Download Spring 02

Systemic Anatomy Exam I
Prepared especially for the trimester one class, Spring 2002
Please place the single best answer in the space provided (unless designated by the letters MACA, which in this
case mark all correct answers that apply) on your scantron sheet. The faculty will not answer any of your
questions (unless you find a typo) once the exam begins, as interpretation of the question is a part of the
examination. Good luck.
FORM A
1) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) gastro - stomach
b) cysto - bladder
c) glosso - lips
d) adeno - gland
e) onco - tumor
2) Each lecture exam in this course is worth what percentage?
a) 10%
b) 12.5%
c) 15%
d) 20%
e) none of the above
3) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) otorrhea - a discharge from the external ear canal
b) rhinoplasty - plastic surgery of the nose
c) nephrolithiasis - kidney stones
d) anodyne - something that causes intense pain
e) cephalalgia - a headache
4) A tracheostomy is usually permanent where as a tracheotomy is not.
a) true
b) false
5) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) apnea - cessation of breathing
b) acedia - a state of depression
c) afebrile - no fever
d) ascites - loss of cellular morphology
e) ambulate - to walk
6) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) anabatic - to grow more intense
b) anisocoria - unequal pupillary diameter
c) antiemetic - an agent that prevents vomiting
d) auscultation - to listen to the sounds within the body
e) anaphylaxis - absence of an immune response by the body
page 1, SA Exam I, Q.# 1-6
7) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) bifurcate - to split into two parts
b) brontophobia - the fear of thunder
c) blepharitis - inflammation of the gums
d) claudication - to limp
e) bradycardia - a slow heart rate
8) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) crepitation - a crackling or popping sound
b) depurant - to cleanse or purify
c) diaphoresis - the flow into a cell by passive movement
d) edentulous - the loss of teeth as seen in the elderly, the absence of teeth
e) cynophobia - the fear of dogs
9) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) gynecomastia - the development of enlarged breast in the male
b) empirical - the building of an empire
c) flaccid - loss of tone, weak, lax or soft
d) fremitus - a vibration detectable upon palpation
e) glycosuria - increased levels of glucose in urine
10) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) hyperplasia - increase in the size of a cell
b) in situ - as seen in a structures normal position
c) hypoxia - decreased oxygen to a tissue
d) hypoxemia - decreased oxygen levels in the blood
e) iatrogenic - a condition caused by a physician
11) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) stenosis - dilation of a structure
b) spasm - a twitch
c) antecubital - in front of the elbow
d) contralateral - on opposite sides
e) atrophy - absence of nourishment
12) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) intercellular - inside of a cell
b) pericardial - around the outside of the heart
c) polyuria - increased frequency of urination
d) tachypnea - rapid breathing
e) leukopenia - decrease number of circulating white blood cells
13) A midsagittal plane divides the body into front and back halves.
a) true
b) false
14) The leg is inferior to the thigh but is proximal to the tarsus.
a) true
b) false
page 2, SA Exam I, Q.# 7-14
15) The dorsal surface of the foot is the same as the plantar surface of the foot.
a) true
b) false
16) If you ask your patient to lay on the table in a supine position you expect them to lay face down.
a) true
b) false
17) The popliteal region would be on the anterior aspect of the crus.
a) true
b) false
18) The manus is the hand.
a) true
b) false
19) Supination is medial rotation of the hand.
a) true
b) false
20) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) 1 tsp. = 5 ml
b) 1 pint = 1 pound
c) 1 lb. = 2.2 kg.
d) 1 grain = 64.8 mg
e) 1 cup = 16 tbsp.
