Download topography of the anterior lateral wallof the abdomen

INTRODUCTION TO THE SUBJECT OF SURGICAL TOOLS.
SEPARATION AND CONNECTION OF TISSUES
Choose one correct answer
1. The founder of operative surgery and topographical anatomy is
1) N. I. Pirogov
2) V. N. Shevkunenko
3) P. Kocher
4) S. I. Spasokukotsky
5) A. V. Vishnevsky
2. The founder of the science of extremely forms of variability is
1) N. I. Pirogov
2) V. N. Shevkunenko
3) P. Kocher
4) S. I. Spasokukotsky
5) A. V. Vishnevsky
3. The projection of an organ in the topography-anatomic area is called
1) Skeletotopy
2) Holotopy
3) Sintopy
4) Projection of the organ
4. The localization of an organ with reference to the surrounding organs and tissues is
called
1) Skeletotopy
2) Holotopy
3) Sintopy
4) Projection of the organ
5. The operation that is done immediately according to the vital indications is
1) An urgent one
2) An emergency
3) A planned one
4) A radical one
6. The operation which completely removes the cause of the disease (pathological area)
is
1) The radical
2) The palliative
3) The simultaneous
4) The urgent
7. The operation which is aimed at either making the condition of the patient better or
to eliminate any life-threatening symptoms is
1) The radical
2) The palliative
3) The emergency
4) The one-staged
8. The operation, which while involving a specific surgical intervention allows two or
more interventions concerned with different diseases is the
1) Combined surgery
2) Simultaneous surgery
3) Palliative surgery
4) Two-stage surgery
9. Cutting off of the peripheral part of any organ or an extremity is called
1) Resection
2) Exarticulation
3) Amputation
4) Cutting
10. The ligature needles are tools
1) For the separation of tissues
2) For the connection of tissues
3) For stopping bleeding
4) For special purposes
11. Trusso’s tracheo-dilator is used
1) For separation of tissues
2) For connection of tissues
3) For stopping bleeding
4) For special purposes
12. The needle used for suturing the skin is
1) The pricking needle
2) The cutting needle
3) The atraumatic needle
4) The straight needle
13. Excision of an organ with the conservation of its peripheral part is called
1) Resection
2) Exarticulation
3) Amputation
4) Section
14. Muscles cut across the course of muscle fibers are sewed with knots of
1) Catgut-suture knots
2) P-shaped catgut sutures
3) Knots of silk sutures
4) Continuous catgut sutures
15. The characteristic feature of monofila suture materials is
1) Capillarity
2) Sawing properties
3) Good handling properties/good manipulatory properties
4) Bad handling properties/bad manipulatory properties
5) Durability of the knot
16. Primary dermal sutures are imposed
1) During operation
2) During operation, but is not fasten immediately
3) 2-3 hours after the operation
4) 24-36 hours after the operation
5) After removal of scar tissues
17. The primary delayed skin sutures are imposed
1) During operation
2) During operation, but fastened within 24-36 hours
3) Within 2-3 days
4) Within 6-7 days
5) Within 20-21 days
18. The temporary (provisor) skin sutures are imposed
1) During operation
2) During operation, but fastened within 2-3 hours
3) During operation, but fastened within 24-36 hours
4) Within 24-36 hours after operation
5) After removal of the formed scars within 20-21 days after operation
19. Secondary early skin sutures are imposed
1) During operation, but fastened within 2-3 hours
2) During operation, but fastened within 24-36 hours
3) Within 24-36 hours after operation
4) Within 6-7 days after operation
5) After removal of the formed scars within 20-21 days after operation
20. Secondary late skin sutures are imposed
1) During operation, but fastened within 2-3 hours
2) During operation, but fastened within 24-36 hours
3) Within 24-36 hours after operation
4) Within 6-7 days after operation
5) After removal of the formed scars in 20-21 days after operation
Choose more than one answer
21. To non-invasive methods of studying topographical anatomy are included
1) Dopplerography
2) X-ray-contrast study
3) Computer tomography
4) Ultrasonic study
5) Morphometry
22. Invasive methods of studying topographical anatomy are
1) Dopplerography
2) X-Ray-contrast study
3) Biopsy
4) Computer tomography
5) Puncture
23. To objective (physical) methods of studying topographical anatomy are included
1) Puncture
2) Percussion
3) Auscultation
4) X-Ray
5) Palpation
24. To the methods of studying topographical anatomy on a corpse are included
1) Layer-by-layer preparation
2) Windowed preparation
3) Polychromatic injections
4) Corrosive preparations
5) Cross-section sawing
25. To the group of general-purpose surgical instruments are included
1) For separation of tissues
2) For hemostasis
3) For fixation
4) For accessorial purposes
5) For connection of tissues
26. To the group of instruments for separation of soft tissues belong
1) Scalpel
2) Grooved probe
3) Scissors
4) Kocher’s probe
5) Arc saw
27. To the group of instruments for hemostasis are included
1) Kocher’s forceps
2) Bilroth’s forceps
3) “Mosquito” forceps
4) Deschan’s and Cooper’s ligature needles
5) Suture material
28. To the group of instruments for connection of tissues belongs
1) Gegar’s needle holder
2) Forceps
3) Needles
4) Sutures material
5) Ligature needles
29. To the instruments which are used for ligation of blood vessels along its course
belong
1) Bilroth’s forceps for controlling bleeding
2) Kocher’s forceps for controlling bleeding
3) Deschan’s ligature needle
4) Cooper’s ligature needle
5) Kocher’s probe
30. Characteristic features of poly-filament sutures material are
1) Capillarity
2) Sawing properties
3) Good manipulatory properties
4) Bad manipulatory properties
5) Durability of the knot
31. To suture materials which cause significant inflammatory reactions to the
surrounding tissues belong
1) “Polysorb” sutures material
2) Capron
3) Silk
4) Catgut
5) Vicryl
32. Types of sutures are
1) Primary
2) Primary delayed
3) Secondary early
4) Secondary late
5) Temporary
33. In surgery, the following types of knots are used
1) River-like
2) Sea-like
3) Simple
4) Difficult
5) Surgical
34. According to N. N. Burdenko an indicator of the substantiality of operations is
1) Technical fulfillment
2) Anatomic accessibility
3) Physiological permissiveness
4) Pathogenetic substantiality
35. To temporarily control bleeding from a wound the following methods are used
1) Pressing of the vessel using a swab
2) Imposing of hemostatic forceps
3) Ligation of the blood vessels
4) Electrocoagulation of blood vessels
36. The following methods are used to stop bleeding from a wound
1) Imposing a vascular suture
2) Vessel ligation along its course
3) Tamponed wounds
4) Electrocoagulation of blood vessels
37. The following are local anesthesia
1) Spinal anesthesia
2) Infiltration anesthesia
3) Inhalation anesthesia
4) Compartment anesthesia
38. The following are the surgical sutures based on the technique of imposition
1) The knot
2) The primary
3) The continuous
4) Mattress
39. To the instruments for connecting tissues includes
1) Needle holders
2) Surgical needles
3) Surgical forceps
4) Ligature needles
40. To the instruments for special purposes includes
1) Rotations
2) Intestinal forceps
3) Tracheostomical cannula
4) Surgical scissors
41. Initial surgical treatment (IST) of a wound is made
1) During the early hours after an injury
2) For the purpose of preventing an infection of the injury
3) For the purpose of elimination
4) On non-granulating wound with no signs of pus
II. UPPER EXTREMITY
Choose one correct answer
42. Through the trilateral foramen passes
1) The axillary artery
2) The subscapular artery
3) The thoraco-spinal artery
4) The circumflex scapular artery
43. Through the trilateral foramen report among themselves
1) Deltoid and subclavian areas
2) Subclavian and axillary areas
3) Axillary and scapular areas
4) Scapular and subclavian areas
44. In the middle of the clavicle, the neurovascular fascicle that is projected is
1) Ascending cervical artery and vein
2) Subclavian artery and vein, humeral plexus
3) Axillary artery and vein
4) Transverse cervical nerve and superior thoracic artery
45. In the superficial sub-pectoral space is located the
1) Internal thoracic artery
2) Lateral thoracic artery
3) Upper thoracic artery
4) Thoraco-acromial artery
46. The vein that passes through the sub-pectoral space and flows into the
subclavian vein is
1) The deep cervical vein
2) The internal thoracic vein
3) The anterior intercostal vein
4) The cephalic vein
47. Suspending ligament of an axillary cavity is formed by the
1) Deltoid fascia
2) Axillary fascia
3) Thoraco-pectoral fascia
4) Thoracic fascia
48. For locating the neurovascular fascicle in the axillary cavity reference point is
1) Long head of the biceps
2) Coraco-humeral muscle
3) Triceps
4) Lesser thoracic muscle
49. Most superficially in the axillary cavity is the
1) Median nerve
2) Axillary artery
3) Axillary vein
4) Ulnar nerve
50. The central position in the neurovascular fascicles in the axillary cavity is
occupied by the
1) Median nerve
2) Axillary artery
3) Axillary vein
4) Ulnar nerve
51. In the axillary cavity, anterior to the subscapular artery passes the
1) Median nerve
2) Axillary artery
3) Axillary vein
4) Ulnar nerve
52. From the lateral radix of the brachial plexus branches out
1) Cutaneous nerves of the foreskin
2) Cutaneous nerve of the shoulder
3) Radial nerve
4) Musculocutaneous nerve
53. From the medial radix of the brachial plexus begins the
1) Musculocutaneous nerve
2) Ulnar nerve
3) Radial nerve
4) Median nerve
54. The largest nerve in the axillary cavity is
1) The median
2) The ulnar
3) The radial
4) The musculocutaneous
55. The lateral wall of the quadrilateral foramen is formed by the
1) Anatomic neck of the humeral bone
2) Body of the humeral bone
3) Surgical neck of the humeral bone
4) Head of the humeral bone
56. The medial wall of the quadrilateral foramen is formed by the
1) Subscapular muscle
2) Coracobrachial muscle
3) Long head of the triceps
4) Supraspinal muscle
57. Through the quadrilateral foramen passes
1) The axillary nerve
2) The radial nerve
3) The ulnar nerve
4) The median nerve
58. The main collateral trunk of the axillary artery is
1) The subscapular
2) The superior thoracic
3) The thoraco-acromial
4) The circumflex artery of the scapula
59. The possibility of an injury of the axillary nerve from fracturing of the humor is at
the level of
1) Head of the humeral bone
2) Surgical neck
3) Anatomic neck
4) Greater tubercle of the humeral bone
60. In the sub-deltoid adipose space is located the
1) Radial nerve
2) Subscapular nerve
3) Axillary nerve
4) Thoracodorsal nerve
61. The projection of the articular crevice of the humeral joint on the anterior surface is
1) Middle part of the clavicle
2) Acromion
3) Apex of the coracoid process
4) Deltoid and thoracic sulcus
62. To the capsule of the humeral joint adjoins
1) Radial nerve
2) Axillary nerve
3) Ulnar nerve
4) Median nerve
63. Due to the inflammation of the humeral joint there is a possibility of paralysis of the
1) Lesser pectoral muscle
2) Deltoid muscle
3) Greater pectoral muscle
4) Subscapular muscle
64. In the posterior bed of the brachial there is
1) Subscapular muscle
2) Humeral muscle
3) Triceps
4) Brachioradial muscle
65. The relationship of the median nerve with the humeral artery in the lower thirds of
the brachium is
1) To the inside
2) To the front
3) To the outside
4) To the back
66. Along the internal head of the triceps of the brachium passes
1) Median nerve
2) Radial nerve
3) Ulnar nerve
4) Musculocutaneous nerve
67. Into the thickness of the coraco-brachial muscles passes
1) Median nerve
2) Ulnar nerve
3) Radial nerve
4) Musculocutaneous nerve
68. The upper ulnar collateral artery passé together
1) With the median nerve
2) With the ulnar nerve
3) With the radial nerve
4) With the musculocutaneous nerve
69. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humeral bone often brings upon the damage
of the
1) Median nerve
2) Radial nerve
3) Axillary nerve
4) Ulnar nerve
70. The fracture of the diaphysis of the humeral bone often damages
1) The radial nerve
2) The median nerve
3) The ulnar nerve
4) The axillary nerve
71. The subcutaneous veins of the cubital fossa usually have
1) M-shaped anastomoses
2) N-shaped anastomoses
3) H-shaped anastomoses
4) U-shaped anastomoses
72. The division of the humeral artery into the radial and ulnar arteries in the
cubital fossa usually takes place
1) In the upper angle
2) In the lower angle
3) In the lower angle, 3-5 cm below the internal epicondyle
4) In the lower angle, 5-7 cm below the internal epicondyle
73. The ulnar artery in the forearm passes
1) Under the articulatory muscle of the elbow
2) Under the humeral head of the round pronator
3) Under the ulnar head of the round pronator
4) Under the deep flexor of the fingers
74. The median nerve in the forearm passes
1) Over the articular muscle of the elbow
2) Over the humeral head of the round pronator
3) Over the ulnar head of the round pronator
4) Over the deep flexor of the fingers
75. The anterior branch of the ulnar recurrent artery anastomoses with the
1) Middle collateral artery
2) Upper ulnar collateral artery
3) Lower ulnar collateral artery
4) Recurrent interosseous artery
76. The orientation for incision into the skin while accessing the humeral neurovascular
fascicle in the cubital fossa is
1) Humeral muscle
2) Biceps
3) Tendon of the biceps
4) Round pronator
77. The radial nerve divides into deep and superficial branches at the level of
1) 5-7 cm above the lateral epicondyle
2) The lateral epicondyle
3) 5-7 cm below the lateral epicondyle
4) 3 cm below the lateral epicondyle
78. The deep branch of the radial nerve in the cubital fossa is accompanied by
1) The radial collateral artery
2) The recurrent interosseous artery
3) The radial recurrent artery
4) The middle collateral artery
79. In the canal of the supinator passes
1) Dorsal branch of the ulnar nerve
2) Superficial branch of the ulnar nerve
3) Deep branch of the radial nerve
4) Superficial branch of the radial nerve
80. The ulnar nerve lies superficially under the proper fascia at the level
1) Below the medial epicondyle
2) Of the medial epicondyle
3) Above the medial epicondyle
4) Behind the ulnar process
81. The ulnar nerve adjoins the capsule of the elbow joint at the level
1) Below the medial epicondyle
2) Of the medial epicondyle
3) Above the medial epicondyle
4) Behind the elbow shoot
82. Pirogov’s space is bordered by the following
1) Deep flexor of fingers
2) Long flexor of the thumb
3) Quadratic pronator
4) All of the above
83. Phlegmon of Pirogov’s adipose tissue space can cause inflammation of the synovial
vagina
1) 1 and 2 fingers of the hand
2) 2 and 3 fingers of the hand
3) 1 and 4 fingers of the hand
4) 1 and 5 fingers of the hand
84. The radial neurovascular bunch passes in the upper third of the forearm along the
internal edge of
1) Radial flexor of the wrist
2) Long flexor of the thumb
3) Brachioradial muscle
4) Round pronator
85. The radial artery in the region of the radiocarpal joint passes into the fatty tissue
of the
1) Long flexors of the thumb
2) Radial flexor of the wrist
3) Quadratic pronator
4) Brachioradial muscle
86. In the upper third of the forearm the ulnar nerve passes along the external edge
of the
1) Radial flexor
2) Long palmar muscle
3) Ulnar flexor of the wrist
4) Superficial flexor of the fingers
87. In the upper third of the forearm the ulnar artery is crossed by the
1) Ulnar nerve
2) Median nerve
3) Radial nerve
4) Anterior interosseous nerve
88. The ulnar artery in the lower third of the forearm leaves from under the external
edge of
1) Quadratic pronator
2) Deep flexor of the fingers
3) Ulnar flexor of the wrist
4) Long palmar muscle
89. The deep branch of the radial nerve passes onto the back surface of the forearm
1) Through the supinator canal
2) At the lower edge of the supinator
3) At the upper edge of the supinator
4) All of the above
90. The external orientation for the projection of the cross-shaped ligaments of the
fingers is
1) Transverse folds of the fingers
2) Interdigital folds
3) Palmo-digital folds
4) All of the above
91. The palmar branch of the median nerve can be found at the level of
1) The pisiforme bone
2) Short palmar muscle
3) Tendon of the long palmar muscle
4) Tendon of the superficial flexor of the hand
92. Through the canal of the wrist passes
1) Superficial branch of the radial nerve
2) Deep branch of the radial nerve
3) Median nerve
4) Back branch of the ulnar nerve
93. The contents of the fibrous intermetacarpal canals are
1) The proper palmar digital arteries
2) Common palmar digital arteries
3) Palmar metacarpal arteries
4) Lumbriciform muscles
94. On the palmar surface of the hand is located
1) 1 fascial bed
2) 2 fascial beds
3) 3 fascial beds
4) 4 fascial beds
95. Muscles of the medial fascio-muscular bed of the palm is innervated by the
1) Radial nerve
2) Ulnar nerve
3) Median nerve
4) Common palmar digital nerves
96. In the sub aponeurotical adipose tissue crevice of the median fascial bed of the palm is
located
1) 1 palmar digital nerve
2) 2 palmar digital nerves
3) 3 palmar digital nerves
4) 4 palmar digital nerves
97. The common digital nerves formed on the palm from the median nerve is of the form
1) 1 trunk
2) 2 trunks
3) 3 trunks
4) 4 trunks
98. Palmar interosseous muscles are innervated by the
1) Palmar branch of the ulnar nerve
2) Deep branch of the radial nerve
3) Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
4) Posterior interosseous nerve
99. The deep adipose tissue crevice of the median fascial bed of the palm communicates with
the adipose of the back of the fingers
1) No
2) Not always
3) Never
4) Yes
100.
