Download Sample Exam Questions for Systemic Anatomy

Sample Exam Questions for Systemic Anatomy - Test 1
1) The word Anatomy is derived from the Greek word meaning _____?
a) the cut up
b) the study
c) the function of
d) the structure of
e) cadaver
2) This embryonic tissue becomes the nucleus pulposus.
a) the “Eustachian” tube
b) the notocord
c) the gill slits
d) the dorsal hollow nerve tube
e) the placenta
3) The _____ proceeds the word whereas the ____ is placed after the root word.
a) suffix, prefix
b) prefix, suffix
4) A plane that divides the body into right and left parts would be called a ___ plane.
a) coronal
b) frontal
c) horizontal
d) sagittal
e) two of the above
5) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) anterior – ventral
b) contralateral – on opposite sides
c) proximal – toward the trunk
d) medial – toward the midline
e) parietal – to conduct toward a central structure
6) Which abdominal region is directly lateral to the hypogastric region?
a) epigastric region
b) left hypogastric
c) right inguinal
d) umbilical
e) left lateral
7) The pelvis is classified as a part of the ___ skeleton.
a) axial
b) appendicular
8) The reproductive tract is lined with a ____ membrane.
a) serous
b) mucous
9) Movement of a body part away from the main axis of the body is termed ____.
a) inversion
b) rotation
c) abduction
d) adduction
e) pronation
10) Turning the sole of the foot medially is termed ____.
a) pronation
b) eversion
c) inversion
d) retraction
e) two of the above
11) Pulling the scapulae posteriorally and medially is termed ____.
a) inversion
b) eversion
c) protraction
d) retraction
e) depression
12) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) 1cc = mL
b) 1 tsp. = 5 cc
c) 1 oz. = 30 ml
d) 1 deciliter = 1/10 of a liter
e) 1 tbsp. = 5 tsp.
13) A _____ is a flattened or shallow articulating articular surface.
a) fossa
b) foramen
c) facet
d) alveolus
e) sulcus
14) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) brady – slow
b) ante – before
c) cata – negative
d) endo – outside
e) inter – between
15) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) para – beside
b) hyper – above and beyond
c) meta – after
d) eu – abnormal
e) hemi – half
16) Wormian bones are _____.
a) bones that are longer than they are wide
b) found only in the skull
c) also called short bones
d) found only in the appendicular skeleton
e) all but one of the above are examples of Wormian bones
17) The ______ covers the outside shaft of a long bone.
a) endosteum
b) articular cartilage
c) osteoblasts
d) periosteum
e) compact and spongy bone
18) The ____ canals are arranged longitudinally.
a) Volkmann’s
b) osteocytic
c) central
d) canaliculi
e) two of the above
19) Hyperventilation will ___ the levels of CO2 in the body creating a respiratory ____ and an excess of ____.
a) increase, alkalosis, hydroxyl ions
b) decrease, acidosis, hydrogen ions
c) increase, acidosis, hydroxyl ions
d) decrease, alkalosis, hydroxyl ions
e) increase, acidosis, hydrogen ions
20) The roof of the cranial cavity is called the ____.
a) cranial fossa
b) calvaria
c) anterior fontanel
d) sagittal suture
e) parietal bone
21) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) anterior fontanel – closes by 18-24 months of age and becomes the bregma
b) posterolateral fontanel – called the mastoid fontanel and becomes the pterion
c) posterior fontanel – closes by 2 months of age and becomes the lambda
d) anterolateral fontanel – called the sphenoidal fontanel and closes by 3 months of age
22) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) metopic suture – extends from the anterior fontanel rostrally to the glabella
b) lambdoid suture – extends from the posterior fontanel to the mastoid fontanel
c) sagittal suture – extends from the anterior to the posterior fontanel
d) squamous suture – connects the anterolateral to the posterior fontanel
e) coronal suture – connects the anterior fontanel to the pterion
23) Which of the following structures travel through the superior orbital fissure? (MACA)
a) optic nerve
b) oculomotor nerve
c) trochlear nerve
d) abducens nerve
e) maxillary nerve
24) Which of the following structures DOES the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve or one of its
branches NOT pierce? (MACA)
a) mental foramen
b) infraorbital foramen
c) foramen rotundum
d) foramen ovale
e) inferior orbital fissure
25) Which of the following structures DOES the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve or one of its
branches NOT pierce? (MACA)
a) mental foramen
b) inferior orbital fissure
c) mandibular foramen
d) foramen ovale
e) jugular foramen
26) Which of the following structures pass through the jugular foramen? (MACA)
a) cranial nerve XI
b) cranial nerve XII
c) cranial nerve X
d) cranial nerve VIII
e) cranial nerve IX
27) Which of the following nerves pierce the internal acoustic meatus? (MACA)
a) CN VII
b) mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
c) CN IV
d) CN VI
e) CN VIII
28) Which of the following structures DO NOT travel through the foramen magnum?
