Download Final Review with pictures

Final Review with pictures
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. A circuit with a switch turned to the OFF position or a circuit with any break is called:
a. a closed circuit.
b. a short circuit.
c. a resistor circuit.
d. an open circuit.
2. A closed circuit:
a. is off.
b. is on.
c. has a break in it.
d. requires no voltage.
3. Suppose you are trying to help someone gain a better understanding of electric circuits. If you compare
an electrical circuit to a system that carries water, what would the water pipes represent?
a. Battery
b. Wires
c. Electromagnet
d. Switch
4. Positive electric charges:
a. attract both positive charges and negative charges.
b. repel both positive charges and negative charges.
c. attract positive charges and repel negative charges.
d. repel positive charges and attract negative charges.
5. Electric charge is:
a. caused by two fluids, as described by Benjamin Franklin.
b. present in metals only.
c. a fundamental property of matter that comes in two forms.
d. found only in non-living material.
6. Suppose you rub an inflated party balloon on a carpet, hold the balloon next to a wall, and discover that it
"sticks" to the wall. Why did the balloon stick to the wall?
a. The total charge on the balloon and wall becomes zero, so attraction between the
two can occur.
b. Like charges on the balloon and wall cause an attraction between the two.
c. Balloons contain a special "atomic glue" that allows them to cling to other objects.
d. Excess charge builds up on the balloon and electrostatic forces allow the balloon
and wall to be attracted to one another.
7. What property of matter gives rise to both electricity and magnetism?
a. Mass
b. Charge
c. Magnetos
d. Nuclei
8. When you talk about a battery's voltage, you are referring to:
a. amount of power.
b. amount of charges.
c. amount of energy.
d. amount of energy per unit of charge.
9. In an electrical circuit, a voltage difference:
a. supplies energy to make charges flow.
b. causes a short circuit.
c. is the term used for rate of charge flow.
d. wastes energy.
10. Four alkaline AA batteries are placed in series. What is the total voltage of the batteries?
a. 1.5 volts
b. 6 volts
c. 9 volts
d. 36 volts
11. Which of the following makes a good analogy for a battery?
a. Water pipes
b. Narrow areas in water pipes
c. Water faucet
d. Water tower and pump
12. Which of the following safety devices measure or react to specific levels of current?
a. Fuse
b. Circuit breaker
c. Ground fault circuit interrupter
d. All of the above
13. Direct current (DC) and alternating current (AC) differ in:
a. the kind of charge flow.
b. the amount of charge flow.
c. the direction of charge flow.
d. the amount of energy per unit of charge.
14. In an electrical circuit, the term current refers to:
a. resistance.
b. potential difference.
c. flowing charges.
d. energy loss.
15. Almost all of the electrons flowing through a battery circuit come from:
a. atoms in the wire conductor.
b. atoms in the circuit components.
c. atoms involved in chemical reactions at the battery's negative terminal.
d. atoms involved in chemical reactions at the battery's positive terminal.
16. Electrical current will pass easily through:
a. an absorber.
b. a conductor.
c. a semiconductor.
d. an insulator.
17. Which of the following could be a good conductor of electricity?
a. A metal pot
b. A ceramic coffee cup
c. A piece of foam packing material
d. A plastic spoon
18. Objects that conduct electricity poorly are called:
a. conductors.
b. insulators.
c. absorbers.
d. resistors.
19. The ability of an object to resist current is called:
a. potential difference.
b. electrical inertia.
c. alternating current.
d. electrical resistance.
20. Electrical conductivity describes:
a. the rate of charge flow.
b. the direction of charge flow.
c. the ability of an object to carry current.
d. the ability of a material to carry current.
21. An ohm is the unit of measurement for:
a. electrical power.
b. voltage.
c. current.
d. resistance.
22. The mathematical relationship between current, voltage, and resistance is known as:
a. Kirchoff's law.
b. Farday's law.
c. Ohm's law.
d. Murphy's law.
23. If you look inside a stereo or telephone you will find a circuit board, which has wires printed on it and is
covered with little parts. Components called ____ are used to control current in the circuits on the board.
a. resistors
b. wires
c. batteries
d. amperes
24. In the circuit below, 3 amperes of current passes through the light bulb. The resistance of the light bulb is
1.5 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.5 volts
3 volts
4.5 volts
6 volts
25. Power describes the rate of _____. Power is calculated in a circuit by multiplying voltage times_____.
a. charge flow. resistance.
b. energy flow. resistance.
c. charge flow. current.
d. energy flow. current.
26. What does a power company sell to its customers?
a. Power
b. Voltage
c. Current
d. Energy
27. You use a 1200-watt hair dryer for 15 minutes and a 100-watt light bulb for one hour. How much
electricity do you use?
a. 300 watt-hours
b. 400 watt-hours
c. 500 watt-hours
d. 1,300 watt-hours
28. If electricity costs 10 cents per kilowatt-hour, how much does it cost to run a 60-watt light bulb for one
hour?
a. $0.006
b. $0.06
c. $0.60
d. $6.00
29. If a microwave oven draws 11.0 amps of current when plugged into a 120.-volt outlet, what is its power
rating?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.32 kilowatts
1.09 kilowatts
132 watts
109 watts
Figure 3-1A
30. Which of the circuit diagrams shown in Figure 3-1A is a parallel circuit?
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
31. Which of the circuit diagrams shown in Figure 3-1A is a series circuit?
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II only
32. The electrical outlets in your home are wired in:
a. parallel circuits.
b. series circuits.
c. two-way circuits.
d. three-way circuits.
33. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between series and parallel circuits?
a. Series circuits are battery circuits and parallel circuits are generator circuits.
b. Series circuits have a single path and parallel circuits have two or more paths.
c. Series circuits are used in computers and parallel circuits are used in homes.
d. Series circuits have one switch in them and parallel circuits have two switches in
them.
34. Calculate the total resistance in the circuit below.
a. 1/3 ohm
b. 3 ohms
c. 9 ohms
d. 27 ohms
35. What is the voltage drop across each resistor in the circuit below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2 volts
4 volts
6 volts
12 volts
36. What is the voltage drop across each resistor in the circuit below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 volt
3 volts
4.5 volts
9 volts
37. The current in a DC series circuit:
a. decreases to zero as it travels through the circuit.
b. is the same at all points in a circuit.
c. is greatest in the resistor with the highest resistance.
d. is greatest in the resistor with the lowest resistance.
38. What is the current in each resistor in the circuit below?
a. 1/3 ampere
b. 1 ampere
c. 3 amperes
d. 9 amperes
39. What is the current in each resistor in the circuit?
a. 1/3 ampere
b. 1 ampere
c. 3 amperes
d. 9 amperes
40. You suspect a lamp has a short circuit, because when you switched the lamp on it tripped the circuit
breaker. You unplug the lamp, leave the lamp switch on, and place your meter leads across the plug.
What would you measure to test the lamp?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. Power
41. Earth's magnetic north pole is:
a. aligned with the north star.
b. aligned with the Earth's geographic north pole.
c. under Antarctica, the Earth's geographic south pole.
d. at the equator.
42. All atoms act like tiny magnets. Why do only a few materials show magnetic properties?
a. Magnetic materials have atoms that are much stronger magnets than the atoms of
other materials.
b. Atomic magnets are magnified when combined with a rare substance. Magnetic
materials contain this rare substance.
c. We see magnetic properties only if atomic magnets line up with Earth's geographic
south and north poles. In magnetic materials this arrangement can occur.
d. We see magnetic properties only if atomic magnets line up in the same direction
throughout a material. In magnetic materials this arrangement can occur.
43. A student places two magnets with their north poles facing each other, about 70.0 centimeters apart.
When she moves one magnet toward the other, the first magnet repels the second at a distance of 26
centimeters. She repeats the procedure, but now places the magnets so the south pole of one faces the
north pole of the other. What is she likely to observe?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The first magnet will again repel the second at a distance of 26 centimeters.
The first magnet will attract the second at a distance of 26 centimeters.
The first magnet will repel the second at a distance of 52 centimeters.
The first magnet will attract the second at a distance of 52 centimeters.
44. If you reverse the direction of current flow in an electromagnet, what happens?
a. The north and south poles are reversed.
b. The magnet is neutralized.
c. The strength of the magnetic field increases.
d. A short circuit occurs.
45. When current flows through a coil of wire, you have:
a. a superconductor.
b. an electromagnet.
c. a ceramic magnet.
d. a semiconductor.
46. If you increase the current in an electromagnet:
a. the north and south poles will be switched.
b. the magnetic field will be stronger.
c. the magnetic field will disappear.
d. a short circuit will be created.
47. Three ways you can increase the strength of an electromagnet are:
a. decrease the number of coils, increase the current, and add iron to the core.
b. increase the number of coils, increase the current, and add iron to the core.
c. increase the number of coils, decrease the current, and add iron to the core.
d. decrease the number of coils, decrease the current, and add iron to the core.
48. Which of the following does not create a magnetic field?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A lodestone
A straight wire carrying current
A coil of wire carrying current
A metal ball with 2 coulombs of static charge on it
49. Electromagnetic induction occurs when:
a. electromagnets are induced in a wire.
b. electrons are induced in a magnet by a moving wire.
c. current is induced in a wire by an moving magnet.
d. a magnetic field is induced into a coil of wire by a current.
50. An electric motor spins because:
a. the voltage pushes the motor around.
b. an electromagnet attracts and then repels magnets in the rotor.
c. it is converting mechanical energy to electrical energy.
d. the electric current is always flowing in the same direction.
51. What is the purpose of a commutator in an electric motor?
a. It spins around so the motor can do useful work.
b. It creates a voltage drop so that current flows.
c. It switches the electromagnets from north to south and back again.
d. It attracts and repels the magnets in the rotor.
52. An elastic collision is one in which
a. kinetic energy before the collision equals kinetic energy after the collision.
b. kinetic energy after the collision is zero.
c. kinetic energy before the collision is less than kinetic energy after the collision.
d. kinetic energy before the collision is greater than kinetic energy after the collision.
53. What is the proper unit for gravitational potential energy?
a. gravitons
c. newtons
b. joules
d. meters
54. Which type of energy is associated with a body’s height above the ground?
a. thermal energy
c. gravitational potential energy
b. elastic potential energy
d. rest energy
55. In physics, work is defined as __________.
a. force divided by distance.
b. force times distance.
c. force times time.
d. force divided by time.
e. distance divided by time.
56. The unit of power is the __________.
a. second.
b. newton.
c. watt.
d. joule.
e. meter.
57. Power is defined as the __________.
a. work done times the time taken to do that work.
b. work done on an object divided by the time taken to do the work.
c. force on an object times the distance the object moves.
d. force on an object divided by the time the force acts.
e. distance divided by the time taken to move that distance.
58. Energy is changed from one form to another with no net loss or gain.
a. Sometimes true
c. Always true
b. Always false
59. A job is done slowly, and an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same amount of work but different
amounts of __________.
a. power.
c. both A and B
b. energy.
d. none of the above
60. Gravitational potential energy is the energy an object has because of its __________.
a. temperature.
b. density.
c. speed.
d. size.
e. location.