Orientation for opening the carpal canal is the
1) Semi-lunar bone
2) Triquetral bone
3) Pisiforme bone
4) Styloid process
101.
The radial synovial sac extends to the
1) Base of the metacarpal bones
2) Proximal phalanx
3) Middle phalanx
4) Distal phalanx
102.
When operating on the fingers the anesthesia that is usually used is
1) Infiltrate anesthesia
2) Block anesthesia
3) Compartmental anesthesia
4) Surface (chlorethane) anesthesia
103.
For tendovaginitis of the fingers the incision is done
1) On the palmar surface of the finger
2) On the back surface of the finger
3) On the palmar and lateral surfaces of the finger
4) On the back and lateral surfaces of the finger
104.
The operation of releasing the nerve from the wound is called
1) Neurolysis
2) Neuroraphia
3) Resection of the nerve
4) Transposition of the nerve
105. The first stage of operation of the replantation of an extremity is called
1) Restoration of vessels and nerves
2) Osteosynthesis
3) Primary surgical processing
4) Restoration of muscles
106. Tenotomia is the operation of
1) Sewing together of the tendons
2) Incision of the tendon
3) Releasing of the tendons from the scars tissues
4) Transplantation of the tendons
107. When stitching tendons, the suture commonly used is
1) Karrel’s stitch
2) Bennel’s stitch
3) Morozova’s stitch
4) Donetsky’s stitch
108. When stitching nerves without the use of microsurgical equipment’s the suture
commonly used is
1) Perineural stitch
2) Endoneural stitch
3) Epineural stitch
4) Paraneural stitch
109. The ulnar synovial sac extends to the level of the
1) Base of the metacarpal bones
2) Middle of the metacarpal bones
3) Distal phalanx
4) Middle phalanx
110. The radial and ulnar synovial sacs can communicate with each other at the level of
1) Carpal tunnel
2) Middle third of the forearm
3) Upper third of the forearm
4) Carpo-metacarpal joint
111. «The anatomic snuffbox» is boarded by the tendons of
1) The long muscle that abducts the thumb
2) Short extensor of the thumb
3) Long extensor of the thumb
4) All of the above
112. At the bottom of the «anatomic snuffbox» it is possible to palpate the
1) Semi-lunar bone
2) Scaphoid bone
3) Triquetral bone
4) Capitate bone
113. From the radial side, on the dorsal surface of the hand the radial nerve innervates the
skin of
1) 1,2,3 fingers
2) 2,3,4 fingers
3) 3,4,5 fingers
4) All of the above
114. The osteal orientation used for the definition of the projection of the superficial branch
of the radial nerve is
1) Posterior margin of the radial bone
2) Styloid process of the radial bone
3) Navicular bone
4) Semi-lunar bone
115.
The projection of the radiocarpal joint on the back of the hand in relationship with
the imaginary line connecting the apex of the styloid process is
1) On the line
2) 1 cm above the line
3) 1 cm below the line
4) 2 cm above the line
116.
For exposing the humeral joint an incision is done
1) Over the clavicle
2) In the axillary fossa
3) Along the deltoideopectoral sulcus
4) Over the scapular spine
117.
Usually the elbow joint is punctured
1) At the middle epicondyle
2) Over the olecranon
3) In the center of the antecubital fossa
4) In the middle of the elbow bend
118.
The combined inflammation of the radial and ulnar synovial sacs of the hand is
called
1) Commissural phlegmon
2) Interdigital phlegmon
3) U-shaped phlegmon
4) Synovial phlegmon
119.
The purulent inflammation of all the tissues of the finger is called
1) Panaricium
2) Subcutaneous panaricium
3) Tendoviginitis
4) Pandactylitis
III. LOWER EXTREMITIES
Choose the correct answer
120.
121.
122.
123.
The greater ischiadic foramen is formed by the
1) internal obturator muscle
2) piriform muscle
3) superior gemellus muscle
4) inferior gemellus muscle
The lesser ischiadic foramen is formed by the
1) internal obturator muscle
2) piriform muscle
3) superior gemellus muscle
4) inferior gemellus muscle
The artery that passes through the suprapiriform foramen is the
1) perforating artery
2) obturator artery
3) superior gluteus artery
4) internal pudendal artery
The sciatic nerve passes into the gluteal area through the
1) obturator foramen
2) ischiadic foramen
3) suprapiriform foramen
4) infrapiriform foramen
124. The pudendal nerve passes into the gluteal area through the
1) obturator foramen
2) ischiadic foramen
3) suprapiriform foramen
4) infrapiriform foramen
125. The lateral position in the infrapiriform foramen is taken by the
1) pudendal nerve
2) sciatic nerve
3) internal pudendal artery
4) inferior gluteal artery and vein
126. The medical position in the infrapiriform foramen is taken by the
1) pudendal nerve
2) sciatic nerve
3) internal pudendal artery
4) inferior gluteal artery and vein
127. The medial position in the infrapiriform foramen is taken by
1) pudendal nerve
2) sciatic nerve
3) internal pudendal artery, vein and pudendal nerve
4) inferior gluteal artery and vein
128. To stop bleeding in case of injury to the superior gluteal artery, it is necessary to ligate
the
1) superior gluteal artery
2) common iliac artery
3) internal iliac artery
4) external iliac artery
129. Patient is unable to extend the thigh due to the damage of
1) superior gluteal nerve
2) inferior gluteal nerve
3) posterior cutaneous nerve
4) sciatic nerve
130. Impairment of the flexion of the leg occurs when there is damage of
1) superior gluteal nerve
2) inferior gluteal nerve
3) posterior cutaneous nerve
4) sciatic nerve
131. The femoral triangle is superiorly bounded by the
1) inguinal ligament
2) sartorius muscle
3) long adductor muscle
4) short adductor muscle
132. The femoral triangle is laterally bounded by the
1) inguinal ligament
2) sartorius muscle
3) long adductor muscle
4) short adductor muscle
133. The femoral triangle is medially bounded by the
1) inguinal ligament
2) sartorius muscle
3) long adductor muscle
4) short adductor muscle
134.
Among the elements of the neurovascular fascicle in the femoral triangle, the lateral
position is occupied by
1) femoral artery
2) femoral vein
3) femoral nerve
4) great saphenous vein
135.
Among the elements of the neurovascular fascicle in the femoral triangle, the medial
position is occupied by
1) femoral artery
2) femoral vein
3) femoral nerve
4) great saphenous vein
136.
Among the elements of the neurovascular fascicle in the femoral triangle, the central
position is occupied by
1) femoral artery
2) femoral vein
3) femoral nerve
4) great saphenous vein
137.
The deep ring of the femoral canal in the front is bounded by
1) inguinal ligament
2) pectineal ligament
3) lacunar ligament
4) femoral vein
138.
The deep ring of the femoral canal is bounded from behind by
1) inguinal ligament
2) pectineal ligament
3) lacunar ligament
4) femoral vein
139.
The deep ring of the femoral canal is medially bounded by
1) inguinal ligament
2) pectineal ligament
3) lacunar ligament
4) femoral vein
140.
The deep ring of the femoral canal is laterally bounded by
1) inguinal ligament
2) pectineal ligament
3) lacunar ligament
4) femoral vein
141.
”The death crown” in the area of the deep ring of the femoral canal is formed due to
the abnormal location of the
1) femoral artery
2) obturator artery
3) superficial hypogastric artery
4) inferior epigastric artery
142.
The opening of the outlet of the obturator canal is covered by
1) sartorius muscle
2) pectineal muscle
3) gracilis muscle
4) semitendinosus muscle
143. Medial location among the elements of the neurovascular fascicle of the obturator canal
is occupied by
1) artery
2) vein
3) nerve
4) all of the above
144. The deep artery of the thigh, branches away from the femoral artery at the level of
1) 1-6 cm below the inguinal ligament
2) 7-8 cm below the inguinal ligament
3) 9-10 cm below the inguinal ligament
4) 10-15 cm below the inguinal ligament
145. The adductor canal in the front is bounded by the
1) great adductor muscle (m. adductor magnus)
2) medial venter of the quadriceps muscle (m. vastus medialis)
3) sartorius muscle
4) aponeurotic plate (lamina vasto adductoria)
146. The adductor canal from the behind is bounded by
1) great adductor muscle (m. adductor magnus)
2) medial venter of the quadriceps muscle (m. vastus medialis)
3) sartorius muscle
4) aponeurotic plate (lamina vasto adductoria)
147. The adductor canal from above is bounded by
1) great adductor muscle (m. adductor magnus)
2) medial venter of the quadriceps muscle (m. vastus medialis)
3) sartorius muscle
4) aponeurotic plate (lamina vastoadductoria)
148. Through the upper opening of the adductor canal passes
1) femoral artery and vein
2) femoral artery and vein, and saphenous vein
3) saphenous nerve
4) sciatic nerve
149. From the anterior opening of the adductor canal leaves
1) femoral artery and vein
2) femoral artery and vein, and saphenous vein
3) saphenous nerve and artery, and descending vein of the knee
4) descending vein and artery of the knee
150. From the inferior opening of the adductor canal leaves
1) femoral artery and vein
2) femoral artery and vein, and saphenous vein
3) saphenous nerve and artery, and descending vein of the knee
4) descending vein and artery of the knee
151. The adductor canal from above is covered by the
1) gracilis muscle
2) semitendinosus muscle
3) sartorius muscle
4) long adductor muscle
152. Cellulose of the posterior fascial bed of the thigh, communicates with the cellular tissue
space of the gluteal area, along the course of
1) femoral artery
2) femoral vein
3) femoral nerve
4) sciatic nerve
153.
Cellulose of the posterior fascial bed of the thigh, communicates with the cellular
tissue space of the popliteal, along the course of
1) femoral artery
2) femoral vein
3) femoral nerve
4) sciatic nerve
154.
The sciatic nerve in the posterior fascial bed of the thigh lies superficially at the level
of
1) middle third of thigh
2) upper third of thigh
3) lower third of thigh
4) all of the above
155.
Among the elements of the popliteal neurovascular fascicle, the more superficial one
is
1) popliteal artery
2) popliteal vein
3) tibial nerve
4) peroneal nerve
156.
Among the elements of the popliteal neurovascular fascicle, the one that lies closer
to the femur is
1) popliteal artery
2) popliteal vein
3) tibial nerve
4) peroneal nerve
157.
Among the elements of the popliteal neurovascular fascicle, the one that adjoins the
inner margin of bicep muscle of thigh is
1) popliteal artery
2) popliteal vein
3) tibial nerve
4) common peroneal nerve
158.
Fracture of the supracondyle of the thigh often damages
1) popliteal artery
2) popliteal vein
3) tibial nerve
4) common peroneal nerve
159.
The sciatic nerve often branches
1) at a distance of 7-9 cm from the line of the knee joint
2) at a distance of 10-12 cm from the line of the knee joint
3) at a distance of 13-14 cm from the line of the knee joint
4) at a distance of 14-15 cm from the line of the knee joint
160.
The nerve that lies in the anterior bed of the leg is
1) tibial nerve
2) common peroneal nerve
3) superficial peroneal nerve
4) deep peroneal nerve
161.
The nerve that lies in the lateral fascial bed of the leg is
1) tibial nerve
2) common peroneal nerve
3) superficial peroneal nerve
4) deep peroneal nerve
162.
The nerve that lies in the posterior fascial bed of the leg is
1) tibial nerve
2) common peroneal nerve
3) superficial peroneal nerve
4) deep peroneal nerve
163. The cruropopliteal canal in the front is bounded by the
1) soleus muscle
2) posterior tibial muscle
3) gastrocnemius (suralis) muscle
4) long flexor of the first finger
164. The cruropopliteal canal is bounded from behind by the
1) soleus muscle
2) posterior tibial muscle
3) gastrocnemius (suralis) muscle
4) long flexor of the first finger
165. In the musculoperoneus canal (canalis musculoperoneus superior) passes
1) tibial nerve
2) peroneal artery
3) superficial peroneal nerve
4) deep peroneal nerve
166. The vessels that are located in the anterior fascial bed of the leg are
1) peroneal artery and vein
2) anterior tibial artery and vein
3) posterior tibial artery and vein
4) popliteal artery and vein
167. The vessels that are located in the posterior fascial bed of the leg are
1) peroneal artery and vein
2) anterior tibial artery and vein
3) posterior tibial artery and vein
4) popliteal artery and vein
168. The vessels that are located in the lateral fascial bed of the leg are
1) peroneal artery and vein
2) anterior tibial artery and vein
3) posterior tibial artery and vein
4) popliteal artery and vein
169. The leg consists of
1) 2 fascial beds
2) 3 fascial beds
3) 4 fascial beds
4) 5 fascial beds
170. In the region of the medial ankle bone, pulse can be determined on the
1) peroneal artery
2) anterior tibial artery
3) posterior tibial artery
4) dorsal artery of the foot
171. On the dorsal surface of the foot, pulse can be determined on
1) peroneal artery
2) anterior tibial artery
3) posterior tibial artery
4) dorsal artery of the foot
172. The dorsal artery of the foot passes under the tendon of
1) long extensor muscles of fingers
2) long extensor muscle of first finger
3) long peroneal muscle
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
4) short peroneal muscle
Extension of the foot is damaged due to the injury of
1) tibial nerve
2) common peroneal nerve
3) superficial peroneal nerve
4) deep peroneal nerve
Flexion of the foot is damaged due to the injury to the
1) tibial nerve
2) common peroneal nerve
3) superficial peroneal nerve
4) deep peroneal nerve
The pronation of the foot is disturbed due to the injury of
1) tibial nerve
2) common peroneal nerve
3) superficial peroneal nerve
4) deep peroneal nerve
The tibial nerve gets branched
1) above the medial ankle bone
2) at the level of the medal ankle bone
3) below the medial ankle bone
4) laterally to the medial ankle bone
The foot has
1) 2 fascial beds
2) 3 fascial beds
3) 4 fascial beds
4) 5 fascial beds
Resection of the joint is
1) removable of the joint completely
2) removal of a part of the joint
3) joint immobilization
4) restoration of mobility of the joint
Arthrodesis is the process of
1) removable of the joint completely
2) removal of a part of the joint
3) joint immobilization
4) restoration of mobility of the joint
Arthrorisis is the process of
1) restriction of mobility of joint
2) removal of a part of the joint
3) joint immobilization
4) restoration of mobility of the joint
Arthroplasty is the process of
1) joint transplantation
2) removal of a part of the joint
3) joint immobilization
4) restoration of the mobility of the joint
Orientation for the knee joint puncture is
1) medial epicondyle of the thigh
2) lateral epicondyle of the thigh
3) patella
4) head of the fibula
Operation of opening of the joint is called as
1) puncture
2) synovectomy
3) arthrotomy
4) joint resection
184. Endoprotesis of a joint is the process of
1) joint replacement with an allograft
2) joint replacement with an autograft
3) replacement of the artificial joint
4) replacement with an synovial joint
185. The sewing technique according to Karrel’s vascular stitch is
1) П shaped suture
2) Z shaped suture
3) “blanket” type
4) interrupted suture
186. A properly imposed vascular stitch should provide
1) tightness
2) atraumatic
3) contacted intima
4) interrupted suture
187. For imposition of a vascular stitch, the needle most often used is
1) pricking
2) cutting
3) atraumatic
4) all of the above
188. Operation of the removal of veins is called
1) resection
2) enucleation
3) phleboectomy
4) devascularization
189. X-ray endovascular surgery can be used to carry out
1) resection of vessel
2) embolization
3) removal of vessel
4) all of the above
190. For the “By Pass” surgery of the vessels
1) venous allograft is used
2) venous autograft is used
3) vascular exgraft (artificial limb) is used
4) all of the above
191. When performing vascular stitches according to Karrel, the sutures are
1) 1 stitch-handle
2) 2 stitch-handles
3) 3 stitch-handles
4) 4 stitch-handles
192. Osteotomy is the technique of
1) bone resection
2) bone section
3) removal of a part of a bone
4) all of the above
193. The operation performed in the case of chronic osteomyelitis is
1) bone resection
2) bone section
3) sequestrectomy
4) all of the above
194.
Amputation is
1) bone removal
2) removal of proximal part of an extremity
3) removal of distal part of an extremity
4) removal of the entire extremity
195.
Exarticulation is
1) joint removal
2) joint resection
3) plastic of joint
4) removal of an extremity at the joint level
196.
The method of amputation of an extremity as per Pirogov is
1) guillotine
2) 3 momented conic-circular
3) aperiosteal
4) transperiosteal
197.
The drills for skeletal extension of the foot can be inserted through
1) malleolus
2) talus bone
3) heel bone
4) navicular bone
198.
The drills for skeletal extension of the leg can be inserted through
1) malleolus
2) talus bone
3) heel bone
4) navicular bone
199.
While performing periosteal osteosynthesis, skeletal fragments can be fixed with the
help of
1) pin CYTO
2) Kaplan-Antonova plates
3) G.A. Ilizarov’s device
4) screws
200.
While performing intraosteal osteosynthesis, skeletal fragments can be fixed with
the help of
1) pin CYTO
2) Kaplan-Antonova plates
3) G.A. Ilizarov’s device
4) screws
201.
