Download FORM B

Systemic Anatomy Exam I
Prepared especially for the trimester one class, Summer 2002
Please place the single best answer in the space provided (unless designated by the letters MACA, which in this
case mark all correct answers that apply) on your scantron sheet. The faculty will not answer any of your
questions (unless you find a typo) once the exam begins, as interpretation of the question is a part of the
examination. Good luck.
FORM B
1) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) sternoclavicular joint - synovial joint
b) suture - synarthrosis
c) costovertebral joint - synovial joint
d) manubriosternal joint - symphysis
e) proximal radial ulnar joint - spheroid joint
2) Synovial fluid filled sac that serves to cushion a tendon or ligament as it crosses a bony prominence.
a) cushingoid
b) bursa
c) synovium
d) tubercle
e) none of the above
3) The iliofemoral ligament serves to __________ of the hip joint.
a) limit hyperextension
b) limit hyperflexion
4) The ligamentum teres connects the ____ to the ___.
a) AIIS; intertrochanteric line
b) fovea capitis; transverse acetabular ligament
c) acetabular labrum; acetabular notch
d) pubis; intertrochanteric line
e) none of the above
5) Hyperextension of the knee joint, when the foot is firmly planted on the ground will result in a lateral rotation
of the femur.
a) true
b) false
6) The anterior cruciate ligament attaches from the anterior aspect of the tibia to the ____.
a) medial aspect of the lateral condyle of the femur
b) lateral aspect of the medial condyle of the femur
c) lateral aspect of the lateral condyle of the femur
d) medial aspect of the medial condyle of the femur
7) A torn ACL will result in an ___ displacement of the proximal tibia as it relates to the distal femur.
a) anterior
b) posterior
8) Most ACL injuries occur when the knee is ____.
a) flexed
b) extended
page 1, SA Exam I, Q.# 1-8
9) Which of the following is NOT classified as a "deltoid ligament" of the talocrural joint.
a) talofibular ligament
b) posterior tibiotalar ligament
c) tibionavicular ligament
d) anterior tibiotalar ligament
e) tibionavicular ligament
10) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) hinge joint - uniaxial
b) spheroid joint - biaxial
c) trochoid joint - uniaxial
d) sellar joint - biaxial
e) ball and socket joint - multiaxial
11) The tectorial membrane is found on the ___ aspect of the spinal cord.
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) medial
d) lateral
12) Which of the following contribute to the formation of the cruciate ligament? (MACA)
a) apical ligament
b) transverse ligament of the atlas
c) cranial crus
d) inferior longitudinal band
e) alar ligament
13) The joint of Luschka is found ________________.
a) between the uncinate process and a small indentation found on the inferior surface of the vertebra it
articulates with
b) between the odontoid process of the axis and the anterior arch of the atlas
c) between the lip of the inferior aspect of cervical vertebra 3-6 and the anterior aspect of the body of the
inferior vertebra it articulates with
d) between the prezygapophysis and the postzygapophysis
14) The central portion of an intervertebral disc is called the ____________.
a) nucleus pulposus
b) annulus fibrosus
15) The _____ ligament attaches from the ischial tuberosity to the sacrum and coccyx and forms the inferior
border of the lesser sciatic notch.
a) iliolumbar ligament
b) inguinal ligament
c) sacrotuberous ligament
d) sacroiliac ligament
e) sacrospinous ligament
16) The glenohumeral joint is a _______ joint.
a) diarthrotic
b) synarthrotic
c) amphiarthrotic
page 2, SA Exam I, Q.# 9-16
17) Choose the statement concerning the temporomandibular joint which if FALSE.
a) articular surfaces are covered with fibrocartilage
b) it is a fibrous joint
c) capable of depression, elevation and lateral rotation
d) there is an articular disc which is adherent to the joint capsule
e) formed by the condylar process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone
18) The adductor tubercle is located on the __ of the femur.
a) head
b) medial epicondyle
c) greater trochanter
d) lesser trochanter
e) it is not located on the femur
19) The apex of the patella is located _______ to the base.
a) superior
b) inferior
20) Gerdy's tubercle is located in the ___ of the fibula.
a) lateral condyle
b) medial condyle
c) head
d) intercondylar fossa
e) it is not located in the fibula
21) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) a Chiropractor can diagnose in New York
b) ambitious comes from the Latin word ambire
c) rabbits have 7 cervical vertebra
d) there are 3 pieces of fried chicken to an order at Babe's fried Chicken restaurant
e) chicken fried steak is made from beef not chicken
22) What type of joint is present between the shaft of the radius and the ulna?
a) primary cartilaginous joint
b) secondary cartilaginous joint
c) syndesmosis
d) gomphosis
e) suture
23) Which of the following classifications apply to the joint present between two adjacent vertebral bodies?