21) Flat bones of the skull develop by ________ means of ossification.
a) endochondral
b) intramembranous
c) intracranial
d) endocranial
22) Which is the first fontanel to close?
a) anterior
b) anterolateral
c) posterolateral
d) posterior
23) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) sagittal suture - extends from the bregma to the lambda
b) squamous suture - extends from the asterion to the pterion
c) lambdoidal suture - extends from the lambda to the pterion
d) metopic suture - extends from the glabella to the bregma
e) coronal suture - extends from the pterion to the bregma
24) The zygomatic arch is made of the ________. (MACA)
a) temporal process of the temporal bone
b) zygomatic process of the temporal bone
c) zygomatic process of the zygomatic bone
d) temporal process of the malar bone
e) temporal process of the parietal bone
page 3, SA Exam I, Q.# 15-24
25) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) CN II - optic canal of the sphenoid bone
b) olfactory nerve - cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
c) oculomotor nerve - supraorbital foramen
d) stylomastoid foramen - CN VII
e) CN XII - hypoglossal canal
26) Which of the following DOES NOT travel through the jugular foramen?
a) CN XI
b) the vagus nerve
c) the internal jugular vein
d) CN VIII
e) the glossopharyngeal nerve
27) The external occipital protuberance is also called the ______.
a) mesophryon
b) intercilium
c) inion
d) glabella
e) all but one of the above
28) Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the sphenoid bone? (MACA)
a) lacrimal bone
b) inferior nasal concha
c) vomer bone
d) occipital bone
e) nasal bone
29) Which of the following openings do branches of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve pass
through? (MACA)
a) foramen rotundum
b) infraorbital foramen
c) mental foramen
d) incisive foramen
e) superior orbital fissure
30) The falx cerebri attaches to the _______________.
a) pterygoid plate
b) anterior clinoid process
c) crista galli
d) palatine process
e) none of the above
31) Thought + action = ______________
a) products, services and ideas
b) innate communication
c) desires
d) feelings
e) love
page 4, SA Exam I, Q.# 25-31
32) Which of the following structures is NOT found on the occipital bone?
a) condyle
b) inferior nuchal line
c) clivus
d) groove for the sigmoid sinus
e) pharyngeal tubercle
33) Which of the following is NOT part of the sella turcica?
a) anterior clinoid process
b) hypophyseal fossa
c) posterior clinoid process
d) dorsum sellae
e) tuberculum sellae
34) Which of the auditory ossicles is the most lateral?
a) incus
b) malleus
c) stapes
35) Which of the following openings do branches of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve pass
through? (MACA)
a) foramen ovale
b) superior orbital fissure
c) mandibular foramen
d) mental foramen
e) internal acoustic meatus
36) Primary curves of the spinal column are ____ or _____ curves.
a) anterior; lordotic
b) anterior; kyphotic
c) posterior; lordotic
d) posterior; kyphotic
37) The two pedicles and the two lamina of a single vertebra make a structure called the ______.
a) vertebral foramen
b) intervertebral foramen
c) neural canal
d) neural ring
e) neural arch
38) The first IVF is located between the _________.
a) sacrum and L5
b) skull and the atlas
c) atlas and the axis
d) epistropheus and third cervical vertebra
e) none of the above
page 5, SA Exam I, Q.# 32-38
39) Which of the following cervical vertebra are considered typical? (MACA)
a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C5
e) C7
40) Which of the following structures are unique to cervical vertebra? (MACA)
a) bifid spinous process
b) mamillary process
c) neural canal
d) transverse foramen
e) "Z" joints
41) The posterior longitudinal ligament lies on the ______ aspect of the spinal cord.
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) none of the above
42) The inferior vertebral notch of a vertebra and the superior vertebral notch of the vertebra directly inferior
form a structure called the _________.
a) transverse foramen
b) neural canal
c) intervertebral foramen
d) vertebral foramen
e) none of the above
43) There are ____ vertebrae in the adult and ____ intervertebral discs.
a) 32, 23
b) 26, 23
c) 23, 26
d) 26, 32
e) 23, 32
44) How many zypapophyseal joints does the third thoracic vertebra contribute to the formation of?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
45) Choose the INCORRECT match of vertebra to the number of articular surfaces present on that vertebra.
a) C1 - 5
b) C2 - 7
c) T1 - 12
d) T10 - 10
e) L1 - 6
46) The superior articular facets of T6 face in a ____ direction.