61. The unit of work is the __________.
a. joule.
b. second.
c. watt.
d. newton.
e. meter.
62. Which requires more work: lifting a 50-kg sack vertically 2 meters or lifting a 25-kg sack vertically 4 meters?
a. Lifting the 25-kg sack
c. Both require the same amount of work.
b. Lifting the 50-kg sack
63. An object at rest may have __________.
a. velocity.
b. speed.
c. energy.
d. momentum.
e. none of the above
64. An object that has kinetic energy must be __________.
a. at rest.
c. on the edge of a cliff
b. moving.
d. elevated.
65. Kinetic energy of an object is equal to __________.
a. one half the product of its mass times its speed.
b. its mass multiplied by its acceleration squared.
c. one half the product of its mass times its speed squared.
d. its mass multiplied by its acceleration.
e. its mass multiplied by its speed.
66. The amount of potential energy possessed by an elevated object is equal to __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the value of the acceleration due to gravity.
the distance it is lifted.
the force needed to lift it.
the power used to lift it.
the work done in lifting it.
67. A person on a roof throws one ball downward and an identical ball upward at the same speed. The ball thrown
downward hits the ground with 100 J of kinetic energy. Ignoring air friction, with how much kinetic energy does
the second ball hit the ground?
a. 200 J
b. 100 J
c. More than 200 J
d. Less than 100 J
e. none of the above
68. A heavy object and a light object are released from rest at the same height and time in a vacuum. As they fall, they
have equal __________.
a. weights.
b. energies.
c. momenta.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
69. A gymnast is jumping on a trampoline. For a moment, both the gymnast’s kinetic energy and gravitational
potential energy are zero. How is the gymnast’s mechanical energy stored for that moment?
a. rest energy
c. elastic energy
b. chemical energy
d. thermal energy
70. How much work is done on a 50-N rock that you lift 10 m?
a. 0 J
b. 50 J
c. 500 J
d. 1 J
e. 10 J
71. If you lift two loads up one story, how much work do you do compared to lifting just one load up one story?
a. The same amount
b. One half as much
c. Twice as much
d. One quarter as much
e. Four times as much
72. An object that has kinetic energy must have __________.
a. momentum.
c. acceleration.
b. a force applied to maintain it.
d. none of the above
73. As a pendulum swings back and forth __________.
a. potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy.
b. kinetic energy is transformed into potential energy.
c. at the end points of its swing, its energy is all potential.
d. at the lowest part of its swing, its energy is all kinetic.
e. all of the above
74. Which has greater kinetic energy, a car traveling at 30 km/h or a half-as-massive car traveling at 60 km/h?
a. The 60-km/h car
c. Both have the same kinetic energy.
b. The 30-km/h car
75. An arrow in a bow has 70 J of potential energy. Assuming no loss of energy due to heat, how much kinetic energy
will it have after it has been shot?
a. 50 J
b. 70 J
c. 0 J
d. 35 J
e. 140 J
76. How much farther will a car traveling at 100 km/s skid than the same car traveling at 50 km/s?
a. Five times as far
b. Twice as far
c. The same distance
d. Four times as far
e. Half as far
77. How many joules of work are done on an object when a force of 10 N pushes it 5 m?
a. 2 J
b. 10 J
c. 1 J
d. 50 J
e. 5 J
78. A popular swinging apparatus consists of an aligned row of identical elastic balls suspended by strings so they
touch each other. When two balls on one end are elevated and released, they slam into the array of balls and two
balls pop out the other side. If instead, one ball popped out with twice the speed, this would be a violation of the
conservation of __________.
a. momentum.
c. energy.
b. both.
79. How much power is required to do 100 J of work on an object in 2 seconds?
a. 200 W
b. 2 W
c. 50 W
d. 100 W
e. 0 W
80. The energy in the sugars of an apple, are a type of __________.
a. gravitational potential energy
c. elastic potential energy
b. chemical potential energy
d. wasted potential energy
81. If the momentum of an object changes and its mass remains constant, __________.
a. it is accelerating (or decelerating).
b. its velocity is changing.
c. there is a force acting on it.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
82. In order to increase the final momentum of a golf ball, we could __________.
a. increase the time of contact with the ball.
b.
c.
d.
e.
83. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
swing as hard as possible.
increase the force acting on it.
follow through when hitting the ball.
all of the above
4-kg ball has a momentum of 12 kg m/s. What is the ball's speed?
12 m/s
3 m/s
48 m/s
4 m/s
none of the above
84. A cannonball shot from a long-barrel cannon travels faster than one shot from a short-barrel cannon because the
cannonball receives a greater __________.
a. impulse.
c. both A and B
b. force.
d. neither A nor B
85. Which has more momentum, a large fully loaded truck moving at 30 miles per hour or a small empty truck moving
at 30 miles per hour?
a. The small truck
d. We cannot tell without the times
b. The large truck
e. We cannot tell without the force to
maintain the constant velocity
c. Both have the same momentum.
86. When you jump off a step, you usually bend your knees as you reach the ground. By doing this, the time of the
impact is about 10 times more what it would be in a stiff-legged landing and the average force on your body is
reduced by __________.
a. about 10 times.
d. about 100 times
b. a little more than 10 times.
e. nothing
c. a little less than 10 times.
87. A small economy car (low mass) and a limousine (high mass) are pushed from rest across a parking lot, equal
distances with equal forces. The car that receives the greater impulse is the __________.
a. small economy car.
c. neither A nor B (same for each)
b. limousine.
d. cannot be determined
88. The reason padded dashboards are used in cars is that they __________.
a. decrease the impulse in a collision.
b. increase the time of impact in a collision.
c. decrease the momentum of a collision.
d. increase the force of impact in a collision.
e. look nice and feel good.