a) spinal cord
b) cranial nerve XII
c) spinal components of the spinal accessory nerve
d) meninges
e) vertebral arteries
29) Which of the following structures is NOT found on the temporal bone?
a) zygomatic process
b) groove for the middle temporal artery
c) temporal lines
d) mastoid process
e) groove for the sigmoid sinus
30) There are three holes on the anterior aspect of the skull where branches of the trigeminal nerve emerge to
supply cutaneous innervation to the skin of the face. List these holes from inferior to superior.
1) mental foramen
4) superior orbital fissure
2) stylomastoid foramen
5) supraorbital foramen
3) zygomaticofacial foramen
6) infraorbital foramen
a) 2,3,6
b) 1,3,5
c) 2,6,4
d) 1,6,5
e) 5,4,2
31) Choose the hole that is INCORRECTLY paired with the structure(s) indicated.
a) carotid canal – petrous portion of the temporal bone
b) jugular foramen – between occipital and temporal bones
c) foramen ovale – sphenoid bone
d) stylomastoid foramen – occipital bone
e) foramen lacerum – between sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones
32) The glabella is called the antinion because it is located opposite to the ____.
a) metopion
b) asterion
c) pterion
d) external occipital protuberance
e) clivus
33) The jugum is located between the ____.
a) lesser wings of the sphenoid bone
b) anterior and posterior clinoid processes of the sphenoid bone
c) dorsum sellae and the tuberculum sellae
d) the medial and the lateral pterygoid plates of the sphenoid bone
e) the foramen magnum and the clivus
34) Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the occipital bone? (MACA)
a) temporal bone
b) sphenoid bone
c) parietal bone
d) vomer bone
e) ethmoid bone
35) Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the sphenoid bone? (MACA)
a) ethmoid bone
b) lacrimal bone
c) temporal bone
d) nasal bone
e) vomer bone
36) Which of the following structures is NOT found on (in) the sphenoid bone?
a) pharyngeal tubercle
b) groove for the middle meningeal artery
c) optic canal
d) chiasmatic groove
e) groove for the internal carotid artery
37) Which of the following structures is NOT found on the maxillary bone?
a) alveolar process
b) palatine process
c) median palatine suture
d) frontal process
e) temporal process
38) Which of the following structures is NOT found on the mandible.
a) mental protuberance
b) condylar process
c) coracoid process
d) lingula
e) pterygoid fossa
39) Which one of the following bones DOES NOT contribute to the formation of the orbit?
a) palatine bone
b) frontal bone
c) parietal bone
d) sphenoid bone
e) ethmoid bone
40) Which of the following structures DOES NOT contribute to the formation of the sella turcica?
a) anterior clinoid process
b) posterior clinoid process
c) dorsum sellae
d) tuberculum sellae
e) hypophyseal fossa
41) The secondary curves of the vertebral column are ______? (MACA)
a) kyphotic curves
b) lordotic curves
c) sacral and thoracic curves
d) lumbar and cervical curves
e) lumbar and thoracic curves
42) The vertebrae with the largest body is ____?
a) the axis
b) the atlas
c) T12
d) L5
e) S3
43) Flexion of the lumbar spine will cause the intervertebral foramina in that area to _____ in size..
a) increase
b) decrease
44) The neural ring (AKA vertebral foramen) is ___ in the cervical region and ____ shaped in the thoracic
region.
a) circular, circular
b) circular, triangular
c) triangular, circular
d) triangular, triangular
45) The prezygapophysis is also known as the ______.
a) neural arch
b) superior articular process
c) anterior arch of the atlas
d) intervertebral joint
e) none of the above
46) There are ____ total intervertebral discs in the adult with the first one being located between the ____ and
the ____.
a) 26, atlas, axis
b) 23, axis, C3
c) 27, occiput, atlas
d) 26, C2, C3
e) 23, C3, C4
47) Which of the following structures IS NOT found on the atlas?