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) anterolateral
d) posterolateral
page 6, SA Exam I, Q.# 39-46
47) The uncinate process is located on the __ aspect of the ___ of ___ vertebra.
a) inferior; transverse process; thoracic
b) superior; body; cervical
c) superior; superior articular process; lumbar
d) inferior; body; cervical
e) inferior, superior articular process; lumbar
48) What is palpable on the dorsal midline 2 inches inferior to the inion?
a) the manubriosternal joint
b) the transverse process of C7
c) the sacral promontory
d) the spinous process of the epistropheus
e) the spinous process of C7
49) T11 and T12 vertebra have ____ transverse costal facets because ribs 11 and 12 ________.
a) large; have pronounced tubercles to stabilize them since they do not attach to the sternum
b) concave; have convex tubercular facets
c) demi; articulate with both T11 and T12
d) no; have no tubercles
e) none of the above
50) The fused spinous processes of sacral vertebra form the ______.
a) auricular surface
b) sacral tuberosity
c) median sacral crest
d) lateral mass
e) superior articular process
51) The ______ ligament attaches from the EOP to the spinous process of C7.
a) posterior longitudinal ligament
b) anterior longitudinal ligament
c) ligamentum nuchae
d) ligamentum flavum
e) interspinous ligament
52) The angle of Louis is located ____ to the jugular notch of the sternum.
a) inferior
b) superior
53) How many ribs articulate with the body of the sternum?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 7
d) 12
e) 14
54) _____ ribs articulate with T4 vertebra and ____ ribs articulate with T11 vertebra.
a) 2; 4
b) 4; 2
c) 4; 4
d) 2; 2
page 7, SA Exam I, Q.# 47-54
55) The costal groove is located on the ______ aspect of a rib.
a) superior and anterior
b) superior and posterior
c) inferior and anterior
d) inferior and posterior
56) To describe the acromial end of the clavicle, one might say it is _____ and is ______.
a) lateral; compressed from anterior to posterior
b) medial; compressed from anterior to posterior
c) lateral; flared out and rounded
d) medial; flared out and rounded
57) The greater tubercle of the humerus is located lateral to the lesser tubercle.
a) true
b) false
58) The deltoid tuberosity is located inferior to the musculospiral groove of the humerus.
a) true
b) false
59) The capitulum of the humerus is located medial to the trochlea.
a) true
b) false
60) The coronoid fossa is located on the posterior aspect of the distal humerus.
a) true
b) false
61) The radial notch is located on the proximal and medial aspect of the radius.
a) true
b) false
62) The semilunar notch of the ulna articulates with the trochlea of the humerus.
a) true
b) false
63) The posterior distal aspect of the radius is concave as compared to the anterior aspect.
a) true
b) false
64) The capitate bone is located between the ___ and the ___ bone.
a) pisiform; triquetral
b) hamate; trapezoid
c) trapezoid; trapezium
d) lunate; trapezium
e) hamate; scaphoid
65) How many phalanges are there in the upper extremities?
a) 10
b) 26
c) 28
d) 30
page 8, SA Exam I, Q.# 55-65
66) Which of the following bones contribute to the formation of the acetabulum? (MACA)
a) ischium
b) femur
c) sacrum
d) ileum
e) pubis
67) Which of the following structures is directly inferior to the greater sciatic notch?
a) acetabulum
b) spine of the ischium
c) obturator groove
d) pubic tubercle
e) pecten pubis
68) The apex of the patella is ___ to the base.
a) superior
b) inferior
69) The linea aspera is located on what aspect of the tibia?