89. Two objects, A and B, have the same size and shape, but A is twice as heavy as B. When they are dropped
simultaneously from a tower, they reach the ground at the same time, but A has a higher __________.
a. momentum.
b. speed.
c. acceleration.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
90. A piece of putty moving with 1 unit of momentum strikes and sticks to a heavy bowling ball that is initially at rest.
After the putty sticks to the ball, both are set in motion with a combined momentum that is __________.
a. more than 1 unit.
b. 1 unit.
c. less than 1 unit.
d. Not enough information to say
91. The momentum change of an object is equal to the __________.
a. object's mass times the force acting on it.
b. velocity change of the object.
c. force acting on it times its velocity.
d. force acting on it.
e. impulse acting on it.
92. A cannon recoils from launching a cannonball. The speed of the cannon's recoil is small because the __________.
a. momentum of the cannon is unchanged.
b. force against the cannon is relatively small.
c. cannon has far more mass than the cannonball.
d. impulse on the cannon is less than the impulse on the cannonball.
e. none of the above
93. A golf ball moving forward with 1 unit of momentum strikes and bounces backward off a heavy bowling ball that
is initially at rest and free to move. The bowling ball is set in motion with a momentum of __________.
a. 1 unit.
c. not enough information
b. less than 1 unit.
d. more than 1 unit.
94. While rollerblading, Granny collides with her tiny grandson Ambrose who is at rest. Ignoring any friction effects,
Ambrose's speed after the collision will be greatest when __________.
a. Granny catches him and they both move together.
b. he and Granny make a bouncing collision, each going separate ways.
95. A collision is considered elastic if __________.
a. there is a snickers bar on the table
b. the objects go on a date and get married
c. the objects stick to each other.
d. the objects bounce off of each other.
e. all of the above
96. A moving freight car runs into an identical car at rest on the track. The cars couple together. Compared to the
velocity of the first car before the collision, the velocity of the combined cars after the collision is __________.
a. More information is needed to say.
b. zero.
c. twice as large.
d. one half as large.
e. the same.
97. Compared to a sports car moving at 30 miles per hour, the same sports car moving at 60 miles per hour has
__________.
a. twice as much momentum.
c. four times as much momentum.
b. the same momentum.
98. The momentum of an object is defined as the object's __________.
a. velocity times the time interval.
b. mass times its velocity.
c. force times its acceleration.
d. mass times it acceleration.
e. force times the time interval.
99. A
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
2-kg ball is thrown at 3 m/s. What is the ball's momentum?
6 kg m/s
9 kg m/s
2 kg m/s
3 kg m/s
none of the above
100. A ball is moving at 4 m/s and has a momentum of 48 kg m/s. What is the ball's mass?
a. 4 kg
b. 192 kg
c. 48 kg
d. 12 kg
e. none of the above
101. Which of the following has the largest momentum?
a. The science building at your school
b. A Mack truck parked in a parking lot
c. A tightrope walker crossing Niagara Falls
d. A dog running down the street
e. A pickup truck traveling down the highway
102. A cannon fires a cannonball. The speed of the cannonball will be the same as the speed of the recoiling cannon
__________.
a. because velocity is conserved.
b. because momentum is conserved.
c. because both velocity and momentum are conserved.
d. if the mass of the cannonball equals the mass of the cannon.
e. none of the above
103. A 1-kg chunk of putty moving at 1 m/s collides with and sticks to a 5-kg bowling ball that is initially at rest. The
bowling ball with its putty passenger will then be set in motion with a momentum of __________.
a. more than 5 kg m/s.
b. 5 kg m/s.
c. 0 kg m/s.
d. 1 kg m/s.
e. 2 kg m/s.
104. Suppose a cannon is made of a strong but very light material. Suppose also that the cannonball is more massive
than the cannon itself. For such a system __________.
a. conservation of momentum would not hold.
b. recoil problems would be lessened.
c. conservation of energy would not hold.
d. the force on the cannonball would be greater than the force on the cannon.
e. the target would be a safer place than where the operator is located.
105. In order to catch a ball, a baseball player moves his or her hand backward in the direction of the ball's motion.
Doing this reduces the force of impact on the player's hand principally because __________.
a. the time of impact is increased.
b. the velocity of the hand is reduced.
c. the momentum of impact is reduced.
d. the time of impact is decreased.
e. none of the above
106. Momentum of a system is conserved only when __________.
a. there are no internal forces acting on the system.
b. there are no forces acting on the system.
c. the system has zero momentum.
d. there is no net external force acting on the system.
e. the system is not moving.
107. Two gliders having the same mass and speeds move toward each other on an air track and stick together. After the
collision the velocity of the gliders is __________.
a. one half the original velocity.
b. There is not enough information to say.
c. the same as the original velocity.
d. twice the original velocity.
e. zero.
108. A man starts his car from rest and accelerates at 1 m/s2 for 2 seconds. He then continues at a constant velocity for
10 seconds until he sees a tree blocking the road and applies brakes. The car, decelerating at 1 m/s2, finally comes
to rest. Which of the following graphs represents the motion correctly?
a.
c.
v (m/s)
30
28
26
24
22
20
18
16
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
5
b.
10
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
38
36
34
32
30
28
26
24
22
20
18
16
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
t (s)
5
d.
v (m/s)
10
8
8
6
6
4
4
2
2
5
10
15
20
25 t (s)
v (m/s)
10
15
20
25
30
35 t (s)
v (m/s)
5
10
15
20
25 t (s)
109. The change in velocity during a measurable time interval, divided by the time interval, is the _____.
a. instantaneous velocity
c. instantaneous acceleration
b. average velocity
d. average acceleration
110. The instantaneous acceleration of an object is
a. the rate of change in velocity at an instant of time.
b. the rate of change of position at an instant of time.
c. the rate of change of speed at an instant of time.
d. the rate of change of time at an instantaneous position.