While performing transosteal osteosynthesis, skeletal fragments can be fixed with
the help of
1) pin CYTO
2) Kaplan-Antonova plates
3) G.A. Ilizarov’s device
4) screws
202.
The bone sawline usually used while amputating an extremity is
1) periosteal
2) aperiosteal
3) subperiosteal
4) osteoplasty
203.
The drill used for the skeletal extension of the thigh can be inserted through the
1) neck of femur
2) diaphysis of femur
3) lesser trochanter of femur
4) greater trochanter of femur
204. The drill used for the skeletal extension of the upper extremity can be inserted through
the
1) tubercle of the humeral bone
2) styloid process
3) diaphysis of humeral bone
4) ulnar process
205. The method of amputation suggested by Pirogov is
1) myoplasty
2) osteoplasty
3) fascio-plasty
4) tendoplasty
HEAD
206.
The main vessels and nerves in the fronto-parieto-occipital region
passes
1) Under the periosteum
2) Over the aponeurosis
3) Under the aponeurosis
4) All the above
207. Anatomical landmark for the detection of the facial canal is
1) Mastoid angle of the parietal bone
2) External acoustic opening
3) Suprameatal spine of the zygomatic process
4) Coronoid process of the mandible
208. Anatomical landmark for the detection of the sigmoid sinus is
1) Mastoid incisure (notch)
2) Mastoid tuberosity
3) Styloid process
4) Nuchal line
209. The projection of the supraorbital neurovascular fascicle is
1) Border of the internal and middle one-thirds of the supraorbital margin
2) Border of the middle and external one-thirds of the supraorbital margin
3) Internal one-third of the supraorbital margin
4) Middle one-third of the supraorbital margin
210. Anatomical landmark for the detection of the frontal neurovascular fascicle is
1) Glabella
2) Supraorbital incisures (notch)
3) Frontal incisures
4) Lacrimal fossa
211. The projection of the mastoid venous
1) In the Сhipault’s triangle
2) On the styloid process
3) On the zygomatic process
4) On the posterior part of the mastoid process
212. Arteries of the soft coverings of the fornix of the cranium have
1) Axial direction
2) Radial direction
3) Mixed direction
4) Transverse direction
213. The 4th layer of the soft covering of the fornix of cranium is called
1) Aponeurosis
2) Periosteum
3) Subaponeurosis fat tissue
4) Subperiosteal fat tissue
214. Soft coverings of the fornix of the cranium can be easily separated from the cranium
due the presence of
1) Aponeurosis
2) Periosteum
3) Subaponeurotic fat tissue
4) Subperiosteal fat tissue
215. Nasal veins have anastomoses with
1) Superior Sagittal sinus of the dura mater of the brain
2) Inferior sagittal sinus of the dura mater of the brain
3) Cavernous sinus of the dura mater of the brain
4) Rectal sinus of the dura mater of the brain
216. The anterior cranial fossa and the middle cranial fossa are divided by
1) The lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
2) The greater wing of the sphenoid bone
3) Turkish saddle
4) Temporal pyramid
217. The ophthalmic vein passes through the
1) The superior orbital fissure
2) Inferior orbital fissure
3) Round foramen
4) Optic canal
218. The ophthalmic vein passes through the
1) The superior orbital fissure
2) Inferior orbital fissure
3) Round foramen
4) Optic canal
219. The maxillary nerve passes through the
1) Superior orbital fissure
2) Inferior orbital fissure
3) Round foramen
4) Optic Canal
220. The mandibular nerve passes through
1) Oval foramen
2) Inferior orbital foramen
3) Round foramen
4) Optic canal
221. The middle meningeal artery passes through the
1) Superior orbital fissure
2) Inferior orbital fissure
3) Round foramen
4) Spinal foramen
222. In the superior part of the cerebral falx is located
1) Sigmoid sinus
2) Superior sagittal sinus
3) Cavernous sinus
4) Straight sinus
223. Blood from the ophthalmic vein passes into the
1) Sinus drain
2) Sigmoid sinus
3) Inferior petrodollars sinus
4) Cavernous sinus
224. The vein that form anastomoses with the cavernous sinus through the emissary
veins is the
1. Deep facial vein
2. Pterygoid venous plexus
3. Angular vein
4. Deep temporal vein
225. Through the cavernous sinus of the dura mater of the brain passes the
1. Internal carotid artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Medial cerebral artery
4. Posterior cerebral
226. Through the cavernous sinus of the dura mater of the brain passes the
1. Olfactory nerve
2. Oculomotorius nerve
3. Trochlear nerve
4. Abducent nerve
227. The Subaponeurotic fat tissue of the temporal region passes down into the
1) Masticatory-mandibular cellular space
1. Mandibular-pterygoid cellular space
2) Interpterygoid cellular space
3) Parapharyngeal Cellular space
228. According to Krönlein’s scheme, on the internal surface of the temporal and the
sphenoid bone the projection observed is the
1) Posterior meningeal artery
2) Medial meningeal artery
3) Anterior meningeal artery
4) Deep temporal artery
229. The temporal region communicates with orbital cavity through the
1) Superior orbital fissure
2) Inferior orbital fissure
3) zygomatic temporal foramen
4) Frontal foramen
230. The mastoid process has numerous well expressed cells at
1) Sclerotic structural forms
2) Spongioid structural forms
3) Pneumospongy structural forms
4) Pneumatic structural form
231. On the anterior inferior quadrant of the mastoid process . . . . . projection is
observed
1) Mastoid Antrum
2) Facial canal
3) Posterior cranial fossa
4) Sigmoid sinus
232. On the posterior-superior quadrant of the mastoid process…….. projection is
observed
1) Mastoid Antrum
2) Facial canal
3) Posterior cranial fossa
4) Sigmoid sinus
233. On the posterior-inferior quadrant of the mastoid process…….. projection is
observed.
1) Mastoid Antrum
2) Facial canal
3) Posterior cranial fossa
4) Sigmoid sinus
234. On the antero-superior quadrant of the mastoid process ………. projection is
observed.
1) Mastoid Antrum
2) Facial canal
3) Posterior cranial fossa
4) Sigmoid sinus
235. Chipault's triangle is bordered/ limited on the anterior by the
1) Posterior margin of the external acoustic meats
2) Mastoid crest
3) Suprameatal spine of the temporal bone
4) Mastoid incisure
236. Chipault's triangle is bordered/limited superiorly by
1) Posterior margin of external acoustic meatus
2) Mastoid crest
3) Suprameatal spine of the temporal bone
4) Mastoid incisure
237. Chipault's triangle is bordered/limited posteriorly by the
1) The posterior margin of the external acoustic meatus
2) Mastoid crest
3) Suprameatal spine of the temporal bone
4) Mastoid incisures
238. The mastoid Antrum is ……….deep
1) 0,5 cm
2) 1cm
3) 1,5cm
4) 2cm
239. Epidural hematoma occurs when the…………is damaged
1) The anterior cerebral artery
2) Medial meningeal artery
3) Posterior cerebral artery
4) Anterior communicative artery
240. The layers of soft covering of the calvarium is called
1) Subcutaneus
2) Periosteum
3) Subaponeurotic cellular tissue
4) Epicranial aponeurosis
241. The 5th layer of the integuments of calvarium is called
1) Subcutaneous
2) Periosteum
3) Subaponeurotic cellular tissue
4) Epicranial aponeurosis
242. The 6th layer of the soft covering of the calvarium is called
1) Subperiosteal
2) Periosteum
3) Subaponeurotic cellular tissue
4) Epicranial aponeurosis
243. Hematoma located between the skull and the dura mater of the brain
1) Intracerebral hematoma
2) Subarachnoid Hematoma
3) Epidural Hematoma
4) Subdural Hematoma
244. Hematoma located between the dura mater of the brain arachnoid of the brain is
called
1) Intracerebral Hematoma
2) Subarachnoid Hematoma
3) Epidural Hematoma
4) Subdural Hematoma
245. Hematoma located between the arachnoid of the brain and pia mater of the brain is
called
1) Intracerebral Hematoma
2) Subarachnoid Hematoma
3) Epidural Hematoma
4) Subdural Hematoma
246. Between the arachnoid of the brain and pia mater of the brain is located the
1) Subarachnoidal space
2) Subdural space
3) Epidural space
4) Vascular space
247. Between the skull and the dura mater of the brain is located the
1) Subarachnoid space
2) Subdural space
3) Epidural space
4) Vascular space
248. Between the arachnoid of the brain and the dura mater is located the
1) Subarachnoid space
2) Subdural space
3) Epidural space
4) Vascular space
249. The extracranial hematoma does not have the tendency to spread, if it located in the
1) Supraponeurotic space
2) Subaponeuric space
3) Subperiosteal space
4) Epidural space
250. The extracranial hematoma spreads over the entire fornix of the skull if the
Hematoma is located in the
1) Supraaponeurotic space
2) Subaponeurotic space
3) Subperiosteal space
4) Epidural space
251. The extracranial hematoma spreads along the surface of the skull, if is located in the
1) Supraaponeurotic space
2) Subaponeurotic space
3) Subperiosteal space
4) Epidural space
252. Diploic veins pass
1) In the subcutaneous fat
2) Under the aponeurosis
3) Inside the bones
4) In the cavity of the skull
253. The cavernous sinus is located in the
1) Middle cranial fossa
2) Anterior cranial fossa
3) Posterior cranial fossa
4) All of the above
254. The vagus nerve passes through the
1) Spinous foramen
2) Jugular foramen
3) Oval foramen
4) Occipital foramen
255. Liquor circulates through the
1) Epidural space
2) Subdural space
3) Subarachnoid space
4) In all the spaces
256. Sinus of the dura mater of the brain are connected with the subcutaneous veins
through
1) Cerebral veins
2) Emissary vein
3) Diploid veins
4) All the listed veins
257. The veins on the space, that connect the facial nerve with the plexus are located in
the
1) Wing of the nose
2) Angle of the mouth
3) Anterior margin of the masticatory muscle
4) Middle of the zygomatic arch
258. The corpus adipose deposition of the cheek has fascial capsule
1) Yes
2) No
3) Partially
4) Not always
259. To the orbital process of the corpus adipose deposition of the cheek adjoins
1) Superior orbital fissure
2) Inferior orbital fissure
3) Canine fossa
4) Maxillary tuber
260. The fascial bed for the parotid gland is formed by the
1) Buccal fascia
2) Masseteric fascia
3) Temporal fascia
4) Lateral sphenoidal fascia
261. The fascial nerve in the parotid gland is located
1) Above the gland
2) Through its depth
3) Below the gland
4) Behind the gland
262. The auriculotemporal nerve in the parotid gland is located
1) Above the gland
2) Through its depth
3) Below the gland
4) Behind the gland
263. Through the depth of the parotid gland passes the
1) External carotid artery
2) Fascial artery
3) Internal carotid artery
4) Ophthalmic artery
264. Through the depth of the parotid gland passes the
1) Deep fascial vein
2) Fascial vein
3) Retromandibular vein
4) Deep temporal vein
265. The width of the facial skeleton is defined by the
1) Upper jaw
2) Lower jaw
3) Zygomatic bone
4) Frontal bone
266. The corpus adipose deposition of the cheek is located on the front border of the
1) Orbicular muscle of the eye
2) Buccal muscle
3) Masticatory muscle
4) Orbicular muscle of the mouth
267. The facial nerve leaves the cranial cavity through the
1) Stylomastoid foramen
2) Round foramen
3) Spinal foramen
4) Oval foramen
268. The pus formed due to purulent parotites leaks in
1) Buccal region
2) Parapharyngeal space
3) Temporal area
4) Orbit
269. Thrombus formation due to the furuncles of the nasal wings is observed in
1) The sigmoid sinus
2) The superior sagittal sinus
3) The cavernous sinus
4) Straight sinus
270. The facial vein is connected to the ophthalmic vein through
1) Deep facial vein
2) Frontal vein
3) Veins of the nose
4) Angular vein
271. Paralysis of the mimic muscles is observed due to damages to the
1) Trigeminal nerve
2) Facial nerve
3) Infraorbital nerve
4) Mandibular nerve
272. On making incisions on the face it is necessary to consider the projection of the
branches of
1) Trigeminal nerve
2) Facial nerve
3) Infraorbital nerve
4) Mandibular nerve
273. While making incisions on the face it is necessary to consider the projection of the
1) Trigeminal nerve
2) Transverse facial nerve
3) Excretory duct of the parotid gland
4) Zygomaticoorbital artery
274. Incisions according to Voyno Yansenitsky’s in the case of purulent parotitis is done
1) Parallel of the zygomatic arch
2) Parallel to the mandibular of the angle
3) Parallel to the tragus of the ear
4) Parallel to the auricle
275. Pharyngeal process of the parotid gland is adjoining the
1) Medial pterygoid muscle
2) Lateral pterygoid muscle
3) Styloglossus muscle
4) Stylopharyngeal muscle
276. The masticato- mandibulary adipose space communicates with the
1) Subcutaneous fat
2) Subaponeurotic fat
3) Interaponeurotic adipose
4) Musculoskeletal adipose
277. In the temporo-sphenoidal adipose space is located the
1) Superficial temporal artery
2) Deep temporal artery
3) Maxillary artery
4) Deep fascial artery
278. The sphenoid venous plexus is located in the
1) Parapharyngeal adipose space
2) Temporo-pterygoideal adipose space
3) Interpterygoideal adipose space
4) All of the above
279. The mandibular nerve is located In the
1) Parapharyngeal adipose space
2) Temporo-pterygoideal adipose space
3) Interpterygoideal adipose space
4) All of the above
280. The lingual nerve is located in the
1) Parapharyngeal adipose space
2) Temporo-sphenoidal adipose space
3) Interpterygoidal adipose space
4) All of the above
281. The inferior alveolar nerve is located in the
1) Parapharyngeal adipose space
2) Temporo-sphenoidal adipose space
3) Interpterygoidal adipose space
4) All of the above
282. Which canal is found in the pterygopalatine fossa?
1) Incisive foramen
2) Lesser palatal canal
3) Greater palatal canal
4) The alveolar canal
283. Into the pterygopalatine fossa enters the
1) Maxillary nerve
2) Mandibular nerve
3) Trochlear nerve
4) Facial nerve
284. The anterior part of the parapharyngeal space of the deep areas of the face passes
the
1) Superior laryngeal artery, superior laryngeal vein and superior laryngeal nerve
2) Ascending pharyngeal artery
3) Lingual artery
4) Descending pharyngeal artery and descending pharyngeal nerve
285. The internal carotid artery passes in
1) Anterior compartment of the parapharyngeal space
2) Temporo-sphenoidal adipose space
3) Inter sphenoidal space
4) Posterior compartment of the parapharyngeal space
286. The direction of the incision while carrying out the primary operation of the
dressing of the wound of the cranial fornix must be
1) Cross-sectional
2) Radial
3) Slanting
4) Has no importance
287. The arresting bleeding from the soft covers of the fornix of the skull can be carried
out by
1) Ligation of the vessels at a distance
2) Pressing the soft tissues to the bone
3) Irrigation using hemostatic substance
4) All of the above
288. Arresting of the bleeding of diploe veins can be carried on
1) Ligation
2) Imposing forceps
3) Special paste
4) All of the above
289. Cranial trepan action operation is
1) Cranial opening
2) Plastic of the bones of the skull
3) Imposition of milling cutter holes
4) All of the above
290. Cranioplasty is
1) Cranial opening
2) Plastic of bones of a skull
3) Imposition of milling of cutter holes
4) All of the above
291. The osteoplastic technique of cranial trepanation is
1) A section of soft tissues
2) Imposition of milling cutter holes
3) Filling of defected areas of the skull using extracted bones
4) All of the above
292. Decompressed cranial trepanation provides
1) A section of soft tissues
2) Imposition of milling cutter holes
3) Removal of bone flap
4) All of the above
293. One of the resection technique of cranial trepanation is
1) Wagner-wolf’s method
2) Olivecron’s method
3) Cushing’s method
4) All of the above
294. The basis of the soft tissue flap during cranial trepanation must be directed
1) Forward
2) Downward
3) Upward
4) Backward
295. In the case suppurative mastoiditis operation is carried out
1) Antromastoidotomy
2) Antrotomy
3) Mastoidotomy
4) All of the above
296. During the trepanation of the mastoid process , outside the anterior border of the
Chipault's triangle there can be possible damage to
1) Sigmoid sinus
2) Internal carotid artery
3) Facial nerve
4) Middle cranial fossa
297. Duration the trepanation of the mastoid process, outside the posterior border
Chipault's triangle , there can be possible damage to
1) Sigmoid sinus
2) Internal carotid artery
3) Facial nerve
4) Middle cranial fossa
298. During the trepanation of the mastoid process, outside the superior border of the
Chipault's triangle there can be possible damages to the
1) Sigmoid sinus
2) Internal carotid artery
3) Facial nerve
4) Middle cranial fossa
299. During the trepanation of the mastoid process the reference point used for
orientation is the
1) Posterior border of the external acoustic meatus
2) Suprameatal spine
3) Mastoid crest
4) All of the above
300. During the primary surgical dressing of the penetration cranio-cerebral wounds,
the brain detritus is removed using
1) Surgical forceps
2) Folkman’s spoon
3) Rubber syringe and physiologic saline
4) The surgeon’s finger
301. Craniotomy is the
1) Opening of the cranium
2) Plastic of the skull bones
3) Imposition of milling cutter holes
4) All of the above
302. The indicator for carrying out de compressive craniotomy is
1) Brain tumor
2) Intracranial hematoma
3) Increase of intracranial pressure
4) All of the above
303. While making the incision in the parotid region, it is possible to damage
1) Facial nerve
2) Maxillary nerve
3) Mandibular nerve
4) Trigeminal nerve
304. In the region of the parotid gland incision must be done
1) Transversely
2) Radially
3) Longitudinal
4) Slant wise
305. Incision according to Voyno-yaseretsky’s in the case of purulent parotitis is done
1) Transversely
2) Radially
3) Longitudinal
4) Along the angle of the mandible
NECK
306.