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) medial
d) lateral
e) none of the above
70) Gerdy's tubercle is located on what aspect of the tibia?
a) proximal, anterior and lateral
b) proximal, anterior and medial
c) proximal, posterior and lateral
d) proximal, posterior and medial
e) none of the above
71) Where is the fovea capitis located?
a) on the head of the femur
b) on the lateral malleolus of the fibula
c) on the tibial plateau
d) on the pubic bone
e) on the inferior aspect of the acetabulum
72) The sustentaculum tali is located on the ______.
a) calcaneus
b) tibia
c) talus
d) cuboid bone
e) fibula
73) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the joints present in the skull.
a) sutural joints are synchondrotic joints
b) serrate sutures are present between the two parietal bones
c) fibrous connective tissue connects the edges of a sutural joint
d) there is no joint cavity present in a sutural joint
e) sutural joints are classified as fibrous joints
page 9, SA Exam I, Q.# 66-73
74) Choose the INCORRECT match concerning joint classifications.
a) joint between the shaft of the radius and the ulna - syndesmosis
b) joint between root of tooth and the alveolus - gomphosis
c) primary cartilaginous joint - between first rib and sternum
d) amphiarthrosis - zypapophyseal joint
e) intervertebral joint - symphysis
75) Looking at the intervertebral joint and starting with the body of the superior vertebra, which of the
following represent the correct order of structures that compose the joint.
a) bone - fibrocartilage - nucleus pulposus - fibrocartilage - bone
b) bone - hyaline cartilage - fibrocartilaginous disc - hyaline cartilage - bone
c) bone - synovial membrane - fibrocartilaginous disc - synovial membrane - bone
d) bone - fibrocartilage - fibrocartilaginous disc - fibrocartilage - bone
e) bone - fibrocartilaginous disc - bone
76) A joint classified as a ginglymus permits what type of movement? (MACA)
a) movement in one plane
b) multiaxial movement
c) movement similar to a hinge
d) biaxial movement
e) movement similar to a pivot
77) What is the shape of the articular surfaces in a sellar joint?
a) an oval convex surface fits into a concave depressed surface
b) one component is shaped like a ring and the other is shaped so that it can rotate within the ring
c) one surface is shaped like a ball and the other is shaped like a socket
d) a conical peg fits into a depressed socket
e) each joint surface is both convex in one plane and concave in the other
78) The metacarpophalangeal joint is an example of a condyloid biaxial joint.
a) true
b) false
79) Although the atlanto-occipital joint is classified as a condyloid joint due to the shape of the articular
surfaces it is also classified as a hinge joint because its primary movement is flexion and extension.
a) true
b) false
80) The anterior atlanto-occipital membrane is a direct continuation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and
attaches the _____ to the ____.
a) dens; anterior margin of the foramen magnum.
b) anterior arch of the atlas; occipital condyles
c) posterior arch of the atlas; posterior margin of the foramen magnum
d) anterior arch of the atlas; anterior margin of the foramen magnum
e) none of the above
81) The ___ attaches the apex of the odontoid process to the medial surfaces of the occipital condyles.
a) membrana-tectoria
b) lateral atlanto-occipital ligament
c) articular capsule
d) alar ligament
e) apical ligament
page 10, SA Exam I, Q.# 74-81
82) The direct superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament is called the _____.
a) posterior atlanto-occipital ligament
b) lateral atlanto-occipital ligament
c) tectorial membrane
d) transverse ligament of the atlas
e) none of the above
83) The cruciate ligaments of the cervical region have three components. Which are they? (MACA)
a) superior longitudinal band
b) apical ligament
c) alar ligament
d) transverse ligament of the atlas
e) caudal crus
84) The ____ attaches from lamina of one vertebra to adjacent lamina.
a) ligament flavum
b) interspinous ligament
c) supraspinous ligament
d) posterior longitudinal ligament
e) anterior longitudinal ligament
85) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the uncovertebral joint.
a) classified as a synovial joint by many
b) is an amphiarthrosis
c) also called the Joint of Luschka
d) typically undergoes degeneration with resulting boney outgrowths
e) located between the uncinate process and a small indentation found on the inferior surface of the
vertebra superior to it.