a) lateral mass
b) anterior tubercle
c) transverse foramen
d) body
e) groove for the vertebral artery
48) The odontoid process is located on the ____.
a) anterior aspect of the atlas
b) posterior aspect of the axis
c) anterior aspect of the epistropheus
d) on the anterior portion of the neural arch of the vertebrae between the occiput and the atlas
e) lateral to the transverse foramen of the axis
49) How many articular surfaces are present on T12 vertebrae?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12
e) 14
50) How many articular surfaces are present on the atlas?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
e) 8
51) What travels through the vertebral foramen of C5 vertebrae?
a) the vertebral artery
b) the spinal nerve
c) the spinal cord
d) the vertebral vein
e) none of the above
52) Which of the following vertebrae has a mamillary process?
a) cervical vertebrae
b) lumbar vertebrae
c) thoracic vertebrae
d) sacral vertebrae
e) two of the above
53) How many ribs articulate with T11 vertebra?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
54) The lumbosacral angle is formed by the _______.
a) sacral curve
b) articulation between the bodies of L5 and S1
c) posterior sacral foramina
d) the line drawn along the tips of the transverse processes of the last 3 thoracic vert. and the median
sacral crest
e) angle between the superior articular process of the last lumbar vert. and the first sacral vertebrae
55) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) interspinous ligament – connects spinous process to spinous process
b) ligamentum nuchae – runs from EOP to C7 spinous process
c) ligamentum flavum – connects pedicle to pedicle
d) posterior longitudinal ligament – attaches body to body, inside neural canal
e) anterior longitudinal ligament – runs from axis to S1
56) The clavicular notch of the sternum is ____ to the jugular notch.
a) medial
b) lateral
57) The costal margin is formed by the ______.
a) manubriosternal joint
b) fusion of the cartilages of the vertebrocondral ribs
c) fusion of the costal cartilages of the vertebrosternal ribs
d) the angles of ribs 8-10
e) two costal angles coming together
58) The acromion is located on the ___ aspect of the spine of the scapula.
a) lateral
b) medial
59) How many ribs directly articulate (via their associated costal cartilage) with the body of the sternum?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
e) 12
60) The spine of the scapula is located on the ___ aspect of the scapula.
a) anterior
b) posterior
61) The anatomic neck of the humerus is ___ to the surgical neck.
a) proximal
b) distal
62) The greater tubercle of the humerus is ___ to the lesser tubercle.
a) medial
b) lateral
63) The suprascapular notch of the scapula is ___ to the coracoid process.
a) medial
b) lateral
64) The deltoid tuberosity is located on the ___ aspect of the shaft of the humerus.
a) lateral
b) medial
c) it is not located on the shaft of the humerus
65) What lies in the spiral groove of the humerus?
a) tendon of the biceps brachii m.
b) radial nerve
c) median nerve
d) the circumflex brachial artery
e) none of the above
66) The semilunar notch is located on what aspect of the radius?
a) proximal and anterior
b) proximal and posterior
c) distal and anterior
d) distal and posterior
e) it is not located on the radius
67) Which of the following bones have a styloid process? (MACA)
a) temporal bone
b) humerus
c) scapula
d) radius
e) ulna
68) Which of the following bones have a coronoid process? (MACA)
a) mandible
b) scapula
c) ulna
d) humerus
e) radius
69) The anterior surface of the radius is ______.
a) concave
b) convex
70) Looking at the distal row of carpal bones from the lateral side, what is the second bone?
a) pisiform bone
b) trapezium
c) capitate
d) triquetral
e) trapezoid
71) Which bone of the carpus is known as the os magnum?
a) capitate
b) scaphoid
c) hamate
d) trapezoid
e) pisiform
72) That portion of the pelvis superior to the pelvic brim is called the _____.
a) pelvic inlet
b) greater pelvis
c) lesser pelvis
d) true pelvis
e) two of the above
73) Which of the following structures IS NOT associated with the acetabulum?
a) the ischium
b) the lunate surface
c) the pubis
d) the ileum
e) all of the above contribute to the formation of the acetabulum
74) The pubic tubercle is located on the ___ aspect of the superior pubic ramus.
a) medial
b) lateral
c) it is not located on the superior pubic ramus
75) On what bone would I find the obturator groove?
a) femur
b) tibia
c) ischium
d) pubis
e) none of the above
76) Which of the following structures is located on the ventral most aspect of the iliac crest?
