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Test Paper
: II
Test Subject
: EARTH SCIENCES
Test Subject Code :
Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________
OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________
K-3214
Roll No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator/s
Signature: ____________________________________
Name
: ____________________________________
Paper
Subject
Signature : ___________________________________
Name
: ___________________________________
: II
: EARTH SCIENCES
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes
Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8
1.
2.
3.
4.
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example :
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
C
D
5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet kept inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
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liable to disqualification.
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12. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
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K-3214
B
where (C) is the correct response.
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6.
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A
1
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*K1314*
Total Number of Pages : 8
EARTH SCIENCES
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions. Each question carries
two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
4. The upper mantle has
1. The heat that caused melting in the
Earth’s early history was supplied from
which of the following events
(A) Granitic composition
(B) Basic composition
(A) Volcanic activity and radioactivity
(C) Ultramafic composition
(B) Solar heating and volcanic activity
(D) Felsic composition
(C) Large bolide impact and
radioactivity
5. The asthenosphere exists below the
_____________
(D) Large bolide impact and solar
(A) Crust
heating
(B) Lithosphere
2. The process by which an originally
(C) Sial
homogeneous earth developed a dense
(D) Lower mantle
core, mantle and a light crust is called
(A) Metamorphism
6. The approximate density of the earth is
(B) Differentiation
(A) 5.5 g/cc
(C) Metasomatism
(B) 5.8 g/cc
(D) Compression
(C) 5.1 g/cc
(D) 5.2 g/cc
3. Uniformitarianism states
7. Shear zones are normally produced
during
(A) "Everything tends toward stable
equilibrium”
(A) Brittle deformation
(B) "The present is key to the past"
(B) Ductile deformation
(C) "The present is key to the future"
(C) Cooling and contraction of rocks
(D) "Order comes out of chaos"
(D) Sagging of rocks
Paper II
2
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*K1314*
Total Number of Pages : 8
8. If the beds are repeating on the surface,
they could indicate
13. Of the following, the rock that is most
resistant to both chemical and
mechanical weathering is
(A) Columnar jointing in the bed rocks
(B) A thrust faulting of beds
(A) Shale
(C) Intense shear of bed rocks
(B) Limestone
(D) Folding of the beds
(C) Marble
(D) Quartzite
9. The upper shell of the earth up to 100 km
depth is called
14. Low precipitation and high evaporation
rate are characteristic features of the
________________ environment.
(A) Crust
(B) Lithosphere
(C) Biosphere
(A) Lacustrine
(D) Asthenosphere
(B) Fluvial
10. The most abundant sedimentary rock
found in the Earth’s crust is
(C) Desert
(D) Coastal
(A) Shale
(B) Sandstone
15. The sediments that a stream carries along
the bottom of the stream channel
(C) Limestone
(D) Conglomerates and Breccias
(A) Bottom load
(B) Suspended load
11. The majority of crustal rocks composed
of minerals that belong to the family of
(C) Bed load
(A) Silicates
(D) Fine load
(B) Sulfides
(C) Oxides
16. The vertical distance between the trough
point and the summit point of the ripple
is called
(D) Sulfates
12. Mylonite and gouge normally indicate
(A) Ripple length
(A) Intense folding
(B) Ripple height
(B) Faulting
(C) Summit point
(C) Jointing
(D) Toe point
(D) Fracturing
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Paper II
*K1314*
Total Number of Pages : 8
17. Which of the following process does not
occur during diagenesis ?
22. How thick is the crust of the Earth ?
(A) about 4 miles
(A) Compaction
(B) about 4 km
(B) Cementation
(C) about 40 km
(C) Lithification
(D) about 400 km
(D) Metamorphism
23. The Tethys was located between
18. Landform formed due to the action of
running water is called
(A) North America and South America
(A) Desert
(B) North America and Eurasia
(B) Aeolian
(C) Eurasia and Africa
(C) Fluvial
(D) Antarctica and Australia
(D) Lacustrine
24. The most violent volcanoes are referred
to as
19. _____________ is the point on earth
above the focus of an earthquake.
(A) Strombolian type
(A) Epicentre
(B) Vesuvian type
(B) Centre of gravity
(C) Hawaiian type
(C) Focal point
(D) Pelean type
(D) Stress location
25. The layer in which ozone is present is
called
20. The descent of oceanic lithosphere into
the mantle is the process of _________
(A) Accretion
(A) Troposphere
(B) Subduction
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Divergence zone
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Contraction fault
(D) Exosphere
21. Which of the following features is not
associated with a convergent plate
boundary ?