Superficial veins of the neck are related with the fascial leaves as they
are
1) fixed to the fascia of neck
2) not fixed to the fascia of neck
3) are free
4) partially fixed to the fascia of neck
307.
A. carotid communis can be pressed
1) to the 3rd processus transversus of vertebrae cervicalis
2) to the 4th processus transversus of vertebrae cervicalis
3) to the 5th processus transversus of vertebrae cervicalis
4) to the 6th processus transversus of vertebrae cervicalis
308.
Subclavian vessels and plexus brachialis are projected
1) on the medial third of clavicle
2) on the lateral third of clavicle
3) on the middle third of clavicle
4) on the border between the lateral and middle thirds of clavicle
309.
The first step during the stoppage of bleeding from the veins of the neck
is to compress
1) the distal end of the vein
2) the central end of the vein
3) both ends
4) doesn’t matter
310.
Sympathetic trunk in neck is located
rd
1) under the 3 fascia of the neck
2) under the parietal leaf of 4th fascia of the neck
3) under the visceral leaf of the 4th fascia of the neck
4) under the 5th fascia of the neck
311.
For m. sternocleidomastoideus and trapezius of the neck, the motor nerve is
1) n. hypoglossus
2) n. accessories
3) n. vagus
4) n. facialis
312.
In the submandibular triangle of the neck passes
1) superior laryngeal artery and vein
2) facial artery and vein
3) superior thyroidal arteries and veins
4) all of the above
313.
Through the pre-scalene space of the neck passes
1) accessory nerve
2) phrenic nerve
3) hypoglossal nerve
4) lingual nerve
314.
Thyroid capsule is formed by
rd
1) the 3 fascia of neck
2) the parietal leaf of 4th fascia of the neck
3) the visceral leaf of the 4th fascia of the neck
4) the 5th fascia of the neck
315.
Suprasternal inter-aponeurosis cellulose space of the neck is located
nd
1) between 2 and 3rd fascia of the neck
2) between 3rd and parietal leaf of 4th fascia of the neck
3) between parietal and visceral leaves of 4th fascia of the neck
4) between visceral leaf of 4th and 5th fascia of neck
316.
The lower border of the larynx is located at the level of
1) 3rd cervical vertebra
2) 4th cervical vertebra
3) 5th cervical vertebra
4) 6th cervical vertebra
317.
The top pleura is projected
1) at a distance of 1-2 cm from the medial third of the clavicle
2) at a distance of 2-3 cm from the medial third of the clavicle
3) at a distance of 3-5 cm from the medial third of the clavicle
4) at a distance of 4-6 cm from the medial third of the clavicle
318.
Carotid triangle of the neck is inferiorly and internally bounded by
1) omohyoideus muscle
2) anterior venter of digastric muscle
3) sternocleidomastoideus muscle
4) posterior venter of digastric muscle
319.
Submandibular triangle of the neck is bounded superiorly by
1) omohyoideus muscle
2) anterior venter of digastric muscle
3) lower margin of the mandible
4) posterior venter of digastric muscle
320.
In the omo-trapezoid triangle of the neck is located
1) hypoglossal nerve
2) accessory nerve
3) vagus nerve
4) glossopharyngeal nerve
321.
The brachial plexus of the nerve is projected on the
1) carotid triangle of the neck
2) submandibular triangle of the neck
3) omoclavicular triangle of the neck
4) omotrapezoid triangle of the neck
322.
Laterally, on the upper part of the trachea lies
1) common carotid artery
2) jugular vein
3) the lateral lobes of thyroid gland
4) m. sternocleidomastoideus
323.
Submandibular triangle of the neck is inferiorly and anteriorly
bounded by
1) the digastric muscle
2) the anterior venter of digastric muscle
3) the lower margin of the mandible
4) the posterior venter of the digastric muscle
324.
Pirogov’s triangle is bounded superiorly by
1) the tendons of digastric muscle
2) hypoglossal nerve
3) m. sternocleidomastoideus
4) the margin of mandible
325.
Common carotid artery is located
1) medially to the internal jugular vein
2) laterally to the internal jugular vein
3) anteriorly to the internal jugular vein
4) posteriorly to the internal jugular vein
326.
Deep lymphatic nodes of the neck are located
1) along the common carotid artery
2) along the internal carotid artery
3) along the vagus nerve
4) along the internal jugular vein
327.
In the submandibular triangle passes
1) hypoglossal nerve
2) accessory nerve
3) vagus nerve
4) facial nerve
328.
Phrenic nerve in the neck is located
1) on the m. sternocleidomastoideus
2) on the trapezoid muscle
3) on the anterior scalene muscle
4) on the omohyoideus muscle
329.
In the neck the subclavian artery is projected
1) on the carotid triangle of the neck
2) on the submandibular triangle of the neck
3) on the omoclavicular triangle of the neck
4) on the omotrapezoid triangle of the neck
330.
In the lower part of pre-scalene space in neck lies
1) subclavian vein
2) inferior thyroid vein
3) lingual vein
4) external jugular vein
331.
The distal end of the cervical trachea is located
1) at the level of cricoid cartilage
2) at the level on the upper margin of clavicle
3) at the level on the incisura jugularis of the sternum
4) at the level of manubrium of sternum
332.
The distal end of the cervical esophagus is projected
1) at the level of cricoid cartilage
2) at the level on the upper margin of clavicle
3) at the level on the incisura jugularis of the sternum
4) at the level of manubrium of sternum
333.
While performing the lower tracheostomy, the isthmus of thyroid gland is
1) moved downwards
2) moved upwards
3) left in its place
4) cut off
334.
After completing resection of thyroid gland, the cause of development of
tetany is
1) damage of vagus nerve
2) damage of recurrent laryngeal nerve
3) removal of most part of thyroid gland
4) removal of parathyroid gland
335.
During the resection of thyroid gland, the damage to the veins of neck may
lead to
1) hoarseness
2) asphyxia
3) bleeding
4) air embolism
336.
Incision for the exposure of esophagus in neck, with respect to m.
sternocleidomastoideus is performed
1) on its frontal border to the left
2) on its frontal border to the right
3) on its posterior border to the left
4) on its posterior border to the right
337.
In 12% cases when performing lower tracheostomy in the pretracheal space,
the possible damage may be on
1) superior thyroid artery
2) inferior thyroid artery
3) the most inferiorly thyroid artery (a.thyroidea ima)
4) common carotid artery
338.
Cervical vago-sympathetic blockade, with respect to the m.
sternocleidomastoideus is performed
1) laterally
2) medially
3) along the anterior margin
4) along the posterior margin
339.
While performing cervical vago-sympathetic blockade, novocaine is injected
nd
1) between 2 and 3rd fascia of neck
2) between 2nd and 5th fascia of neck
3) between 4th and 5th fascia of neck
4) between 3rd and 5th fascia of neck
340.
While performing cervical vago-sympathetic blockade, m.
sternocleidomastoideus is moved
1) upwards
2) downwards
3) medially
4) laterally
341.
While performing cervical vago-sympathetic blockade m.
sternocleidomastoideus is moved away along with
1) thyroid gland
2) oesophagus
3) medial neurovascular fascicle of the neck
4) larynx
342.
Along the external surface of m. sternocleidomastoideus in the obliqueupward direction is crossed by
1) internal jugular vein
2) facial vein
3) external carotid artery
4) external jugular vein
343.
When phlegmon is located in the vagina of medial neurovascular
fascicle of neck, the direction of incision should be
1) from the chin to the hyoid bone
2) along the anterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
3) parallel to the margin of mandible
4) along the posterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
344.
Fascial case for the subclavian neurovascular fascicle is formed by
1) 3rd fascia of neck
2) parietal leaf of 4th fascia of neck
3) visceral leaf of 4th fascia of neck
4) 5th fascia of neck
345.
Pre-visceral cellulose space of neck lies
1) in between 2nd and 3rd fascia of neck
2) in between 3rd and parietal leaf of 4th fascia of neck
3) in between parietal and visceral leaves of 4th fascia of neck
4) in between visceral leaves of 4th and 5th fascia of neck
346.
Parathyroid glands are located
1) on the posterior surface of the lateral lobes of thyroid gland
2) on the anterior surface of the lateral lobes of thyroid gland
3) on the lateral surface of the lateral lobes of thyroid gland
4) above the isthmus of thyroid gland
347.
Pharynx begins from the level of
1) 1st cervical vertebra
2) the base of the skull
3) 2nd cervical vertebra
4) hyoid bone
348.
The flexure of oesophagus in cervix is directed
1) to the front
2) to the left
3) to the back
4) to the right
349.
On the left trachea-oesophageal sulcus in neck lies
1) superior thyroid artery
2) parathyroid glands
3) recurrent laryngeal nerve
4) common carotid artery
350.
The exit of branches of cervical plexus is projected
1) along the posterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus, to its lower third
2) along the posterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus, to its middle third
3) along the posterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus, to its upper third
4) to the border between upper and middle thirds
351.
Carotid triangle of neck is externally bounded by
1) omohyoideus muscle
2) anterior venter of digastric muscle
3) m. sternocleidomastoideus
4) posterior venter of digastric muscle
352.
In neck, Pirogov’s triangle is located
1) in the carotid triangle of neck
2) in the lateral triangle of neck
3) in the sub mental triangle of neck
4) in the submandibular triangle of neck
353.
Internal jugular vein is located
1) medially to the common carotid artery
2) laterally to the common carotid artery
3) in front of common carotid artery
4) behind common carotid artery
354.
Sino-carotid reflex genic zone is located
1) on the external carotid artery
2) on the bifurcation of common carotid artery
3) on the internal carotid artery
4) on common carotid artery
355.
Superior thyroid artery in neck is branched out from
1) external carotid artery
2) internal carotid artery
3) common carotid artery
4) all above
356.
Pre-vertebral cellulose space of neck is located behind the
1) 2nd fascia of neck
2) 3rd fascia of neck
3) 4th fascia of neck
4) 5th fascia of neck
357.
Case for the common carotid artery, vagus nerve and internal jugular vein is
formed by
1) 3rd fascia of neck
2) parietal leaf of 4th fascia of neck
3) visceral leaf of 4th fascia of neck
4) 5th fascia of neck
358.
Thoracic duct in the neck flows into
1) the right venous angle of Pirogov
2) the left venous angle of Pirogov
3) the subclavian artery
4) the vertebral artery
359.
Retro-visceral cellulose spaces lies in between
1) 2nd and 3rd fascia of neck
2) 3rd and parietal leaf of 4th fascia of neck
3) parietal and visceral leaf of 4th fascia of neck
4) visceral leaves of 4th and 5th fascia of neck
360.
On the posterior surface of trachea in neck lies
1) vertebra
2) esophagus
3) common carotid artery
4) jugular veins
361.
In transverse direction along the external surface of m.
sternocleidomastoideus crosses
1) accessory nerve
2) transverse nerve of neck
3) external jugular vein
4) anterior supraclavicular veins
362.
When the phlegmon is located in the submandibular triangle, the
direction of incision must be
1) from chin to the hyoid bone
2) along the anterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
3) parallel to the margin of mandible
4) along the posterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
363.
While performing tracheostomy if mistakenly we cut the posterior wall,
then it may damage
1) vertebra
2) common carotid artery
3) esophagus
4) recurrent thyroid nerve
364.
While performing subtotal resection of thyroid gland, we may damage
1) vagus nerve
2) superior laryngeal nerve
3) recurrent laryngeal nerve
4) thyroid nerve
365.
After performing a tracheostomy, subcutaneous emphysema can
develop
1) if there is cut in the posterior wall of trachea
2) if the cut in the trachea is smaller than the diameter of tracheal cannula
3) if the cut in the trachea is bigger than the diameter of tracheal cannula
4) if hemostasis isn’t executed properly
366.
For the exposure of esophagus in the neck, the incision is done
1) from hyoid bone to the incisura jugularis of sternum
2) along the anterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
3) from chin to the cricoid cartilage
4) in the form of collar shape
367.
The incision for the exposure of common carotid artery in the neck is
done
1) from chin to hyoid bone
2) along the anterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
3) parallel to the margin of mandible
4) along the posterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
368.
While performing lower tracheostomy, trachea is accessed through
1) pre-visceral and retro-visceral cellulose space
2) suprasternal inter-aponeurosis and pre-visceral cellulose space
3) suprasternal inter-aponeurosis and retro-visceral cellulose space
4) all of the above
369.
Air embolism can occur in suprasternal inter-aponeurosis space if
damage occurs to
1) unpaired thyroid venous plexus
2) jugular venous arch
3) internal jugular vein
4) external jugular vein
370.
The author of the most popular method of subtotal resection of thyroid gland
is
1) Pirogov
2) Kocher
3) Bilroth’s
4) Nikolaev
371.
During subtotal resection of thyroid gland, the vessels are ligated
1) at a distance
2) subfascially
3) subtotally
4) all of the above
372.
Carotid triangle of neck is bounded above by
1) omohyoid muscle
2) anterior venter of digastric muscle
3) m. sternocleidomastoideus
4) posterior venter of digastric muscle
373.
Through the Pirogov’s triangle in neck passes
1) common carotid artery
2) lingual arteries
3) hypoglossal nerve
4) vagus nerve
374.
Vagus nerve in neck is located
1) in front of common carotid artery
2) medially to common carotid artery
3) outside the internal jugular vein
4) between common carotid artery and internal jugular vein
375.
Anza cervicalis is located
1) outside the external carotid artery
2) outside the upper thyroid artery
3) outside the internal carotid artery
4) outside the common carotid artery
376.
Fascial bed for the submandibular salivary gland is formed by
st
1) 1 fascia of neck
2) 2nd fascia of neck
3) 3rd fascia of neck
4) 4th fascia of neck
377.
Pus may spread into mediastinum
1) from retro-visceral cellulose space of neck
2) from pre-visceral cellulose space of neck
3) from cellulose space of main neurovascular fascicle
4) all of the above
378.
Linea alba of the neck is formed
1) at the place of adhesion of 1st and 2nd fascia of neck
2) at the place of adhesion of 2nd and 3rd fascia of neck
3) at the place of adhesion of 3rd and parietal leaf of 4th fascia of neck
4) at the place of adhesion of parietal and visceral leaves of 4th fascia of neck
379.
Cellulose space of lateral triangle of neck is located in between
nd
rd
1) 2 and 3 fascia of neck
2) 2nd and 4th fascia of neck
3) 2nd and 5th fascia of neck
4) 4th and 5th fascia of neck
380.
The incision for the exposure of external carotid artery in neck, is done
1) from chin to the hyoid bone
2) along the anterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
3) parallel to the margin of mandible
4) along the posterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
381.
While performing upper tracheostomy, in order to access trachea, the
internal reference is
1) incisura jugularis of sternum
2) anterior margin of m. sternocleidomastoideus
3) medial neurovascular fascicle of neck
4) linea alba of neck
382.
In children, the common tracheostomy performed is
1) upper tracheostomy
2) lower tracheostomy
3) middle tracheostomy
4) all of the above
383.
While performing tracheostomy, if tracheal mucosa isn’t cut, then may
occur
1) bleeding
2) air embolism
3) the entering of cannula in sub-mucosal layer
4) subcutaneous emphysema
384.
Cervical vago-sympathetic blockade is done in order to
1) prevent haemorrhagic shock
2) prevent anaphylactic shock
3) prevent pleuro-pulmonary shock
4) prevent combined shock
385.
Which part of the thyroid gland is removed while performing subtotal
strumectomy
1) large part of thyroid gland
2) small part of thyroid gland
3) isthmus of thyroid gland
4) the whole gland
THORAX
386.
Which of the following determines the lower border of parietal pleura
on mid-axillary line?
1) VII Rib
2) IX Rib
3) X Rib
4) XII Rib
387.
The lower border of the lungs on the front of the axillary line is formed
by
1) lower side of the V Rib
2) lower side of the VI Rib
3) lower side of the VII Rib
4) lower side of the VIII Rib
388.
How are the elements of hilum of the lung positioned in the frontal
plane?
1) artery, bronchus, vein
2) bronchus, vein, artery
3) bronchus, artery, vein
4) vein, artery, bronchus
389.
Puncture of the pleura due to accumulation of air in the pleural cavity for a
patient on vertical position is performed
1) On the mediaclavicular line
2) between the mid-axillary line and the scapular
3) on the anterior axillary line
4) on the mid-axillary line
390.
Capsule of the mammary glands is formed by
1) superficial fascia
2) deep thoracic fascia
3) subcutaneous fat
4) pectoralis major muscle
391.
Which of the following determines the lower border of parietal pleura on the
middle clavicular line
1) The VI rib
2) The IX rib
3) The X rib
4) The XII rib
392.
The lower border of the right lung on the parasternal line is determined by
1) The V rib
2) The VI rib
3) The VII rib
4) The VIII rib
393.
The borders of the lungs and the borders of the pleura are the same at
1) Front and lower
2) Lower and the back
3) Front and back
4) The front and upper
394.