a) ischial spine
b) anterior superior iliac spine
c) anterior inferior iliac spine
d) pubic tubercle
e) iliac tuberosity
77) The adductor tubercle is located on what aspect of the femur?
a) distal and medial
b) distal and lateral
c) proximal and medial
d) proximal and lateral78) The fovea capitis is located on what aspect of the head of the tibia?
a) proximal and medial
b) proximal and lateral
c) distal and medial
d) distal and lateral
e) it is not located on the tibia
79) The word popliteal refers to the ____.
a) anterior aspect of the thigh
b) pelvic brim
c) posterior aspect of the knee
d) dorsum of the foot
e) ventrum of the foot
80) The dorsal surface of the foot is the ___ surface.
a) inferior
b) superior
81) Gerdy’s tubercle is located on the _____ aspect of the tibia.
a) proximal, anterolateral
b) proximal posteromedial
c) proximal, anteromedial
d) proximal, posterolateral
e) it is not located on the tibia
82) The sustentaculum tali is located on what aspect of the talus.
a) medial
b) lateral
c) it is not located on the talus
83) What bone touches the medial cuneiform bone?
a) the talus
b) the calcaneus
c) the navicular
d) the lateral cuneiform
e) the cuboid
84) Joints in which the articular surfaces of the bones are directly connected by strands of fibrous connective
tissue, would be classified as ______?
a) amphiarthrotic
b) synovial
c) synchondrotic
d) symphysis
e) synarthrotic
85) In a syndesmotic joint the two boney components are joined directly by _________.
a) cartilage
b) bone
c) a joint capsule
d) a ligament
e) none of the above
86) Which of the following classifications apply to the intervertebral joint? (MACA)
a) symphysis
b) synovial
c) synchrondosis
d) secondary cartilaginous joint
e) amphiarthrosis
87) The synovial membrane is ___ to the fibrous joint capsule.
a) superficial
b) deep
88) The joint present between the 4th rib and the body of the sternum would be classified as a _____? (MACA)
a) symphysis
b) synchondrosis
c) primary cartilaginous joint
d) secondary cartilaginous joint
e) synovial joint
89) Which of the following classifications apply to the zygapophyseal joint? (MACA)
a) synovial
b) amphiarthrosis
c) diarthrosis
d) symphysis
e) plane
90) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) glenohumeral joint – spheroid joint
b) zygapophyseal joint – gliding joint
c) cubital joint – ginglymus joint
d) radiocarpal joint – sellar joint
e) atlantoaxial joint – trochoid joint
91) This ligament is a continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament.
a) anterior atlanto-occipital membrane
b) tectorial membrane
c) transverse ligament of the atlas
d) ligamentum flavum
e) apical ligament
92) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) temporomandibular joint – synovial, multiaxial
b) sternoclavicular joint – synovial, gliding joint
c) nuchal ligament – EOP to C7, direct continuation of the supraspinous ligament
d) transverse ligament of the atlas – runs anterior to odontoid process of the axis
e) apical ligament – tip of odontoid process to anterior margin of foramen magnum
93) Derangement of the articulating bones that compose the joint is called ______?
a) strain
b) sprain
c) luxation
d) gout
e) bursitis
94) This connective tissue structure extends from the greater to the lesser tubercle of the humerus and serves to
hold the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii m. in place.
a) glenohumeral ligament
b) coracohumeral ligament
c) transverse humeral retinaculum
d) interclavicular ligament
e) costoclavicular ligament
95) The articular surfaces of this synovial joint are covered with fibrocartilage.
a) glenohumeral joint
b) sacroiliac joint
c) proximal radioulnar joint
d) temporomandibular joint
e) cubital joint
96) This ligament extends from the fovea capitis of the femur to the transverse acetabular ligament.
a) ischiofemoral ligament
b) ligamentum teres
c) pubofemoral ligament
d) iliofemoral ligament
e) cruciate ligament
97) The anterior cruciate ligament prevents ___ displacement of the femur in relationship to the tibia.
a) anterior
b) posterior
98) These are pads of fibrocartilage which serve to increase the surface area of contact between the femoral
condyles and the tibial plateau.
a) cruciate ligaments
b) collateral ligaments
c) menisci
d) acetabular labrum
e) all of the above
99) The arcuate popliteal ligament reinforces the posterolateral aspect of the joint capsule of the knee.
a) true
b) false