Download Module 3 Practice Questions - Bangen Athletic Development

EH 3800: Strength and Conditioning
Module 3 Practice Questions
1. If Bill has a greater density of mitochondria than Steve does, while performing the same aerobic
exercise Bill will likely have
A. Less lactic acid than Steve
B. More lactic acid than Steve
C. About the same amount of lactic acid as Steve
D. Not enough information to answer the question
2. These two pathways make up the oxidative (aerobic) system:
A. Glycolysis and electron transport system
B. Phosphagen and glycolysis
C. Krebs cycle and electron transport system
D. Phosphagen and electron transport system
3. Mary just finished her 1 hour cycling workout. Even though she reduced her speed from 18mph
to 10 mph, her breathing remains elevated. What state would explain this phenomenon?
A. Anaerobic threshold
B. EPOC
C. Lactate threshold
D. Oxygen deficit
4. The process by which glucose is formed from a non-sugar molecule is called
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycogenolysis
5. Gina is a marathon runner. What amount of dietary protein would you recommend for her?
A. 10% of total calories
B. 55% of total calories
C. >1.4 grams for every kilogram of body weight
D. 0.8 to 1.4 grams for every kilogram of body weight
6. When rehydrating athletes, you should have them consume 1 pint (0.5 L) of water for every
A. Two pounds of weight loss
B. Pound of weight loss
C. One half pound of weight loss
D. One third pound of weight loss
7. Tom wants to lose 5 pounds over the next 8 weeks. In order to achieve this goal, he will have to
have a caloric deficit of about this many calories each week
A. 1,100
B. 2,200
C. 3,300
D. 4,400
8. All of the following are antioxidants EXCEPT
A. Beta carotene
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
9. Carbohydrate loading for endurance athletes in the days prior to an important competition
involves which of the following:
A. 1 to 2 days of high-carbohydrate diet matched with a high training volume
B. 1 to 3 days of reduced carbohydrate ingestion matched with high-protein diet and no
change in training volume
C. 3 days of high-protein and high-carbohydrate diet with increased training volume
D. 3 days of high-carbohydrate diet with a reduction in exercise volume
10. The ergogenic aid that has been used illegally and is associated with gynocomastia, elevated
blood lipids and liver tumors is
A. Anabolic steroids
B. Ephedrine
C. Erythropoietin
D. Growth hormone
11. The molecule primarily responsible for providing direct energy for the work of the cell is
A. Adenosine monophosphate
B. Adenosine triphosphate
C. Fat
D. Glucose
12. A chemical reaction in which energy is released is called
A. Androgenic
B. Dynamic
C. Endergonic
D. Exergonic
13. Lactate and hydrogen ions is a by-product of this energy pathway:
A. Electron transport system
B. Krebs cycle
C. Glycolysis
D. Phosphagen
14. The cyctochromes can be found in this energy pathway:
A. Electron transport system
B. Glycolysis
C. Krebs cycle
D. Phosphagen
15. An athlete who wants to gain muscle mass and increase body weight must be in this state to
achieve those goals:
A. Caloric balance
B. Negative caloric balance
C. Positive caloric balance
D. Neutral caloric balance
16. Which of the following is NOT a macronutrient?
A. carbohydrate
B. protein
C. water
D. fats
17. Which of the following is the correct range of protein intake for a strength and power athlete?
A. 0.5-1 g/kg
B. 1-1.5 g/kg
C. 1.5-2 g/kg
D. 2-2.5 g/kg
18. Which of the following foods contains complete proteins?
A. soy beans
B. eggs
C. peanuts
D. cucumbers
19. Which type of carbohydrate is most appropriate for a post-workout meal?
A. high glucose index
B. moderate glucose index
C. low glucose index
D. any carbohydrate
20. How much energy does lipids provide to the body?
A. 3 kcal/gram
B. 4 kcal/gram
C. 7 kcal/gram
D. 9 kcal/gram
21. Which of the following is NOT a reason for athletes to decrease dietary fat?
A. need to increase carbohydrate intake to support training type
B. fat is not a significant source of energy
C. need to reduce total caloric intake to achieve weight loss
D. need to decrease elevated blood cholesterol
22. Which of the following is NOT a function of iron?
A. oxygen transport
B. contributes to bone density
C. constituent of myoglobin
D. utilization of energy
23. How much fluid is needed to replace one pound of weight loss during training or competition?
A. 0.25 L
B. 0.33 L
C. 0.5 L
D. 1 L
24. An athlete wants to gain 0.5 pounds of lean body mass a week for 4 weeks. Approximately how
many extra calories of protein should the athlete eat per DAY to achieve this?
A. 180
B. 360
C. 1250
D. 2500
25. What is the caloric deficit needed to lose 1 pound of fat?
A. 1000
B. 2500
C. 3000
D. 3500
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic energy systems?