(MACA)
a) primary cartilaginous joint
b) secondary cartilaginous joint
c) amphiarthrosis
d) multiaxial
e) symphysis
page 3, SA Exam I, Q.# 17-23
24) Which of the following classifications apply to the joint present between two adjacent vertebral articular
facets forming the facet joint? (MACA)
a) diarthrodial
b) secondary cartilaginous
c) plane
d) gliding
e) symphysis
25) Which of the following is found inside of the neural canal on the anterior aspect of the spinal cord?
a) posterior longitudinal ligament
b) anterior longitudinal ligament
c) ligamentum nuchae
d) ligamentum flavum
e) interspinous ligament
26) Ribs ___ are called vertebrosternal ribs.
a) 1-7
b) 8-10
c) 11-12
27) The acromion is on the ___ aspect of the spine of the scapula.
a) lateral
b) medial
c) it is not located on the spine of the scapula
28) The subscapular fossa is located on the ___ aspect of the scapula.
a) anterior
b) posterior
29) The deltoid tuberosity is located ___ to the radial groove on the humerus.
a) superior
b) inferior
30) The ____ epicondyle of the humerus is larger than the ____ one.
a) medial; lateral
b) lateral; medial
31) The coronoid fossa is located on the ___ aspect of the humerus.
a) distal anterior
b) distal posterior
c) proximal anterior
d) proximal posterior
32) Which of the following carpal bones articulate with the radius?
a) pisiform bone
b) scaphoid bone
c) lunate bone
d) hamate bone
e) trapezoid bone
page 4, SA Exam I, Q.# 24-32
33) Which of the following contribute to the formation of the acetabulum? (MACA)
a) ileum
b) ischium
c) head of the femur
d) fovea capitis
e) pubis
34) How many articular surfaces are present on C1?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 7
35) Which of the following features is only found on cervical vertebrae?
a) mamillary processes
b) transverse foramen
c) vertebral foramen
d) costal facets
e) tall spinous process
36) How many articular surfaces are present on the epistropheus?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7
e) 9
37) What articulates with the articular facet present on the posterior aspect of the anterior arch of the atlas?
a) the body of C2
b) the uncinate process of C2
c) the odontoid process
d) the lip present on the inferior aspect of the anterior body of C2
e) none of the above
38) Which of the following vertebra is considered atypical?
a) C3
b) T1
c) T8
d) L2
e) L5
39) How many articular surfaces are present on T10?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12
e) 14
page 5, SA Exam I, Q.# 33-39
40) How many tubercles are present on the atlas?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
e) 12
41) How many ribs articulate with T4 vertebra?
a) 2
b) 4
42) What is the posterior boundary of the vertebral foramen?
a) superior vertebral notch
b) neural arch
c) vertebral body
d) inferior vertebral notch
e) IVD
43) The vertebral foramen is largest in the ___ region.
a) cervical
b) lumbar
c) thoracic
d) sacral
44) Flexion of the lumbar spine will ___ the diameter of the intervertebral foramen.
a) decrease
b) increase
45) The transverse process of a vertebra arises from the ______.
a) lamina-pedicle junction
b) spinous process-lamina junction
c) pedicle -body junction
d) vertebral body
e) none of the above
46) The superior articular facets of thoracic vertebra face in a __ direction.
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) medial
d) lateral
47) The inferior articular facets of T12 face in a _______direction.
a) anterolateral
b) posterolateral
c) anteromedial
d) posteromedial
page 6, SA Exam I, Q.# 40-47
48) How many zygapophyseal joints does T11 contribute to the formation of?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 6
49) How many IVD's are there in the adult?
a) 19
b) 21
c) 23
d) 26
e) 32
50) The falx cerebri attaches to the ______.
a) inion
b) crista galli
c) perpendicular plate
d) cribriform plate
e) occipital crest
51) Failure of the ____ to fuse results in a condition known as "cleft palate".
a) median palatine suture
b) intermaxillary suture
c) mandibular symphysis
d) alveolar process
e) horizontal sulcus
52) ______+_______= feelings.
a) image; action
b) thought; action
c) thought; character
d) character; action
e) character; image
53) The coronoid process is ___ to the condylar process of the mandible.
