteria
D. Monobacterias
E. *Monobacilli
138.
Which microbes are there? Fig. 15
A. Streptobakteria
B. Diplobacteria
C. Monobacilli
D. Monobacteria
E. *Streptobacili
139.
How is it possible to utilize this system? Fig. 46
A. for verification of sterilization
B. for identification of bacteria
C. for phage typing
D. for staining of bacteria
E. *for creation of anaerobic condition
140.
How can we utilize this system? Fig. 46
A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria
B. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria
C. for sterilization of double-dish with microbes
D. for cultivation of aero tolerant bacteria
E. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
141.
Which properties of bacteria are checked up there? Fig. 47
A. Utilization of sugar
B. lipolytic
C. proteolytic
D. peptolytic
E. *haemolytic
142.
Which properties of bacteria are checked up here? Fig. 50
A. proteolytic
B. haemolytic
C. hydrolysis of gelatin
D. Utilization of sugar
E. *formatiin of lecithinase
143.
Material from the patient wound was inoculated in a yolk-salt agar. Which sign does display
lecithinase activity? Fig. 50
A. Green zone is round colonies
B. Opal lees of areas appear round colonies
C. Brightening is round colonies
D. Opal areas fail to appear round colonies
E. *correct answers of B and D
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
146.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
149.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
151.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
152.
A.
B.
C.
D.
?What test is there in the figure? Fig. 84
CFT
Hemagglutination test
Hemagglutination inhibition test
ELISA
*Indirect Hemagglutination test
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 84
Detection of unknown antigen
Identification of viruses
Detection the level of immunoglobulines
Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
*Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
What component of indirect Hemagglutination test is marked by number 1in? Fig. 84
Antigen
Complement
Immunoglobulin
Red blood cell coated with antigen
*Patients serum
What component of indirect Hemagglutination test is marked by number 2 in? Fig. 84
Antigen
Patients serum
Complement
Immunoglobulin
*Red blood cell coated with antigen
What is the result marked by number 3 of this test in? Fig. 84
Precipitation
Agglutination
Coagglutination
Latex-agglutination
*Hemagglutination
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87
CFT
Hemagglutination inhibition test
ELISA
Indirect Hemagglutination test
*Hemagglutination test
What does this test help to examine? Fig. 87
identification of viruses
ability to cause red cells lysis
presence of antibodies in patiences serum
No correct answer
*presence of viruses
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87
Precipitation
Agglutination
Coagglutination
Latex-agglutination
*Hemagglutination
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87
CFT
Hemagglutination test
ELISA
Indirect Hemagglutination test
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
E. *Hemagglutination inhibition test
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Hemagglutination
D. Coagglutination
E. *Agglutination of red blood cells absent
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 87
A. Detection of unknown antigen
B. Identification of viruses
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
E. *Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82
A. Detection of unknown antigen
B. Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
E. *Identification of viruses
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Hemagglutination inhibition test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *CFT
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86
A. Hemolysis
B. Agglutination
C. Hemagglutination
D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent
E. *Hemolysis absent
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86
A. Agglutination
B. Hemagglutination
C. Hemolysis
D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent
E. *Hemolysis absent
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Hemagglutination ingibition test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *CFT
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 86
A. Detection of unknow antigen
B. Identification of viruses
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
E. *Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 83
A. Detection of unknow antigen
B. Identification of viruses
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
E. *Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82
A. Detection of unknow antigen
B. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
E. *Identification of virus antigen
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87
A. Western blot
B. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *Hemagglutination ingibition test
?What equipment is shown in figure? Fig.39
A. autoclave
B. serum coagulator
C. thermostat
D. sterilizer
E. *heat oven
That equipment is shown in figure? Fig.40
A. serum coagulator
B. thermostat
C. sterilizer
D. dry-heat closet
E. *autoclave
That equipment is shown in figure? Fig.41
A. autoclave
B. thermostat
C. sterilizer
D. dry-heat closet
E. *serum coagulator
How can we use this equipment? Fig.42
A. for study of bacterial adhesive properties
B. for sterilization by gases
C. for sterilization by live steam
D. for control of sterilization by pressed steam
E. *for sterilization by filtration
5 How can we use this test-system? Fig.43
A. for control of sterilization in a heat oven
B. for control of mechanical sterilization
C. for control of sterilization by gas method
D. for control of sterilization by ultraviolet rays
E. *for control of sterilization by autoclaving
What method is shown in figure? Fig.44
A. inoculation by a spatula
B. by serial dilution in solid nutrient media
C. by a tampon
D. none of offered
E. *inoculation by streaks technique
How can we use this test-system? Fig.45
A. for verification of sterilization
B. for identification of bacteria
C. for phage typing
D. for bacteria staining
E. *for creation of anaerobic condition
171.
How can we use this jar? Fig.46
A. for cultivation of aerobic bacteria
B. for cultivation of facultative anaerobic bacteria
C. for sterilization of Petry’s plate with microbes
D. for cultivation of aerotolerant bacteria
E. *for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
172.