The lower border of the lungs on the paravertebral line is determined by
1) At the V rib
2) At the XI rib
3) XII rib
4) X rib
395.
How are the elements of the hilum of the left lung positioned on the frontal
plane
1) Artery, bronchus, vein
2) Bronchus, vein, artery
3) Bronchus, artery, vein
4) Vein, artery, bronchus
396.
Puncture of the pleura due to accumulation air in the pleural cavity for a
patient standing on vertical position is performed
1) On the 1-2 intercostal space
2) 4-5 intercostal space
3) 2-3 intercostal space
4) 5-6 intercostal space
397.
The largest pericardial sinus is the
1) Transverse sinus
2) The oblique sinus
3) Anterior-inferior sinus
4) Vertical sinus
398.
Excretory ducts of the mammary glands have got
1)
2)
3)
4)
Transverse direction
Radial direction
Longitudinal direction
Oblique transverse direction
399.
In the intercostal space, what is located nearer to the rib?
1) Intercostal artery
2) Intercostal vein
3) Intercostal nerve
4) All of the above
400.
The front border of the left parietal pleura at the level of the sternum is
determined
1) By medial line
2) By sternal line
3) By parasternal line
4) By the mediaclavicular line
401.
The cupola of the pleura in front is projected
1) 1cm above the clavicle
2) At the level of the clavicle
3) 2-3cm above the clavicle
4) 1cm below the clavicle
402.
Name the types of the sternotomy
1) Oblique and longitudinal
2) The longitudinal and transverse
3) Partial and total
4) Transverse and oblique
403.
Along the sides of the sternum lies
1) Parasternal line
2) Sternal line
3) Anterior medial line
4) Mediaclavicular line
404.
The Zorgius lymphatic node is located on
1) The 2nd rib
2) The 3rd rib
3) The 4th rib
4) The 5th rib
405.
Most of the front surface of the heart consist of
1) Left and right ventricles
2) Right atrium
3) Right and left atrium
4) Left and right auricle
406.
Intercostal nerves pass closer to the endothoracic fascia and pleura
1) On the back portion of the intercostal space
2) On the front portion of the intercostal space
3) On the middle portion of the intercostal space
4) On the front and back portions of the intercostal space
407.
The front border of the right parietal pleura at the level of the sternum
is defined
1) At the medial line
2) At the sternal line
3) At the parasternal line
4) At the mediaclavicular line
408.
Amongst the weakest part of the diaphragm belongs
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
Crus of the diaphragm
The bed of the pericardium
Lumbocostal triangles (Bochdaleck)
The top of the diaphragm
409.
The lower of the parietal pleura middle axillar line
The VII rib
The IX rib
The X rib
The XII rib
410.
Puncture of the pleura due to the collection of fluids in the pleural cavity is
done
At the 6-7 intercostal space
At the 7-8 intercostal space
At the 8-9 intercostal space
5-6 intercostal space
411.
The maximum depth of the costo-phrenic sinus is
2-6 cm
3-8 cm
4-10 cm
5-12cm
412.
The lower border of the right lung on the sternal line is lies at
The V rib
The VI rib
The VII rib
The VIII rib
413.
The lower border of the lungs on the scapula line lies at
The level of the V rib
The level of the XI rib
The level of the XII rib
The level of the X rib
414.
Where does the lower border of the heart projects?
At the V cartilage rib
At the level of the III cartilage rib
At the level of the of the IV cartilage rib
All of the above
415.
The angle of the scapula is
On the upper side of the 6th rib
On the upper side of the 7th rib
On the upper side of the 8th rib
On the upper side of the 9th rib
416.
The main route for the lymph from the mammary glands is the
Subclavian
Supraclavicular
Transsternal
Axillary
417.
Deep intercostal vessels and nerves at the level of the intercostal space are
located in
Intrathoracic fascia
The parietal pleura
Parapleural space
Intercostal muscles
418.
Diaphragmatic hernia can penetrate into the posterior mediastinum through
1)
2)
3)
4)
The oesophageal opening
The aortic opening
Lumbocostal triangles (Bochdaleck )
The opening of the inferior vena cava
419.
The lower border of the lungs on the mid-axillary line is determined at
1) The V rib
2) The XI rib
3) The VIII rib
4) The X rib
420.
Puncture of the pleura due to collection of the fluid in the pleural cavity
is done
1) On the medioclavicular line
2) Between the mid-axillary line and the scapula
3) On the anterior axillary line
4) On the mid-axillary line
421.
The lower border of the parietal pleura is defined by the scapular line
at the level
1) The VII rib
2) IX rib
3) The XI rib
4) The XII rib
422.
The biggest pleural sinus is the
1) Costophrenic sinus
2) Costo-mediastinal sinus
3) Diaphragmatic-mediastinal sinus
4) Vertebra-phrenic sinus
423.
During the stitching of the penetrating wounds on the thoracic cavity ,
first stitches
1) Pleura
2) Endothoracic fascia
3) Intercostal muscle
4) All of the above
424.
The upper border of the projection of the heart is determined
1) The level of the II rib cartilage
2) The level of the III rib cartilage
3) The level of the IV rib cartilage
4) All of the above
425.
During the resection of the lung, which part is removed?
1) The lobe of the lung
2) Segment of the lung
3) Few lobes or segments
4) All of the above
426.
On the right of the thoracic aorta lies
1) Sympathetic trunk
2) Oesophagus
3) The trachea
4) Azygos vein
427.
Which operation is performed on the mammary glands during breast
cancer
1) The sectoral resection
2) Mastectomy
3) Removal of the lymph nodes
4) Puncture
428.
The 2nd constriction of the oesophagus is
1) At the level as it goes into the diaphragm
2) At the level of the bifurcation of the trachea
3) At the junction of the pharynx and the oesophagus
4) At the level of the aortic arch
429.
Which of the following operations is performed during mitral stenosis?
1) Resection of the valve
2) Commissurotomy
3) A heart transplant
4) All of the above
430.
The costal arch is formed by
1) 7-10 rib cartilages
2) 6-9 rib cartilages
3) 8-11 rib cartilages
4) 7-12 rib cartilages
431.
On the upper edge of the breast( mammary gland) lies
1) The 2nd rib
2) The 3rd rib
3) The 4th rib
4) The 5th rib
432.
What lies on the lower part of the intercostal space?
1) Intercostal artery
2) Intercostal vein
3) Intercostal nerve
4) All of the above
433.
Which of the following lies lateral to azygos and hemiazygos veins?
1) Sympathetic trunk
2) The thoracic duct
3) Aorta
4) Oesophagus
434.
The 3rd constriction of the oesophagus is located at
1) At the level of the aortic arch
2) At the diaphragm
3) At the bifurcation of the trachea
4) At the site of entrance of the pharynx into the oesophagus
435.
The surgery used in the reconstruction of the oesophagus is called
1) Resection
2) Oesophagoplasty
3) Extirpation
4) Gastrostomy
436.
Phrenic nerve in the mediastinum passes together with
1) With intercostal vessels
2) With pericardial-diaphragmatic vessels
3) With pulmonary vessels
4) With diaphragmatic vessels
437.
Universal access to the heart is
1) Front
2) Side
3) Back
4) Sternotomy
438.
Batall’s duct connects
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
Descending aorta and inferior vena cava
The aortic arch and the pulmonary trunk
The superior and inferior vena cava
The ascending aorta and the superior vena cava
439.
From the aortic arch (in an anatomical order) first leaves
Left subclavian artery
Left common carotid artery
Brachiocephalic trunk
Coronary artery
440.
Pulmonary trunk in relation to the ascending aorta is located
On the front and left
On the front and on the right
On the left and back
The back and right
441.
In the left atrium connects
Pulmonary veins
Pulmonary artery
Coronary vein
The superior and inferior vena cava
442.
Which operation is performed in ischemic heart disease?
Heart transplant
Coronary artery bypass grafting
Prosthetic valve
Mammaro-coronary anastomosis
443.
Which radical operation is performed in oesophageal cancer?
Resection
Oesophagoplasty
Extirpation
Gastrostomy
444.
Coronary artery leaves from
The descending aorta
The ascending aorta
The aortic arch
All of the above
445.
The first heart transplant was performed by
N.I. Pirogov
B.V. Petrovsky
K. Barnard
A.N. Bakulev
446.
Operation Bleloka with tetralogy of Fallot evolves anastomosis
Pulmonary trunk and aortic arch
Between the left subclavian and the left pulmonary artery
The aorta and the pulmonary trunk
The descending aorta and the left pulmonary artery
447.
Oesophagus at the level of the IV thoracic vertebra is located
Left
Right
The front
The middle
448.
Anatomical feature of the right bronchus in comparison with the left
Short and narrow
Wide and short
3) Long and wide
4) Long and narrow
449.
Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
1) The left anterior intraventricular sulcus
2) Posterior intraventricular sulcus
3) Intraatrial sulcus
4) Coronal sulcus
450.
The first constriction of the oesophagus is located
1) At the level of aortic arch
2) At the level of diaphragm
3) At the level of the bifurcation of trachea
4) At the site of entrance of the pharynx into the oesophagus
451.
In relation to the hilum of the lungs the phrenic nerve is located
1) In front
2) At the back
3) Medial
4) Lateral
TOPOGRAPHY OF THE ANTERIOR LATERAL WALLOF THE ABDOMEN
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
452.
The anterior lateral borders of the abdominal wall from the sides is detected
by the line that :
1) connects the ends of the X-th ribs to the iliac crest
2) connects the ends of the IX ribs to the iliac crest
3) connects the ends of the XI ribs to the iliac crest
4) connects the ends of the VIII ribs to the iliac crest.
453.
A large portion of the right lobe of the liver projects in the:
epigastric region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
left subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right lateral region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
454.
Fundus of the stomach projects on the :
epigastric region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
left subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right lateral region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
455.
Gallbladder projects on the :
epigastric region of the anterio-lateral wall of abdomen
left subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right lateral region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
456.
Pyloric region of the stomach projects on the :
epigastric region of the anterio-lateral wall of abdomen
left subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right lateral region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
457.
The pancreas projects on the:
epigastric region of the anterio-lateral wall of abdomen
left subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
right lateral region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
458.
Spleen projects on the:
1) epigastric region of the anterio-lateral wall of abdomen
2) left subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
3) right subcostal region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
4) right lateral region of the anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
459.
The urinary bladder projects on the:
1) umbilical region of anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
2) pubic region of anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
3) left ilioinguinal region of anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
4) right ilioinguinal region of anterio- lateral wall of abdomen
460.
On the anterio- lateral wall of the abdomen, Thomson's fascia is the :
1) superficial fascia of the abdomen
2) superficial leaf of the deep fascia of the abdomen
3) deep leaf of the superficial fascia of the abdomen
4) deep fascia of the abdomen
461.
The inguinal {Poupart's} ligament is formed by the:
1) aponeurosis of transverse muscle of abdomen
2) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of the abdomen
3) aponeurosis of internal oblique muscle of the abdomen
4) aponeurosis of rectus muscle of abdomen
462.
The rectus muscle of the abdomen has
1) 1–2 tendinous intersections
2) 2–3 tendinous intersections
3) 3–4 tendinous intersections
4) 4–5 tendinous intersections
463.
The anterior wall of the vagina of rectus muscle of the abdomen, above
the navel level, is formed by the :
1) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and internal oblique muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
3) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
4) all of the above
464.
The posterior wall of the vagina of rectus muscle of the abdomen,
above the navel level, is formed by the :
1) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and internal oblique muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
3) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
4) all of the above
465.
The anterior wall of the vagina of the rectus muscle of the abdomen,
below the navel level, is formed by the :
1) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and internal oblique muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
3) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
4) all of the above
466.
The posterior wall of the vagina of the rectus muscle of the abdomen
below the navel level, is formed by the :
1) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and internal oblique muscle of the abdomen
2) transverse fascia
3) aponeurosis of external oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
4) all of the above
467.
On the anterio- lateral wall of the abdomen, between the transverse
fascia and the peritoneum is located the:
1) rectus muscle of the abdomen
2) preperitoneal cellulose
3) inguinal {Poupart's} ligament
4) linea alba of the abdomen
468.
The width of the linea alba, in the middle between the navel and the xiphoid
process is
1) 1 cm
2) 1,5 cm
3) 2 cm
4) 2, 5 cm
469.
The width of the linea alba of the abdomen at the level of navel is:
1) 1-1,5 cm
2) 1,5-2 cm
3) 2-2, 5 cm
4) 2, 5-3 cm
470.
The width of the linea alba of the abdomen below the navel is:
1) 1-1,5 mm
2) 1,5-2 сm
3) 2-2, 5 сm
4) 2-3 mm
471.
The round ligament of the liver is formed from the:
1) overgrown urinary duct
2) overgrown umbilical vein
3) overgrown umbilical artery
4) umbilical vein and artery
472.
The segmental vessels and nerves on anterior lateral wall of abdomen pass
1) Between
the external oblique muscle and l internal oblique muscle of the abdomen
2) Between the internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
3) Between the external oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
4) all of the above.
473.
Anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the:
1) inferior border of the internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle of the abdomen
3) transversus fascia
4) inguinal {Poupart's} ligament
474.
Posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the :
1) inferior border of the internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle of the abdomen
3) transverse fascia
4) inguinal {Poupart's} ligament
475.
Anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the:
1) inferior border of the internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle of the abdomen
3) transverse fascia
4) inguinal {Poupart's} ligament
476.
Inferior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the :
1) inferior border of the internal oblique muscle and transverse muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle of the abdomen
3) transverse fascia
4) inguinal {Poupart's} ligament
477.
The inguinal interspace is limited by the:
1) anterior and posterior walls of the inguinal canal
2) superior and inferior walls of the inguinal canal
3) anterior and inferior walls of the inguinal canal
4) posterior and superior walls of the inguinal canal
478.
Base of the external opening of the inguinal canal is formed by the:
1) inguinal {Poupart's} ligament
2) rectus muscle of the abdomen
3) pubic bone
4) spermatic cord (round ligament of the uterus)
479.
The external inguinal ring is limited by the:
1) aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle of the abdomen
2) aponeurosis of the internal oblique muscle of the abdomen
3) aponeurosis of the transverse muscle of the abdomen
4) aponeurosis of rectus muscle of the abdomen
480.
The internal opening of the inguinal canal in projection corresponds to
the :
1) suprasvesical fossa
2) lateral inguinal fossa
3) medial inguinal fossa
4) vascular lacuna
481.
Through the inguinal canal pass the:
1) Ilioinguinal nerve and the genital ramus of the genitofemoral nerve
2) Ilioinguinal nerve
3) genital ramus of the genitofemoral nerve
4) genitofemoral nerve
482.
Median umbilical fold of the peritoneum is formed:
1) over the umbilical artery
2) over the urinary duct
3) over the inferior epigastric artery and vein
4) over the umbilical vein
483.
Medial umbilical folds of the peritoneum are formed:
1) over the umbilical artery
2) over the urinary duct
3) over the inferior epigastric artery and vein
4) over the umbilical vein
484.
Lateral umbilical folds of the peritoneum are formed:
1) over the umbilical artery
2) over the urinary duct
3) over the inferior epigastric artery and vein
4) over the umbilical vein
485.
The supravesical fossa is located:
1) between the median and medial folds of the peritoneum
2) between medial and lateral folds of the peritoneum
3) outwardly from the lateral fold of the peritoneum
4) more medial than the medial fold of the peritoneum
486.
Medial inguinal fossa is located:
1) between the median and medial folds of the peritoneum
2) between medial and lateral folds of the peritoneum
3) outwardly from the lateral fold of the peritoneum
4) more medial than the medial fold of the peritoneum
487.
Lateral inguinal fossa is located:
1) between the median and medial folds of the peritoneum
2) between medial and lateral folds of the peritoneum
3) outwardly from the lateral fold of the peritoneum
4) more medial than the medial fold of the peritoneum
488.
In the case of congenital inguinal hernia, the hernial sac is
1) the parietal peritoneum
2) the vaginal process of peritoneum
3) the visceral peritoneum
4) transverse fascia
489.
Congenital inguinal hernia differs from acquired inguinal hernia by
presence of:
1) caecum in the hernial sac
2) testicle in the hernial sac
3) small intestine in the hernial sac
4) greater {gastrocolic} omentum
490.
When one of the walls of the hernial sac is formed by an hollow organ, the
hernia is called:
1) congenital
2) sliding
3) incarcerated
4) strangulated
491.
Direct inguinal hernia passes through the
1) lateral inguinal fossa
2) medial inguinal fossa
3) supravesical fossa
4) all of the above
492.
Slanting inguinal hernia passes through the :
1) lateral inguinal fossa
2) medial inguinal fossa
3) supravesical fossa
4) all of the above
493.
In the case of direct hernia, the plasty that is usually applied is the:
1) plasty of inguinal canal by I. Spasokukotsky
2) plasty of inguinal canal by A.M.Kimbarovsky
3) plasty of inguinal canal by Bassini
4) plasty of inguinal canal by Ru-Krasnobayev
494.
The wall of the inguinal canal that becomes stronger in the case of slanting
hernia is the :
1) superior wall
2) inferior wall
3) posterior wall
4) anterior wall
495.
The wall of the inguinal canal that becomes stronger in the case of the direct
hernia is the :
1) superior wall
2) inferior wall
3) posterior wall
4) anterior wall
496.