a) rostral
b) caudal
c) posterior
d) lateral
e) two of the above
54) Which one of the following bones DOES NOT contribute to the formation of the orbit?
a) palatine bone
b) lacrimal bone
c) zygomatic bone
d) temporal bone
e) sphenoid bone
page 7, SA Exam I, Q.# 48-54
55) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) foramen rotundum - V2
b) stylomastoid foramen - facial nerve
c) incisive foramen - nasopalatine nerve
d) jugular foramen - CNIX, CN X, CN XII, and sigmoid sinus
e) foramen ovale - mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
56) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) V1 - supraorbital n.
b) V2 - zygomaticofacial n.
c) maxillary division of trigeminal nerve - greater and lesser palatine foramen nn.
d) V3 - only sensory information
e) V3 - foramen ovale
57) Primary spinal curves are lordotic and present since birth.
a) true
b) false
58) The external acoustic meatus is located on the ____ of the ___ bone.
a) squamous portion; temporal
b) petrous portion; temporal
c) tympanic portion,; temporal
d) mastoid portion; temporal
e) none of the above
59) Which of the following cranial nerve(s) pass through the internal acoustic meatus? (MACA)
a) CN III
b) CN V
c) CN VII
d) CN VIII
e) CN IX
60) Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the occipital bone? (MACA)
a) sphenoid bone
b) parietal bone
c) temporal bone
d) vomer bone
e) palatine bone
61) What bones form the jugular foramen? (MACA)
a) temporal
b) parietal
c) occipital
d) sphenoid
e) maxillary
62) Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the sphenoid bone. (MACA)
a) lacrimal
b) ethmoid bone
c) vomer bone
d) maxillary bone
e) inferior nasal conchae
page 8, SA Exam I, Q.# 55-62
63) Before the mental nerve passes through the mental foramen, it must first pass through the ____ as the
inferior alveolar nerve.
a) inferior orbital fissure
b) mandibular foramen
c) infraorbital foramen
d) foramen rotundum
e) foramen spinosum
64) Which one of the following nerves DOES NOT pass through the superior orbital fissure?
a) CN III
b) the trochlear nerve
c) the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
d) CN II
e) CN VI
65) Increase in respiratory rate and depth will __ CO2 levels in the blood stream and __ arterial pH.
a) increase; increase
b) increase; decrease
c) decrease; decrease
d) decrease; increase
66) Which is the last fontanelle to close?
a) mastoid
b) sphenoidal
c) anterior
d) posterior
67) Which suture connects the pterion to the bregma?
a) sagittal
b) lambdoidal
c) squamous
d) coronal
68) Which of the following bones DOES NOT contribute to the area called the pterion?
a) temporal
b) frontal
c) parietal
d) sphenoid
e) zygomatic
69) The most forward projecting part of the head is the ______.
a) inion
b) glabella
c) metopion
d) bregma
e) none of the above
70) The supraciliary ridge is __ to the supraorbital arch.
a) inferior
b) superior
page 9, SA Exam I, Q.# 63-70
71) Before the supraorbital nerve passes through the supraorbital foramen it must first pass through the ___.
a) foramen ovale
b) foramen rotundum
c) superior orbital fissure
d) optic canal
e) inferior orbital fissure
72) The temporalis m. originates from the temporal lines, which are located on the __ bone.
a) zygomatic
b) temporal
c) parietal
d) occipital
e) maxillary
73) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) eponyms - using a persons name to denote an anatomic structure
b) subjective complaints - symptoms
c) interstitial fluid - intercellular
d) etiology - the cause of a disease
e) homeostasis - a imbalance in the body fluids
74) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) 1 tsp = 5 cc
b) 1 ounce - 30 cc's
c) 1 kg. = 2.2 lbs.
d) 1 deciliter = 10 liters
e) 1 grain = 64.8 mg
75) Where would I find the auditory ossicles?
a) in the anterior cranial fossa
b) in the petrous portion of the sphenoid bone
c) lateral to the tympanic membrane
d) in the crista galli
e) none of the above
76) There are ___ vertebra in the adult.
a) 14
b) 23
c) 26
d) 32
e) 46
77) The manus is ___ to the carpus.
a) proximal
b) distal
78) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) tubercle - a small rounded process
b) trochanter a large process found only on the humerus
c) fossa - a flattened or shallow depression
d) facet - a flatted articular surface
e) epicondyle - a projection located above a condyle
page 10, SA Exam I, Q.# 71-78
79) ____ fibers connect the periosteum to the diaphysis.