26. The two most predominant green house
gases are
(A) CO and CFC
(A) A mid-ocean ridge
2
(B) An earthquake
(B) CO and CH
(C) A deep-sea trench zone
(C) CO and CO
(D) Volcanic activity
(D) CO and SO
Paper II
2
5
4
2
2
4
2
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*K1314*
Total Number of Pages : 8
31. Excluding the oceans, the largest
reservoir of water in the hydrosphere is
27. A dense mass of water on smoke or dust
particles in the lower atmospheric layers
constitute
(A) Ground water
(B) Lakes and streams
(A) Fog
(C) Atmosphere
(B) Frost
(D) Polar ice
(C) Blizzard
32. Which of the following is not a component
of hydrosphere ?
(D) Mist
(A) Sea ice
28. What fraction of solar radiation arriving
at the top of the atmosphere is absorbed
(B) Tropical rainstorm
at the earth’s surface ?
(C) Soil
(D) Hail
(A) 70%
(B) 50%
33. What do we call an area of land that
receives the runoff ?
(C) 30%
(A) Watershed
(D) 20%
(B) Estuary
(C) Niche
29. Which one of the following is not due to
human influence ?
(D) Water landscape
(A) Greenhouse effect
34. Chloride and salinity of sea water is
expressed in
(B) Deforestation
(A) Grams per ton
(C) Contamination of hydrosphere
(B) Kilogram per ton
(D) Formation of jet streams
(C) Grams per kilograms
(D) Miligrams per gram
30. Ozone layer depletion is related to
(A) Excess carbon dioxide
accumulation in the atmosphere
35. The hydrosphere is the
(A) Continuous shell of water
(B) Higher solar heat radiation
(B) Discontinuous shell of water
(C) Cooling of the earth
(C) Uniform shell of water
(D) Desert storms
(D) Both (A) and (B)
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Paper II
*K1314*
Total Number of Pages : 8
40. Which one of the following deposit is
conspicuously abundant in India ?
36. Lenses of low permeability rocks within
the permeable ones may result in the
formation of
(A) Nickel
(B) Cobalt
(A) an artesian system
(C) Aluminum
(B) a confined aquifer
(D) Platinum
(C) an aquiclude
41. The tin bearing mineral in the following is
(D) a perched water table
(A) Sphalerite
(B) Smithsonite
37. Mesoproterozoic-Neoproterozoic
sedimentary basins in the peninsular
India are known as
(C) Pyrrhotite
(D) Cassiterite
(A) Purana
42. Plateau-like land forms are characteristic
of
(B) Dharwars
(C) Indo-Gangetic plains
(A) Deccan-traps
(D) Siwalik
(B) Peninsular gneiss
(C) Khondalites
38. The southern junction between the Indian
and Eurasian plates in the Himalaya has
been designated as
(D) Alluvial plains
43. The rapid movement of shallow
non-cohesive or loose material down a
steep slope following heavy rainfall is
called
(A) Central Indian Tectonic Zone
(B) Indus Tsangpo Suture Zone
(A) Creep
(C) Main Central Thrust
(B) Debris flow
(D) Tso Morari Crystalline
(C) Flood
(D) Landslide
39. Layered Igneous rocks could be good
sites for the mineralization of
44. What important role do decomposers
play in the ecosystem ?
(A) Gold
(A) Predation
(B) Tungsten
(B) Pollination
(C) Chromite
(C) Nutrient cycling
(D) Diamonds
Paper II
(D) Symbiosis
6
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*K1314*
Total Number of Pages : 8
48. The most important Aviation hazard
during summer season over North
Western India is
45. What is the process that reduces nitrate
(NO3) to gaseous nitrogen (N2) ?
(A) Nitrification
(A) Dust storm
(B) Nitrofixation
(B) Fog
(C) Heavy Rain
(C) Denitrification
(D) Icing
(D) Assimilation
49. Nuclear clocks help in understanding
46. Soil moisture is found in
(A) Age of a metamorphic event
(A) Zone of saturation
(B) Ages of igneous rocks and
metamorphic events
(B) Vadose zone
(C) The organic world
(C) Phreatic zone
(D) Structure and evolution of the earth
(D) Below the water table
50. Soil forming process chiefly involves
(A) Weathering of pre existing igneous
rocks
47. Primary ecological succession may be
observed in
(B) Physical and chemical weathering
of metamorphic rocks
(A) Deep forest
(C) Physical, chemical and biological
weathering of rocks
(B) New volcanic Islands
(D) Biological and chemical
disintegration processes of
fractured rocks
(C) Coastal areas
(D) Delta region
_____________
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Paper II
*K3214*
Total Number of Pages : 8
bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work
Paper II
8
K-3214