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Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
ID: A
Bio Study Guide
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Where does the first contraction of the heartbeat take place?
a. in the ventricles
b. in the atria
c. in the valves
d. in the septum
2. The AV node signals the heart's ventricles to contract, pumping oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle
into the
a. aorta.
b. pulmonary vein.
c. pulmonary artery.
d. atria.
3. Which parts of the circulatory system deliver oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body?
a. the left ventrical and the pulmonary vein
b. the left atrium and the capillaries
c. the atria and the pulmonary artery
d. the left ventrical and the aorta
4. The middle layer of an artery is made of
a. connective tissue.
b. endothelium coated with a protein.
c. smooth muscle and elastic fibers.
d. valves that keep blood moving.
Multiple Choice
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5. Someone who is heterozygous for a recessive allele that causes a disorder
a. is not a carrier of the disorder.
b. will not have the disorder.
c. cannot have offspring with the disorder.
d. will get the disorder late in life.
6. One parent is homozygous for a recessive allele and one parent is heterozygous for a recessive allele in an
autosomal dominant genetic disorder. What is the chance that a child of those two parents will have the
disorder?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
7. The crossing of wild type fruit flies with mutant fruit flies resulted in the conclusion that some
a. traits assort independently.
b. chromosomes are inherited as a group.
c. genes assort independently.
d. traits are inherited as a group.
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Name: ________________________
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ID: A
8. The gene linkage map shown in Figure 7.2 shows the order of genes A, B, and C. Which of the following
statements about the genes is true?
a.
b.
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The map distance between C and A is less than the map distance between B and C.
The actual distance between B and C is greater than the actual distance between C and
A.
c. The map shows the exact locations of genes A, B, and C on the chromosome.
d. Linked inheritance of genes C and A is less probable than linked inheritance of genes B
and C.
How did Hershey and Chase's use of radiolabeled bacteriophages to study the genetic material validate
Avery's research?
a. It demonstrated conclusively that the genetic material is not protein.
b. It showed that bacteriophages are not digested by bacterial enzymes.
c. It proved that bacteria will take up phosphorus, but not sulfur.
d. It confirmed that bacteriophages cannot inject radiolabeled DNA.
Which of the following is the site of DNA replication in eukaryotes?
a. cytoplasm
b. ribosome
c. nucleus
d. vacuole
What does DNA polymerase do during replication?
a. binds nucleotides together and corrects base pair errors
b. transmits messages that are translated into proteins
c. attracts amino acids to the ribosomes for assembly
d. recognizes and points out new origins of replication
How many amino acids are coded for in the following sequence of mRNA nucleotides? Assume the reading
frame begins with the first nucleotide.
CGAUACAGUAGC
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 12
The lac operon is an example of how gene regulation occurs in
a. yeasts.
b. bacteria.
c. humans.
d. eukaryotes.
Which of the following lists the four main principles of the theory of natural selection?
a. adaptation, inheritance of acquired characteristics, overproduction, variation
b. adaptation, inheritance of acquired characteristics, heritability, variation
c. adaptation, descent with modification, heritability, variation
d. adaptation, descent with modification, overproduction, variation
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 15. If two species have similar DNA sequences, it would indicate that they
a. share a common ancestor.
b. are not closely related.
c. will have similar fitness.
d. have no evolutionary relationship.
____ 16. The DNA sequences of whales and ungulates, or hooved animals, are very similar. What type of evidence of
evolution is this?
a. vestigial
b. molecular
c. embryological
d. fossil
____ 17. In a population of foxes, tail length shows a normal distribution. On a graph, this frequency would produce
what kind of curve?
a. shifted right
b. doubled
c. tall and thin
d. bell-shaped
____ 18. Disruptive selection occurs when selective pressures favor phenotypes that are
a. close to the mean.
b. toward one extreme.
c. at both extremes.
d. in a normal distribution.
____ 19. A tsunami has destroyed almost all of the palm trees in an area. This event will most likely lead to
a. gene flow following disruptive selection.
b. microevolution by reproductive isolation.
c. genetic drift through the bottleneck effect.
d. speciation triggered by the founder effect.
____ 20. What occurs when some elephants in a population migrate into another area and join another population?
a. genetic drift
b. microevolution
c. speciation
d. gene flow
____ 21. A river has cut a deep canyon that has separated a population of rodents into two groups. This separation is
an example of what type of isolation?
a. temporal
b. behavioral
c. geographic
d. founder
____ 22. To be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, a population must be
a. very small, have random mating, no gene flow, no mutations, no natural selection.
b. very large, have random mating, high gene flow, many mutations, natural selection.
c. small, have nonrandom mating, no gene flow, many mutations, no natural selection.
d. very large, have random mating, no gene flow, no mutations, no natural selection.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 23. When individuals from two populations of squirrels can no longer successfully mate with one another, the
chance that speciation will occur
a. decreases.
b. becomes zero.
c. stays the same.
d. increases
____ 24. The wings of robins and the wings of dragonflies are examples of
a. divergent adaptation.
b. convergent evolution.
c. adaptive radiation.
d. punctuated equilibrium.