In the case of congenital inguinal hernia, the procedure that is not carried
out is the :
1) uncovering and elimination of hernial sac
2) excision and removal of hernial sac
3) opening of hernial sac
4) strengthening of the external abdominal ring
497.
For strengthening of the deep ring of the femoral canal, in the case of
femoral hernias according to Bassini, we use:
1) suturing of the medial part of the inguinal ligament to the superior wall of the inguinal canal
2) suturing of the medial part of the inguinal ligament to the pectineal ligament
3) corrugated suturing on the anterior wall of the inguinal canal
4) corrugated suturing on the broad fascia of femur
498.
In the case of sliding hernia, the procedure that is not carried out is:
1) elimination of hernial sac
2) opening of hernial sac
3) ligation of hernial sac
4) plasty of inguinal canal
499.
In the case of umbilical hernias, the plasty that is usually applied is:
1) Martynov’s method
2) Mayo’s method
3) Bassini’s method
4) Kukudzhanov’s method
500.
The most modern surgery in the case of external abdominal hernia is:
1) strengthening of inguinal canal by Kimbarovsky
2) endoscopic strengthening of inguinal canal
3) strengthening of inguinal canal with the use of fascia
4) strengthening of inguinal canal by Martynov
501.
In the case of small umbilical hernias ( more often in children) , the
plasty that is more commonly applied is:
1) Martynov’s method
2) Mayo’s method
3) Lekser’s method
4) Kukudzhanov’s method
502.
For dissection of the linea alba of the abdomen, the incision on the
anterior abdominal wall is:
1) paramedial incision
2) medial incision
3) pararectal incision
4) transrectal incision
503.
For dissection of the medial area of vagina of the rectus muscle of the
abdomen, the incision on the anterior abdominal wall is :
1) paramedial incision
2) medial incision
3) pararectal incision
4) transrectal incision
504.
For dissection of the lateral area of the vagina of the rectus muscle of
the abdomen, the incision carried out on the anterior abdominal wall is :
1) paramedial incision
2) medial incision
3) pararectal incision
4) transrectal incision
505.
For dissection of the rectus muscle of the abdomen between its
intersection, the incision carried out on the anterior abdominal wall is:
1) paramedial incision
2) medial incision
3) pararectal incision
4) transrectal incision
506.
Alternating oblique incision on the abdominal wall is:
1) Lennander’s incision
2) Volkovich – Dyakonov’s incision
3) Fedorov’s incision
4) Rio Branko’s incision
507.
The incision carried out commonly on the abdominal wall, while performing
operations on the liver and gall bladder is:
1) Lennander’s incision
2) Volkovich – Dyakonov’s incision
3) Fedorov’s incision
4) Rio Branko’s incision
508.
The most physiological incision on the abdominal wall is:
1) paramedial incision of anterior abdominal wall
2) medial incision of anterior abdominal wall
3) pararectal incision of anterior abdominal wall
4) alternating oblique incision
509.
While performing medial incision on the abdominal wall, the navel is
bypassed:
1) on the right
2) on the left
3) from above
4) from below
510.
While performing appendectomy on abdominal wall, the incision that is
carried out commonly is :
1) Kokher’s incision
2) Volkovich – Dyakonov’s incision
3) Fedorov’s incision
4) Pfannenshtil’s incision
511.
During the formation of external hernia on the anterior lateral wall of the
abdomen, the contents of hernia is the :
1) hernial sac
2) organ
3) subcutaneous cellulose
4) parietal peritoneum
512.
During the formation of hernias, the «weak place» on the abdominal wall
is the :
1) hernial sac
2) hernial contents
3) hernial hilum
4) all of the above
513.
Internal opening of the inguinal canal projects on the inguinal {Poupart's}
ligament:
1) 1 - 1,5 cm below its middle part
2) 1-1,5 cm above its middle part
3) 2-2,5 cm below its middle part
4) 2-2,5 cm above its middle part
514.
Inwards from the deep opening of inguinal canal is located the:
1) obliterated urinary duct
2) obliterated umbilical arteries
3) inferior epigastric arteries
4) deferent duct
515.
Semilunar line is formed in the place of transition
1) of external oblique muscle of the abdomen into the aponeurosis
2) of internal oblique muscle of the abdomen into the aponeurosis
3) of transverse muscle of the abdomen into the aponeurosis
4) tendinous intersection of rectus muscle of the abdomen
516.
Hernias of the linea alba of the abdomen more often occurs
1) above navel
2) below navel
3) near navel
4) above and near navel
TOPOGRAPHY OF THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY
517.
Internally the abdominal cavity is limited by:
1) endoabdominal fascia
2) visceral peritoneum
3) parietal peritoneum
4) diaphragm and terminal line
518.
Internally the peritoneal cavity is limited by:
1) peritoneal fascia
2) visceral peritoneum
3) parietal peritoneum
4) endoabdominal fascia visceral
519.
The omental foramen is anteriorly bordered by:
1) hepatoduodenal ligament
2) proximal parts of duodenum
3) caudate process of liver
4) inferior vena cava
520.
The omental foramen is limited posteriorly by:
1) hepatoduodenal ligament
2) proximal parts of duodenum
3) caudate process of liver
4) inferior vena cava
521.
The omental foramen is limited superiorly by:
1) hepatoduodenal ligament
2) proximal parts of duodenum
3) caudate process of liver
4) inferior vena cava
522.
The omental foramen is limited inferiorly by:
1) hepatoduodenal ligament
2) proximal parts of duodenum
3) caudate process of liver
4) inferior vena cava
523.
The omental bursa is limited superiorly by:
1) stomach and lesser omentum
2) caudate process of liver and diaphragm
3) transverse mesocolon
4) parietal peritoneum covering the pancreas
524.
The omental bursa is limited inferiorly by:
1) stomach and lesser omentum
2) caudate process of liver and diaphragm
3) transverse mesocolon
4) parietal peritoneum covering the pancreas
525.
The omental bursa is limited anteriorly by:
1) stomach and lesser omentum
2) caudate process of liver and diaphragm
3) transverse mesocolon
4) parietal peritoneum covering the pancreas
526.
The omental bursa is limited posteriorly by:
1) stomach and lesser omentum
2) caudate process of liver and diaphragm
3) transverse mesocolon
4) parietal peritoneum covering the pancreas
527.
The organ that lies on the posterior wall of the omental bursa is:
1) liver
2) stomach
3) pancreas
4) transverse colon
528.
The organ that lies on the anterior wall of the omental bursa is:
1) liver
2) stomach
3) pancreas
4) transverse colon
529.
The middle part of the lesser omental is formed of:
1) gastrophrenic ligament
2) hepatoduodenal ligament
3) hepatogastric ligament
4) triangular ligament
530.
The ligament that makes the left part of the lesser omentum is:
1) gastrophrenic right
2) hepatoduodenal
3) hepatogastric
4) triangular
531.
The ligament that makes the right part of lesser omentum is:
1) gastrophrenic
2) hepatoduodenal
3) hepatogastric
4) triangular
532.
The artery that passes through the hepatogastric ligament:
1) left gastric artery
2) right gastric artery
3) right and left gastric artery
4) hepatic artery
533.
To the right side through the hepatoduodenal ligament is located:
1) hepatic artery
2) portal vein
3) common bile duct
4) celiac trunk
534.
To the left side through the hepatoduodenal ligament is located:
1) hepatic propria artery
2) portal vein
3) common bile duct
4) celiac trunk
535.
In the middle and in the back, through the hepatoduodenal ligament passes
the:
1) hepatic artery
2) portal vein
3) common bile duct
4) celiac trunk
536.
The ligament through which the short gastric arteries and veins passes
is:
1) gastro-phrenic
2) hepatoduodenal
3) gastrosplenic
4) triangular
537.
The right mesenteric sinus on the right is limited by the:
1) ascending colon
2) transverse mesocolon
3) mesenteric root
4) descending colon
538.
The right mesenteric sinus is bordered inferiorly and on the left by the:
1) ascending colon
2) transverse mesocolon
3) mesenteric root
4) descending colon
539.
The right mesenteric sinus is limited superiorly by:
1) ascending colon
2) transverse mesocolon
3) mesenteric root
4) descending colon
540.
The left mesenteric sinus on the right is limited by:
1) ascending colon
2) transverse mesocolon
3) mesenteric root
4) descending colon, root of mesentery of sigmoid colon
541.
The left mesenteric sinus is superiorly limited by the:
1) ascending colon
2) transverse mesocolon
3) mesenteric root
4) descending colon, mesenteric root of sigmoid colon
542.
The left mesenteric sinus is limited on the left by the:
1) ascending colon
2) transverse mesocolon
3) mesenteric root
4) descending colon, mesenteric root of sigmoid colon
543.
The peritoneal formation through which pus or blood spreads from top
of the abdominal cavity downwards usually is:
1) right lateral canal
2) left lateral canal
3) right mesenteric sinus
4) left mesenteric sinus
544.
Pus or blood spreads from the upper part of the abdominal cavity to the
lower part, often through the:
1) right lateral canal
2) left lateral canal
3) right mesenteric sinus
4) left mesenteric sinus
545.
On the peritoneal floor of the pelvis passes:
1) omental bursa
2) pregastric bursa
3) right mesenteric sinus
4) left mesenteric sinus
546.
In the peritoneal floor of the pelvis passes:
1) omental bursa
2) pregastric bursa
3) right mesenteric sinus
4) left lateral canal
547.
The highest point of the right lobe of the liver projects at the level of:
1) The IV intercostal space along the right mediaclavicular line
2) The V intercostal space along the right mediaclavicular line
3) The VI intercostal space along the right mediaclavicular line
4) The III intercostal space along the right mediaclavicular line
548.
The highest point of the left lobe of the liver projects at the level of:
1) The IV intercostal space along the left parasternal line
2) The V intercostal space along the left parasternal line
3) The VI intercostal space along the left parasternal line
4) The III intercostal space along the left parasternal line
549.
Along the middle axillary line, the lower part of the liver projects at the
level of:
1) X intercostal space
2) IX intercostal space
3) XI intercostal space
4) XII intercostal space
550.
At what level between the navel and the base of the xiphoid process, does the
lower part of the liver projected along the medial line?
1) top one-third
2) medial one-third
3) middle one third
4) lower one-third
551.
The surface of the liver deprived of peritoneum is:
1) lateral
2) superior
3) medial
4) posterior
552.
The stomach lies on the:
1) upper surface of the liver
2) anterior margin of the liver
3) posterior margin of the liver
4) lower surface of the liver
553.
Abdominal part of the esophagus lies on the:
1) upper surface of the liver
2) anterior margin of the liver
3) posterior margin of the liver
4) lower surface of the liver
554.
The superior horizontal part of the duodenum lies on the:
1) upper surface of the liver
2) anterior margin of the liver
3) posterior margin of the liver
4) lower surface of the liver
555.
The aorta lies on the:
1) upper surface of the liver
2) anterior margin of the liver
3) posterior margin of the liver
4) lower surface of the liver
556.
The ligament of the liver that intersects with the round ligament with
it’s anterior part is:
1) coronary ligament
2) falciform ligament
3) hepatocolic ligament
4) triangular ligament
557.
The relation of peritoneum to the liver is:
1) extraperitoneally
2) intraperitoneally
3)mesoperitoneally
4) retroperitoneal
558.
Venous blood is brought to the liver by:
1) right hepatic vein
2) left hepatic vein
3) portal vein
4) of the above
559.
The segments of the liver according to Quino’s portal system is:
1) 6
2) 7
3) 8
4) 9
560.
The projection of the fundus of the gall bladder is at the:
1) crossing of lateral side of the rectus muscle with the costal arch
2) level of the cartilage of the X-th rib
3) crossing of the costal arch with the anterior axillary line
4) crossing of the costal arch with the middle-clavicular line
561.
The body of the gall bladder usually lies on the:
1) duodenum
2) transverse colon
3) pyloric part of the stomach
4) right kidney
562.
The first part of the common bile duct is called:
1) duodenal
2) supraduodenal
3) retroduodenal
4) pancreatic
563.
The fourth part of the common bile duct is called:
1) duodenal
2) supraduodenal
3) retroduodenal
4) pancreatic
564.
The second part of the common bile duct is called:
1) duodenal
2) supraduodenal
3) retroduodenal
4) pancreatic
565.
The third part of the common bile duct is called
1) duodenal
2) supraduodenal
3) retroduodenal
4) pancreatic
566.
Biliary- enteric anastomosis is the anastomosis between the:
1) bile duct and the duodenum
2) bile duct and the jejunum
3) bile duct and the stomach
4) all of the above
567.
Cholecystostomy is the:
1) removal of the gall bladder
2) resection of the gall bladder
3) imposition of the fistula of the gall bladder
4) opening of the gall bladder
568.
Cholecystectomy is the:
1) removal of the gall bladder
2) resection of the gall bladder
3) imposition of the fistula of the gall bladder
4) opening of the gall bladder
569.
Cholecystotomy is the:
1) removal of the gall bladder
2) resection of the gall bladder
3) imposition of the fistula of the gall bladder
4) opening of the gall bladder
570.
The distance of the needle from the margin of the liver, while sewing a
wound is:
1) 0,5 cm
2) 1 cm
3)0,5 -1 cm
4) 1,5- 2 cm
571.
The anastomosis usually executed while surgically treating portal hyper
tension is:
1) aortal- venous
2) spleno-renal
3) femuro- mesenteric
4) aortal- mesenteric
572.
The highest point of the fundus of the stomach projects at the level of the
1) upper edge of the IVth rib on the mediaclavicular line
2) lower edge of the Vth rib on the mediaclavicular line
3) upper edge of the VIth rib on the anterior axillary line
4) lower edge of the VIth rib on the mediaclavicular line
573.
The part of the stomach that is displaced during its filling is the:
1) lesser curvature and the cardiac opening
2) pylorus and the greater curvature
3) fundus
4) cardiac part
574.
The anterior wall of the stomach is formed by the:
1) transverse colon
2) duodenum
3) liver
4) all of the above
575.
The greater curvature of the stomach is bordered by the:
1) transverse colon
2) duodenum
3) liver
4) spleen
576.
The part of the stomach that is bordered by the pancreas, right kidney,
spleen, supra renal gland is the:
1) anterior part
2) posterior part
3) greater curvature
4) lesser curvature
577.
Lesser curvature of the stomach borders with the:
1) transverse colon
2) duodenum
3) left lobe of the liver
4) right lobe of the liver
578.
The part of the stomach that is fixed by the gastro hepatic ligament is:
1) fundus
2) lesser curvature
3) pyloric part
4) greater curvature
579.
The part of the stomach connected to the spleen by the gastro-lienal
ligament is:
1) fundus
2) lesser curvature
3) pyloric part
4) greater curvature
580.
The part of the stomach connected with the transverse colon by the
gastrocolic ligament is:
1) fundus
2) lesser curvature
3) pyloric part
4) greater curvature
581.
The vessels that reach the fundus of the stomach from the side of the
spleen is
1) the gastric artery and the vein
2) the right gastric artery and the vein
3) left gastro epiploic artery and the vein
4) the short gastric artery and the vein
582.
The artery that passes along the lesser curvature of the stomach is :
1) the left gastric
2) the right gastro epiploic
3) the left gastro epiploic
4) the short gastric
583.
The artery that passes along the greater curvature of the stomach is
the:
1) the left gastric
2) the left epiploic
3) the left gastro epiploic
4) the short gastric
584.
The venous blood from the stomach flows into the:
1) superior vena cava
2) inferior vena cava
3) portal vein
4) superior and inferior vena cava
585.
The trunk of the right vagus nerve passes along the:
1) lesser curvature of the stomach
2) anterior wall of the stomach
3) greater curvature of the stomach
4) posterior wall of the stomach
586.
The trunk of the left vagus nerve passes along the :
1) lesser curvature of the stomach
2) anterior wall of the stomach
3) greater curvature of the stomach
4) posterior wall of the stomach
587.
Gastrostomy is the:
1) opening of the stomach
2) imposition of the fistula
3) removal of a part of the stomach
4) closing of a wound in the stomach
588.
Gastrotomy is the:
1) opening of the stomach
2) imposition of the fistula
3) removal of a part of the stomach
4) closing of a wound in the stomach
589.
Stomach resection is the:
1) opening of the stomach
2) imposition of the fistula
3) removal of a part of the stomach
4) closing of a wound in the stomach
590.
Gastrectomy is the:
1) opening of the stomach
2) imposition of the fistula
3) removal of a part of the stomach
4) removal of the stomach
591.
The first stage in the resection of the stomach is:
1) stomach transection
2) stomach mobilization
3) anastomosis between the gastric stump and the small intestine
4) making an opening in the stomach
592.
The second stage in the resection of the stomach is:
1) stomach transection
2) stomach mobilization
3) anastomosis between the gastric stump and the small intestine
4) making an opening in the stomach
593.
During the resection of the stomach, the gastric stump is connected to the
duodenal by:
1) Goffmeyer-Finsterer's method
2) Rachel- Polia's method
3) Bilroth 1 method
4) all of the above
594.
During the resection of the stomach, the gastric stump is connected to the
jejunal stump by:
1) Goffmeyer-Finsterer's method
2) Rachel- Polia's method
3) Bilroth 2 method
4) all of the above
595.
The most physiological method of the resection of the stomach is:
1) Goffmeyer-Finsterer's method
2) Rachel- Polia's method
3) Bilroth 1 method
4) all of the above
596.
The proximal segment of the duodenum is:
1) horizontal
2) descending
3) superior
4) inferior
597.