111. Given a graph of velocity v. time, what does a horizontal line represent?
a. The object’s acceleration is positive.
c. The object’s acceleration is negative.
b. The object is moving at constant velocity. d. The object is standing still.
112. Which of the following is NOT an example of accelerated motion?
a. a boulder falling off of a cliff in a straight path
b. an airplane taking off down a straight runway
c. a bicyclist moving in a straight line at constant speed
d. a ball being thrown straight up
113. The acceleration due to Earth’s gravity is:
a. 9.8 m/s2
b. 98 m/s2
c. 9.8 ft/s2
d. 9.8 mi/s2
114. “Free fall” is the condition in which
a. the motion of a body is due to gravity alone, when air resistance is applicable.
b. the motion of a body is due to velocity alone, when air resistance is negligible.
c. the motion of a body is due to gravity alone, when air resistance is maximized.
d. the motion of a body is due to gravity alone, when air resistance is negligible.
115. Which line represents an object that is in motion where the acceleration is zero and the velocity is to the north?
a. Line A
d. Line D
b. Line B
c. Line C
e. Line E
116. An object that has negative acceleration is definitely doing what?
a. speeding up
b. maintaining a constant speed
c. slowing down
d. accelerating in a direction that is opposite to a stated positive direction.
117. The path of a projectile through space is called its:
a. equilibrant
c. range
b. torque
d. trajectory
118. An object that is shot through the air is called a
a. protractor.
c. parabola.
b. projectile.
d. proboscis.
119. If the length of a pendulum increases, the period of the pendulum:
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. returns immediately to zero.
120. The amplitude of a pendulum is doubled. This means:
a. the pendulum will swing twice as far away from the center.
b. the period of the pendulum will be twice as long.
c. the frequency of the pendulum will be twice as high.
d. the pendulum will have twice its original mass.
121. Which factor listed below has the greatest effect on the period of a pendulum?
a. Mass of the pendulum
b. Length of the string
c. Amplitude of the oscillations
d. Angle of the pendulum
122. A mass oscillates on the end of a spring with a period of 4.0 seconds. What is the frequency of the
oscillator?
a. 0.25 hertz
b. 0.50 hertz
c. 2.0 hertz
d. 5.0 hertz
123. If you double the frequency of a pendulum, what happens to the period of one cycle?
a. The period is 1/4 its original time.
b. The period is 1/2 its original time.
c. The period stays the same.
d. The period doubles.
124. The diagram illustrating two waves in phase is:
a.
c.
b.
d.
125. The wavelength of a wave is defined as:
a. the distance from crest to crest.
b. one-half the distance from crest to crest.
c. the distance between the highest and lowest parts of a wave.
d. how often a wave goes up and down.
Figure 4.1
126. Which of the graphs in figure 4.1 has an amplitude of 10 centimeters?
a. Graph A
b. Graph B
c. Graph C
d. Graphs B and C
127. Which of the graphs in figure 4.1 has a period of two seconds?
a. Graph A
b. Graph B
c. Graph C
d. Graphs B and C
128. A transverse wave:
a. lasts no longer than one minute.
b. oscillates perpendicular to the direction of wave travel.
c. oscillates in the same direction as the direction of wave travel.
d. has enough energy to travel at least 5,000 kilometers.
129. Sound waves are always:
a. transverse waves.
b. longitudinal waves.
c. electromagnetic waves.
d. seismic waves.
130. A longitudinal wave travels:
a.
b.
c.
d.
only along the Earth's longitudinal lines.
perpendicular to the direction of oscillations.
in the same direction as the oscillations.
perpendicular to a latitude wave.
131. A piano plays the note A at a frequency of 440 hertz. What is the approximate wavelength in centimeters
of this sound wave if the speed of sound in air is 340 meters per second?
a. 0.7 centimeters
b. 7.7 centimeters
c. 77 centimeters
d. 770 centimeters
132. An ocean wave has a frequency of 2 Hz and a speed of 20 m/sec. What is the wavelength of this wave?
a. 0.1 meter
b. 10 meters
c. 20 meters
d. 40 meters
133. Which of the following usually occurs inside a material instead of at the surface?
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Absorption
134. When a wave bends as it crosses a boundary, ____ occurs.
a. reflection.
b. refraction.
c. absorption.
d. diffraction.
135. When a wave reflects from a hard surface, it may do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. change direction.
b. change shape.
c. change from transverse to longitudinal.
d. bounce back in the same direction.
136. Although a door is only slightly opened, sound will pass from one room to another due mainly to:
a. reflection.
b. refraction.
c. diffraction.
d. absorption.
137. Natural frequency is:
a. what happens when two waves combine to produce one wave of lower amplitude.
b. the frequency at which a system oscillates when it is disturbed.
c. the rate at which vibrations are naturally damped in an oscillator.
d. an oscillator whose frequency is a multiple of another wave.
138. Destructive interference occurs because:
a.
b.
c.
d.
multiple waves combine to make a wave of smaller amplitude.
waves bend around or through holes in an obstacle.
waves are absorbed and disappear.
two waves add up to make a wave of larger amplitude.
139. Which of the following sounds has the shortest wavelength?
a. The rumble of thunder at 75 hertz
b. A bass guitar at 150 hertz
c. A male voice at 500 hertz
d. A female soprano singer at 2,000 hertz
140. Ultrasound is:
a. the speed at which the latest, top-secret jet aircraft fly.
b. used to make internal images of the human body.
c. extremely painful to the human ear.
d. of lower frequency than the human ear can detect.