____ 25. A mammoth frozen in ice in Siberia is an example of
a. preserved remains.
b. a trace fossil.
c. an amber-preserved fossil.
d. a natural cast.
____ 26. What is Earth thought to have been like four billion years ago?
a. similar to present-day Earth but covered with glaciers
b. a layered planet, with a well-developed atmosphere
c. tropical, with oceans and an oxygen atmosphere
d. very hot, without continents, oceans, or atmosphere
____ 27. An increase in genetic variation is one advantage of
a. rapid adaptation.
b. prokaryote photosynthesis.
c. endosymbiotic interaction.
d. sexual reproduction.
____ 28. The first multicellular organisms appeared during the
a. Precambrian era.
b. Mesozoic era.
c. Paleozoic era.
d. Cenozoic era.
____ 29. The Mesozoic era was marked by
a. a major adaptive radiation of the reptile group.
b. the development of modern birds and mammals.
c. the movement of life out of water and onto land.
d. an explosion in the number of animal species.
____ 30. What primate group includes both gorillas and humans?
a. prosimians
b. hominids
c. hominoids
d. anthropoids
____ 31. Which of the following statements is true about Homo sapiens?
a. The first fossils appeared 200 million years ago; modern prosimians belong to this
species.
b. The first fossils appeared 10 million years ago; modern gorillas belong to this species.
c. The first fossils appeared 200,000 years ago; modern humans belong to this species.
d. The first fossils appeared 20,000 years ago; modern chimpanzees belong to this species.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 32. Linnaean taxonomy names and classifies organisms based on
a. common ancestry.
b. physical characteristics.
c. mutation rates.
d. ribosomal RNA sequences.
____ 33. Which of the following phrases describes a taxon?
a. a group of organisms in a classification system
b. a group of species that share no derived characters with others in a group
c. a group that can breed and produce offspring
d. a group that is larger than a kingdom or a domain
____ 34. Which of the following contains the most members?
a. genus
b. order
c. family
d. class
____ 35. In the cladogram in Figure 17.1, what represents the common ancestor of all the included species?
a. the line farthest left in section A
b. the line farthest right in section A
c. the lowest node on the cladogram
d. the highest node on the cladogram
____ 36. Which type of molecular clock is used to measure evolutionary time between the most distantly related
organisms?
a. amino acid
b. nuclear DNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. mitochondrial DNA
____ 37. Carl Woese divided the kingdom Monera into Bacteria and Archaea based on his finding that the two groups
a. are unicellular.
b. are prokaryotic.
c. live in different types of environments.
d. have very different rRNA.
____ 38. Which of the following is the most specific taxon shared by the ashy-headed goose, Chloephaga
poliocephala, and the ruddy-headed goose, Chloephaga rubidiceps?
a. kingdom
b. species
c. genus
d. order
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 39. ¿Cuántos nodos aparecen en el cladograma de la Figura 17.1?
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a. tres
b. cuatro
c. cinco
d. seis
¿Qué tipo de reloj molecular se usa para medir el tiempo evolutivo entre los organismos más alejados
evolutivamente?
a. aminoácido
b. ADN nuclear
c. ARN ribosómico
d. ADN mitocondrial
Carl Woese dividió el reino Monera en Bacteria y Archaea al averiguar que ambos grupos
a. eran unicelulares.
b. eran procarióticos.
c. vivían en distintos medios.
d. tenían ARNr muy diferentes.
Los relojes moleculares basados en la comparación de ADN mitocondrial resultan especialmente útiles en la
clasificación de
a. clados.
b. especies muy emparentadas.
c. especies muy distantes.
d. dominios.
Which of the pathogens in Figure 31.1 causes disease that cannot be cured with antibiotics?
a.
b.
c.
d.
fungi
viruses
parasites
bacteria
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 44. Which of the following can be a vector of disease?
a. insects
b. food
c. air
d. soil
____ 45. In Figure 31.2, a sliver has made it past the body's first line of defense, the
____ 46.
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a. capillaries.
b. white blood cells.
c. skin.
d. antibodies.
Which event can result in the birth of fraternal twins?
a. overproduction of eggs and sperm
b. fertilization of two eggs by two sperm
c. penetration of one egg by two sperm
d. attachment of two eggs to the uterus
To allow the fetus to pass through the birth canal, the cervix dilates as a result of
a. regular uterine contractions.
b. detachment of the placenta.
c. head-down fetal positioning.
d. rupture of the amniotic sac.
During which trimester is a fetus most at risk for damage caused by genetic errors?
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. all three
Nutrients and oxygen diffuse from the mother's blood to the chorionic villi in the
a. amnion.
b. placenta.
c. umbilicum.
d. endoderm.
If proteins from a fetus's blood were to enter the mother's bloodstream, the mother's immune system would
a. recognize the proteins as foreign and attack them.
b. ignore the proteins and function in the usual way.
c. accept the proteins as self and disassemble them.
d. identify the proteins as harmless and recycle them.
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