The reference point that marks the transition of the duodenum into the
jejunum is:
1) bulb of duodenum
2) gastroduodenal artery
3) Tretiz's ligament
4) pancreatic duct
598.
The caput of the pancreas projects on the lumbar vertebra:
1) L 1
2) L 2
3) L 3
4) L 4
599.
The tail of the pancreas projects on the lumbar vertebra:
1) L 1
2) L 2
3) L 3
4) L 4
600.
The pancreas in relation to the peritoneum is located:
1) intraperitoneally
2) mesoperitoneally
3) extraperitoneally
4) different parts are differently related
601.
The pancreas lies in the:
1) pregastric bursa of the abdominal cavity
2) omental bursa of the abdominal cavity
3) hepatic bursa of the abdominal cavity
4) all of the above
602.
To the anterior surface of the pancreas adjoins:
1) stomach
2) spleen
3) left lobe of the liver
4) duodenum
603.
The upped pole of the spleen on the scapular line projects to the left of
the:
1) IX rib
2) X rib
3) XI rib
4) XII rib
604.
The lower pole of the spleen on the anterior axillary line projects to the
left of the:
1) IX rib
2) X rib
3) XI rib
4) XII rib
605.
The internal surface of the spleen is adjoined by the:
1) left lobe of a liver
2) splenic curvature of colon
3) stomach
4) caput of the pancreas
606.
To the external surface of the spleen lies the:
1) left lobe of the liver
2) splenic curvature of the colon
3) costal part of the diaphragm
4) lateral part of abdominal wall
607.
The part of a spleen that is not covered by peritoneum is:
1) upper pole
2) lower pole
3) hilum
4) posterior surface
608.
The largest branch of the coeliac trunk is the:
1) common hepatic artery
2) splenic artery
3) the left gastric artery
4) superior mesenteric artery
609.
In relation to the median line, the loops of jejunum are located
1) to the right
2) to the front and to the right
3) to the left
4) behind and to the left
610.
In relation to the median line, the loops of ileum are located:
1) to the right
2) to the front and to the right
3) to the left
4) behind and to the left
611.
The loops of small intestine are bordered superiorly by the:
1) caecum
2) transverse colon
3) sigmoid and rectum
4) descending and sigmoid colon
612.
The loops of small intestine are bordered on the right by the:
1) greater omentum and anterior wall of abdomen
2) cecum and ascending colon
3) sigmoid and rectum
4) descending and sigmoid colon
613.
The root of mesentery is attached:
1) to the left of Ist lumbar vertebra
2) to the right of the II nd lumbar vertebra
3) to the left of the II rd lumbar vertebra
4) to the right of the I st lumbar vertebra
614.
The less mobile part of the small intestine is:
1) the proximal part
2) the distal part
3) the proximal and middle parts
4) the proximal and the distal parts
615.
The small intestine is covered by the peritoneum:
1) extraperitoneally
2) mesoperitoneally
3) intraperitoneally
4) different departments are differently
616.
The blood supply to the small intestine is through the:
1) celiac trunk
2) enteric arteries
3) superior mesenteric artery
4) inferior mesenteric artery
617.
The innervation of the small intestine is through the branches of the:
1) celiac plexus
2) superior mesenteric plexus
3) inferior mesenteric plexus
4) all of the above
618.
The longitudinal muscles are located in the form of muscular tapes in:
1) small intestine
2) iliac
3) large intestine
4) spleen
619.
The swelling alternates with circular sulci in:
1) small intestine
2) only transverse colon
3) large intestine
4)only sigmoid colon
620.
Epiploic appendages are found in:
1) the small intestine
2) only transverse colon
3) large intestine
4)only sigmoid colon
621.
Mac Burney's point is :
1) the middle of spinoumbilical line
2) border between the external and middle one-third of the spinoumbilical line
3) border between the internal and middle one-third of the spinoumbilical line
4) external one-third of the spinoumbilicas line
622.
Lants's point is the:
1) middle of bispinal line
2) border between the external and middle one-third of the bispinal line
3) border between the internal and middle one-third of the bispinal line
4) external one-third of the bispinal line
623.
The relation of caecum to peritoneum?
1) intraperitoneally
2) mesoperitoneally
3) extraperitoneally
4) in different ways
624. How with a peritoneum the vermiform appendix more often is covered?
1) intraperitoneally
2) mesoperitoneally
3) extraperitoneally
4) differently
625.
At what provision of a vermiform appendix it has no mesentery?
1) subhepatic
2) the pelvic
3) the medial
4) retroperitoneal
626.
From what segment of a caecum the vermiform appendix more often begins?
1) bottom
2) the forward
3) interposterior
4) the back
627.
On what reference point it is possible to find the basis of a vermiform
appendix?
1) bottom of a caecum
2) longitudinal tapes (tenia libera)
3) epiploic appendages
4) ileum
628.
What sign allows to distinguish a caecum from transverse colon and sigmoid
intestinal?
1) absence of muscular tapes
2) absence of bloating
3) absence of epiploic appendages
4) all listed
629.
Where in the field of an ileocaecal angle there are peritoneum pockets?
1) from above ileum
2) below a ileum
3) behind a ileum
4) all listed
630.
What artery ileocaecal angle supplied with blood?
1) artery of an ascending colon
2) average colon artery
3) iliocolic artery
4) all listed
631.
How the ascending colon is covered with a peritoneum?
1) mesoperitoneally
2) extraperitoneally
3) intraperitoneally
4) different sites are differently
632.
At what level the highest point of hepatic curvature of an colon is projected?
1) cartilage of the IX rib on the right
2) cartilage of the X-th rib on the right
3) cartilage of the XI rib on the right
4) cartilage of the VIII rib on the right
633.
At what level the highest point of curvature of spleen an colon is projected?
1) cartilage of the IX rib at the left
2) cartilage of the X-th rib at the left
3) cartilage of the XI rib at the left
4) cartilage of the VIII rib at the left
634.
How relatively each other are located right and left curvature of an colon?
1) right above the left
2) left above the right
3) at one level
4) right it is more straight
635.
How transverse colon is covered with a peritoneum?
1) mesoperitoneally
2) extraperitoneally
3) intraperitoneally
4) different sites are differently
636.
What departments of a thick intestine have a mesentery?
1) ascending and descending colon
2) transverse colon and sigmoid
3) the sigmoid and descending colon
4) the caecum and ascending colon
637.
Where there is recessus intersigmoideus?
1) at the beginning of a sigmoid intestine
2) place of transition of a sigmoid intestine in a straight line
3) between a fold of a peritoneum and a mesentery of sigmoid colon
4) in the center of a mesentery of a sigmoid intestine
638.
What suture of bodies carry to category of the intestinal?
1) esophagus
2) stomach
3) intestine
4) all listed
639.
At what performance from the listed intestinal suture the needle is
carried out only through muscular and serous covers?
1) Cherney
2) Albert
3) Shmiden
4) Lambert
640.
At what performance from the listed intestinal suture the needle is
carried out through all layers of an intestinal wall?
1) Cherney
2) Albert
3) Shmiden
4) Lambert
641.
At what performance from the listed intestinal suture the needle is
carried out only through muscular, serous and sub mucosal layers?
1) Pirogov
2) Albert
3) Shmiden
4) Lambert
642.
What of the listed intestinal suture the one-layer?
1) Cherney
2) Albert
3) Lambert
4) all listed
643.
What of the listed intestinal suture the two-layer?
1) by Pirogov-Bir
2) by Albert
3) by Lambert
4) all listed
644.
What layer of an intestinal wall the strongest?
1) the serous
2) the muscular
3) sub mucosal
4) the mucous
645.
At what type of inter intestinal anastomosis narrowing of anastomosis is
more probable?
1) side to side
2) end to end
3) end to side
4) side to end
646.
At what type of inter intestinal anastomosis it is difficult to connect guts of
different diameter?
1) side to side
2) end to end
3) end to side
647.
What authors has offered one of widespread types of a gastrostomy?
1) Velfler
2) Gakker
3) Vittsel
4) Billroth
648.
What is gastroenteroanastomosis according to Velfleru-Brown?
1) forward retrocolon
2) forward anterocolon
3) back retrocolon
4) back anterocolon
649.
What is gastroenteroanastomosis according to Gakkeru-Petersen?
1) forward retrocolon
2) forward anterocolon
3) back retrocolon
4) back anterocolon
650.
What is the enterostomy?
1) opening of a small intestine
2) imposing of fistula of a small intestine
3) opening of a thick intestine
4) imposing anastomosis of small intestine
651.
What is the enterotomy?
1) opening of a small intestine
2) imposing of fistula of a small intestine
3) opening of a thick intestine
4) imposing anastomosis of small intestine
652.
What stage of an appendectomy is carried out after removal of a caecum in
an incisional wound?
1) cutting off of a vermiform appendix
2) mobilization of a vermiform appendix
3) immersion a appendicular stump in a dome of a caecum
4) imposing round the basis of a appendix of a purse-string suture
653.
Name organ is used for formation of artificial anus by Maydl
1) caecum
2) descending colon
3) sigmoid colon
4) ascending colon
654.
Name hemostatic suture of a liver
1) by Pirogov
2) by Bilrot
3) by Kuznetsov-Pensky
4) by Mikulich
655.
When accessing the pancreas after opening the abdominal cavity is
performed
1) section of a lesser omentum
2) section of a mesenterium
3) section of gastrocolic ligament
4) section of gastropancreatic ligament
656.
While performing the retro colic gastro enteral anastomosis , the loop
of the small intestine are passed through:
1) lesser omentum
2) colic mesocolon
3) gastro colic ligament
4) gastro pancreatic ligament
657.
The pyloroplasty (operation draining the stomach) is
1) transplantation of the antrum
2) sectioning and suturing the antrum
3) connecting the greater omentum to the antrum
4) closure of the antrum
658.
Pyloroplasty carried out without opening the gastric mucosa is by:
1) Jabuley’s method
2) Heineke-mikulicz’s method
3) Finely’s method
4) Toprover’s method
659.
According to Quino’s portal system, the liver is divided into:
1) 5 lobes
2) 4 lobes
3) 3 lobes
4) 2 lobes
660.
Common hepatic artery branches into:
1)proper hepatic and gastrointestinal
2) proper hepatic and gastro-duodenal
3) proper hepatic and biliary
4) proper hepatic and right gastric
661.
Glisson’s triad of the liver is:
1) the branch of the portal vein, hepatic artery and bile duct
2) the branch of the hepatic vein, hepatic artery and bile duct
3) the branch of the portal vein, hepatic artery and lymphatic duct
4) the branch of the hepatic vein, hepatic artery and lymphatic duct
662.
Traub’s space corresponds to the:
1) pyloric segment of the stomach
2) body of the stomach
3) fundus of the stomach
4) greater curvature of the stomach
663.
Branches of the Ladarshe’s vagal nerves pass near to the:
1) pyloro-antral party of the stomach
2) body of the stomach
3) fundus of the stomach
4) greater curvature of the stomach
664.
The artery of a vermiform appendix branches from the:
1) a. colica media
2) a. iliocolica
3) a. colica dextra
4) a. colica sinistra
665.
Riolan's arch is formed between:
1) a. colica media and a. colica dextra
2) a. colica dextra and a. colica sinistra
3) a. colica sinistra and a. g colica media
4) a. colica media and a. iliocolica
LUMBAR AREA. RETROPERITONEAL SPACE
666.
Lumbar region is laterally bounded by
1) inferior posterior serratus muscle
2) iliac crest
3) 12th rib
4) Lesgaft’s line
667.
Lesgaft’s line extends
1) from ending of 10th rib to iliac crest
2) from ending of 11th rib to iliac crest
3) from ending of 12th rib to iliac crest
4) from ending of 10th rib to iliac spine
668.
Cases for the muscles of first and second layers of lumbar region form
1) fascia thoracospinalis
2) fascia thoracolumbalis
3) fascia intra-abdominalis
4) fascia quadratus
669.
In lumbar region genito-femoralis nerve goes
1) under fascia m. psoas major
2) under fascia m. quadratus lumborum
3) under fascia m. psoas minor
4) under fascia m. transversus
670.
Retro-peritoneal space is frontally bounded by
1) visceral peritoneum
2) fascia intra-abdominalis
3) parietal peritoneum
4) ascending and descending colon
671.
Floor of lumbar triangle is formed by
1) m. latissimus dorsi
2) m. obliqus abdominalis externa
3) m. obliqus abdominalis interna
4) iliac crest
672.
Retro-peritoneal space is bounded behind by
1) fascia endoabdominalis
2) fascia retro-renalis
3) fascia retro-intestinalis
4) fascia prerenalis and retro-renalis
673.
The kidneys have
1) 2 capsules
2) 3 capsules
3) 4 capsules
4) 1 capsule
674.
Renal bed is formed by
1) m. quadratus and m. isichi
2) m. quadratus and m. psoas
3) m. psoas and diaphragm
4) m. psoas and crista osis iliaci
675.
In the right renal vein opens
1) supra renal veins
2) upper polar renal vein
3) supra renal and left testicular (ovarian) veins
4) testicular (ovarian) veins
676.
Ureter is divided into
1) upper and lower parts
2) abdominal and retro-peritoneal parts
3) abdominal and pelvic parts
4) abdominal, retro-peritoneal and pelvic parts
677.
Behind the hilum of kidney lies
1) renal artery
2) renal pelvis
3) renal vein
4) renal nerve
678.
With respect to the vertebra, the abdominal aorta lies
1) in the front
2) on the left
3) on the right
4) different parts are differently located
679.
Pielotomy is
1) removal of kidney
2) dissection of renal pelvis
3) dissection of kidney
4) imposition of kidney fistula
680.
Nephropexia is
1) fixation of the kidney
2) dissection of renal pelvis
3) dissection of kidney
4) imposition of kidney fistula
681.
The world’s first kidney transplantation was carried out by
1) D. Murrey
2) Petrovski
3) Y.Y. Voronoi
4) M. Servell
682.
At the intercrossing of the outer margin of rectus muscle of abdomen
and costal arch, projects
1) upper pole of the kidney
2) hilum of the kidney
3) lower pole of the kidney
4) external margin of the kidney
683.
Into the left renal vein flows
1) suprarenal veins
2) veins on the upper pole of the kidney
3) suprarenal and left testicular (ovarian) vein
4) testicular (ovarian) veins
684.
The first constriction of the ureter is located
1) nearby its opening into urinary bladder
2) in the transition of pelvis into ureter
3) in its intercrossing with testicular (ovarian) vessel
4) in its intercrossing with iliac vessels
685.
The difference between right and left renal veins is that
1) right is much wider than left
2) left is shorter than right
3) left is much narrower than right
4) left is longer than right
686.
Ureter, above its intercrossing with iliac vessels lies near to the
1) ilioinguinal nerve
2) iliohypogastric nerve
3) genital-femoral nerve
4) all of the above
687.
The difference between right and left renal arteries is that
1) right is much wider than left
2) left is shorter than right
3) left is much narrower than right
4) right is shorter and narrower than right
688.
In the lumbar region, along the bisector angle formed by the margin go the
erector muscle of the spine and the iliac crest, the incision begins in accordance to
1) Bergman
2) Fedorova
3) Israel
4) Bergman-Israel
689.
Nephrectomy is
1) the removal of kidney
2) the dissection of renal pelvis
3) the dissection of kidney
4) the imposition of kidney fistula
690.
Bottom of Lesgaft-Grunfeld’s lumbar rhomb is formed by
1) internal oblique muscle of abdomen
2) erector muscle of spine
3) posterior inferior serratus muscle
4) aponeurosis of transverse muscle of abdomen
691.
In lumbar region, subcostal nerves pass
1) under fascia of m. psoas major
2) under fascia of m. quadratus lumborum
3) under fascia of m. psoas minor
4) under fascia of transverse muscle of abdomen
692.
Retro-peritoneal space is bounded posteriorly by
1) visceral peritoneum
2) endoabdominal fascia
3) parietal peritoneum
4) ascending and descending colons
693.
Lesgaft-Grunfeld’s lumbar rhomb is bounded below by
1) internal oblique muscle of abdomen
2) erector muscle of the spine
3) posterior inferior serratus muscle
4) 12th rib
694.
Retro-peritoneal fascia divides into
1) the fascia of m. quadratus and m. psoas major
2) intra-abdominal fascia and retro-peritoneal fascia
3) pre-renal and retro-renal fascia
4) pre-renal and intra-abdominal fascia
695.
Extra-peritoneal parts of ascending and descending colons are covered by
1) visceral peritoneum
2) intra-abdominal fascia
3) parietal peritoneum
4) retro-colic fascia
696.
Lumbar triangle is bounded below by
1) dorsal latissimus muscle
2) external oblique muscle of abdomen
3) internal oblique muscle of abdomen
4) iliac crest
697.
Para-renal cellulose space is anteriorly bounded by
1) intra-abdominal fascia
2) retro-renal fascia
3) retro-intestinally fascia
4) pre-renal fascia
698.
Right lobe of liver adjoins
1) the anterior-external margin of left kidney
2) internal margin of right kidney
3) anterior surface of left kidney
4) anterior surface of right kidney
699.
First capsule of kidney is called
1) fatty capsule
2) fibrous capsule
3) outer capsule
4) peritoneal capsule
700.
What is projected in the angle between external margin of erector
muscle of spine and 12th rib.
1) upper pole of kidney
2) hilum of kidney
3) lower pole of kidney
4) external margin of kidney
701.