A. oxidative system
B. phosphagen system
C. aerobic system
D. glycolytic system
27. Which of the following is the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of ADP and creatine phosphate to
ATP and creatine?
A. ATPase
B. creatine kinase
C. hydrogen
D. isocitrate hydrogenase
28. Which of the following is not a possible path for pyruvate at the end of glycolysis?
A. shuttled into the mitochondria
B. converted to acetyl co-A
C. converted to lactate
D. converted to glucose in the kidney
29. Which of the following term represents an increased reliance on anaerobic energy systems during
exercise?
A. lactate threshold
B. onset of blood lactate accumulation
C. oxygen deficit
D. oxygen debt
30. Which of the following energy systems has the GREATEST production of ATP?
A. phosphagen system
B. aerobic glycolysis
C. oxidation of carbohydrates
D. anaerobic glycolysis
31. Which of the following is the correct amount of time that one should rest to COMPLETELY
resynthesis one’s creatine phosphate stores after a 400 meter sprint?
A. 2 minutes
B. 8 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 12 minutes
32. Which of the following is MOST likely to limit one’s performance during a 100 mile cycling race?
A. lower pH
B. fat stores
C. muscle glycogen
D. creatine phosphate level
33. Which of the following is the definition of “oxygen deficit”
A. a measure of an individual’s ability to take in and use oxygen
B. an increased reliance on anaerobic energy systems
C. the energy needed to return the body to a pre-exercise state
D. the anaerobic energy contribution to exercise
34. Which energy system is the main energy contribution during the last 15 seconds of a 45 second
hockey shift?
A. oxidative system
B. aerobic glycolysis
C. anaerobic glycolysis
D. phosphagen
35. If an individual is performing intervals of running for 5 minutes, how long should their rest period
be?
A. 3 minutes
B. 30 seconds
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes
36. Which of the following is NOT an ergogenic aid?
A. amino acids
B. shoes
C. tendon insertion point
D. testosterone
37. Which of the following government branches determine whether a substance is a drug or a dietary
supplement?
A. CIA
B. FDA
C. FBI
D. FAD
38. Which of the following does NOT describe a dosing method used by anabolic steroid users?
A. pyramid
B. stacking
C. cycling
D. alternating
39. Which of the following athletic characteristics does NOT change as a result of anabolic steroid use?
A. muscle mass
B. VO2 Max
C. strength
D. lean body mass
40. Which of the following is NOT a psychological effect of anabolic steroid use?
A. exhaustion
B. arousal
C. aggression
D. irritability
41. Which aid in athletic performance is the possible ergogenic aid insulin used for?
A. increased aerobic conditioning
B. increased lactic acid buffering capacity
C. increased muscle mass
D. increased speed
42. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of erythropoietin (EPO)?
A. blood clotting
B. increased systolic blood pressure
C. dehydration
D. decreased diastolic blood pressure
43. Creatine supplementation can increase the saturation of creatine phosphate by which of the
following percentages?
A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 5%
44. Which of the following is the performance enhancing capability of caffeine?
A. increased aerobic efficiency
B. increased time to exhaustion
C. increased buffering capacity
D. increased VO2
45. Which of the following is the performance enhancing capability of ephedrine?
A. anaerobic endurance performance
B. muscle mass
C. aerobic endurance performance
D. power
46. Two trained athletes complete a training run. Athlete A performs their run at 90% of their VO2 Max
and athlete B performs their run at 60% of their VO2 Max. Assuming they exercised for the same
amount of time, which athlete would have a larger oxygen deficit and oxygen debt as a result of their
training run?
A. Athlete A
B. Athlete B
C. They would be equal
D. There is not enough information to answer this question
47. Which enzyme is involved in the hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate?
A. creatine kinase
B. isohydrogenase
C. ATPase
D. calcium
48. Which macronutrient has the highest rate of ATP production?
A. carbohydrate
B. protein
C. fat
D. water
49. Which of the following is the primary energy system used during the first ten seconds of a 100 meter
butterfly swimming race?
A. phosphagen
B. aerobic glycolysis
C. anaerobic glycolysis
D. oxidation of protein
50. Which of the following factors affect muscle and liver glycogen repletion?
A. duration of exercise
B. intensity of exercise
C. pre-workout carbohydrate ingestion
D. post-workout carbohydrate ingestion
51. Which of the following would most likely affect Ian Mark’s performance as he competes in an
Ironman Triathalon?
A. lower pH
B. muscle and liver glycogen levels
C. creatine phosphate levels
D. fat stores
52. Which of the following rest periods would be the most appropriate for an athlete practicing their 40
yard dash?