141. White noise is:
a. an equal mixture of all frequencies of sound.
b. a frequency of sound too low for the human ear to hear.
c. the complete absence of sound.
d. a frequency of sound too high for the human ear to hear.
142. "Dead spots" sometimes occur in a concert hall because:
a. the designer of the building meant for no one to sit there.
b. the frequency of sound waves in that spot is too high for humans to hear.
c. destructive interference causes some of the sound to cancel out with its own
reflections.
d. beat frequencies cause damping of the oscillations.
143. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of the speed of sound waves?
a. Sound waves travel faster in metal than in air.
b. The speed of sound in air is about 343 meters per second.
c. Sound waves are slower than light waves.
d. Sound waves travel faster in outer space than in air.
144. A decibel is a unit used to measure the:
a. pitch of sound.
b. color or complexity of sound.
c. loudness of sound.
d. frequency of a sound.
145. Polly is standing on the bottom of a wide canyon, leaning against its wall. She shouts "hello" toward the
opposite side of the canyon. If the speed of sound is 340 m/sec and Polly hears her own echo 4 seconds
later, how wide is the canyon?
a. 85 meters
b. 340 meters
c. 680 meters
d. 1,360 meters
146. In the diagram, the crest of the wave is shown by:
a. c
b. d
c. b
d. a
147. In the diagram, the wavelength is shown by:
a. c
b. d
c. b
d. a
148. In Figure 7, the amplitude of the wave is shown by:
a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
149. In Figure 7, the trough of the wave is shown by:
a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
150. In Figure 7, the wavelength is shown by:
a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
151. If wavelength is kept constant, which increases as the speed of a wave increases?
a. period
c. amplitude
b. frequency
d. phase
152. Which describes a sound wave?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A sound wave travels in a vacuum.
A sound wave is a longitudinal wave.
A sound wave is an electromagnetic wave.
A sound wave has one constant speed.
153. Which characteristic of sound is associated with frequency?
a. pitch
c. pressure
b. loudness
d. timbre
154. Which term describes a material that does not allow light to be transmitted?
a. translucent
c. polarized
b. transparent
d. opaque
155. Which is formed by divergent rays?
a. virtual image
b. real image
c. focal point
d. object
156. Which is formed by convergent rays?
a. virtual image
b. real image
c. focal point
d. object
157. By definition, which has type of mirror has its edges curved toward the object?
a. plane mirror
c. convex mirror
b. concave mirror
d. spherical mirror
158. The magnitude of a vector is its _____.
a. size
b. velocity
c. direction
d. color
159. Which of the following is a pair of vector quantities?
a. Velocity — Distance
c. Speed — Displacement
b. Speed — Distance
d. Velocity — Displacement
160. What is the speed of an object at rest?
a. 1.0 m/s
b. 0.0 m/s
c. 9.8 m/s
d. 9.81 m/s
161. The final position minus the initial position is the
a. displacement.
c. motion diagram.
b. average velocity.
d. time interval.
162. A student walks from home to school, a distance of 1000 m. Once at school, he realizes he forgot his homework
and walks all the way back home, then back to school. What was the student’s distance walked during this trip?
a. 0 m
c. 1000 m
b. 333 m
d. 3000 m
163. An airplane flies north at a constant speed for 5 hours and covers a distance of 2000 km. What is the
plane’s average velocity?
a. 10,000 km/hr
b. 10,000 km/hr north
c. 400 km/hr
d. 400 km/hr north
164. A racehorse is running with a speed of 20 m/s. What is the time it takes for the horse to cover 400 meters?
a. 2.0 minutes
c. 27.6 hours
b. 20 seconds
d. 0.35 hours
165. The change in an object’s velocity over a time period is called its _____.
a. displacement
c. scalar
b. acceleration
d. velocity
Figure 1:
166. Given Figure 1above-- a graph of velocity vs. time--what does a horizontal line represent?
a. The object is not accelerating.
c. The object is not moving.
b. The object’s acceleration is negative.
d. The object’s acceleration is positive.
Figure 2:
167. In Figure 2: “Position vs Time” above, which segment(s) represent an object at rest?
a. A and C
c. all of the above
b. B and D
d. none of the above
168. In the Figure 2: “Position vs Time” above, which segment(s) represent an object with constant poitive velocity?
a. A and C
d. D only
b. B only
e. all: A, B, C, D
c. B and D
169. Which of the following is NOT an example of accelerated motion?
a. a boulder falling off of a cliff in a straight path
b. an airplane taking off down a straight runway
c. a ball being thrown straight up
d. a bicyclist moving in a straight line at constant speed
170. The acceleration due to Earth’s gravity is:
a. 9.8 m/s2
b. 9.8 ft/s2
c. 9.8 mi/s2
d. 98 m/s2
171. “Free fall” is:
a. an object moves because of gravity alone, when air resistance is negligible.
b. an object moving at terminal velocity.
c. an object moving due to air resistance alone.
172. After a rock that is thrown straight up reaches the top of its path and is starting to fall back down, its acceleration
is (neglecting air resistance) __________.
a. the same as when it was at the top of its path.
b. changing
c. less than when it was at the top of its path.
d. greater than when it was a the top of its path.
173. Someone throws a baseball directly up and catches it in the same spot. At what point in the ball’s path is the ball’s
velocity zero?
a. the instant before it arrives in the catcher’s mitt
b. the instant it leaves the catcher’s hand
c. midway on the way up
d. at the top of its path
174. Which of the following IS an example of projectile motion?
a. a bullet being fired from a gun
c. a jet lifting off of a runway
b. the moon orbiting the Earth
d. a rock falling off of a cliff
175. What is the shape of a projectile’s path?
a. linear
b. parabolic
c. hyperbolic
d. Projectiles don’t follow a predictable path.