Accessory renal arteries often pass
1) to the hilum of kidney
2) to the lower pole of kidney
3) to the upper pole of kidney
4) to the external margin of kidney
702.
Second constriction of ureter lies
1) nearby its entry into urinary bladder
2) on the transition of pelvis into ureter
3) on its intercrossing with testicular (ovarian) vessels
4) on its intercrossing with iliac vessels
703.
With respect to peritoneum, kidney is located
1) intraperitoneally
2) mesoperitoneally
3) extraperitoneally
4) different parts are differently located
704.
Outwardly from right ureter lies
1) internal margin of ascending colon
2) inferior vena cava
3) aorta
4) duodenum
705.
The main reference for performing the paranephral blockade is
th
1) 12 rib
2) vertebra
3) angle formed by the margin of erector muscle of spine and 12th rib.
4) all of the above
706.
The term “ortho-topic kidney transplant” means
1) kidney transplant in the pelvic area
2) experimental transplant of kidney
3) transplant of kidney in retro-peritoneal space
4) transplant of kidney in thigh (in experiment)
707.
Renal artery at the hilum of kidney divides into
1) inferior and superior arteries
2) anterior and posterior arteries
3) superior and anterior arteries
4) posterior and inferior arteries
708.
Third constriction of ureter lies
1) nearby its entry into urinary bladder
2) on the transition of pelvis into ureter
3) on its intercrossing with testicular (ovarian) vessels
4) on its intercrossing with iliac vessels
709.
In the middle of the hilum of kidney lies
1) renal artery
2) renal pelvis
3) renal vein
4) renal nerve
710.
On the level of celiac trunk lies
1) renal nerve plexus
2) celiac nerve plexus
3) superior mesenteric nerve plexus
4) all of the above
711.
In the lumbar region from the angle formed by the margin of erector muscle
of pine along the direction of navel, incision begins as per
1) Bergman
2) Fedorov
3) Israel
4) Bergman-Israel
712.
For the inferior vena cava, doesn’t include the inflow from
1) testicular (ovarian) vein
2) renal vein
3) portal vein
4) inferior phrenic vein
713.
While performing paranephral blockade Novocain is injected
1) sub cutaneous cellulose
2) para-colon cellulose space
3) retro-peritoneal cellulose layer
4) para-renal cellulose space
714.
Nephrotomy is
1) removal of the kidney
2) dissection of the renal pelvis
3) kidney dissection
4) imposition of kidney fistula
715.
While sewing the ureter, the layer that isn’t sewed is
1) the outer layer
2) the inner layer
3) the middle layer
4) the outer and the middle layers
716.
Ilio-hypogastric nerves on the lumbar region passes under
1) the fascia of m. psoas major
2) the fascia of m. quadratus lumborum
3) the fascia of m. psoas minor
4) 3) the fascia of m. transversus abdominis
717.
Lesgaft-Grunfeld’s lumbar rhomb is bounded above by
1) internal oblique muscle
2) erector muscle of the spine
3) posterior inferior serratus muscle
4) the 12th rib
718.
The first layer of the retro-peritoneal fat is
1) para-nephron
2) para-colon
3) textus cellulous retro-peritonealis
4) para-uretron
719.
Para--colon cellulose space is bounded posteriorly by
1) intra-abdominal fascia
2) retro-renal fascia
3) retro-intestinal fascia
4) pre-renal fascia
720.
Kidneys are located on the level of
1) Th11 – L3-4 vertebra
2) Th12 – L3-4 vertebra
3) Th11 – L1-2 vertebra
4) Th12 – L1-2 vertebra
721.
To the anterio-external margin of left kidney adjoins
1) spleen
2) liver
3) adrenal gland
4) gastric
722.
Second capsule of liver is called
1) fatty
2) fibrous
3) outer
4) peritoneal
723.
Closer to hilum of right kidney lies
1) aorta
2) adrenal gland
3) inferior vena cava
4) colon
724.
Lumbar region is bounded below by
1) posterior inferior serratus muscle
2) iliac crest
3) 12th rib
4) Lesgraft’s line
725.
Lumbar triangle is laterally bounded by
1) dorsal latissimus muscle
2) external oblique abdominal muscle
3) internal oblique abdominal muscle
4) iliac crest
726.
Lesgraft Grunfeld’s lumbar rhomb is bounded above and below by
1) internal oblique abdominal muscle
2) erector muscle of spine
3) posterior inferior serratus muscle
4) 12th rib
727.
Para--colon cellulose space is frontally bounded by
1) intra-abdominal fascia
2) retro-renal fascia
3) retro-colic fascia
4) pre-renal fascia
728.
Upper margin of right kidney lies on the level
th
1) of 11 rib
2) of 11th intercostal space
3) of 12th rib
4) below 12th rib
729.
To the upper pole of kidney adjoins
1) diaphragm
2) liver
3) adrenal gland
4) gastric
730.
Third capsule of kidney is called
1) fatty
2) fibrous
3) external
4) peritoneal
731.
Anterior branch of renal artery supplies blood
1) to small part of renal parenchyma
2) only to the region of hilum of kidney
3) to large part of renal parenchyma
4) only to the lower pole
732.
Left renal vein, while going to the hilum of left kidney lies
1) in front of the duodenum
2) behind aorta
3) in front of the inferior vena cava
4) in front of the aorta
733.
In front of the hilum of kidney lies
1) renal artery
2) renal pelvis
3) renal vein
4) renal nerve
734.
Bifurcation of aorta lies on the level of
1) 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebra
2) 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebra
3) 4th and 5th lumbar vertebra
4) 2nd sacral vertebra
735.
Beginning of inferior vena cava lies on the level of
nd
rd
1) 2 and 3 lumbar vertebra
2) 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebra
3) 4th and 5th lumbar vertebra
4) 2nd sacral vertebra
736.
Nephrostomy is
1) removal of the kidney
2) dissection of renal pelvis
3) dissection of kidney
4) imposition of kidney fistula
737.
During nephrectomy, the first element to be resected among the renal
pedicles is
1) renal artery
2) ureter
3) renal vein
4) has no value
738.
The term “hetero-tropic kidney transplant” means
1) kidney transplant in the pelvic area
2) transplant of foreign kidney
3) transplant of kidney in retro-peritoneal space
4) transplant of kidney in thigh (in experiment)
739.
First visceral branch of abdominal aorta is
1) diaphragmatic
2) superior mesenteric
3) celiac trunk
4) inferior mesenteric
740.
Lumbar region is bounded above by
1) posterior inferior serratus muscle
2) 11th rib
3) 12th rib
4) Lesgaft’s line
741.
Lumbar triangle is bounded medially by
1) dorsal latissimus muscle
2) external oblique abdominal muscle
3) internal oblique abdominal muscle
4) iliac crest
742.
The third layer of renal cellulose is
1) para--nephron
2) para--colon
3) textus cellulous retro-peritonealis
4) para-ureteric
743.
Retro-peritoneal cellulose space is bounded frontally by
1) intra-abdominal fascia
2) retro-renal fascia
3) retro-intestinal fascia
4) prerenal and retro-renal fascia
744.
Para-renal cellulose space is bounded form behind by
1) intra-abdominal fascia
2) retro-renal fascia
3) retro-intestinal fascia
4) prerenal fascia
745.
The upper margin of the left kidney is on the level
1) of 11th rib
2) of 11th intercostal space
3) of 12th rib
4) below 12th rib
746.
Gastric adjoins
1) to the upper pole of the left kidney
2) to the lower pole of the left kidney
3) to the anterior surface of the left kidney
4) to the hilum of the left kidney
747.
Closer to the hilum of the left kidney lies
1) aorta
2) adrenal gland
3) inferior vena cava
4) colon
748.
External capsule of kidney is formed by
1) parietal peritoneum
2) visceral peritoneum
3) intra-abdominal fascia
4) retro-peritoneal fascia
749.
Lesgaft-Grunfeld’s lumbar rhomb is bounded from inside by
1) internal oblique abdominal muscle
2) erector muscle of spine
3) posterior inferior serratus muscle
4) 12th rib
750.
Ilio-inguinal nerves in the lumbar region lies
1) under the fascia of m. psoas major
2) under the fascia of m. quadratus lumborum
3) under the fascia of m. psoas minor
4) under the fascia of m. transversus abdominalis
751.
The second layer of retro-peritoneal cellulose is
1) para-nephron
2) para-intestinal
3) textus cellulous retro-peritonealis
4) para-ureteric
752.
The difference between the right and left renal arteries is
1) right is much wider than the left
2) left is shorter than the right
3) left is much narrower than the right
4) right is shorter and narrower than the left.
753.
Medially from the right ureter lies
1) the inner margin of the ascending colon
2) inferior vena cava
3) aorta
4) duodenum
754.
Medially from left ureter lies
1) the inner margin of the descending colon
2) inferior vena cava
3) aorta
4) spleen
755.
Paired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta are
1) renal
2) medial suprarenal
3) testicular (ovarian)
4) all of the above
756.
PELVIS
Preperitoneal and prevesical cellular spaces are separated from each other
by
1) Peritoneal-perineal aponeurosis
2) Prevesical fascia
3) Transverse fascia
4) All of the above
757.
The unpaired artery of the rectum is
1) Inferior rectal artery
2) Superior rectal artery
3) Middle rectal artery
4) Internal pudendal artery
758.
Urovesical triangle is located
1) In the body of the urinal bladder
2) At the bottom of the urinal bladder
3) At the cervix of the bladder
4) At the apex of the urinal bladder
759.
In males the Retzii`s space consist of
1) Urinal bladder
2) Prostate gland
3) Seminal vesicles and vas deferens ampoules
4) All of the above
760.
How is the urinary bladder covered by the peritoneum?
1) Intraperitoneally
2) Mesoperitoneally
3) Extraperitoneally
4) Each part is covered in a different way
761.
The front lower aperture of the pelvis is limited by
1) Sacroiliac ligament
2) The ischia bone
3) The lower branches of the pubic bone
4) The pubic symphysis
762.
The distal part of the rectum is called
1) Perineal
2) Top
3) Pelvic
4) Initial
763.
The fascial capsule of Amusa is called
1) Capsule of the urinal bladder
2) Prostate capsule
3) Capsule of the rectum
4) Capsule of the vagina
764.
What is located in front of the urinal bladder?
1) Paravesical cellular spaces
2) Prevesical cellular spaces
3) Preperitonial cellular spaces
4) Preperitonial and prevesical cellular spaces
765.
How is an empty urinal cavity covered by the peritoneum?
1) Intraperitoneally
2) Mesoperitoneally
3) Extraperitoneally
4) Different parts are covered in different ways
766.
Voluntary sphincter of the rectum is
1) External
2) 1st internal
3) 2nd internal
4) External and 1st internal
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
767.
The proximal part of the rectum is called
Perineal
Top
Pelvic
Rectosigmoid
768.
Prostate ducts open into the
Vas deferens
Urinal bladder
Ureter
Seminal vesicles
769.
The internal iliac artery in men passes on
Lateral pelvic cellular spaces
Rectrorectalis pelvic cellular spaces
Paravesicalis pelvic cellular spaces
Prostate capsule
770.
The lateral pelvic cellular spaces are connected with the fiber bed of the
adductor muscles through
Obturator canal
Supra- and Subpiriforme holes
Fiber iliac fossae
Pudendal neurovascular bundle
771.
Which are the paired cellular spaces of the pelvis
Prevesical cellular spaces
Lateral cellular spaces
Retro rectal cellular spaces
Paravesical cellular spaces
772.
The upper aperture of the pelvis is formed by
The iliac crest
The wings of the ilium
The terminal’s line
The ischial tuberose
773.
The lower level of the pelvis is called
Subperitoneal
Peritoneal
Subcutaneous
Retropubic space
774.
The lateral pelvic cellular spaces connect with the fiber in the gluteal region
through
Obturatorius canal
Upper and Subpiriforme holes
Fiber of the iliac fossae
Pudendal neurovascular bundle
775.
The Peritoneum with the bladder in the female pelvis passes
On the rectum
On the cervix and posterior vaginal fornix
On the urethra
On the ovary
776.
The pelvic part of the rectum is divided into
The ampoule
The supra ampoule
The peritoneal and infra peritoneal parts
4) The ampoule and supra ampoule parts
777.
The bend of the rectum in the sagittal plane in its distal part is directed
1) From back to front
2) From front to back
3) From left to right
4) From right to left
778.
The Douglas space is called
1) Uterine recess
2) Utero-rectal recess
3) The ischio-rectal fossa
4) The fossa in front of the bladder
779.
The upper level of the pelvis is called
1) Sup peritoneal
2) Peritoneal
3) Subcutaneous
4) Retropubic space
780.
The peritoneum of the upper third of the rectum is
1) Covered mesoperitoneally
2) Covered intraperitoneally
3) Covered in front
4) Not covered
781.
The location of the uterus in relation to the main longitudinal axis
1) Is inclined posteriorly
2) Is inclined to the right
3) Is inclined anteriorly
4) Is inclined to the left
782.
The operation of removing part of the rectum is called
1) Resection of the rectum
2) Amputation of the rectum
3) Extirpate on of the rectum
4) The imposition of the preternatural anus
783.
The capillary puncture of the bladder is
1) On the upper side of the pubic symphysis
2) 2 cm above the pubic symphysis
3) 1 cm below the pubic symphysis
4) 7 cm above the pubic symphysis
784.
The ovaries are located
1) In the peritoneal level of the pelvis
2) In the sub peritoneal level of the pelvis
3) In subcutaneous level of the pelvis
4) In all the levels of the pelvis
785.
The cervix of the uterus is divided into
1) The bottom and the body
2) The vaginal and supra vaginal parts
3) The body and neck
4) The vaginal and subvaginal parts
786.
The incision for operations performed on the pelvic organs in women is
1) By McWhorther-Buyalsky
2) By Kupriyanov
3) By Pfannenstiel
4) By Volkovich-Diakonov
787.
The middle (second) pelvic level is called
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
1)
2)
3)
4)
Sub peritoneal
Peritoneal
Subcutaneous
Retropubic space
788.
The operation of removing the rectum with a closing device without restoring
it continuity is called
Resection of the rectum
Amputation of the rectum
Extirpation of the rectum
Imposition of the preternatural anus
789.
The internal iliac artery in women passes through
The lateral pelvic cellular spaces
The retro rectalis cellular spaces of the pelvis
The pararectales cellular spaces of the pelvis
The parauterine cellular spaces of the pelvis
790.
The point where the sigmoid colon becomes the rectum is determined
At the level of the V lumbar vertebra
At the level of the I sacral vertebra
At the level of the III sacral vertebra
At the terminal line
791.
In women between the rectum and the vagina in the sub peritoneal level of
the pelvis there is
Utero-vesico recess
Douglas space
Peritoneal-perineal aponeurosis
The urethra
792.
The prostate gland is located
In the peritoneal level of the pelvis
In the sub peritoneal level of the pelvis
In the subcutaneous level of the pelvis
On all the levels
793.
On all the pelvic levels lies
The bladder
The rectum
The prostate gland
The vagina
794.
The lowest part located on the peritoneal level of the pelvis in women is
Prevesical deepening of the peritoneum
Vesico-rectal deepening of the peritoneum
Retro rectal deepening of the peritoneum
Utero-rectal recess
795.
For the diagnosis of intraperitoneal bleeding of the peritoneal floor in women
we puncture
Prevesical deepening of the peritoneum
Vesico-rectal deepening of the peritoneum
Retrorectal deepening of the peritoneum
Utero-rectal recess
796.
The pelvic fascia is divided
Into the deep and superficial layers
Into the parietal and visceral layers
Into the deep and parietal layers
Into the superficial and visceral layers
797.
Venous blood from the rectum to the portal vein flows through
1) The lower rectal vein
2) The upper rectal vein
3) The middle rectal vein
4) The inner pudendal vein
798.
Morganie’s columns of the rectum are called
1) Transverse folds of mucous in the starting section
2) Longitudinal folds of mucous in the starting section
3) Transverse folds of mucous close to the anus
4) Longitudinal folds of mucous close to the anus
799.
Folds and the sub mucosal layer of the bladder are absent
1) On the body of the bladder
2) At the bottom of the bladder
3) On the neck of the bladder
4) At the apex of the bladder
800.
In front of the rectum in men lies
1) The prostate gland
2) The iliac artery
3) The vial vas deferens
4) The seminal vesicles
801.
At the back wall of the bladder in the sub peritoneal level in women lies
1) The urethra
2) The vagina
3) The rectum
4) The uterus
802.
The lowest part of the peritoneal level of the pelvis in men is
1) Pre bladder deepening of the peritoneum
2) Vesico-rectal deepening of the peritoneum
3) Post rectal deepening of the peritoneum
4) Pre peritoneal deepening of the peritoneum
803.
In relation to the neck of the uterus the uterus is
1) Inclined posteriorly
2) Inclined to the right
3) Inclined anteriorly
4) Inclined to the left
804.
The Fallopian tubes are covered with the peritoneum
1) Intraperitoneally
2) Mesoperitoneally
3) Extraperitoneally
4) Not covered by the peritoneum
805.
Between the rectum and the uterus of the peritoneal level in women
there is
1) Utero-vesico recess
2) Douglas space
3) Peritoneal-perinea aponeurosis
4) The vagina
806.
The operation of removing the distal portion of the rectum is called
1) Resection of the rectum
2) Amputation of the rectum
3) Extirpation of the rectum
4) Imposition of the preternatural anus