Do these microbes have hemolytic properties? Fig.47
A. does not have
B. it is hard to make conclusion
C. have
D. less part of bacteria – has, but mainly – no
E. *most bacteria – have, minority – no
173.
Are there signs of growth of bacteria in these test tubes? Fig.48
A. there is growth in the right test tube
B. there is no growth in the left test tube
C. there is no growth in both test tube
D. growth is present in both test tubes
E. *there is growth in the left test tube
174.
What sign does show the presence of growth in the left test tube? Fig.48
A. formation of sediment
B. formation of pellicle
C. growth in the left test tube is absent
D. formation of «stalactites»
E. *formation of diffuse turbidity
175.
What microorganisms did grow on the Endo’s medium? Fig.49
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Salmonella paratyphi A
E. *Escherichia coli
176.
What property of bacteria is tested on the Endo’s medium? Fig.49
A. ability of glucose utilization
B. ability of saccharose utilization
C. ability of maltose utilization
D. ability of mannitol utilization
E. *ability of lactose utilization
177.
What properties of bacteria are tested on this medium? Fig.47
A. saccharolytic
B. lipolytic
C. proteolytic
D. reductive
E. *hemolytic
178.
There is yolk agar on the picturE. *What property of bacteria is it possible verify? Fig.50
A. proteolytic
B. hemolytic
C. gelatin hydrolysis
D. saccharolytic
E. *lecithinase production
179.
Tested material from the patient’s nose was inoculated onto yolk agar. Do microbes have
lecithinase activity? What is its sign on the medium? Fig.50
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Yes
The opalescent zones turbidity appear around the colonies
Does not have
The opalescent zones not appear around the colonies
*correct answers A and B
180.
Choose faithful composition of yolk salt agar Fig.50
A. MPA, ram’s , 9 % of sodium chloride
B. MPA, rabbit’s red cells, 9 % of sodium chloride
C. MPA, horse’s red cells , 9 % of sodium chloride
D. MPA, glucose, 9 % chloride of sodium
E. *MPA, yolk, 9 % of sodium chloride
181.
What features of bacteria are shown on this picture? Fig.53
A. different types of proteolytic activity
B. different types of peptolytic activity
C. different types of hemolytic activity
D. different types of reductive activity
E. *different types of saccharolytic activity
182.
There is positive test for checking the indole production. What type of bacterial properties do
it confirm? Fig.53
A. proteolytic
B. peptolytic
C. lipolytic
D. reductive
E. *saccharolytic
183.
Different types of bacterial colonies are produced on solid nutrient medium when dissociation
occurs. What type of colonies do these ones belong to? Fig.51
A. S
B. D
C. M
D. P
E. *R
184.
?What does this test help to examine? Fig. 87
A. identification of viruses
B. ability to cause red cells lysis
C. presence of antibodies in patiences serum
D. No correct answer
E. *presence of viruses
185.
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Coagglutination
D. Latex-agglutination
E. *Hemagglutination
186.
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87
A. CFT
B. Hemagglutination test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *Hemagglutination inhibition test
187.
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 87
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Hemagglutination
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
D. Coagglutination
E. *Agglutination of red blood cells absent
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 87
A. Detection of unknown antigen
B. Identification of viruses
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
E. *Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82
A. Detection of unknown antigen
B. Detection the level of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
E. *Identification of viruses
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Hemagglutination inhibition test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *CFT
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86
A. Hemolysis
B. Agglutination
C. Hemagglutination
D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent
E. *Hemolysis absent
What is the positive result of this test in? Fig. 86
A. Agglutination
B. Hemagglutination
C. Hemolysis
D. Agglutination of red blood cells absent
E. *Hemolysis absent
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 86
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Hemagglutination ingibition test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *CFT
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 86
A. Detection of unknow antigen
B. Identification of viruses
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
E. *Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 83
A. Detection of unknow antigen
B. Identification of viruses
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
E. *Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
For what purpose was this test used? Fig. 82
A. Detection of unknow antigen
B. Examination the level of incomplete antibodies
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
C. Detection the level of immunoglobulines
D. Detection the of antiviral antibodies in patients serum
E. *Identification of virus antigen
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 87
A. Western blot
B. Indirect fluorescent-antibody test
C. ELISA
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *Hemagglutination ingibition test
What is there in the figure? Fig. 81
A. Agglutination
B. Hemagglutination
C. Coagglutination
D. Latex-agglutination
E. *Precipitation
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 79
A. Western blot
B. Hemagglutination ingibition test
C. Hemagglutination test
D. Indirect Hemagglutination test
E. *Indirect fluorescent-antibody test
What results of the test are shown in the figure? Fig. 77
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Cytopathic effect
C. Syncytium formation
D. Inclusion bodies
E. *Agglutination test
What test is there in the figure? Fig. 77
A. Hemagglutination test
B. Cytopathic effect
C. Syncytium formation
D. Inclusion bodies
E. *Agglutination test
What is there in the figure? Fig. 84
A. Hemadsorption test
B. Cytopathic effect
C. Syncytium formation
D. Inclusion bodies
E. *Indirect Hemagglutination test