A. 30 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 10 minutes
D.3 minutes
53. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) includes:
A. a nitrogen containing base, a 3 carbon sugar and three phosphate groups
B. a nitrogen containing base, a 5 carbon sugar and three phosphate groups
C. a carbon containing base, a 3 nitrogen sugar and three phosphate groups
D. a nitrogen containing base, a 5 carbon sugar and two phosphate groups
54. Which of the following is an appropriate rest interval for a middle distance runner performing 1 mile
running intervals in 5 minutes?
A. 3 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes
55. The depletion of which of the following fuel sources is MOST likely to contribute to fatigue during a
high intensity resistance training session?
A. free fatty acids
B. creatine phosphate
C. lactic acid
D. protein
56. Which of the following activities places the LEAST metabolic demand on the oxidative energy
system?
A. tennis
B. football
C. basketball
D. 400 meter hurdles
57. Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor that determines which energy system that an athlete
will predominantly rely on?
A. exercise mode
B. exercise intensity
C. exercise duration
D. available energy stores
58. As an athlete maintains exercise at near-maximum intensity, which of the following will accumulate
in the working muscle?
A. creatine phosphate
B. hydrogen ions
C. glucose molecules
D. FADH molecules
59. Which of the following energy systems has the highest amount of ATP production?
A. phosphagen
B. fast glycolysis
C. anaerobic glycolysis
D. aerobic glycolysis
60. The production of lactate and hydrogen ions results from the activation of which energy system?
A. oxidation of fats
B. aerobic glycolysis
C. fast glycolysis
D. phosphagen
61. An athlete would like to improve their lactate threshold, at which intensity is the MOST appropriate
that they train at?
A. 40% VO2 Max
B. 95% VO2 Max
C. 50% VO2 Max
D. 80% VO2 Max
62. Which of the following products can NOT be sold as a dietary supplement?
A. an amino acid complex
B. a vitamin and mineral complex
C. a meal replacement shake
D. a herbal mixture
63. Estimate how many calories a five foot nine, one hundred and forty pound collegiate female
basketball player should consume per day.
A. 2000
B. 2800
C. 3220
D. 2460
64. Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of erythropoietin?
A. blood clotting
B. pulmonary edema
C. increased systolic blood pressure
D. dehydration
65. An athlete that previously weighed 216 pounds before a practice in the hot humid air now weighs
211 pounds. How much water is needed for the athlete to regain the lost body weight?
A. 5 liters
B. 2.5 pints
C. 5 pints
D. 3 liters
66. Which of the following supplements is currently NOT illegal and unethical to use in most sports?
A. anabolic steroids
B. creatine
C. erythropoietin
D. ephedrine
67. Which of the following is NOT a complete protein?
A. kidney beans
B. cheese
C. eggs
D. milk
68. Which of the following does NOT describe a dosing method used by anabolic steroid users?
A. pyramid
B. stacking
C. cycling
D. alternating
69. If an athlete consumes a 3000 calorie diet consisting of 55% carbohydrate, 20% protein and 25% fat,
how much of each macronutrient are they consuming?
A. 412.5 g CHO, 150 g PRO, 187.5 g Fat
B. 412.5 g CHO, 150 g PRO, 83.3 g Fat
C. 750 g CHO, 750 g PRO, 333.3 g Fat
D. 550 g CHO, 200 g PRO, 250 g Fat
70. Which of the following is a documented ADVERSE effect of creatine supplementation?
A. gigantism
B. water weight gain
C. physical addiction
D. gastrointestinal disturbances
71. A 215 pound male athlete would like to gain 2 pounds of muscle in one week. What should his daily
caloric intake be, assuming that his estimated caloric intake will only maintain his weight?
A. 4845 calories per day
B. 9845 calories per day
C. 5559 calories per day
D. 4914 calories per day
72. If an athlete who consumes a 2300 calorie diet ingests 150 grams of protein per day, what
percentage of their daily caloric intake does this represent?
A. 26%
B. 59%
C. 15%
D. 22%
73. During which of the following situations would an athlete MOST likely require food with a high
glycemic index?
A. before a competition
B. everyday
C. two hours after a competition
D. immediately after a competition
74. Performance in which of the following events has been shown to be MOST enhanced by creatine
supplementation?
A. marathon
B. 100m sprint
C. 5km race
D. 10km race
75. Which of the following is foods do NOT contain complete proteins?
A. cheese
B. legumes
C. pork
D. milk
EH 3800: Strength and Conditioning
Module 3 Practice Question Answers
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. C
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. D
21. B
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. C
31. B
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. B
38. D
39. B
40. A
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. B
45. C
46. A
47. C
48. A
49. A
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. B
56. D
57. B
58. B
59. D
60. C
61. D
62. C
63. B
64. B
65. C
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. B
70. D
71. C
72. A
73. D
74. B
75. B