86) The central portion of an intervertebral disc is called the ____.
a) nucleus pulposus
b) annulus fibrosus
87) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning intervertebral discs.
a) account for 25% of the height of the vertebral column
b) in areas of lordotic curves the disc are thicker posteriorly
c) form anterior wall of IVF
d) attach to anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments
e) found from C2 to S1
88) In the child the sacroiliac join is classified as ______.
a) uniaxial
b) biaxial
c) multiaxial
89) Which of the following statements DO NOT apply to the TMJ?
a) synovial
b) capable of depression and elevation
c) capable of protraction and retraction
d) joint surfaces covered with fibrocartilage
e) has an articular disc made of hyaline cartilage
page 11, SA Exam I, Q.# 82-89
90) Which of the following classifications of joints typically become synostotic with age?
a) amphiarthrosis
b) synovial
c) symphysis
d) synchondrosis
e) uniaxial joints
91) Dr. Giggleman has two daughters. What are their names?
a) Kathy and Karen
b) Katy and Laurissa
c) Joline and Katy
d) Kristin and Lauren
e) Debbie and Jessica
92) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the elbow joint.
a) a hinge joint
b) capable of flexion and extension
c) a synovial joint
d) also called the stifle joint
e) made of the trochlea and capitulum of the humerus and the trochlear notch of the ulna and the head of
the radius
93) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the hip joint.
a) synovial, spheroid, multiaxial joint
b) round ligament attaches from the fovea capitis to the transverse acetabular ligament
c) iliofemoral ligament prevents hyperflexion of hip joint
d) acetabular labrum is made of fibrocartilage
e) disruption of the acetabular branch of the obturator artery can result in avascular necrosis of the
femoral head
94) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the knee joint.
a) the oblique popliteal ligament is located on the posterior aspect of the knee joint
b) the medial collateral ligament is also called the tibial collateral ligament
c) it is a synovial, double condyloid, biaxial joint
d) if the knee is hyperextended, the femur will rotate laterally if the foot is planted on the ground
e) there is no well-defined joint capsule on the anterior aspect of the knee
95) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning cruciate ligaments of the knee.
a) the anterior cruciate ligament attaches on the medial aspect of the lateral condyle of the femur
b) the anterior cruciate ligament prevents anterior movement of the femur in relation to the tibia
c) the posterior cruciate ligament attaches to the lateral aspect of the medial condyle of the femur
d) the posterior cruciate ligament is pulled taut when the knee is flexed
e) the anterior cruciate ligament attaches to the posterior aspect of the tibia
96) OK, here we go let's see if we can all get this right this time. If I take a patella and lay its posterior surface
on the table with the apex facing away from you and the right side of the patella is closer to the table than the
left side. Is it a right or left patella?
a) right
b) left
page 12, SA Exam I, Q.# 90-96
97) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the menisci of the knee.
a) the lateral meniscus is the one that is most commonly damaged
b) the medial meniscus is semicircular in shape
c) the lateral meniscus is attached to the posterior cruciate ligament
d) the medial meniscus attaches to the medial collateral ligament
e) the menisci are made of fibrocartilage
98) Which of the following serves as a common attachment site for all the deltoid ligaments of the tarsus?
a) fibula
b) tibia
c) calcaneus
d) navicular bone
e) talus
99) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the shoulder joint.
a) also called the glenohumeral joint
b) dislocations usually result in the head of the humerus ending up superior to the glenoid cavity
c) it is a synovial, multiaxial, diarthrodial joint
d) head of humerus held tight against scapula by the musculotendinous cuff
e) transverse humeral retinaculum holds tendon of long head of biceps brachii m. in intertubercular
groove
100) The three causes of disease are? (MACA)
a) bacteria
b) viruses
c) autosuggestion
d) poisons
e) trauma
page 13. SA Exam I, Q.# 97-100
The end of the first systemic anatomy exam. I will get these graded and email you your grades hopefully by the
end of the day or for sure by noon tomorrow. Thanks for all you do and for being such good attentive students.
Please hold all questions concerning the exam until we go over them in class. Happy Valentine's Day!