176. A cannon shoots a cannonball from the top of a tower. It is fired horizontally at a speed of 100 m/s. After 1 second,
what is the range? (How far has the cannonball traveled in the x-direction?)
a. 10 m
c. 100 m
b. 50 m
d. 500 m
177. A cannon shoots a cannonball from the top of a tower. It is fired horizontally at a speed of 100 m/s. After 1 second,
how far has it fallen? (How far has the cannonball traveled in the y-direction?)
a. 10 m
c. 100 m
b. 50 m
d. 500 m
Figure 3:
178. In Figure 3, which one hits the ground first?
a. Ball A
b. Ball B
c. they hit at the same time.
d. not enough information to tell.
179. In Figure 3, which one has the most potential energy before rolling off the block?
a. Ball A
c. not enough information to tell
b. Ball B
d. they hit at the same time
Figure 4:
180. In Figure 4, which one hits the ground first?
a. A
b. B
c. they hit at the same time.
d. not enough information to tell.
181. In Figure 4, which one will land farther away?
a. A
b. B
c. they land at the same distance away.
d. not enough information to tell.
182. When the air resistance on an object falling through the air equals the force of gravity, the object has reached
a. terminal velocity.
c. terminal acceleration.
b. terminal force.
d. terminal illness.
183. An object that is shot through the air is called a
a. projectile.
c. protractor.
b. proboscis.
d. parabola.
184. Gravity is what type of force?
a. field force
b. normal force
c. contact force
d. frictional force
185. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. force is equal to the mass multiplied by the acceleration.
b. force is directly related to the acceleration.
c. a force produces constant velocity for an object
d. a force produces constant acceleration for an object
186. When an object is in equilibrium, the net force is _____.
a. negative
c. changing
b. positive
d. zero
187. Tension is
a. terminal velocity.
b. free fall.
c. dynamic displacement.
d. the force exerted by a string.
188. The normal force on an object always acts
a. in the same direction as gravity.
b. perpendicular to the surface upon which the object is resting.
c. equal and opposite to the weight of the object.
d. parallel to the surface upon which the object is resting.
Figure 5: A 30 kg box being pulled
by two opposing forces.
9N
7N
189. Figure 5 shows a box pulled by two forces--9.0 N and 7.0 N--in opposite directions. What is the net force on the
box?
a. 2 N to the left
d. 63 N to the left
b. 16 N to the left
e. none of the above
c. 30 N to the left
190. If the box in Figure 5 has a mass of 30.0-kg, what is its acceleration?
a. 0.07 m/s2
d. 15.0 m/s2
2
b. 1.00 m/s
e. none of the above
c. 10.0 m/s2
191. A bird egg falls freely from a nest. Identify ALL the forces at work on the egg.
I. gravity
II. tension
III. air resistance
IV. normal force
a. I. only.
c. I. and III.
b. I. and II.
d. all of these are forces acting on the egg.
192. A hawk has a mass of 1.5 kg. Assuming gravity is 10 m/s2, what is the hawk’s weight force?
a. 1.5 N
d. 15 lbs
b. 1.5 lbs
e. none of these
c. 15 N
193. Momentum can be defined as:
a. mass affected by gravity
b. mass in motion
c. force in motion
d. more mass
194. What is the correct equation for momentum?
p=
a. mc2
b. mv
c. ma
d. mv2
195. Velocity is to acceleration as momentum is to ________________.
a. frequency
c. potential energy
b. gravity
d. impulse
196. An elastic collision is one in which
a. kinetic energy before the collision is less than kinetic energy after the collision.
b. kinetic energy after the collision is zero.
c. kinetic energy before the collision equals kinetic energy after the collision.
d. kinetic energy before the collision is greater than kinetic energy after the collision.
197. If an object’s velocity is to the northwest, its momentum will be to the _____________________.
a. southeast
c. southwest
b. northwest
d. northeast
198. When in a car accident, how can the force on a person’s body be reduced?
a. decrease impact time, decreasing the force b. increase impact time, decreasing the force
199. In case of a car accident, what safety features in the car can reduce the impact force on a person’s body?
a. airbags
c. padded dashboards
b. seatbelts
d. all of the above
200. What is the proper unit for gravitational potential energy?
a. meters
c. newtons
b. joules
d. gravitons
201. Which type of energy is associated with a body’s height above the ground?
a. gravitational potential energy
c. thermal energy
b. elastic potential energy
d. rest energy
202. A 50 kg person walks up a flight of stairs--a displacement of 4 meters. Then the same person runs up a flight of
stairs.In which case did the person do more work?
a. walking up
c. the work was the same for both
b. running up
d. not enough information to tell
203. A 50 kg person walks up a flight of stairs--a displacement of 4 meters. Walking takes 30 seconds. Then the same
person runs up the same flight of stairs in 5 seconds.In which case did the person use more power?
a. walking up
c. the power was the same for both
b. running up
d. not enough information to tell
204. Which is an example of heating through conduction?
a. The sun heats up the inside of a car
b. using a greenhouse to grow plants in winter
c. a ceiling fan pushes warm air downwards in winter
d. touching a hot stove
205. Which is an example of heating through convection?
a. The sun heats up the inside of a car
b. warm air rising toward the ceiling
c. using a greenhouse to grow plants in winter
d. touching a hot stove
206. A grandfather clock keeps time using a pendulum. Which will be true of the clock if the length of the pendulum is
shortened?
a. It will run slow.
c. It will keep the same time.
b. It will run fast.
d. It will depend on the bob’s mass.