a) Ebete's fibers
b) Cook's fibers
c) Schuster's fibers
d) Taylor's fibers
e) Sharpey's fibers
80) _____run in a longitudinal plane in the diaphysis of a long bone.
a) central canals
b) Volkmann's canals
c) trabecular fibers
d) perforating canals
e) two of the above
81) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) syn - separated
b) tachy - fast
c) cirrho - yellow
d) cyano - blue
e) endo - within
82) When reading a medical term, you read the ___ first, then the ___ and then the ___.
a) prefix; suffix; word root
b) word root; prefix; suffix
c) suffix; prefix; word root
d) prefix; word root; suffix
e) suffix; word root; prefix
83) Aristotle said, "a change in the ______________________________________" …..
a) state of the soul will produce a change in the state of the mind
b) state of the soul will produce a change in the shape of the body
c) shape of the body will produce a change in the shape of the spine
d) state of the spine will produce and change in the shape of the psyche
e) shape of the body will produce a change in the ability to perform
84) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) ipsilateral - on the same side
b) parietal - the covering of a body organ
c) proximal - toward the origin or trunk
d) afferent - to conduct toward a central structure
e) supine - to lay down face up
85) The popliteal region is found _______.
a) anterior to the cubital joint
b) posterior to the stifle
c) superior to the manus
d) distal to the pes
e) none of the above
86) ___________membranes line body cavities that open to the exterior.
a) mucous
b) serous
page 11, SA Exam I, Q.# 79-86
87) Choose which of the following body positions is NOT consistent with those found when the patient is in
anatomic position.
a) forearm supinated
b) thumb is medial to digit 5
c) knee is extended
d) elbow is extended
e) hip is extended
88) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) jaundice - a yellow discoloration to the tissue
b) keratoconjunctivitis - "pink eye"
c) lumen - the outside lining of an organ
d) juxtaspinal - next to the spine
e) idiopathic - on unknown cause
89) What is Dr. G's e-mail address?
a) [email protected]
b) [email protected]
c) [email protected]
d) [email protected]
e) [email protected]
90) When is open lab in systemic anatomy?
a) Mondays 3-5 pm
b) Tuesday and Wednesdays 5-7 pm
c) Mondays and Wednesdays 5-7 pm
d) Tuesdays and Thursdays 4-6
e) Friday afternoons 3-6
91) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) carcino - cancer
b) glosso - lips
c) adeno - gland
d) -algia - pain
e) -cle - small
92) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) -malacia - softening
b) -lith - stone
c) -cide - toward the lateral aspect
d) -megaly - enlargement of an organ
e) -dyne - pain
93) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) -ostomy - create an opening
b) -penia - few or decreased
c) -rrhage - abnormal flow of
d) -scopy - to cut into
d) -trophy - nourishment
page 12, SA Exam I, Q.# 87 - 93
94) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) epi - on top of
b) inter - inside of
c) peri - around
d) poly - many
e) retro - behind, after
95) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) apnea - a patient who is not breathing
b) anosmia - a patient who has loss the sense of smell
c) ambulate - to walk
d) acedia - depression
e) ascites - loss of cellular definition
96) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) anabatic - increasing in severity
b) anisocoria - loss of cell morphology
c) arboreal - living in trees
d) auscultation - to listen to the sounds within the body
e) atresia - congenital absence of a body opening
97) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) bifurcate - to split into two
b) bradycardia - slow heart rate
c) cicatrix - a scar
d) claudication - a popping sound in a joint
e) cephalagia - a headache
98) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) depurant - an agent that cleans or purifies
b) diaphoresis - movement from one point to another
c) cynophobia - the fear of dogs
d) edentulous - the loss of teeth in the aged
e) diuretic - something that increases the production of urine
99) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) gynecomastia - the development of enlarged breast in the male
b) dystocia - difficult labor or childbirth
c) dysplasia - abnormal development
d) empirical - the building of an empire
e) heliotherapy - the treatment of disease through the use of sunlight
100) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) hyperplasia - an increase in cell size
b) hyperemia - increase blood flow to an area causing a red coloration to the tissue
c) hypoxemia - decreased oxygen levels in the blood
d) iatrogenic - a condition caused by a doctor
e) infarct - death of tissue secondary to loss of blood supply
page 13, SA Exam I, Q.# 94-100
The end of Exam I. Grades will be emailed to you by the close of today.