207. Transverse waves vibrate ____________________ to the direction the wave travels.
a. parallel
c. in unpredictable patterns
b. perpendicular
d. Nonsense! Transverse waves do not
involve vibrations.
208. Longitudinal waves vibrate ________________ to the direction the wave travels.
a. parallel
c. in unpredictable patterns
b. perpendicular
d. Nonsense! Transverse waves do not
involve vibrations.
209. ____________________ interference occurs when a crest of one wave meets the trough of another wave.
a. No (No interference)
b. Passing
c. Constructive
d. Destructive
(m)
Figure 8: Displacement (m) vs. time (s)
y
3
2
1
t (s)
–1
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9 10 11
–2
–3
210. Figure 8 shows a graph of displacement vs. time for a wave passing a point at a speed of 12 m/s. What is the
frequency of the wave?
a. 0.40 Hz
c. 25 Hz
b. 4.0 Hz
d. 40 Hz
211. Figure 8 shows a graph of displacement vs. time for a wave passing a point at a speed of 12 m/s. What is the
wavelength of the wave? (Remember the formula v =  * f)
a. 3.0 m
c. 30 m
b. 4.8 m
d. 48 m
212. Which describes a sound wave?
a. A sound wave travels in a vacuum.
b. A sound wave is a longitudinal wave.
c. A sound wave is an electromagnetic wave.
d. A sound wave has one constant speed.
213. According to Snell’s law, the angle at which incident light strikes a surface is _________________ the angle at
which it reflects off that surface.
a. greater than
c. the same as
b. less than
d. not related to
214. In which phase of matter would sound travel the fastest? Arrange the states of matter in order--from fastest to
slowest--based on how fast sound would travel through them.
a. gas, solid, liquid
c. gas, liquid, solid
b. solid, gas, liquid
d. solid, liquid, gas
215. Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity?
a. Wet skin
c. Dry air
b. Glass
d. Rubber
216. When two bodies are charged, the total charge before and after charging remains the same because of:
a. quantization of charges
c. law of induction
b. conservation of charges
d. Coulomb’s law
217. Electric forces can be either repulsive or attractive, whereas gravitational force is always:
a. attractive
b. repulsive
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
218. _____charges repel, whereas _____ charges attract.
a. Like, opposite
c. Positive, negative
b. Opposite, like
d. Negative, positive
219. In a series circuit, each circuit element has the same:
a. current
c. capacitance
b. voltage
d. resistance
220. The number of current paths in a series circuit is:
a. one
c. three
b. two
d. four
221. (a) Resistors in series;
(b) resistors in parallel
A 20.0- resistor and a 40.0- resistor are connected in series across a battery (like in figure (a) on the LEFT). If
the current is 2.00 A, what is the voltage of the battery?
a. 30.0 V
c. 80.0 V
b. 60.0 V
d. 1.20  102 V
222. Which device measures the current in a circuit?
a. Ammeter
c. Amplifier
b. Voltmeter
d. Rheostat
223. A/An _____ is described as an automatic switch that acts as a safeguard in an electric current.
a. circuit breaker
c. ground fault interrupter
b. fuse
d. voltage divider
224. A/An _____ is used to measure the voltage drop across a portion of a circuit.
a. ammeter
c. resistor
b. voltmeter
d. battery
225. A/An _____ is described as a piece of metal that acts as a safety device in a circuit which melts and stops the flow
of current.
a. circuit breaker
c. ground fault interrupter
b. fuse
d. short circuit
226. A/An _____ is described as a type of circuit in which there are several current paths.
a. parallel circuit
c. short circuit
b. series circuit
d. voltage divider
227. Which principle states that it is impossible to measure precisely both the position and momentum of a particle at
the same time?
a. Aufbau principle
c. Pauli exclusion principle
b. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
d. Avogadro’s principle
228. Which phenomenon demonstrates the particle nature of light?
a. Diffraction
c. Photoelectric effect
b. Interference
d. Refraction
229. An example of an electromagnetic wave is:
a. light
b. gravity
c. sound
d. strong nuclear force
230. Electromagnetic waves have properties that are _____.
a. particle-like
c. neither a nor b
b. wave-like
d. both a and b
231. The energy of a photon is inversely proportional to its _____
a. frequency
c. wavelength
b. intensity
d. all of the above
2012 final
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
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41.
D
B
B
D
C
D
B
D
A
B
D
D
C
C
A
B
A
B
D
D
D
C
A
D
D
D
B
A
A
D
C
A
B
C
C
B
B
C
C
C
C
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D
B
A
B
B
B
D
C
B
C
A
B
C
B
C
B
C
A
E
A
C
C
B
C
E
B
E
C
C
C
A
E
A
B
D
D
C
C
B
D
E
B
A
B
A
B
B
89.
90.
91.
92.
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133.
134.
A
B
E
C
D
B
D
D
A
B
A
D
E
D
D
E
A
D
E
B
D
A
B
C
A
D
A
D
D
B
A
A
B
A
B
A
A
C
C
B
B
C
C
B
D
B
135.
136.
137.
138.
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177.
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179.
180.
181.
C
A
B
A
D
B
A
C
D
C
C
D
B
A
B
C
B
B
A
D
A
B
B
A
D
B
A
D
D
B
B
A
A
D
D
A
A
B
D
A
B
C
C
C
B
B
A
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
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A
A
A
C
D
D
B
A
A
C
C
B
B
D
C
B
B
D
B
A
C
B
D
B
B
B
A
D
A
C
B
C
D
A
B
A
A
A
A
D
A
A
B
B
A
B
228.
229.
230.
231.
C
A
D
C